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• Hibernate 3.5.0 causes extreme performance problems

  - by user303396

  I've recently updated from hibernate 3.3.1.GA to hibernate 3.5.0 and I'm having a lot of performance issues. As a test, I added around 8000 entities to my DB (which in turn cause other entities to be saved). These entities are saved in batches of 20 so that the transactions aren't too large for performance reasons. When using hibernate 3.3.1.GA all 8000 entities get saved in about 3 minutes. When using hibernate 3.5.0 it starts out slower than with hibernate 3.3.1. But it gets slower and slower. At around 4,000 entities, it sometimes takes 5 minutes just to save a batch of 20. If I then go to a mysql console and manually type in an insert statement from the mysql general query log, half of them run perfect in 0.00 seconds. And half of them take a long time (maybe 40 seconds) or timeout with "ERROR 1205 (HY000): Lock wait timeout exceeded; try restarting transaction" from MySQL. Has something changed in hibernate's transaction management in version 3.5.0 that I should be aware of? The ONLY thing I changed to experience these unusable performance issues is replace the following hibernate 3.3.1.GA jar files: com.springsource.org.hibernate-3.3.1.GA.jar, com.springsource.org.hibernate.annotations-3.4.0.GA.jar, com.springsource.org.hibernate.annotations.common-3.3.0.ga.jar, com.springsource.javassist-3.3.0.ga.jar with the new hibernate 3.5.0 release hibernate3.jar and javassist-3.9.0.GA.jar. Thanks.

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• build an API service in Django

  - by Peter

  Hi all, I want to build an API service using Django. A basic workflow goes like this: First, an http request goes to http://mycompany.com/create.py?id=001&callback=http://callback.com. It will create a folder on the server with name 001. Second, if the folder does not exist, it will be created. You get response immediately in XML format. It will look like: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <response> <status> <statusCode>0</statusCode> <message>Success</message> </status> <group id="001"/> </response> Finally, the server will do its job (i.e. creating the folder). After it is done, the server does a callback to the URL provided. Currently, I use return render_to_response('create.xml', {'statusCode': statusCode, 'statusMessage': statusMessage, 'groupId': groupId, }, mimetype = 'text/xml') to send the XML response back. I have an XML template which has statusCode, statusMessage, groupId placeholders. <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <response> <status> <statusCode>{{ statusCode }}</statusCode> <message>{{ statusMessage }}</message> </status> {% if not statusCode %} <group id="{{ groupId }}"/> {% endif %} </response> But in this way I have to put step 3 before step 2, because otherwise step 3 will not be executed if it is after return statement. Can somebody give me some suggestions how to do this? Thanks.

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• Program repeats each time a character is scanned .. How to stop it ?

  - by ZaZu

  Hello there, I have a program that has this code : #include<stdio.h> main(){ int input; char g; do{ printf("Choose a numeric value"); printf(">"); scanf("\n%c",&input); g=input-'0'; }while((g>=-16 && g<=-1)||(g>=10 && g<=42)||(g>=43 && g<=79)); } It basically uses ASCII manipulation to allow the program to accept numbers only .. '0' is given the value 48 by default...the ASCII value - 48 gives a ranges of numbers above (in the while statement) Anyway, whenever a user inputs numbers AND alphabets, such as : abr39293afakvmienb23 The program ignores : a,b,r .. But takes '3' as the first input. For a b and r, the code under the do loop repeats. So for the above example, I get : Choose a numeric value >Choose a numeric value> Choose a numeric value >3 Is there a way I can stop this ??? I tried using \n%c to scan the character and account for whitespace, but that didnt work :( Please help thank you very much !

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• Doctrine - get the offset of an object in a collection (implementing an infinite scroll)

  - by dan

  I am using Doctrine and trying to implement an infinite scroll on a collection of notes displayed on the user's browser. The application is very dynamic, therefore when the user submits a new note, the note is added to the top of the collection straightaway, besides being sent (and stored) to the server. Which is why I can't use a traditional pagination method, where you just send the page number to the server and the server will figure out the offset and the number of results from that. To give you an example of what I mean, imagine there are 20 notes displayed, then the user adds 2 more notes, therefore there are 22 notes displayed. If I simply requests "page 2", the first 2 items of that page will be the last two items of the page currently displayed to the user. Which is why I am after a more sophisticated method, which is the one I am about to explain. Please consider the following code, which is part of the server code serving an AJAX request for more notes: // $lastNoteDisplayedId is coming from the AJAX request $lastNoteDisplayed = $repository->findBy($lastNoteDisplayedId); $allNotes = $repository->findBy($filter, array('createdAt' => 'desc')); $offset = getLastNoteDisplayedOffset($allNotes, $lastNoteDisplayedId); // retrieve the page to send back so that it can be appended to the listing $notesPerPage = 30 $notes = $repository->findBy( array(), array('createdAt' => 'desc'), $notesPerPage, $offset ); $response = json_encode($notes); return $response; Basically I would need to write the method getLastNoteDisplayedOffset, that given the whole set of notes and one particoular note, it can give me its offset, so that I can use it for the pagination of the previous Doctrine statement. I know probably a possible implementation would be: getLastNoteDisplayedOffset($allNotes, $lastNoteDisplayedId) { $i = 0; foreach ($allNotes as $note) { if ($note->getId() === $lastNoteDisplayedId->getId()) { break; } $i++; } return $i; } I would prefer not to loop through all notes because performance is an important factor. I was wondering if Doctrine has got a method itself or if you can suggest a different approach.

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• JoinColumn name not used in sql

  - by Vladimir

  Hi! I have a problem with mapping many-to-one relationship without exact foreign key constraint set in database. I use OpenJPA implementation with MySql database, but the problem is with generated sql scripts for insert and select statements. I have LegalEntity table which contains RootId column (among others). I also have Address table which has LegalEntityId column which is not nullable, and which should contain values referencing LegalEntity's "RootId" column, but without any database constraint (foreign key) set. Address entity is mapped: @Entity @Table(name="address") public class Address implements Serializable { ... @ManyToOne(fetch=FetchType.LAZY, optional=false) @JoinColumn(referencedColumnName="RootId", name="LegalEntityId", nullable=false, insertable=true, updatable=true, table="LegalEntity") public LegalEntity getLegalEntity() { return this.legalEntity; } } SELECT statement (when fetching LegalEntity's addresses) and INSERT statment are generated: SELECT t0.Id, .., t0.LEGALENTITY_ID FROM address t0 WHERE t0.LEGALENTITY_ID = ? ORDER BY t0.Id DESC [params=(int) 2] INSERT INTO address (..., LEGALENTITY_ID) VALUES (..., ?) [params=..., (int) 2] If I omit table attribute from mentioned statements are generated: SELECT t0.Id, ... FROM address t0 INNER JOIN legalentity t1 ON t0.LegalEntityId = t1.RootId WHERE t1.Id = ? ORDER BY t0.Id DESC [params=(int) 2] INSERT INTO address (...) VALUES (...) [params=...] So, LegalEntityId is not included in any of the statements. Is it possible to have relationship based on such referencing (to column other than primary key, without foreign key in database)? Is there something else missing? Thanks in advance.

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• Could DataGridView be this dumb? or its me?lol

  - by Selase

  Am trying to bind data to a dropdown list on pageload based on a condition. Code explains further below. public partial class AddExhibit : System.Web.UI.Page { string adminID, caseIDRetrieved; DataSet caseDataSet = new DataSet(); SqlDataAdapter caseSqlDataAdapter = new SqlDataAdapter(); string strConn = WebConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["CMSSQL3ConnectionString1"].ConnectionString; protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { adminID = Request.QueryString["adminID"]; caseIDRetrieved = Request.QueryString["caseID"]; if (caseIDRetrieved != null) { CaseIDDropDownList.Text = caseIDRetrieved; //CaseIDDropDownList.Enabled = false; } else { try { CreateDataSet(); DataView caseDataView = new DataView(caseDataSet.Tables[0]); CaseIDDropDownList.DataSource = caseDataView; CaseIDDropDownList.DataBind(); } catch (Exception ex) { string script = "<script>alert('" + ex.Message + "');</script>"; } } } The CreateDataset method that is called in the if..else statement is contains the following code. private void CreateDataSet() { SqlConnection caseConnection = new SqlConnection(strConn); caseSqlDataAdapter.SelectCommand = new SqlCommand("Select CaseID FROM Cases", caseConnection); caseSqlDataAdapter.Fill(caseDataSet); } However when i load the page and as usual the condition that is supposed to bid the data is met, the gridview decides to displays as follows... IS IT ME OR ITS THE DATAGRID?...??

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• How to keep activity on Force Close?

  - by SushiRoll

  I have this piece of code that's really prone to errors so I wrapped it with try{}catch statement. I don't want to go back to the previous activity, I just want it to stay on the current activity so that the user can edit whatever is wrong with them. How do I implement this? try{ orgi.insertOrThrow(tableName, null, values); Toast.makeText(this, "You have successfully created a new profile!", 2).show(); gotoProfileList(); Log.e(getClass().getSimpleName(),"Successfully added to database"); }catch(SQLiteException se){ Log.e(getClass().getSimpleName(), "Database connection failed!" + se); //Stay in this activity... }finally{ if (orgi != null){ orgi.close(); } } Forget it, I was able to solve my own problem by showing up an alertDialog that tells the user about the error. Thanks anyways. :) try{ orgi.insertOrThrow(tableName, null, values); Toast.makeText(this, "You have successfully created a new profile!", 2).show(); gotoProfileList(); Log.e(getClass().getSimpleName(),"Successfully added to database"); }catch(SQLiteException se){ Log.e(getClass().getSimpleName(), "Database connection failed!" + se); displayError(); //stayInThisActivity(); }finally{ if (orgi != null){ orgi.close(); } public void displayError(){ AlertDialog.Builder error = new AlertDialog.Builder(this); error.setMessage("That profile name already exists, try another one.").setCancelable(false).setPositiveButton("Yes",new DialogInterface.OnClickListener() { @Override public void onClick(DialogInterface dialog, int which) { dialog.cancel(); } }); AlertDialog alert = error.create(); alert.setTitle("Error"); alert.show(); }

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• Lazy loading is not working for one to many

  - by Shire

  Any 1-M that use the primary key of the parent table, but any 1-M that uses a different column does not work. It generates the SQL correctly, but put the value of the key into the SQL instead of the column value I want. Example mapping: public TemplateMap() { Table("IMPORT"); LazyLoad(); Id(x => x.ImportId).Column("IMPORT_ID").GeneratedBy.Assigned(); Map(x => x.ImportSetId).Column("IMPORTSET_ID"); HasMany(x => x.GoodChildren) .Access.CamelCaseField() .KeyColumns.Add("IMPORT_ID") .Cascade.Delete() .Inverse(); HasMany(x => x.BadChildren) .Access.CamelCaseField() .KeyColumns.Add("IMPORTSET_ID") .Cascade.Delete() .Inverse(); } Lazy loading works for GoodChildren, but not for BadChildren. The SQL statement is correct for both children. But the wrong values are use. If the value of IMPORT_ID is 10 and the value of IMPORTSET_ID is 12. The value 10 will be used for the IMPORTSET_ID in the SQL for BadChildren instead of 12. Anyone have any ideas what I need to change to get BadChildren to work correctly? Note: GoodChildren links to IMPORT_ID on Template BadChildren links to IMPORTSET_ID on Template

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• String or binary data would be truncated -- Heisenberg problem

  - by harpo

  When you get this error, the first thing you ask is, which column? Unfortunately, SQL Server is no help here. So you start doing trial and error. Well, right now I have a statement like: INSERT tbl (A, B, C, D, E, F, G) SELECT A, B * 2, C, D, E, q.F, G FROM tbl ,othertable q WHERE etc etc Note that Some values are modified or linked in from another table, but most values are coming from the original table, so they can't really cause truncation going back to the same field (that I know of). Eliminating fields one at a time eventually makes the error go away, if I do it cumulatively, but — and here's the kicker — it doesn't matter which fields I eliminate. It's as if SQL Server is objecting to the total length of the row, which I doubt, since there are only about 40 fields in all, and nothing large. Anyone ever seen this before? Thanks. UPDATE: I have also done "horizontal" testing, by filtering out the SELECT, with much the same result. In other words, if I say WHERE id BETWEEN 1 AND 100: Error WHERE id BETWEEN 1 AND 50: No error WHERE id BETWEEN 50 AND 100: No error I tried many combinations, and it cannot be limited to a single row.

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• Java/JAXB: Accessing property of object in a list

  - by Mark Lewis

  Hello Using JAXB I've created a series of classes which represent my XML schema. Validating against the schema an XML file has thus become a 'tree' of java objects representing the XML. Now I'd like to access, delete and add an object of one the created types in my tree. If I've got classes' methods arranged like this: RootType class has: public List<FQType> getFq() { // and setter return fq; } FQType class has: public RemapType getRemap() { // and setter return remap; } RemapType class has: public String getSource() { // and setter return source; } What's the most concise way to code reading and writing of the 'source' member of a RemapType instance in an FQType instance with, say, fqtypeID=1, in an array of type RootType (in which RootType instances also each have rootID)? Currently I'm using a for loop Iterator in which is an if rootID = mySelectedRootID. In the if I nest a second for loop Iterator over the contained FQType instances and in that a second if fqTypeID = mySelectedFQTypeID. IE for loop iterator/if statement pairs to recognise the object of desire. With all the bells and whistles this way is nearly 15 lines of code to access a data type - can I do this in one line? Thanks

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• Finding part of a string that a user has sent via POST

  - by blerh

  My users can send links from popular file hosts like Rapidshare, Megaupload, Hotfile and FileFactory. I need to somehow find out what filehost they sent the link from and use the correct class for it appropriately. For example, if I sent a Rapidshare link in a form on my web page, I need to somehow cycle through each file host that I allow until I find the text rapidshare.com, then I know the user has posted a Rapidshare link. Perhaps a PHP example: switch($_POST['link']) { case strstr($_POST['link'], 'rapidshare.com'): // the link is a Rapidshare one break; case strstr($_POST['link'], 'megaupload.com'): // the link is a Megaupload one break; case strstr($_POST['link'], 'hotfile.com'): // the link is a Hotfile one break; case strstr($_POST['link'], 'filefactory.com'): // the link is a Filefactory one break; } However, I know for a fact this isn't correct and I'd rather not use a huge IF statement if I can help it. Does anyone have any solution to this problem? If you need me to explain more I can try, English isn't my native language so it's kinda hard. Thanks all.

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• ODP.NET Procedure Compilation

  - by Bobcat1506

  When I try to execute a create procedure using ODP.NET I get back ORA-24344: success with compilation error. However, when I run the same statement in SQL Developer it compiles successfully. Does anyone know what I need to change to get my procedure to compile? Is it a character set issue? I am using Oracle 10g Express, .NET 3.5 SP 1, and ODP.NET 2.111.7.20 (version from Oracle.DataAccess.dll) [TestMethod] public void OdpNet_CreateProcedure() { ConnectionStringSettings settings = ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["ODP.NET"]; using (var con = new OracleConnection(settings.ConnectionString)) { con.InfoMessage += new OracleInfoMessageEventHandler(con_InfoMessage); con.Open(); var cmd = new OracleCommand(); cmd.Connection = con; cmd.CommandText = @" CREATE OR REPLACE PROCEDURE TABLE1_GET ( P_CURSOR OUT SYS_REFCURSOR ) IS BEGIN OPEN P_CURSOR FOR SELECT * FROM TABLE1; END;"; cmd.ExecuteNonQuery(); // ORA-24344: success with compilation error cmd.CommandText = @"ALTER PROCEDURE TABLE1_GET COMPILE"; cmd.ExecuteNonQuery(); // ORA-24344: success with compilation error } } void con_InfoMessage(object sender, OracleInfoMessageEventArgs eventArgs) { System.Diagnostics.Debug.WriteLine(eventArgs.Message); }

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• Is it possible to refer to metadata of the target from within the target implementation in MSBuild?

  - by mark

  Dear ladies and sirs. My msbuild targets file contains the following section: <ItemGroup> <Targets Include="T1"> <Project>A\B.sln"</Project> <DependsOnTargets>The targets T1 depends on</DependsOnTargets> </Targets> <Targets Include="T2"> <Project>C\D.csproj"</Project> <DependsOnTargets>The targets T2 depends on</DependsOnTargets> </Targets> ... </ItemGroup> <Target Name="T1" DependsOnTargets="The targets T1 depends on"> <MSBuild Projects="A\B.sln" Properties="Configuration=$(Configuration)" /> </Target> <Target Name="T2" DependsOnTargets="The targets T2 depends on"> <MSBuild Projects="C\D.csproj" Properties="Configuration=$(Configuration)" /> </Target> As you can see, A\B.sln appears twice: As Project metadata of T1 in the ItemGroup section. In the Target statement itself passed to the MSBuild task. I am wondering whether I can remove the second instance and replace it with the reference to the Project metadata of the target, which name is given to the Target task? Exactly the same question is asked for the (Targets.DependsOnTargets) metadata. It is mentioned twice much like the %(Targets.Project) metadata. Thanks. EDIT: I should probably describe the constraints, which must be satisfied by the solution: I want to be able to build individual projects with ease. Today I can simply execute msbuild file.proj /t:T1 to build the T1 target and I wish to keep this ability. I wish to emphasize, that some projects depend on others, so the DependsOnTargets attribute is really necessary for them.

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• Entity framework generates values for NOT NULL columns which has default defined in db.

  - by Muhammad Kashif Nadeem

  Hi I have a table Customer. One of the columns in table is DateCreated. This column is NOT NULL but default values is defined for this column in db. When I add new Customer using EF4 from my code. var customer = new Customer(); customer.CustomerName = "Hello"; customer.Email = "[email protected]"; // Watch out commented out. //customer.DateCreated = DateTime.Now; context.AddToCustomers(customer); context.SaveChanges(); Above code generates following query. exec sp_executesql N'insert [dbo].[Customers]([CustomerName], [Email], [Phone], [DateCreated], [DateUpdated]) values (@0, @1, null, @2, null) select [CustomerId] from [dbo].[Customers] where @@ROWCOUNT > 0 and [CustomerId] = scope_identity() ',N'@0 varchar(100),@1 varchar(100),@2 datetime2(7) ',@0='Hello',@1='[email protected]',@2='0001-01-01 00:00:00' And throws following error The conversion of a datetime2 data type to a datetime data type resulted in an out-of-range value. The statement has been terminated. Can you please tell me how NOT NULL columns which has default values at db level should not have values generated by EF? DB: DateCreated DATETIME NOT NULL DateCreated Properties in EF: Nullable: False Getter/Setter: public Type: DateTime DefaultValue: None Thanks.

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• C++ casted realloc causing memory leak

  - by wyatt

  I'm using a function I found here to save a webpage to memory with cURL: struct WebpageData { char *pageData; size_t size; }; size_t storePage(void *input, size_t size, size_t nmemb, void *output) { size_t realsize = size * nmemb; struct WebpageData *page = (struct WebpageData *)output; page->pageData = (char *)realloc(page->pageData, page->size + realsize + 1); if(page->pageData) { memcpy(&(page->pageData[page->size]), input, realsize); page->size += realsize; page->pageData[page->size] = 0; } return realsize; } and find the line: page->pageData = (char *)realloc(page->pageData, page->size + realsize + 1); is causing a memory leak of a few hundred bytes per call. The only real change I've made from the original source is casting the line in question to a (char *), which my compiler (gcc, g++ specifically if it's a c/c++ issue, but gcc also wouldn't compile with the uncast statement) insisted upon, but I assume this is the source of the leak. Can anyone elucidate? Thanks

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• routing mvc on the web

  - by generic_noob

  Hi, I was wondering if anyone could possibly provide me some advice on how i could improve the routing (and/or architecture) to each 'section' of my application. (I'm writing in PHP5, and trying to use strict MVC) Basically, I have a generic index page for the app, and that will spew out boilerplate stuff like jquery and the css etc. and it also generates the main navidation for the entire site, but i'm unsure about the best approach to connect the 'main menu' items(hyperlinks) with their associated controllers. Up until now I have been appending strings into the url and using a 'switch' statement to branch to the correct controller(and view) by extracting the strings back out of '$GET[]' to let it execute the code for the corrosponding action. for instance if i had a basic crud system for customer data, the url to edit a customers details would look like 'www.example.com/index.php?page=customer&action=edit&id=4'. I'm worried that there is a security concern by doing it this way, and i'm not sure of an alternative to branch the main 'index.php' file to the correct controller for each action once the user has clicked the link. Would it be better to use mod_rewrite to disguise the controllers names? or to create a similar system to the ASP MVC framework, where there is a seperate routing system where each url is filtered to get the associated controller? Cheers!

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• Is there a way to transfrom a list of key/value pairs into a data transfer object

  - by weevie

  ...apart from the obvious looping through the list and a dirty great case statement! I've turned over a few Linq queries in my head but nothing seems to get anywhere close. Here's the an example DTO if it helps: class ClientCompany { public string Title { get; private set; } public string Forenames { get; private set; } public string Surname { get; private set; } public string EmailAddress { get; private set; } public string TelephoneNumber { get; private set; } public string AlternativeTelephoneNumber { get; private set; } public string Address1 { get; private set; } public string Address2 { get; private set; } public string TownOrDistrict { get; private set; } public string CountyOrState { get; private set; } public string PostCode { get; private set; } } We have no control over the fact that we're getting the data in as KV pairs, I'm afraid.

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• subquery in join with doctrine dql

  - by Martijn de Munnik

  I want to use DQL to create a query which looks like this in SQL: select e.* from e inner join ( select uuid, max(locale) as locale from e where locale = 'nl_NL' or locale = 'nl' group by uuid ) as e_ on e.uuid = e_.uuid and e.locale = e_.locale I tried to use QueryBuilder to generate the query and subquery. I think they do the right thing by them selves but I can't combine them in the join statement. Does anybody now if this is possible with DQL? I can't use native SQL because I want to return real objects and I don't know for which object this query is run (I only know the base class which have the uuid and locale property). $subQueryBuilder = $this->_em->createQueryBuilder(); $subQueryBuilder ->addSelect('e.uuid, max(e.locale) as locale') ->from($this->_entityName, 'e') ->where($subQueryBuilder->expr()->in('e.locale', $localeCriteria)) ->groupBy('e.uuid'); $queryBuilder = $this->_em->createQueryBuilder(); $queryBuilder ->addSelect('e') ->from($this->_entityName, 'e') ->join('('.$subQueryBuilder.') as', 'e_')->join ->where('e.uuid = e_.uuid') ->andWhere('e.locale = e_.locale');

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• MySQL "OR MATCH" hangs (very slow) on multiple tables

  - by Kerry

  After learning how to do MySQL Full-Text search, the recommended solution for multiple tables was OR MATCH and then do the other database call. You can see that in my query below. When I do this, it just gets stuck in a "busy" state, and I can't access the MySQL database. SELECT a.`product_id`, a.`name`, a.`slug`, a.`description`, b.`list_price`, b.`price`, c.`image`, c.`swatch`, e.`name` AS industry, MATCH( a.`name`, a.`sku`, a.`description` ) AGAINST ( '%s' IN BOOLEAN MODE ) AS relevance FROM `products` AS a LEFT JOIN `website_products` AS b ON (a.`product_id` = b.`product_id`) LEFT JOIN ( SELECT `product_id`, `image`, `swatch` FROM `product_images` WHERE `sequence` = 0) AS c ON (a.`product_id` = c.`product_id`) LEFT JOIN `brands` AS d ON (a.`brand_id` = d.`brand_id`) INNER JOIN `industries` AS e ON (a.`industry_id` = e.`industry_id`) WHERE b.`website_id` = %d AND b.`status` = %d AND b.`active` = %d AND MATCH( a.`name`, a.`sku`, a.`description` ) AGAINST ( '%s' IN BOOLEAN MODE ) OR MATCH ( d.`name` ) AGAINST ( '%s' IN BOOLEAN MODE ) GROUP BY a.`product_id` ORDER BY relevance DESC LIMIT 0, 9 Any help would be greatly appreciated. EDIT All the tables involved are MyISAM, utf8_general_ci. Here's the EXPLAIN SELECT statement: id select_type table type possible_keys key key_len ref rows Extra 1 PRIMARY a ALL NULL NULL NULL NULL 16076 Using temporary; Using filesort 1 PRIMARY b ref product_id product_id 4 database.a.product_id 2 1 PRIMARY e eq_ref PRIMARY PRIMARY 4 database.a.industry_id 1 1 PRIMARY <derived2> ALL NULL NULL NULL NULL 23261 1 PRIMARY d eq_ref PRIMARY PRIMARY 4 database.a.brand_id 1 Using where 2 DERIVED product_images ALL NULL NULL NULL NULL 25933 Using where I don't know how to make that look neater -- sorry about that UPDATE it returns the query after 196 seconds (I think correctly). The query without multiple tables takes about .56 seconds (which I know is really slow, we plan on changing to solr or sphinx soon), but 196 seconds?? If we could add a number to the relevance if it was in the brand name ( d.name ), that would also work

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• Heavy Mysql operation & Time Constraints [closed]

  - by Rahul Jha

  There is a performance issue where that I have stuck with my application which is based on PHP & MySql. The application is for Data Migration where data has to be uploaded and after various processes (Cleaning from foreign characters, duplicate check, id generation) it has to be inserted into one central table and then to 5 different tables. There, an id is generated and that id has to be updated to central table. There are different sets of records and validation rules. The problem I am facing is that when I insert say(4K) rows file (containing 20 columns) it is working fine within 15 min it gets inserted everywhere. But, when I insert the same records again then at this time it is taking one hour to insert (ideally it should get inserted by marking earlier inserted data as duplicate). After going through the log file, I noticed is that there is a Mysql select statement where I am checking the duplicates and getting ID which are duplicates. Then I am calling a function inside for loop which is basically inserting records into 5 tables and updates id to central table. This Calling function is major time of whole process. P.S. The records has to be inserted record by record.. Kindly Suggest some solution.. //This is that sample code $query=mysql_query("SELECT DISTINCT p1.ID FROM table1 p1, table2 p2, table3 a WHERE p2.datatype =0 AND (p1.datatype =1 || p1.datatype=2) AND p2.ID =0 AND p1.ID = a.ID AND p1.coulmn1 = p2.column1 AND p1.coulmn2 = p2.coulmn2 AND a.coulmn3 = p2.column3"); $num=mysql_num_rows($query); for($i=0;$i<$num;$i++) { $f=mysql_result($query,$i,"ID"); //calling function RecordInsert($f); }

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• Create new or update existing entity at one go with JPA

  - by Alex R

  A have a JPA entity that has timestamp field and is distinguished by a complex identifier field. What I need is to update timestamp in an entity that has already been stored, otherwise create and store new entity with the current timestamp. As it turns out the task is not as simple as it seems from the first sight. The problem is that in concurrent environment I get nasty "Unique index or primary key violation" exception. Here's my code: // Load existing entity, if any. Entity e = entityManager.find(Entity.class, id); if (e == null) { // Could not find entity with the specified id in the database, so create new one. e = entityManager.merge(new Entity(id)); } // Set current time... e.setTimestamp(new Date()); // ...and finally save entity. entityManager.flush(); Please note that in this example entity identifier is not generated on insert, it is known in advance. When two or more of threads run this block of code in parallel, they may simultaneously get null from entityManager.find(Entity.class, id) method call, so they will attempt to save two or more entities at the same time, with the same identifier resulting in error. I think that there are few solutions to the problem. Sure I could synchronize this code block with a global lock to prevent concurrent access to the database, but would it be the most efficient way? Some databases support very handy MERGE statement that updates existing or creates new row if none exists. But I doubt that OpenJPA (JPA implementation of my choice) supports it. Event if JPA does not support SQL MERGE, I can always fall back to plain old JDBC and do whatever I want with the database. But I don't want to leave comfortable API and mess with hairy JDBC+SQL combination. There is a magic trick to fix it using standard JPA API only, but I don't know it yet. Please help.

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• PostgreSQL: return select count(*) from old_ids;

  - by Alexander Farber

  Hello, please help me with 1 more PL/pgSQL question. I have a PHP-script run as daily cronjob and deleting old records from 1 main table and few further tables referencing its "id" column: create or replace function quincytrack_clean() returns integer as $BODY$ begin create temp table old_ids (id varchar(20)) on commit drop; insert into old_ids select id from quincytrack where age(QDATETIME) > interval '30 days'; delete from hide_id where id in (select id from old_ids); delete from related_mks where id in (select id from old_ids); delete from related_cl where id in (select id from old_ids); delete from related_comment where id in (select id from old_ids); delete from quincytrack where id in (select id from old_ids); return select count(*) from old_ids; end; $BODY$ language plpgsql; And here is how I call it from the PHP script: $sth = $pg->prepare('select quincytrack_clean()'); $sth->execute(); if ($row = $sth->fetch(PDO::FETCH_ASSOC)) printf("removed %u old rows\n", $row['count']); Why do I get the following error? SQLSTATE[42601]: Syntax error: 7 ERROR: syntax error at or near "select" at character 9 QUERY: SELECT select count(*) from old_ids CONTEXT: SQL statement in PL/PgSQL function "quincytrack_clean" near line 23 Thank you! Alex

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• doubt in javascript name validation

  - by raja

  Hi: I am using the below validation for textbox which accepts only alphabets and maximum of 50 characters. I am passing the object directly in the parameter. The below case by giving the field name i.e "my_text" directly is working is working fine. But if i pass it in variable, that time it is not working(commented the if statement). Please help me. My requirement is each time when we enter the charater, the hardcode field name should not be used in the validation. <html><head> <script language=JavaScript> function check_length(my_form,fieldName) { alert(fieldName); // if (my_form.fieldName.value.length >= maxLen) { if (my_form.my_text.value.length >= maxLen) { var msg = "You have reached your maximum limit of characters allowed"; alert(msg); my_form.my_text.value = my_form.my_text.value.substring(0, maxLen); } else{ var keyCode = window.event.keyCode; if ((keyCode < 65 || keyCode > 90) && (keyCode < 97 || keyCode > 123) && keyCode != 32) { window.event.returnValue = false; alert("Enter only Alphabets"); } my_form.text_num.value = maxLen - my_form.my_text.value.length;} } </script> </head> <body> <form name=my_form method=post> <input type="text" onKeyPress=check_length(this.form,this.name); name=my_text rows=4 cols=30> <br> <input size=1 value=50 name=text_num> Characters Left </form> </body> </html>

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• C# class can not disguise to be another class because GetType method cannot be override

  - by zinking

  there is a statement in the CLR via C# saying in C#, one class cannot disguise to be another, because GetType is virutal and thus it cannot be override but I think in C# we can still hide the parent implementation of GetType. I must missed something if I hide the base GetType implementation then I can disguise my class to be another class, is that correct? The key here is not whether GetType is virutal or not, the question is can we disguise one class to be another in C# Following is the NO.4 answer from the possible duplicate, so My question is more on this. is this kind of disguise possible, if so, how can we say that we can prevent class type disguise in C# ? regardless of the GetType is virtual or not While its true that you cannot override the object.GetType() method, you can use "new" to overload it completely, thereby spoofing another known type. This is interesting, however, I haven't figured out how to create an instance of the "Type" object from scratch, so the example below pretends to be another type. public class NotAString { private string m_RealString = string.Empty; public new Type GetType() { return m_RealString.GetType(); } } After creating an instance of this, (new NotAString()).GetType(), will indeed return the type for a string. share|edit|flag answered Mar 15 at 18:39 Dr Snooze 213 By almost anything that looks at GetType has an instance of object, or at the very least some base type that they control or can reason about. If you already have an instance of the most derived type then there is no need to call GetType on it. The point is as long as someone uses GetType on an object they can be sure it's the system's implementation, not any other custom definition. – Servy Mar 15 at 18:54 add comment

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• Referencing not-yet-defined variables - Java

  - by user2537337

  Because I'm tired of solving math problems, I decided to try something more engaging with my very rusty (and even without the rust, very basic) Java skills. I landed on a super-simple people simulator, and thus far have been having a grand time working through the various steps of getting it to function. Currently, it generates an array of people-class objects and runs a for loop to cycle through a set of actions that alter the relationships between them, which I have stored in a 2d integer array. When it ends, I go look at how much they all hate each other. Fun stuff. Trouble has arisen, however, because I would like the program to clearly print what action is happening when it happens. I thought the best way to do this would be to add a string, description, to my "action" class (which stores variables for the actor, reactor, and the amount the relationship changes). This works to a degree, in that I can print a generic message ("A fight has occurred!") with no problem. However, ideally I would like it to be a little more specific ("Person A has thrown a rock at Person B's head!"). This latter goal is proving more difficult: attempting to construct an action with a description string that references actor and reactor gets me a big old error, "Cannot reference field before it is defined." Which makes perfect sense. I believe I'm not quite in programmer mode, because the only other way I can think to do this is an unwieldy switch statement that negates the need for each action to have its own nicely-packaged description. And there must be a neater way. I am not looking for examples of code, only a push in the direction of the right concept to handle this.

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