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  • Using windows CopyFile function to copy all files with certain name format

    - by Ben313
    Hello! I am updating some C code that copys files with a certain name. basically, I have a directory with a bunch of files named like so: AAAAA.1.XYZ AAAAA.2.ZYX AAAAA.3.YZX BBBBB.1.XYZ BBBBB.2.ZYX Now, In the old code, they just used a call to ShellExecute and used xcopy.exe. to get all the files starting with AAAAA, they just gave xcopy the name of the file as AAAAA.* and it knew to copy all of the files starting with AAAAA. now, im trying to get it to copy with out having to use the command line, and I am running into trouble. I was hoping CopyFile would be smart enough to handle AAAAA.* as the file to be copied, but it doesnt at all do what xcopy did. So, any Ideas on how to do this without the external call to xcopy.exe?

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  • DllImport Based on OS Platform

    - by Ngu Soon Hui
    I have a mixture of unmanaged code ( backend) and managed code ( front end), as such, I would need to call the unmanaged code from my managed code, using interop techniques and DllImport attribute. Now, I've compiled two versions of unmanaged code, for both 32 and 64 bit OS; they are named service32.dll and service64.dll respectively. So, in my .Net code, I would have to do a DllImport for both dlls: [DllImport(@"service32.dll")] //for 32 bit OS invocation public static void SimpleFunction(); [DllImport(@"service64.dll")] //for 64 bit OS invocation public static void SimpleFunction(); And call them depending on which platform my application is running on. The issue now is that for every unmanaged function, I have to declared it twice, one for 32 bit OS and one for 64 bit OS. This is a duplication of work, and everytime I change the signature of an unmanaged function, I have to modified it in two places. Is there anyway that I can change the argument in DllImport so that the correct dll will be invoked automagically, depending on the platform?

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  • JavaScript regular expression literal persists between function calls

    - by Charles Anderson
    I have this piece of code: function func1(text) { var pattern = /([\s\S]*?)(\<\?(?:attrib |if |else-if |else|end-if|search |for |end-for)[\s\S]*?\?\>)/g; var result; while (result = pattern.exec(text)) { if (some condition) { throw new Error('failed'); } ... } } This works, unless the throw statement is executed. In that case, the next time I call the function, the exec() call starts where it left off, even though I am supplying it with a new value of 'text'. I can fix it by writing var pattern = new RegExp('.....'); instead, but I don't understand why the first version is failing. How is the regular expression persisting between function calls? (This is happening in the latest versions of Firefox and Chrome.) Edit Complete test case: <!DOCTYPE HTML> <html> <head> <meta http-equiv="Content-type" content="text/html;charset=UTF-8"> <title>Test Page</title> <style type='text/css'> body { font-family: sans-serif; } #log p { margin: 0; padding: 0; } </style> <script type='text/javascript'> function func1(text, count) { var pattern = /(one|two|three|four|five|six|seven|eight)/g; log("func1"); var result; while (result = pattern.exec(text)) { log("result[0] = " + result[0] + ", pattern.index = " + pattern.index); if (--count <= 0) { throw "Error"; } } } function go() { try { func1("one two three four five six seven eight", 3); } catch (e) { } try { func1("one two three four five six seven eight", 2); } catch (e) { } try { func1("one two three four five six seven eight", 99); } catch (e) { } try { func1("one two three four five six seven eight", 2); } catch (e) { } } function log(msg) { var log = document.getElementById('log'); var p = document.createElement('p'); p.innerHTML = msg; log.appendChild(p); } </script> </head> <body><div> <input type='button' id='btnGo' value='Go' onclick='go();'> <hr> <div id='log'></div> </div></body> </html> The regular expression continues with 'four' as of the second call on FF and Chrome, not on IE7 or Opera.

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  • C# Custom Control Properties load before Load and arrays are empties

    - by Wildhorn
    Hello, I made a custom control with custom properties. When I modify these properties in the "Form.cs [Design]", I need stuff to happens (it fill some arrays and modify the look of the control), so I call a function within the "set" of the property. All of this works good. My problem is that when I run the program with my custom control, it seems that properties "set" is called, which will call the function, but then, my arrays seems now to have lost all their values and the function use these arrays, but now because they are all empty, it crashes due to NullException blahblahblah. It also seems that properties "set" is called before the control Load (which I guess is called only when it is added to my Form, and not when the Form load). So question is, why does my arrays become empty once I try to run the Form and is there an event that is called before that when the Form load? Thanks

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  • How to read log4j output to a web page?

    - by Ran
    I have a web page, used for admin purposes, which runs a task (image fetching from a remote site). In order to be able to debug the task using the browser only, no ssh etc, I'd like to be able to read all log output from the executing thread and spit it out to the web page. The task boils down to: Changing log level for current thread at the beginning of the call and restore when the call is done. Reading all log output by current thread and storing it in a string. So in pseudocode my execute() method would look like this: (I'm using struts2) public String execute() throws Exception { turnLoggingLevelToDebugOnlyForThisThread() ... do stuff... restoreLoggingLevelForThisThread() String logs = readAllLogsByThisThread(); } Can this be done with log4j? I'm using tomcat, struts2, log4j and slf4j.

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  • Windows Phone 7 HttpRequest Unable to see true Error Code and response details

    - by Bob
    I have to call a somewhat broken API from a Windows Phone 7 application. The API returns a 302 error and a cookie to the authentication request. I've tried every way I've been able to find in the MSDN documentation for using ClientHTTP instead of BrowserHTTP (registering the prefix, using the call to explicitly create a ClientHTTP using Request), but the 302 is getting translated to a 404 and I'm not seeing the cookies on the response. I've tried a WebClient, I've tried an HttpRequest and it is always the translated error message. If I allocate a CookieContainer for the HttpRequest, I get a null argument exception when the client stack is parsing the returned message. I can see that the response is coming back as expected via Fiddler.

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  • jquery to php (wait for php script until result/finish)

    - by user354051
    Hi, I am executing a php call from javascript(jQuery), php sript is sending result back. The problem is that these php scripts are taking some time (milliseconds), and java script is not waiting for them to finish, thus variables are not getting initialized with correct values. The code is simple: $.get("php/validation.php",{'email':email},function(data){ // valid_email now contains true/false alert(data); if(data=="true"){ var valid_email = true;} }); The "alert" is printing true but value of valid_mail is recognized as "false" in the code below. Is there any other better way to call php scripts and wait for until they are not finished? Prashant

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  • Starting new transaction in Spring bean

    - by Marcus
    We have: @Transactional(propagation = Propagation.REQUIRED) public class MyClass implementes MyInterface { ... MyInterface has a single method: go(). When go() executes we start a new transaction which commits/rollbacks when the method is complete - this is fine. Now let's say in go() we call a private method in MyClass that has @Transactional(propagation = Propagation.REQUIRES_NEW. It seems that Spring "ignores" the REQUIRES_NEW annotation and does not start a new transaction. I believe this is because Spring AOP operates on the interface level (MyInterface) and does not intercept any calls to MyClass methods. Is this correct? Is there any way to start a new transaction within the go() transaction? Is the only way to call another Spring managed bean that has transactions configured as REQUIRES_NEW? Update: Adding that when clients execute go() they do so via a reference to the interface, not the class: @Autowired MyInterface impl; impl.go();

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  • ASP.NET MVC 2 controller-url problems

    - by cc0
    I am still very new to the MVC framework, but I managed to create a controller that reads from a database and writes JSON to an url; host.com/Controllername?minValue=something&maxValue=something However when I move the site to a subfolder; host.com/mvc/ it doesn't seem to be able to call the controller from there when I do it like this; host.com/mvc/Controllername?minValue=something&maxValue=something Did I forget to do something somewhere to make this url call valid from that subfolder? Any help here would be greatly appreciated.

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  • WinForm-style Invoke() in unmanaged C++

    - by Matt Green
    I've been playing with a DataBus-type design for a hobby project, and I ran into an issue. Back-end components need to notify the UI that something has happened. My implementation of the bus delivers the messages synchronously with respect to the sender. In other words, when you call Send(), the method blocks until all the handlers have called. (This allows callers to use stack memory management for event objects.) However, consider the case where an event handler updates the GUI in response to an event. If the handler is called, and the message sender lives on another thread, then the handler cannot update the GUI due to Win32's GUI elements having thread affinity. More dynamic platforms such as .NET allow you to handle this by calling a special Invoke() method to move the method call (and the arguments) to the UI thread. I'm guessing they use the .NET parking window or the like for these sorts of things. A morbid curiosity was born: can we do this in C++, even if we limit the scope of the problem? Can we make it nicer than existing solutions? I know Qt does something similar with the moveToThread() function. By nicer, I'll mention that I'm specifically trying to avoid code of the following form: if(! this->IsUIThread()) { Invoke(MainWindowPresenter::OnTracksAdded, e); return; } being at the top of every UI method. This dance was common in WinForms when dealing with this issue. I think this sort of concern should be isolated from the domain-specific code and a wrapper object made to deal with it. My implementation consists of: DeferredFunction - functor that stores the target method in a FastDelegate, and deep copies the single event argument. This is the object that is sent across thread boundaries. UIEventHandler - responsible for dispatching a single event from the bus. When the Execute() method is called, it checks the thread ID. If it does not match the UI thread ID (set at construction time), a DeferredFunction is allocated on the heap with the instance, method, and event argument. A pointer to it is sent to the UI thread via PostThreadMessage(). Finally, a hook function for the thread's message pump is used to call the DeferredFunction and de-allocate it. Alternatively, I can use a message loop filter, since my UI framework (WTL) supports them. Ultimately, is this a good idea? The whole message hooking thing makes me leery. The intent is certainly noble, but are there are any pitfalls I should know about? Or is there an easier way to do this?

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  • Perform Push Segue From a Tab View Controller

    - by user1416492
    I have a Tab Bar Controller App, the tab bar controller is forked into several "tab" view controller, in one of the view controller I want to redirect the user to an other view controller. I create a segue from that tab view controller to the destination view controller and given it an Identifer. And I call "performSegueWithIdentifier" in "viewDidAppear" to redirect the user. It works fine when the segue is "Modal", however since I want to retain the tabs, I want to call the segue through "Push". However, once I change the segue to "Push", it is not working anymore (it does not try to go to the destination view controller). The app did not crash on the simulator but just staying on the origin tab view controller.

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  • pywinauto: taking more than one app windows

    - by Denis Barmenkov
    I have a GUI application which can create many similar windows on desktop. All windows have same title. I have to enumerate all dialogs with same title and make some tests against each of such dialogs. If I call: dialog = app['Window Name'] pywinauto returns a WindowSpecification object which is useful along with accessing controls by name. When I call: dialogs = app.windows_(title='Window Name') pywinauto returns me a list of HwndWrapper instances which are not so useful. How to obtain a list of windows with specified title but as WindowSpecification objects?

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  • In Node.JS, how do I return an entire object from a separate .js file?

    - by Matthew Patrick Cashatt
    Thanks for looking. I am new to Node.js and trying to figure out how to request an object from a separate file (rather than just requesting a function) but everything I try--exports,module-exports,etc--is failing. So, for example, if I have foo.js: var methods = { Foobar:{ getFoo: function(){return "foo!!";}, getBar: function(){return "bar!!";} } }; And now I want to call a function within an object of foo.js from index.js: var m = require('./Methods'); function fooMain(){ return m.Foobar.getFoo(); }; How do I do this? I have tried all sorts of combinations of exports and module-exports but they seem to only work if I call a discrete function that is not part of an object. Thanks!

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  • Bitmap .compress() returning false

    - by Tsimmi
    Hi! The next call to Bitmap.compress(), has a different behavior on the Emulator and on a real device. In the Emulator, result is true, and in a real device the same call returns false. FileOutputStream fos = new FileOutputStream(destinationFile, true); boolean result = myBitmap.compress(Bitmap.CompressFormat.PNG, 100, fos); The thing is that on the emulator this is working great, on a real device ( a HERO) when calling .compress(), this returns false, witch means that it was unable to convert the image properly. Why is this? Thank you

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  • Server-side validation and form action

    - by phenry
    I have a page (call it form.php) with a form for users to fill out. When the form is submitted, I want to validate it with a server-side script (call it validate.php if necessary, although the code could also go in one of the other pages if that would be better). If any part of the form fails validation, I want to kick back to form.php with the fields the user needs to fix highlighted. If the form passes validation, I want to go to another page, success.php. Which page should I put in the "action" attribute of the <form> element, and what's the best way to get from that page to one of the others?

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  • C# - Silverlight - Dynamically calling a method

    - by cmaduro
    Is there anyway in C# to call a method based on a Enum and/or class? Say if I were to call Controller<Actions.OnEdit, Customer>(customer); Could I do something like this then? public void Controller<TAction, TParam>(TParam object) { Action<TParam> action = FindLocalMethodName(TAction); action(object); } private Action<T> FindLocalMethodName(Enum method) { //Use reflection to find a metode with //the name corresponding to method.ToString() //which accepts a parameters type T. }

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  • .NET threading: how can I capture an abort on an unstarted thread?

    - by Groxx
    I have a chunk of threads I wish to run in order, on an ASP site running .NET 2.0 with Visual Studio 2008 (no idea how much all that matters, but there it is), and they may have aborted-clean-up code which should be run regardless of how far through their task they are. So I make a thread like this: Thread t = new Thread(delegate() { try { /* do things */ System.Diagnostics.Debug.WriteLine("try"); } catch (ThreadAbortException) { /* cleanup */ System.Diagnostics.Debug.WriteLine("catch"); } }); Now, if I wish to abort the set of threads part way through, the cleanup may still be desirable later on down the line. Looking through MSDN implies you can .Abort() a thread that has not started, and then .Start() it, at which point it will receive the exception and perform normally. Or you can .Join() the aborted thread to wait for it to finish aborting. Presumably you can combine them. http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ty8d3wta(v=VS.80).aspx To wait until a thread has aborted, you can call the Join method on the thread after calling the Abort method, but there is no guarantee the wait will end. If Abort is called on a thread that has not been started, the thread will abort when Start is called. If Abort is called on a thread that is blocked or is sleeping, the thread is interrupted and then aborted. Now, when I debug and step through this code: t.Abort(); // ThreadState == Unstarted | AbortRequested t.Start(); // throws ThreadStartException: "Thread failed to start." // so I comment it out, and t.Join(); // throws ThreadStateException: "Thread has not been started." At no point do I see any output, nor do any breakpoints on either the try or catch block get reached. Oddly, ThreadStartException is not listed as a possible throw of .Start(), from here: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/a9fyxz7d(v=VS.80).aspx (or any other version) I understand this could be avoided by having a start parameter, which states if the thread should jump to cleanup code, and foregoing the Abort call (which is probably what I'll do). And I could .Start() the thread, and then .Abort() it. But as an indeterminate amount of time may pass between .Start and .Abort, I'm considering it unreliable, and the documentation seems to say my original method should work. Am I missing something? Is the documentation wrong? edit: ow. And you can't call .Start(param) on a non-parameterized Thread(Start). Is there a way to find out if a thread is parameterized or not, aside from trial and error? I see a private m_Delegate, but nothing public...

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  • file_get_contents() returns "failed to open stream" when hitting HTTPS

    - by TMC
    file_get_contents() is returning "failed to open stream" when I call it on an HTTPS URL. Warning: file_get_contents(https://google.com) [function.file-get-contents]: failed to open stream: No error in E:\\htdocs\callback3.php on line 5 Same call will work with a non-SSL URL. At first, I thought it was a security issue with my webhoster, but I have verified with phpinfo() that allow url open is indeed allowed. I have also tried this code and verified it works: Anyone have any ideas why file_get_contents() is failing with an HTTPS URL? update: People correctly pointed out this was an HTTPS issue. My webhoster claims this should work, and has no idea how to resolve this. Anyone have specific directions I can give them for their IIS7 setup?

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  • Does a static object within a function introduce a potential race condition?

    - by Jeremy Friesner
    I'm curious about the following code: class MyClass { public: MyClass() : _myArray(new int[1024]) {} ~MyClass() {delete [] _myArray;} private: int * _myArray; }; // This function may be called by different threads in an unsynchronized manner void MyFunction() { static const MyClass _myClassObject; [...] } Is there a possible race condition in the above code? Specifically, is the compiler likely to generate code equivalent to the following, "behind the scenes"? void MyFunction() { static bool _myClassObjectInitialized = false; if (_myClassObjectInitialized == false) { _myClassObjectInitialized = true; _myClassObject.MyClass(); // call constructor to set up object } [...] } ... in which case, if two threads were to call MyFunction() nearly-simultaneously, then _myArray might get allocated twice, causing a memory leak? Or is this handled correctly somehow?

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  • Embedding Python and adding C functions to the interpreter

    - by monoceres
    I'm currently writing an applications that embedds the python interpreter. The idea is to have the program call user specified scripts on certain events in the program. I managed this part but now I want the scripts to be able to call functions in my program. Here's my code so far: #include "python.h" static PyObject* myTest(PyObject* self,PyObject *args) { return Py_BuildValue("s","123456789"); } static PyMethodDef myMethods[] = {{"myTest",myTest},{NULL,NULL}}; int main() { Py_Initialize(); Py_InitModule("PROGRAM",myMethods); PyRun_SimpleString("print PROGRAM.myTest()"); Py_Finalize(); } Thanks!

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  • Public static variables and Android activity life cycle management

    - by jsstp24n5
    According to the documentation the Android OS can kill the activity at the rear of the backstack. So, say for example I have an app and open the Main Activity (let's call it Activity A). In this public activity class I declare and initialize a public static variable (let's call it "foo"). In Activity A's onCreate() method I then change the value of "foo." From Activity A the user starts another activity within my app called Activity B. Variable "foo" is used in Activity B. Activity B is then paused after the user navigates to some other activities in other apps. Eventually, after a memory shortage occurs, Activity A then Activity B can be killed. After the user navigates back to my app it restarts (actually "recreates") activity B. What happens: 1) Will variable "foo" at this point have the value that was set to it when Activity A's onCreate() method ran? 2) Variable "foo" does not exist? 3) Variable "foo" exists and but is now the initialized value and not the value set in Activity A's onCreate() method?

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  • c# Generic overloaded method dispatching ambiguous

    - by sebgod
    Hello, I just hit a situation where a method dispatch was ambiguous and wondered if anyone could explain on what basis the compiler (.NET 4.0.30319) chooses what overload to call interface IfaceA { } interface IfaceB<T> { void Add(IfaceA a); T Add(T t); } class ConcreteA : IfaceA { } class abstract BaseClassB<T> : IfaceB<T> { public virtual T Add(T t) { ... } public virtual void Add(IfaceA a) { ... } } class ConcreteB : BaseClassB<IfaceA> { // does not override one of the relevant methods } void code() { var concreteB = new ConcreteB(); // it will call void Add(IfaceA a) concreteB.Add(new ConcreteA()); } In any case, why does the compiler not warn me or even why does it compile? Thank you very much for any answers.

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  • CakePHP: Ajax view problem (nothing in the view showing)

    - by Adim
    I created a function in my controller called addToPlaylist($songName). I wanted to add these song names to an array and then a session variable using an Ajax call. The first time i did this i got an error saying i do not have a template file to display in the chosen div ("add_to_playlist.ctp was missing"). I created this file and everything seemed to be working correctly. Basically I went to bed woke up and it is broken (it is possible I changed something before I went to bed). The problem now is that it does not show anything when i click the ajax link. when i click on the ajax link it seems to call the function but nothing displays in the view (except debug info) even when i delete the view (add_to_playlist.ctp) i get no errors, I just see debug info now.

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  • Zend Framework: The form filter I am using is not filtering!

    - by Andrew
    So I have a form that is using the Zend_Filter_Null filter. When I call it directly, it works: $makeZeroNull = new Zend_Filter_Null(); $null = $makeZeroNull->filter('0'); //$null === null However, when I try to add it to an element in my form, it doesn't filter the value when I call getValue(). class My_Form extends Zend_Form { public function init() { $makeZeroNull = new Zend_Filter_Null(); $this->addElement('text', 'State_ID', array('filters' => array($makeZeroNull))); } } //in controller if ($form->isValid($_POST)) { $zero = $form->State_ID->getValue(); //getValue() should return null, but it is returning 0 } What is going on? What am I doing wrong?

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  • Approaches to timing out sessions on a web app using AJAX autorefreshes

    - by Braintapper
    I'm writing a web application that autorefreshes data with an AJAX call at set intervals. Because it's doing that, server side user sessions never time out, since the last activity is refreshed with every ajax call. Are there good client side rules I could implement to time out the user? I.e. should I track mouse movements in the browser, etc., or should I point the AJAX calls to URLs that don't refresh the session? I like that my AJAX calls hit a session-enabled URL, because I can also validate that the user is logged in, etc. Any thoughts in terms of whether I should even bother timing out the users?

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