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  • Keyword to SQL search

    - by jdelator
    Use Case When a user goes to my website, they will be confronted with a search box much like SO. They can search for results using plan text. ".net questions", "closed questions", ".net and java", etc.. The search will function a bit different that SO, in that it will try to as much as possible of the schema of the database rather than a straight fulltext search. So ".net questions" will only search for .net questions as opposed to .net answers (probably not applicable to SO case, just an example here), "closed questions" will return questions that are closed, ".net and java" questions will return questions that relate to .net and java and nothing else. Problem I'm not too familiar with the words but I basically want to do a keyword to SQL driven search. I know the schema of the database and I also can datamine the database. I want to know any current approaches there that existing out already before I try to implement this. I guess this question is for what is a good design for the stated problem. Proposed My proposed solution so far looks something like this Clean the input. Just remove any special characters Parse the input into chunks of data. Break an input of "c# java" into c# and java Also handle the special cases like "'c# java' questions" into 'c# java' and "questions". Build a tree out of the input Bind the data into metadata. So convert stuff like closed questions and relate it to the isclosed column of a table. Convert the tree into a sql query. Thoughts/suggestions/links?

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  • Some general C questions.

    - by b-gen-jack-o-neill
    Hello. I am trying to fully understand the process pro writing code in some language to execution by OS. In my case, the language would be C and the OS would be Windows. So far, I read many different articles, but I am not sure, whether I understand the process right, and I would like to ask you if you know some good articles on some subjects I couldn´t find. So, what I think I know about C (and basically other languages): C compiler itself handles only data types, basic math operations, pointers operations, and work with functions. By work with functions I mean how to pass argument to it, and how to get output from function. During compilation, function call is replaced by passing arguments to stack, and than if function is not inline, its call is replaced by some symbol for linker. Linker than find the function definition, and replace the symbol to jump adress to that function (and of course than jump back to program). If the above is generally true and I get it right, where to final .exe file actually linker saves the functions? After the main() function? And what creates the .exe header? Compiler or Linker? Now, additional capabilities of C, today known as C standart library is set of functions and the declarations of them, that other programmers wrote to extend and simplify use of C language. But these functions like printf() were (or could be?) written in different language, or assembler. And there comes my next question, can be, for example printf() function be written in pure C without use of assembler? I know this is quite big question, but I just mostly want to know, wheather I am right or not. And trust me, I read a lots of articles on the web, and I would not ask you, If I could find these infromation together on one place, in one article. Insted I must piece by piece gather informations, so I am not sure if I am right. Thanks.

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  • Android: How to get a custom view to redraw partially?

    - by Peterdk
    I have a custom view that fills my entire screen. (A piano keyboard) When a user touches the key, it would cause a invalidate() to be called and the whole keyboard gets redrawn to show the new state with a touched key. Currently the view is very simple, but I plan to add a bit more nice graphics. Since the whole keyboard is dynamically rendered this would make redrawing the entire keyboard more expensive. So I thought, let's look into partial redrawing. Now I call invalidate(Rect dirty) with the correct dirty region. I set my onDraw(Canvas canvas) method to only draw the keys in the dirty region if I do indeed want a partial redraw. This results in those keys being drawn, but the rest of the keyboard is totally black/not drawn at all. Am I wrong in expecting that calling invalidate(Rect dirty) would "cache" the current canvas, and only "allows" drawing in the dirty region? Is there any way I can achieve what I want? (A way to "cache" the canvas and only redraw the dirty area?"

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  • create app that has plugin which contains PyQt widget

    - by brian
    I'm writing an application that will use plugins. In the plugin I want to include a widget that allows the options for that plugin to be setup. The plugin will also include methods to operate on the data. What is is the best way to include a widget in a plugin? Below is pseudo code for what I've tried to do. My original plan was to make the options widget: class myOptionsWidget(QWidget): “”” create widget for plug in options “”” …. Next I planned on including the widget in my plugin: class myPlugin def __init__(self): self.optionWidget = myOptionsWidget() self.pluginNum = 1 …. def getOptionWidget(self): return(self.optionWidget) Then at the top level I'd do something like a = myPlugin() form = createForm(option=a.getOptionWidget()) … where createForm would create the form and include my plugin options widget. But when I try "a = myPlugin()" I get the error "QWidget: Must construct a QApplication before a QpaintDevice" so this method won't work. I know I would store the widget as a string and call eval on it but I'd rather not do that in case later on I want to convert the program to C++. What is the best way to write a plugin that includes a widget that has the options? Brian

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  • EF 4.0 : Save Changes Retry Logic

    - by BGR
    Hi, I would like to implement an application wide retry system for all entity SaveChanges method calls. Technologies: Entity framework 4.0 .Net 4.0 namespace Sample.Data.Store.Entities { public partial class StoreDB { public override int SaveChanges(System.Data.Objects.SaveOptions options) { for (Int32 attempt = 1; ; ) { try { return base.SaveChanges(options); } catch (SqlException sqlException) { // Increment Trys attempt++; // Find Maximum Trys Int32 maxRetryCount = 5; // Throw Error if we have reach the maximum number of retries if (attempt == maxRetryCount) throw; // Determine if we should retry or abort. if (!RetryLitmus(sqlException)) throw; else Thread.Sleep(ConnectionRetryWaitSeconds(attempt)); } } } static Int32 ConnectionRetryWaitSeconds(Int32 attempt) { Int32 connectionRetryWaitSeconds = 2000; // Backoff Throttling connectionRetryWaitSeconds = connectionRetryWaitSeconds * (Int32)Math.Pow(2, attempt); return (connectionRetryWaitSeconds); } /// <summary> /// Determine from the exception if the execution /// of the connection should Be attempted again /// </summary> /// <param name="exception">Generic Exception</param> /// <returns>True if a a retry is needed, false if not</returns> static Boolean RetryLitmus(SqlException sqlException) { switch (sqlException.Number) { // The service has encountered an error // processing your request. Please try again. // Error code %d. case 40197: // The service is currently busy. Retry // the request after 10 seconds. Code: %d. case 40501: //A transport-level error has occurred when // receiving results from the server. (provider: // TCP Provider, error: 0 - An established connection // was aborted by the software in your host machine.) case 10053: return (true); } return (false); } } } The problem: How can I run the StoreDB.SaveChanges to retry on a new DB context after an error occured? Something simular to Detach/Attach might come in handy. Thanks in advance! Bart

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  • How to reliably send a request cross domain and cross browser on page unload

    - by Agmin
    I have javascript code that's loaded by 3rd parties. The javascript keeps track of a number of metrics, and when a user exits the page I'd like to send the metrics back to my server. Due to XSS checks in some browsers, like IE, I cannot do a simple jquery.ajax() call. Instead, I'm appending an image src to the page with jquery. Here's the code, cased by browser: function record_metrics() { //Arbitrary code execution here to set test_url $esajquery('#MainDiv').append("<img src='" + test_url + "' />"); } if ($esajquery.browser.msie) { window.onbeforeunload = function() { record_metrics(); } } else { $esajquery(window).unload( function(){ record_metrics(); } ); } FF aborts the request to "test_url" if I use window.onbeforeunload, and IE8 doesn't work with jquery's unload(). IE8 also fails to work if the arbitrary test_url setting code is too long, although IE8 seems to work fine if the is immediately appended to the DOM. Is there a better way to solve this issue? Unfortunately this really needs to execute when a user leaves the page.

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  • Atlas style map index for static google map

    - by Ben Holland
    Hello, I'm using a static google map, but really this problem could apply to any maps project. I want to divide a map into multiple quadrants (of say 50x50 pixels) and label the columns as A, B, C.... and the rows as 1, 2, 3... Next I plan to do something like, 1) Find the markers which are the farthest north, east, south, and west 2) Use that info to to define the bounding boxes of each row and column box 3) Classify each marker by its row and column (Example Marker 1 = [A,2]) A few requirements, I don't know the zoom level because I let Google set the zoom level appropriately for me and I would rather not use an algorithm that is dependent on a zoom level. I do however know the locations of all of the markers that are shown on the map. Here is an example of a map that I would like to classify the markers for, static map example link. I found these which look like a good start, Resource 1, Resource 2 But I think I'm still in need of some help getting started. Can anyone help write out some pseudo code or post a few more resources? I'm kind of in a rut at the moment. Thanks! Much appreciated of any help!

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  • Change made in the Converter will notify the change in the bound property?

    - by Kishore Kumar
    I have two property FirstName and LastName and bound to a textblock using Multibinidng and converter to display the FullName as FirstName + Last Name. FirstName="Kishore" LastName="Kumar" In the Converter I changed the LastName as "Changed Text" values[1] = "Changed Text"; After executing the Converter my TextBlock will show "Kishore Changed Text" but Dependency property LastName is still have the last value "Kumar". Why I am not getting the "Changed Text" value in the LastName property after the execution?. Will the change made at converter will notify the bound property? <Window.Resources> <local:NameConverter x:Key="NameConverter"></local:NameConverter> </Window.Resources> <Grid> <TextBlock> <TextBlock.Text> <MultiBinding Converter="{StaticResource NameConverter}"> <Binding Path="FirstName"></Binding> <Binding Path="LastName"></Binding> </MultiBinding> </TextBlock.Text> </TextBlock> </Grid> Converter: public class NameConverter:IMultiValueConverter { #region IMultiValueConverter Members public object Convert(object[] values, Type targetType, object parameter, System.Globalization.CultureInfo culture) { values[1] = "Changed Text"; return values[0].ToString() + " " + values[1].ToString(); } public object[] ConvertBack(object value, Type[] targetTypes, object parameter, System.Globalization.CultureInfo culture) { throw new NotImplementedException(); } #endregion }

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  • H.264 / FLV best practices for HTML

    - by Steve Murch
    I run a website with about 700 videos (And no, it's not porn -- get your mind out of the gutter :-) ). The videos are currently in FLV format. We use the JWPlayer to render those videos. IIS6 hosted. Everything works just fine. As I understand it, H.264 (not FLV and likely not OGG) is the emerging preferred HTML5 video standard. Today, the iPad really only respects H.264 or YouTube. Presumably, soon many more important browsers will follow Apple's lead and respect only the HTML5 tag. OK, so I think I can figure out how to convert my existing videos into the proper H.264 format. There are various tools available, including ffmpeg.exe. I haven't tried it yet, but I don't think that's going to be a problem after fiddling with the codec settings. My question is more about the container itself -- that is, planning graceful transition for all users. What's the best-practice recommendation for rendering these videos? If I just use the HTML5 tag, then presumably any browser that doesn't yet support HTML5 won't see the videos. And if I render them in Flash format via the JWPlayer or some other player, then they won't be playable on the iPad. Do I have to do ugly UserAgent detection here to figure out what to render? I know the JWPlayer supports H.264 media, but isn't the player itself a Flash component and therefore not playable on the iPad? Sorry if I'm not being clear, but I'm scratching my head on a graceful transition plan that will work for current browsers, the iPad and the upcoming HTML5 wave. I'm not a video expert, so any advice would be most welcome, thanks.

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  • Vlad the deployer on Dreamhost - initial script

    - by xmariachi
    Hi, I'm trying to deploy an app with SVN and Vlad the deployer. Vlad and its dependencies are installed and seem OK. I'm trying the following: rake prod vlad:update Being my config/deploy.rb file: task :prod do set :application, "xxx" set :deploy_timestamped, "false" set :user, "username" set :scm_user, "scmusername" set :repository, "http://domain.com/svn/app" set :domain, "domain.com" set :deploy_to, "/home/username/deployments/app" puts "Production deployment to #{deploy_to}" end I have done "rake prod vlad:setup" already, that's fine. But when calling "rake prod vlad:update", I get the following A ...file Exported revision 14. ln: creating symbolic link `/home/username/deployments/drupalgestalt/releases/20100503164225/public/system' to `/home/username/deployments/drupalgestalt/shared/system': No such file or directory rake aborted! execution failed with status 1: ssh domain.com ln -s /home/username/deployments/app/shared/log /home/username/deployments/app/releases/20100503164225/log && ln -s /home/username/deployments/app/shared/system /home/username/deployments/app/releases/20100503164225/public/system && ln -s /home/username/deployments/app/shared/pids /home/username/deployments/app/releases/20100503164225/tmp/pids Apparently it complains when creating the ln, but permissions are all set up fine. Am I doing anything wrong? I'm just starting with Vlad on the assumption it was super-easy to set up. Had played a bit with cap in the past, and I do like Vlad idea.

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  • Versioning SharePoint binary Workflow ASPX task forms

    - by Janis Veinbergs
    Hello. As noted by some developers, workflow versioning is somekind of headache in SharePoint. I`m wondering is there a way I can version my aspx forms? For sure, i can version code behind assemblies, but if markup changes for any of my files in LAYOUTS folder? Is there versioning available for files or do i have to choose new filename for my form? Sorry, i should have been more specific. Yes, i have files under version control (i can restore previous versions etc), but i`m not talking about this kind of version control. But by deploying new Workflow Version, i must not delete old one, because it is still running on many items in SharePoint, but rather , as noted in previous links, deploy new one so i don't break execution of workflows. But workflows will still break if i don't preserve old aspx forms used by users to interact with workflows. So i must ensure that Assemblies with old version numbers used by old workflow exists (this one is ok, i just changed assembly version number and deployed to GAC) I must ensure that old workflow still uses old aspx form used users to interact with workflow, but new workflow version should use new aspx form with more options (how to do this?).

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  • Is there a way in .NET to access the bytecode/IL/CLR that is currently running?

    - by Alix
    Hi. I'd like to have access to the bytecode that is currently running or about to run in order to detect certain instructions and take specific actions (depending the instructions). In short, I'd like to monitor the bytecode in order to add safety control. Is this possible? I know there are some AOP frameworks that notify you of specific events, like an access to a field or the invocation of a method, but I'd like to skip that extra layer and just look at all the bytecode myself, throughout the entire execution of the application. I've already looked at the following questions (...among many many others ;) ):     Preprocessing C# - Detecting Methods     What CLR/.NET bytecode tools exist? as well as several AOP frameworks (although not in great detail, since they don't seem to do quite what I need) and I'm familiar with Mono.Cecil. I appreciate alternative suggestions, but I don't want to introduce the overhead of an AOP framework when what I actually need is access to the bytecode, without all the stuff they add on top to make it more user-friendly (... admittedly very useful stuff when you don't want to go low-level). Thanks :)

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  • Using a CALayer in UITableViewCell

    - by Brian
    On each cell of my table view I want to have a bar that the user can slide out from the right. On the bar I plan to have icons. So, to do this I subclassed UITableViewCell. On the cell I have implemented drawRect and in there I have already drawn a gradient and background color on the cell. From there, I can create a CALayer, give it a frame & background color, and add it as a sub layer to the Views subLayers array. I can do all that and it will display my layer on each UITableViewCell. I have added touch events to the cell so I can detect when the user touches the cell and for testing I have made it so when the user swipes, my CALayer gets wider. But the issue is, when the UITableView scrolls and reuses a cell whose CALayer has been widened, it doesn't recreate the CALayer. I have tried [myLayer setNeedsDisplay] and used the drawLayer:inContext method of its delegate and it doesn't get called. I have also tried telling call setNeedsDisplay on the cell in my UITableViewController hoping that that will cause a redraw, but it doesn't work. I'm not sure what I'm missing. I am new to CoreGraphics & CoreAnimation. I have read through the CoreAnimation Developers Guide, but I'm assuming I missing something. Any help would be great.

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  • Problem in creating win installer in i

    - by user356108
    Hi Everyone, I am trying to create an executable file (.exe) of iReport with my module included in it. While I run the target the create-iReport-distro-win-installer, I am getting the following error. Note: I am using netbeans 6.5.1 java.io.IOException: Cannot run program "makensis" (in directory "C:\Program Files\NetBeans 6.5.1\iReport-3.7.2-src"): CreateProcess error=2, The system cannot find the file specified at java.lang.ProcessBuilder.start(ProcessBuilder.java:459) at java.lang.Runtime.exec(Runtime.java:593) at sun.reflect.NativeMethodAccessorImpl.invoke0(Native Method) at sun.reflect.NativeMethodAccessorImpl.invoke(NativeMethodAccessorImpl.java:39) at sun.reflect.DelegatingMethodAccessorImpl.invoke(DelegatingMethodAccessorImpl.java:25) at java.lang.reflect.Method.invoke(Method.java:597) at org.apache.tools.ant.taskdefs.Execute$Java13CommandLauncher.exec(Execute.java:832) at org.apache.tools.ant.taskdefs.Execute.launch(Execute.java:447) at org.apache.tools.ant.taskdefs.Execute.execute(Execute.java:461) at net.sf.nsisant.Task.execute(Task.java:205) at org.apache.tools.ant.UnknownElement.execute(UnknownElement.java:288) at sun.reflect.GeneratedMethodAccessor97.invoke(Unknown Source) at sun.reflect.DelegatingMethodAccessorImpl.invoke(DelegatingMethodAccessorImpl.java:25) at java.lang.reflect.Method.invoke(Method.java:597) at org.apache.tools.ant.dispatch.DispatchUtils.execute(DispatchUtils.java:106) at org.apache.tools.ant.Task.perform(Task.java:348) at org.apache.tools.ant.Target.execute(Target.java:357) at org.apache.tools.ant.Target.performTasks(Target.java:385) at org.apache.tools.ant.Project.executeSortedTargets(Project.java:1337) at org.apache.tools.ant.Project.executeTarget(Project.java:1306) at org.apache.tools.ant.helper.DefaultExecutor.executeTargets(DefaultExecutor.java:41) at org.apache.tools.ant.Project.executeTargets(Project.java:1189) at org.apache.tools.ant.module.bridge.impl.BridgeImpl.run(BridgeImpl.java:273) at org.apache.tools.ant.module.run.TargetExecutor.run(TargetExecutor.java:499) at org.netbeans.core.execution.RunClassThread.run(RunClassThread.java:151) Caused by: java.io.IOException: CreateProcess error=2, The system cannot find the file specified at java.lang.ProcessImpl.create(Native Method) at java.lang.ProcessImpl.<init>(ProcessImpl.java:81) at java.lang.ProcessImpl.start(ProcessImpl.java:30) at java.lang.ProcessBuilder.start(ProcessBuilder.java:452) ... 24 more C:\Program Files\NetBeans 6.5.1\iReport-3.7.2-src\build.xml:327: Command failed: 'makensis /DPRODUCT_VERSION=3.7.2 /DPRODUCT_NAME=iReport /DPRODUCT_WEB_SITE=http://ireport.sourceforge.net "C:\Program Files\NetBeans 6.5.1\iReport-3.7.2-src\etc\iReportInstaller.nsi"' BUILD FAILED (total time: 1 minute 22 seconds)

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  • What makes these two R data frames not identical?

    - by Matt Parker
    UPDATE: I remembered dput() about the time Sharpie mentioned it. It's probably the row names. Back in a moment with an answer. I have two small data frames, this_tx and last_tx. They are, in every way that I can tell, completely identical. this_tx == last_tx results in a frame of identical dimensions, all TRUE. this_tx %in% last_tx, two TRUEs. Inspected visually, clearly identical. But when I call identical(this_tx, last_tx) I get a FALSE. Hilariously, even identical(str(this_tx), str(last_tx)) will return a TRUE. If I set this_tx <- last_tx, I'll get a TRUE. What is going on? I don't have the deepest understanding of R's internal mechanics, but I can't find a single difference between the two data frames. If it's relevant, the two variables in the frames are both factors - same levels, same numeric coding for the levels, both just subsets of the same original data frame. Converting them to character vectors doesn't help. Background (because I wouldn't mind help on this, either): I have records of drug treatments given to patients. Each treatment record essentially specifies a person and a date. A second table has a record for each drug and dose given during a particular treatment (usually, a few drugs are given each treatment). I'm trying to identify contiguous periods during which the person was taking the same combinations of drugs at the same doses. The best plan I've come up with is to check the treatments chronologically. If the combination of drugs and doses for treatment[i] is identical to the combination at treatment[i-1], then treatment[i] is a part of the same phase as treatment[i-1]. Of course, if I can't compare drug/dose combinations, that's right out.

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  • Compile C++ file as objective-c++ using makefile

    - by Vikas
    I'm trying to compile .cpp files as objective-c++ using makefile as few of my cpp file have objective code. I added -x objective-c++ as complier option and started getting stray /327 in program error( and lots of similar error with different numbers after /). The errors are around 200. But when I change the encoding of the file from unicode-8 to 16 the error reduces to 23. currently there is no objective-c++ code in the .cpp file but plan to add in future. When i remove -x objective-c++ from complier option ,everything complies fine. and .out is generated. I would be helpful if someone will tell me why this is happening and even a solution for the same Thanks in advance example of my makefile <code> MACHINE= $(shell uname -s) CFLAGS?=-w -framework CoreServices -framework ApplicationServices -framework CoreFoundation -framework CoreWLAN -framework Cocoa -framework Foundation ifeq ($(MACHINE),Darwin) CCLINK?= -lpthread else CCLINK?= -lpthread -lrt endif DEBUG?= -g -rdynamic -ggdb CCOPT= $(CFLAGS) $(ARCH) $(PROF) CC =g++ -x objective-c++ AR = ar rcs #lib name SLIB_NAME=myapplib EXENAME = myapp.out OBJDIR = build OBJLIB := $(addprefix $(OBJDIR)/... all .o files) SS_OBJ := $(addprefix $(OBJDIR)/,myapp.o ) vpath %.cpp path to my .cpp files INC = include files subsystem: make all $(OBJLIB) : |$(OBJDIR) $(OBJDIR): mkdir $(OBJDIR) $(OBJDIR)/%.o:%.cpp $(CC) -c $(INC) $(CCOPT) $(DEBUG) $(CCLINK) $< -o $@ all: $(OBJLIB) $(CLI_OBJ) $(SS_OBJ) $(AR) lib$(SLIB_NAME).a $(OBJLIB) $(CC) $(INC) $(CCOPT) $(SS_OBJ) $(DEBUG) $(CCLINK) -l$(SLIB_NAME) -L ./ -o $(OBJDIR)/$(EXENAME) clean: rm -rf $(OBJDIR)/* dep: $(CC) -MM *.cpp </code>

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  • Far jump in ntdll.dll's internal ZwCreateUserProcess

    - by user49164
    I'm trying to understand how the Windows API creates processes so I can create a program to determine where invalid exes fail. I have a program that calls kernel32.CreateProcessA. Following along in OllyDbg, this calls kernel32.CreateProcessInternalA, which calls kernel32.CreateProcessInternalW, which calls ntdll.ZwCreateUserProcess. This function goes: mov eax, 0xAA xor ecx, ecx lea edx, dword ptr [esp+4] call dword ptr fs:[0xC0] add esp, 4 retn 0x2C So I follow the call to fs:[0xC0], which contains a single instruction: jmp far 0x33:0x74BE271E But when I step this instruction, Olly just comes back to ntdll.ZwCreateUserProcess at the add esp, 4 right after the call (which is not at 0x74BE271E). I put a breakpoint at retn 0x2C, and I find that the new process was somehow created during the execution of add esp, 4. So I'm assuming there's some magic involved in the far jump. I tried to change the CS register to 0x33 and EIP to 0x74BE271E instead of actually executing the far jump, but that just gave me an access violation after a few instructions. What's going on here? I need to be able to delve deeper beyond the abstraction of this ZwCreateUserProcess to figure out how exactly Windows creates processes.

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  • Java design: too many getters

    - by dege
    After writing a few lesser programs when learning Java the way I've designed the programs is with Model-View-Control. With using MVC I have a plethora of getter methods in the model for the view to use. It feels that while I gain on using MVC, for every new value added I have to add two new methods in the model which quickly get all cluttered with getter & setters. So I was thinking, maybe I should use the notifyObserver method that takes an argument. But wouldn't feel very smart to send every value by itself either so I figured, maybe if I send a kind of container with all the values, preferably only those that actually changed. What this would accomplish would be that instead of having a whole lot of getter methods I could just have one method in the model which put all relevant values in the container. Then in the view I would have a method called from the update which extracted the values from the container and assigning them to the correct fields. I have two questions concerning this. First: is this actually a viable way to do this. Would you recommend me doing something along these lines? Secondly: if I do use this plan and I don't want to keep sending fields that didn't actually change. How would I handle that without having to have if statements to check if the value is not null for every single value?

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  • Custom CheckBoxList in ASP.NET

    - by Rick
    Since ASP.NET's CheckBoxList control does not allow itself to be validated with one of the standard validation controls (i.e., RequiredFieldValidator), I would like to create a UserControl that I can use in my project whenever I need a checkbox list that requires one or more boxes to be checked. The standard CheckBoxList can be dragged onto a page, and then you can manually add <asp:ListItem> controls if you want. Is there any way I can create a UserControl that lets me manually (in the markup, not programmatically) insert ListItems from my page in a similar manner? In other words, can I insert a UserControl onto a page, and then from the Designer view of the Page (i.e., not the designer view of the UserControl), can I manually add my ListItems like so: <uc1:RequiredCheckBoxList> <asp:ListItem Text="A" value="B"></asp:ListItem> <asp:ListItem Text="X" value="Y"></asp:ListItem> </uc1:RequiredCheckBoxList> If a UserControl is not the appropriate choice for the end result I'm looking for, I'm open to other suggestions. Please note that I am aware of the CustomValidator control (which is how I plan to validate within my UserControl). It's just a pain to write the same basic code each time I need one of these required checkbox lists, which is why I want to create a re-usable control.

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  • How to stop MVC caching the results of invoking and action method?

    - by Trey Carroll
    I am experiencing a problem with IE caching the results of an action method. Other articles I found were related to security and the [Authorize] attribute. This problem has nothing to do with security. This is a very simple "record a vote, grab the average, return the avg and the number of votes" method. The only slightly interesting thing about it is that it is invoked via Ajax and returns a Json object. I believe that it is the Json object that is getting catched. When I run it from FireFox and watch the XHR traffic with Firebug, everything works perfectly. However, under IE 8 the "throbber" graphic doesn't ever have time to show up and the page elements that display the "new" avg and count that are being injected into the page with jQuery are never different. I need a way to tell MVC to never cache this action method. This article seems to address the problem, but I cannot understand it: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1441467/prevent-caching-of-attributes-in-asp-net-mvc-force-attribute-execution-every-tim I need a bit more context for the solution to understand how to extend AuthorizationAttribute. Please address your answer as if you were speaking to someone who lacks a deep understanding of MVC even if that means replying with an article on some basics/prerequisites that are required. Thanks, Trey Carroll

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  • SQL Server CLR stored procedures in data processing tasks - good or evil?

    - by Gart
    In short - is it a good design solution to implement most of the business logic in CLR stored procedures? I have read much about them recently but I can't figure out when they should be used, what are the best practices, are they good enough or not. For example, my business application needs to parse a large fixed-length text file, extract some numbers from each line in the file, according to these numbers apply some complex business rules (involving regex matching, pattern matching against data from many tables in the database and such), and as a result of this calculation update records in the database. There is also a GUI for the user to select the file, view the results, etc. This application seems to be a good candidate to implement the classic 3-tier architecture: the Data Layer, the Logic Layer, and the GUI layer. The Data Layer would access the database The Logic Layer would run as a WCF service and implement the business rules, interacting with the Data Layer The GUI Layer would be a means of communication between the Logic Layer and the User. Now, thinking of this design, I can see that most of the business rules may be implemented in a SQL CLR and stored in SQL Server. I might store all my raw data in the database, run the processing there, and get the results. I see some advantages and disadvantages of this solution: Pros: The business logic runs close to the data, meaning less network traffic. Process all data at once, possibly utilizing parallelizm and optimal execution plan. Cons: Scattering of the business logic: some part is here, some part is there. Questionable design solution, may encounter unknown problems. Difficult to implement a progress indicator for the processing task. I would like to hear all your opinions about SQL CLR. Does anybody use it in production? Are there any problems with such design? Is it a good thing?

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  • LINQ - How to query a range of effective dates that only has start dates

    - by itchi
    I'm using C# 3.5 and EntityFramework. I have a list of items in the database that contain interest rates. Unfortunately this list only contains the Effective Start Date. I need to query this list for all items within a range. However, I can't see a way to do this without querying the database twice. (Although I'm wondering if delayed execution with EntityFramework is making only one call.) Regardless, I'm wondering if I can do this without using my context twice. internal IQueryable<Interest> GetInterests(DateTime startDate, DateTime endDate) { var FirstDate = Context.All().Where(x => x.START_DATE < startDate).Max(x => x.START_DATE); IQueryable<Interest> listOfItems = Context.All().Where(x => x.START_DATE >= FirstDate && x.START_DATE <= endDate); return listOfItems; }

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  • Maven GAE Plugin - Unable to run gae:debug

    - by Taylor L
    I'm having trouble running the gae:debug goal of the Maven GAE Plugin. The error I'm receiving is below. Any ideas? I'm running it with "mvn gae:debug". [INFO] Packaging webapp [INFO] Assembling webapp[test-gae] in [C:\development\test-gae\target\test-gae-0.0.1-SNAPSHOT] [INFO] Processing war project [INFO] Webapp assembled in[56 msecs] [INFO] Building war: C:\development\test-gae\target\test-gae-0.0.1-SNAPSHOT.war [INFO] [statemgmt:end-fork] [INFO] Ending forked execution [fork id: -2101914270] [INFO] [gae:debug] Usage: <dev-appserver> [options] <war directory> Options: --help, -h Show this help message and exit. --server=SERVER The server to use to determine the latest -s SERVER SDK version. --address=ADDRESS The address of the interface on the local machine -a ADDRESS to bind to (or 0.0.0.0 for all interfaces). --port=PORT The port number to bind to on the local machine. -p PORT --sdk_root=root Overrides where the SDK is located. --disable_update_check Disable the check for newer SDK versions. EDIT: gae:run with the jvmFlags option is also giving me the same result with the below configuration. <plugin> <groupId>net.kindleit</groupId> <artifactId>maven-gae-plugin</artifactId> <version>0.5.0</version> <configuration> <jvmFlags> <jvmFlag>-Xdebug</jvmFlag> <jvmFlag>-Xrunjdwp:transport=dt_socket,server=y,suspend=n,address=8000</jvmFlag> </jvmFlags> </configuration> </plugin>

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  • How to completely wipe a previous ClickOnce installation?

    - by Dabblernl
    I have a curious problem: My app is distributed through ClickOnce. I recently installed three new clients on a new location. They worked. After an update however, all old clients worked fine, but the three new clients did not. As my code is swallowing an exception somewhere I have been unable thusfar to pinpoint where the error lies. When I XCopy the latest version of the app to the desktop of the three new client computers the program works fine. So, I thought uninstalling and reinstalling the program from the download location should fix the problem, but it does not! I can think of two explanations: The new location has some firewall/virusscanner in place that doesn't like the latest version of my app when it is run from a standard ClickOnce directory, but it allows execution from the desktop. Some old settings (the app uses user scoped and app scoped settings) remain in effect after the uninstall. When I find and check the user.config file for the app however, I find no incorrect setttings there. Thusfar, I have been unable to reproduce the error on any other machine. How can I solve this!?

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  • PHP set timeout for script with system call, set_time_limit not working

    - by tehalive
    I have a command-line PHP script that runs a wget request using each member of an array with foreach. This wget request can sometimes take a long time so I want to be able to set a timeout for killing the script if it goes past 15 seconds for example. I have PHP safemode disabled and tried set_time_limit(15) early in the script, however it continues indefinitely. Update: Thanks to Dor for pointing out this is because set_time_limit() does not respect system() calls. So I was trying to find other ways to kill the script after 15 seconds of execution. However, I'm not sure if it's possible to check the time a script has been running while it's in the middle of a wget request at the same time (a do while loop did not work). Maybe fork a process with a timer and set it to kill the parent after a set amount of time? Thanks for any tips! Update: Below is my relevant code. $url is passed from the command-line and is an array of multiple URLs (sorry for not posting this initially): foreach( $url as $key => $value){ $wget = "wget -r -H -nd -l 999 $value"; system($wget); }

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