Search Results

Search found 26214 results on 1049 pages for 'farm solution'.

Page 242/1049 | < Previous Page | 238 239 240 241 242 243 244 245 246 247 248 249  | Next Page >

  • What is the best way to iterate over a large result set in JDBC/iBatis 3?

    - by paul_sns
    We're trying to iterate over a large number of rows from the database and convert those into objects. Behavior will be as follows: Result will be sorted by sequence id, a new object will be created when sequence id changes. The object created will be sent to an external service and will sometimes have to wait before sending another one (which means the next set of data will not be immediately used) We already have invested code in iBatis 3 so an iBatis solution will be the best approach for us (we've tried using RowBounds but haven't seen how it does the iteration under the hood). We'd like to balance minimizing memory usage and reducing number of DB trips. We're also open to pure JDBC approach but we'd like the solution to work on different databases. UPDATE: We need to make as few calls to DB as possible (1 call would be the ideal scenario) while also preventing the application to use too much memory. Are there any other solutions out there for this type of problem may it be pure JDBC or any other technology? Thanks and hope to hear your insights on this.

    Read the article

  • BindingFlags.DeclaredOnly alternative to avoid ambiguous properties of derived classes

    - by JoeBilly
    I'am looking for a solution to access 'flatten' (lowest) properties values of a class and its derived via reflection by property names. ie access either Property1 or Property2 from the ClassB or ClassC type : public class ClassA { public virtual object Property1 { get; set; } public object Property2 { get; set; } } public class ClassB : ClassA { public override object Property1 { get; set; } } public class ClassC : ClassB { } Using simple reflection works until you have virtual properties that are overrired (ie Property1 from ClassB). Then you get a AmbiguousMatchException because the searcher don't know if you want the property of the main class or the derived. Using BindingFlags.DeclaredOnly avoid the AmbiguousMatchException but unoverrided virtual properties or derived classes properties are ommited (ie Property2 from ClassB). Is there an alternative to this poor workaround : // Get the main class property with the specified propertyName PropertyInfo propertyInfo = _type.GetProperty(propertyName, BindingFlags.DeclaredOnly | BindingFlags.Public | BindingFlags.Instance | BindingFlags.Static); // If not found, get the property wherever it is if (propertyInfo == null) propertyInfo = _type.GetProperty(propertyName); Furthermore, this workaround not resolve the reflection of 2nd level properties : getting Property1 from ClassC and AmbiguousMatchException is back. My thoughts : I have no choice except loop... Erk... ?? I'am open to Emit, Lambda (is the Expression.Call can handle this?) even DLR solution. Thanks !

    Read the article

  • How to use a int2 database-field as a boolean in Java using JPA/Hibernate

    - by mg
    Hello... I write an application based on an already existing database (postgreSQL) using JPA and Hibernate. There is a int2-column (activeYN) in a table, which is used as a boolean (0 = false (inactive), not 0 = true (active)). In the Java application i want to use this attribute as a boolean. So i defined the attribute like this: @Entity public class ModelClass implements Serializable { /*..... some Code .... */ private boolean active; @Column(name="activeYN") public boolean isActive() { return this.active; } /* .... some other Code ... */ } But there ist an exception because Hibernate expects an boolean database-field and not an int2. Can i do this mapping i any way while using a boolean in java?? I have a possible solution for this, but i don't really like it: My "hacky"-solution is the following: @Entity public class ModelClass implements Serializable { /*..... some Code .... */ private short active_USED_BY_JPA; //short because i need int2 /** * @Deprecated this method is only used by JPA. Use the method isActive() */ @Column(name="activeYN") public short getActive_USED_BY_JPA() { return this.active_USED_BY_JPA; } /** * @Deprecated this method is only used by JPA. * Use the method setActive(boolean active) */ public void setActive_USED_BY_JPA(short active) { this.active_USED_BY_JPA = active; } @Transient //jpa will ignore transient marked methods public boolean isActive() { return getActive_USED_BY_JPA() != 0; } @Transient public void setActive(boolean active) { this.setActive_USED_BY_JPA = active ? -1 : 0; } /* .... some other Code ... */ } Are there any other solutions for this problem? The "hibernate.hbm2ddl.auto"-value in the hibernate configuration is set to "validate". (sorry, my english is not the best, i hope you understand it anyway)..

    Read the article

  • Caching page by parts; how to pass variables calculated in cached parts into never-cached parts?

    - by Kirzilla
    Hello, Let's imagine that I have a code like this... if (!$data = $cache->load("part1_cache_id")) { $item_id = $model->getItemId(); ob_start(); echo 'Here is the cached item id: '.$item_id; $data = ob_get_contents(); ob_end_clean(); $cache->save($data, "part1_cache_id"); } echo $data; echo never_cache_function($item_id); if (!$data_2 = $cache->load("part2_cache_id")) { ob_start(); echo 'Here is the another cached part of the page...'; $data_2 = ob_get_contents(); ob_end_clean(); $cache->save("part2_cache_id"); } echo $data_2; As far as you can see I need to pass $item_id variable into never_cache_function, but if fist part is cached (part1_cache_id) then I have no way to get $item_id value. I see the only solution - serialize all data from fist part (including $item_id value); then cache serialized string and unserialize it everytime when script is executed... Something like this... if (!$data = $cache->load("part1_cache_id")) { $item_id = $model->getItemId(); $data['item_id'] = $item_id; ob_start(); echo 'Here is the cached item id: '.$item_id; $data['html'] = ob_get_contents(); ob_end_clean(); $cache->save( serialize($data), "part1_cache_id" ); } $data = unserialize($data); echo $data['html'] echo never_cache_function($data['item_id']); Is there any other ways for doing such trick? I'm looking for the most high performance solution. Thank you UPDATED And another question is - how to implement such caching into controller without separating page into two templates? Is it possible? PS: Please, do not suggest Smarty, I'm really interested in implementing custom caching.

    Read the article

  • Handling MVC2 variables with hyphens in their name

    - by Jaxidian
    I'm working with some third-party software that creates querystring parameters with hyphens in their names. I was taking a look at this SO question and it seems like their solution is very close to what I need but I'm too ignorant to the underlying MVC stuff to figure out how to adapt this to do what I need. Ideally, I'd like to simply replace hyphens with underscores and that would be a good enough solution. If there's a better one, then I'm interested in hearing it. An example of a URL I want to handle is this: http://localhost/app/Person/List?First-Name=Bob with this Controller: public ActionResult List(string First_Name) { {...} } To repeat, I cannot change the querystring being generated so I need to support it with my controller somehow. But how? For reference, below is the custom RouteHandler that is being used to handle underscores in controller names and action names from the SO question I referenced above that we might be able to modify to accomplish what I want: public class HyphenatedRouteHandler : MvcRouteHandler { protected override IHttpHandler GetHttpHandler(RequestContext requestContext) { requestContext.RouteData.Values["controller"] = requestContext.RouteData.Values["controller"].ToString().Replace("-", "_"); requestContext.RouteData.Values["action"] = requestContext.RouteData.Values["action"].ToString().Replace("-", "_"); return base.GetHttpHandler(requestContext); } }

    Read the article

  • How can I apply a PSSM efficiently?

    - by flies
    I am fitting for position specific scoring matrices (PSSM aka Position Specific Weight Matrices). The fit I'm using is like simulated annealing, where I the perturb the PSSM, compare the prediction to experiment and accept the change if it improves agreement. This means I apply the PSSM millions of times per fit; performance is critical. In my particular problem, I'm applying a PSSM for an object of length L (~8 bp) at every position of a DNA sequence of length M (~30 bp) (so there are M-L+1 valid positions). I need an efficient algorithm to apply a PSSM. Can anyone help improve performance? My best idea is to convert the DNA into some kind of a matrix so that applying the PSSM is matrix multiplication. There are efficient linear algebra libraries out there (e.g. BLAS), but I'm not sure how best to turn an M-length DNA sequence into a matrix M x 4 matrix and then apply the PSSM at each position. The solution needs to work for higher order/dinucleotide terms in the PSSM - presumably this means representing the sequence-matrix for mono-nucleotides and separately for dinucleotides. My current solution iterates over each position m, then over each letter in word from m to m+L-1, adding the corresponding term in the matrix. I'm storing the matrix as a multi-dimensional STL vector, and profiling has revealed that a lot of the computation time is just accessing the elements of the PSSM (with similar performance bottlenecks accessing the DNA sequence). If someone has an idea besides matrix multiplication, I'm all ears.

    Read the article

  • Cross-domain templating with Javascript

    - by Husky
    I'm currently building a Javascript library that can be used to easily create embeddable media based on the URL of a media file, and then be controlled using Javascript methods and events (think something like the Flash / Silverlight JW player). Of course, i could simply cat all the html tags from the Javascript library and send that to the browser: function player(url) { document.write('<object type="foo"><param name="something" value="bar">' + <param name="source" value=" + url + '/></object>'); } But i think this is a very ugly practice that tends to create unmanageable code that is unreadable when you review it a few weeks later. So, a templating solution seems to be the way to go. I've been looking to EJS because it loads the templates using AJAX, so you can manage your templates in separate file instead of directly on the HTML page. There's one 'gotcha' with that: my library needs to be completely cross-domain: the library itself could be located on foo.com while the serving site could be located on bar.com. So if bar.com would want to add a media player using the library it needs to do an AJAX call to a template located on foo.com, which won't work because of the same-origin policy in browsers. AFAIK, there's no library that uses something like JSONP to read and write templates to get around this problem. Could anyone point me to a solution for this problem?

    Read the article

  • Can't Compile Correct Mapping File

    - by NoOne
    Hello, Im now developping one application in C# with Remoting objects and NHibernate. So here is a image explaining how my projects are divided. Views Layer This layer will be responsible for the users interface. This layer will always use the Controls Layer to create and edit objects; Control Layer This is my persistence layer, here Ill have all the NHibernate configuration. This is my critic point, because ListSingleton Project will have only my RemoteObject. (Here I have the App.config file) Models Layer Entity layer. Here I only have the entities classes and their respective mapping. I’ve done a test solution with no remoting and only with the projects of the Control and Model Layers. It was all working ok. Now that I added the Views Layer and set the solution to start with projects Client and Server (Client calls the Control Layer and this would do a try to persist a object) I’m getting a error at : Configuration cfg = new Configuration(); cfg.AddXmlFile("mapping/User.hbm.xml"); InnerException: {"Could not compile the mapping document: mapping/User.hbm.xml"} InnerException.InnerException: {"Could not find the dialect in the configuration"} StackTrace in the InnerException.InnerException " em NHibernate.Dialect.Dialect.GetDialect(IDictionary`2 props)\r\n em NHibernate.Cfg.Configuration.AddValidatedDocument(NamedXmlDocument doc)" But I know that there is no error in the mapping file because I used in my test application.

    Read the article

  • Launch .jar files with command line arguments (but with no console window)

    - by Virat Kadaru
    I have to do a demo of an application, the application has a server.jar and client.jar. Both have command line arguments and are executable. I need to launch two instances of server.jar and two instances of client.jar. I thought that using a batch file was the way to go, but, the batch file executes the first command (i.e. server.bat [argument1] [argument2]) and does not do anything else unless I close the first instance, in which case it then runs the 2nd command. And also the I do not want a blank console window to open (or be minimized) What I really need is a batch script that will just launch these apps without any console windows and launch all instances that I need. Thanks in Advance! EDIT: javaw: works if I type the command into the console window individually. If I put the same in the batch file, it will behave as before. Console window opens, one instance starts (whichever was first) and it does not proceed further unless I close the application in which case it runs the 2nd command. I want it to run all commands silently SOLUTION: Found the solution, below is the contents of my batch file @echo off start /B server.jar [arg1] [arg2] start /B server.jar [arg3] [arg4] @echo on this opens, runs all the commands and closes the window, does not wait for the command to finish.

    Read the article

  • How to develop JSP/Servlets Web App using MVC pattern?

    - by A.S al-shammari
    I'm developing a JSP/Servlets web app (no frameworks). I want to use MVC pattern. I designed my project like this : Controller :a servlet that reads a request, extracts the values,communicates with model objects and gives information to a JSP page. View : JSP Pages. Model : Java Classes / Java Beans .. etc . The problem : Index.jsp is the starting point (default page) in my web site. So, the Index.jsp becomes the controller to parse the request! .For example , the following request : index.jsp?section=article&id=10 parsed in index.jsp as following : <div class="midcol"> <!-- Which section? --> <%String fileName = request.getParameter("section"); if (fileName == null) { fileName = "WEB-INF/jspf/frontpage.jsp"; } else { fileName = "WEB-INF/jspf/" + fileName + ".jsp"; } %> <jsp:include page='<%= fileName%>' /> </div> Here, I can't force the servlet to be a controller .. because the index.jsp is the controller here since it's the starting point! Is there any solution to forward the request from index.jsp to the servlet and then go back to index.jsp ? Or any solution that achieves the MVC goal - the servlet should be the controller - ? I'm thinking of making a FrontPageController servlet as default page instead of index.jsp ! but I don't know if it's a perfect idea ?!

    Read the article

  • Hotkeys in webapps

    - by Johoo
    When creating webapps, is there any guidelines on which keys you can use for your own hotkeys without overriding too many of the browsers default hotkeys. For example i might want to have a custom copy command for copying entire sets of data that only makes sense for my program instead of just text. The logical combination for this would be ctrl+c but that would destroy the default copy hotkey for normal text. One solution i was thinking about is to only catch the hotkey when it "makes sense" but when you use some advanced custom selection it might be hard to differentiate if your data is focused, if text is selected or both. Right now i am only using single keys as the hotkey, so just 'c' for the example above and this seems to be what most other sites are doing too. The problem is that if you have text input this doesn't work so good. Is this the best solution? To clarify I'm talking about advanced webapps that behave more like normal programs and not just some website presenting information(even though i think these guidlines would be valid for both cases). So for the copy example it might not be a big deal if you can't copy the text in the menu but when ctrl+tab, alt+d or ctrl+e doesn't work i would be really pissed, cough flash cough.

    Read the article

  • Objective-C function dispatch collisions; Or, how to achieve "namespaces"?

    - by fbrereto
    I have an application for Mac OS X that supports plugins that are intended to be loaded at the same time. Some of these plugins are built on top of a Cocoa framework that may receive updates in one plugin but not another. Given Objective-C's current method for function dispatching, any call from any plugin to a given Objective-C routine will go to the same routine every time. That means plugin A can find itself inside plugin B with a trivial Objective-C call! Obviously what we're looking for is for each plugin to interact with its own version of the framework upon which it was built. I have been reading some on Objective-C and this particular need, but haven't found a definitive solution for it yet. Update: My use of the word "framework" above is misleading: the framework is a statically-linked library, built into the plugin(s) that need it. The way Objective-C handles dispatching, however, even these statically linked pieces of disparate code will co-mingle in the Objective-C dispatcher, leading to unintended consequences. Update 2: I'm still a bit fuzzy on the answer provided here, as it doesn't seem to propose a solution as much as an unproven hypothesis.

    Read the article

  • Programatically create web application & sub site

    - by Tejas
    I am using the following code to programatically create a web application & sub site, try { SPWebApplicationBuilder webAppBuilder = new SPWebApplicationBuilder(SPFarm.Local); SPWebApplication newApplication; int myPort = 3333; webAppBuilder.Port = myPort; //Port No. webAppBuilder.RootDirectory = new System.IO.DirectoryInfo("C:\\Inetpub\\wwwroot\\wss\\VirtualDirectories\\" + myPort); webAppBuilder.CreateNewDatabase = true; // Create new database webAppBuilder.DatabaseName = "WSS_Content_372772890a5a4a04abb460cd9ea3bd22"; // Database name webAppBuilder.DatabaseServer = webAppBuilder.DefaultZoneUri.Host; // DatabaseServer Host name/computer name webAppBuilder.UseNTLMExclusively = true; // Use NTLM authentication newApplication = webAppBuilder.Create(); // Create new web application newApplication.Provision(); // Provision it into web farm using (var mySiteCollection = newApplication.Sites.Add("/", "Site 3", "Site 3 Decscription", 1033, "STS#1", "In-Wai-Svr2\\Administrator", "Administrator", "[email protected]")) { using (var rootWeb = mySiteCollection.RootWeb) { // Code customizing root site goes here using (var subSite = rootWeb.Webs.Add("Site3.1", "Site 3.1", "Site 3.1 Description", 1033, "STS#1", true, false)) { // Code customizing sub site goes here } } } } catch(Exception ex) { ; } It works fine i.e. it creates the web application on the specified port with sub site but this sub site will not be shown under Sites menu of Quick launch bar also it will not be shown as a separate tab on the Home Page. Is it possible to do it programatically?

    Read the article

  • CrystalDecisions.Web reference version changes suddenly when run the webapp

    - by Somebody
    I'm breaking my head with this issue, I have a webapp that has a report using crystal report, in the development pc it works fine, but when copy the same project to another pc, when I load the project (VS 2003) the following msg appears: One or more projects in solution need to be updated to use Crystal Reports XI Release 2. If you choose "Yes", the update will be applied permanently... I choose "Yes" and after that I can see that CrystalDecisions.Web reference has the correct version, and location according to the develpment machine, in this case: 11.5.3300.0. But when run the webapp, I can see when the version and path suddenly changes to: 11.0.3300.0. And when trying to see the report the following error appears: Parser Error Message: The base class includes the field 'CrystalReportViewer1', but its type (CrystalDecisions.Web.CrystalReportViewer) is not compatible with the type of control (CrystalDecisions.Web.CrystalReportViewer). the asp.net has the following: <%@ Register TagPrefix="cr" Namespace="CrystalDecisions.Web" Assembly="CrystalDecisions.Web, Version=11.5.3300.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=692fbea5521e1304" %> How is this possible? what's happening here? EDIT This is what I did: the wrong version (11.0.3300.0) was located at: C:\Program Files\Common Files\Business Objects\3.0\managed and the right version (11.5.3300.0) is located at: C:\Program Files\Business Objects\Common\3.5\managed So I just deleted the files of the wrong solution, and I made it work in my new computer, no more errors when running the webapp, the report shows fine. But when try to do the same thing in production server, a different error came out, now an exception: This report could not be loaded due to the following issue: The type initializer for 'CrystalDecisions.CristalReports.Engine.ReportDocument' threw an exception. Any idea what could be causing this error now? Here is the code: Try Dim cr As New ReportDocument cr.Load(strpath) cr.SetDatabaseLogon("usring", "pwding") Select Case rt Case 1 cr.SummaryInfo.ReportTitle = "RMA Ticket" Case 2 cr.SummaryInfo.ReportTitle = "Service Ticket" End Select 'cr.SummaryInfo.ReportTitle = tt cr.SetParameterValue("TicketNo", tn) 'cr.SummaryInfo.ReportComments = comment CrystalReportViewer1.PrintMode = CrystalDecisions.Web.PrintMode.ActiveX CrystalReportViewer1.ReportSource = cr CrystalReportViewer1.ShowFirstPage() 'cr.Close() 'cr.Dispose() Catch ex As Exception MsgBox1.alert("This report could not be loaded due to the following issue: " & ex.Message) End Try

    Read the article

  • How best to implement "favourites" feature? (like favourite products on a data driven website)

    - by ClarkeyBoy
    Hi, I have written a dynamic database driven, object oriented website with an administration frontend etc etc. I would like to add a feature where customers can save items as "favourites", without having to create an account and login, to come back to them later, but I dont know how exactly to go about doing this... I see three options: Log favourites based on IP address and then change these to be logged against an account if the customer then creates an account; Force customers to create an account to be able to use this functionality; Log favourites based on IP address but give users the option to save their favourites under a name they specify. The problem with option 1 is that I dont know much about IP addresses - my Dad thinks they are unique, but I know people have had problems with systems like this. The problem with 1 and 2 is that accounts have not been opened up to customers yet - only administrators can log in at the moment. It should be easy to alter this (no more than a morning or afternoons work) but I would also have to implement usergroups too. The problem with option 3 is that if user A saves a favourites list called "My Favourites", and then user B tries to save a list under this name and it is refused, user B will then be able to access the list saved by user A because they now know it already exists. A solution to this is to password protect lists, but to go to all this effort I may as well implement option 2. Of course I could always use option 4; use an alternative if anyone can suggest a better solution than any of the above options. So has anyone ever done something like this before? If so how did you go about it? What do you recommend (or not recommend)? Many thanks in advance, Regards, Richard

    Read the article

  • Random Pairings that don't Repeat

    - by Andrew Robinson
    This little project / problem came out of left field for me. Hoping someone can help me here. I have some rough ideas but I am sure (or at least I hope) a simple, fairly efficient solution exists. Thanks in advance.... pseudo code is fine. I generally work in .NET / C# if that sheds any light on your solution. Given: A pool of n individuals that will be meeting on a regular basis. I need to form pairs that have not previously meet. The pool of individuals will slowly change over time. For the purposes of pairing, (A & B) and (B & A) constitute the same pair. The history of previous pairings is maintained. For the purpose of the problem, assume an even number of individuals. For each meeting (collection of pairs) and individual will only pair up once. Is there an algorithm that will allow us to form these pairs? Ideally something better than just ordering the pairs in a random order, generating pairings and then checking against the history of previous pairings. In general, randomness within the pairing is ok.

    Read the article

  • Error handling in PHP

    - by Industrial
    Hi guys, We're building a PHP app based on Good old MVC (codeigniter framework) and have run into trouble with a massive chained action that consists of multiple model calls, that together is a part of a big transaction to the database. We want to be able to do a list of actions and get a status report of each one back from the function, whatever the outcome is. Our first initial idea was to utilize the exceptions of PHP5, but since we want to also need status messages that doesnt break the execution of the script, this was our solution that we came up with. It goes a little something like this: $sku = $this->addSku( $name ); if ($sku === false) { $status[] = 'Something gone terrible wrong'; $this->db->trans_rollback(); return $status; } $image= $this->addImage( $filename); if ($image=== false) { $error[] = 'Image could not be uploaded, check filesize'; $this->db->trans_rollback(); return $status; } Our controller looks like this: $var = $this->products->addProductGroup($array); if (is_array($var)) { foreach ($var as $error) { echo $error . '<br />'; } } It appears to be a very fragile solution to do what we need, but it's neither scalable, neither effective when compared to pure PHP exceptions for instance. Is this really the way that this kind of stuff generally is handled in MVC based apps? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Email not sent until application closes

    - by Tester101
    I have an application that uses SmtpClient to send E-Mail, but the E-Mails are not sent until the application closes. I have searched and searched to find a solution to the problem, but I am not able to find one. The system does have Symantec anti-virus installed, which could possibly be the problem. Does anybody have a solution to this problem? Here is the code I am using. public class EMail { private string server; public string Server {get{return this.server;}set{this.server = value;}} private string to; public string To {get{return this.to;}set{this.to = value;}} private string from; public string From {get{return this.from;}set{this.from = value;}} private string subject; public string Subject {get{return this.subject;}set{this.subject = value;}} private string body; public string Body {get{return this.body;}set{this.body = value;}} public EMail() {} public EMail(string _server, string _to, string _from, string _subject, string _body) { this.Server = _server; this.To = _to; this.From = _from; this.Subject = _subject; this.Body = _body; } public void Send() { System.Net.Mail.MailMessage message = new System.Net.Mail.MailMessage(this.From, this.To, this.Subject, this.Body); message.IsBodyHtml = true; System.Net.Mail.SmtpClient client = new System.Net.Mail.SmtpClient(this.Server); client.DeliveryMethod = System.Net.Mail.SmtpDeliveryMethod.Network; //I have tried this, but it still does not work. //client.ServicePoint.ConnectionLeaseTimeout = 0; try { client.Send(message); } catch(System.Exception ex) { System.Windows.Forms.MessageBox.Show(ex.ToString()); } message.Dispose(); } }

    Read the article

  • CSS styles are not applied to elements added to JavaFX component tree

    - by pazabo
    I have applied CSS style to JavaFX components and it looks like everything is working fine except one situation: when I add JavaFX components to component tree on-the-fly their CSS styles are not applied. For example following code: package test; import javafx.stage.Stage; import javafx.scene.Scene; import javafx.scene.shape.Rectangle; import javafx.scene.input.MouseEvent; import javafx.util.Math; import javafx.scene.paint.Color; function getRect(): Rectangle { return Rectangle { x: 230 * Math.random() y: 60 * Math.random() width: 20, height: 20 styleClass: "abc" } } def stage: Stage = Stage { scene: Scene { width: 250, height: 80 stylesheets: "{__DIR__}main.css" content: [ Rectangle { x: 0, y: 0, width: 250, height: 80 fill: Color.WHITE onMouseClicked: function (evt: MouseEvent): Void { insert getRect() into stage.scene.content; } } getRect() ] } } with following stylesheet: .abc { fill: red; } in main.css file (both in test package) display red square on white background, but after clicking the main rectangle black (not red) squares are added to scene. I noticed that: Components added dynamically look just like style information was not applied. If you set their style in JavaFX code then everything works fine. After changing stylesheets property (so that it points to another valid stylesheet) the objects already added render properly. Does anyone know the solution to this problem? I could of course put all the properties into JavaFX code or provide another stylesheet (for every existing stylesheed) that would contain the same data and change stylesheet right after adding any component, but I would like to find some elegant solution. Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • Using a UITableViewController with a small-sized table?

    - by rpj
    When using a UITableViewController, the initWithStyle: method automatically creates the underlying UITableView with - according to the documentation - "the correct dimensions". My problem is that these "correct dimensions" seem 320x460 (the iPhone's screen size), but I'm pushing this TableView/Controller pair into a UINavigationController which is itself contained in a UIView, which itself is about half the height of the screen. No frame or bounds wrangling I can come up with seems to correctly reset the table's size, and as such it's "too long", meaning there are a collection of rows that are pushed off the bottom of the screen and are not visible nor reachable by scrolling. So my question comes down to: what is the proper way to tell a UITableViewController to resize its component UITableView to a specified rectangle? Thanks! Update I've tried all the techniques suggested here to no avail, but I did find one interesting thing: if I eschew the UINavigationController altogether (which I'm not yet willing to do for production, but as an experiment), and add the table view as a direct subview of the enclosing view I mentioned, the frame size given is respected. The very moment I re-introduce the UINavigationController into the mix, no matter if it is added as a subview before or after the table view, and no matter if alloc/init it before or after the table view is added as a subview, the result is the same as it was before. I'm beginning to suspect UINavigationController isn't much of a team player... Update 2 The suggestion to check frame size after the table view on screen was a good one: turns out that the navigation controller is in fact resizing it some time in between load and display. My solution, hacky at best, has been to cache the frame given on load and to reset it if changed at the beginning of tableView:cellForRowAtIndexPath:. Why there you ask? Because it's the one place I found that worked, that's why! I don't consider this a solution as it's obviously improper, but for the benefit of anyone else reading, it does seem to work.

    Read the article

  • Simple way to embed an MP3 audio file in a (static) HTML file, starting to play at a specifc time?

    - by Marcel
    Hi all, I want to produce a simple, static HTML file, that has one or more embedded MP3 files in it. The idea is to have a simple mean of listening to specific parts of an mp3 file. On a single click on a visual element, the sound should start to play; However, not from the beginning of the file, but from a specified starting point in that file (and play to the end of the file). This should work all locally from the client's local filesystem, the HTML file and the MP3 files do not reside on a webserver. So, how to play the MP3 audio from a specific starting point? The solution I am looking for should be as simple as possible, while working on most browsers, including IE, Firefox and Safari. Note: I know the <embed> tag as described here, but this seems not to work with my target browsers. Also I have read about jPlayer and other Java-Script-based players, but since I have never coded some JavaScript, I would prefer a HTML-only solution, if possible.

    Read the article

  • Really simple JSON serialization in .NET

    - by Evgeny
    I have some simple .NET objects I'd like to serialize to JSON and back again. The set of objects to be serialized is quite small and I control the implementation, so I don't need a generic solution that will work for everything. Since my assembly will be distributed as a library I'd really like to avoid a dependency on some third-party DLL: I just want to give users one assembly that they can reference. I've read the other questions I could find on converting to and from JSON in .NET. The recommended solution of JSON.NET does work, of course, but it requires distributing an extra DLL. I don't need any of the fancy features of JSON.NET. I just need to handle a simple object (or even dictionary) that contains strings, integers, DateTimes and arrays of strings and bytes. On deserializing I'm happy to get back a dictionary - it doesn't need to create the object again. Is there some really simple code out there that I could compile into my assembly to do this simple job? I've also tried System.Web.Script.Serialization.JavaScriptSerializer, but where it falls down is the byte array: I want to base64-encode it and even registering a converter doesn't let me easily accomplish that due to the way that API works (it doesn't pass in the name of the field).

    Read the article

  • A Digg-like rotating homepage of popular content, how to include date as a factor?

    - by Ferdy
    I am building an advanced image sharing web application. As you may expect, users can upload images and others can comments on it, vote on it, and favorite it. These events will determine the popularity of the image, which I capture in a "karma" field. Now I want to create a Digg-like homepage system, showing the most popular images. It's easy, since I already have the weighted Karma score. I just sort on that descendingly to show the 20 most valued images. The part that is missing is time. I do not want extremely popular images to always be on the homepage. I guess an easy solution is to restrict the result set to the last 24 hours. However, I'm also thinking that in order to keep the image rotation occur throughout the day, time can be some kind of variable where its offset has an influence on the image's sorting. Specific questions: Would you recommend the easy scenario (just sort for best images within 24 hours) or the more sophisticated one (use datetime offset as part of the sorting)? If you advise the latter, any help on the mathematical solution to this? Would it be best to run a scheduled service to mark images for the homepage, or would you advise a direct query (I'm using MySQL) As an extra note, the homepage should support paging and on a quiet day should include entries of days before in order to make sure it is always "filled" I'm not asking the community to build this algorithm, just looking for some advise :)

    Read the article

  • How to detect whether there is a specific member variable in class?

    - by Kirill V. Lyadvinsky
    For creating algorithm template function I need to know whether x or X (and y or Y) in class that is template argument. It may by useful when using my function for MFC CPoint class or GDI+ PointF class or some others. All of them use different x in them. My solution could be reduces to the following code: template<int> struct TT {typedef int type;}; template<class P> bool Check_x(P p, typename TT<sizeof(&P::x)>::type b = 0) { return true; } template<class P> bool Check_x(P p, typename TT<sizeof(&P::X)>::type b = 0) { return false; } struct P1 {int x; }; struct P2 {float X; }; // it also could be struct P3 {unknown_type X; }; int main() { P1 p1 = {1}; P2 p2 = {1}; Check_x(p1); // must return true Check_x(p2); // must return false return 0; } But it does not compile in Visual Studio, while compiling in the GNU C++. With Visual Studio I could use the following template: template<class P> bool Check_x(P p, typename TT<&P::x==&P::x>::type b = 0) { return true; } template<class P> bool Check_x(P p, typename TT<&P::X==&P::X>::type b = 0) { return false; } But it does not compile in GNU C++. Is there universal solution? UPD: Structures P1 and P2 here are only for example. There are could be any classes with unknown members.

    Read the article

  • TeamCity output artifacts not published to IIS7 folder

    - by clausas
    I am trying to set up TeamCity to build and deploy an ASP.NET MVC application. I have the setup running successfully on other servers using TeamCity 4.5, but the new server is running TeamCity 6, and I am having trouble getting it to work as expected. TeamCity manages to get the files from source control, and the project (Visual Studio Solution 2008 set to "Build") builds and outputs the necessary files as expected. The problem seems to be with my artifact paths, as the output files are not copied to the website folder. My solution consists of dozen projects, of which the "Web" project is the interesting one in this case. The build checkout directory is C:\TeamCity\buildAgent\work\7da320cebf0ee541, and the "Web"-project is found in C:\TeamCity\buildAgent\work\7da320cebf0ee541\Web I have set up my build configuration with the following artifact paths (relative from checkout directory to the folder containing the website): Web/bin=>../../../../inetpub/wwwroot/staging/bin Web/Content=>../../../../inetpub/wwwroot/staging/Content Web/Views=>../../../../inetpub/wwwroot/staging/Views Web/Media=>../../../../inetpub/wwwroot/staging/Media Web/*.aspx=>../../../../inetpub/wwwroot/staging Web/*.asax=>../../../../inetpub/wwwroot/staging (I've tried with more ../ just in case, but it didn't make a difference). This is the output I get from the log [19:35:29]: Publishing artifacts (1s) [19:35:29]: [Publishing artifacts] Paths to publish: [Web/bin=../../../../inetpub/wwwroot/staging/bin, Web/Content=../../../../inetpub/wwwroot/staging/Content, Web/obj=../../../../inetpub/wwwroot/staging/obj, Web/Views=../../../../inetpub/wwwroot/staging/Views, Web/Media=../../../../inetpub/wwwroot/staging/Media, Web/.aspx=../../../../inetpub/wwwroot/staging, Web/.asax=../../../../inetpub/wwwroot/staging, teamcity-info.xml] [19:35:30]: [Publishing artifacts] Sending files [19:35:32]: Build finished Logs from some of the other servers running TeamCity 4.5 uses a different format, with a line for each of the artifacts being published, I'm not sure if this is relevant or only due to a different logging format. Everything seems to be working, but no files are put in my website folder after a build, am I missing something here? Any help will be much appreciated :)

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 238 239 240 241 242 243 244 245 246 247 248 249  | Next Page >