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  • How to avoid loading a LINQ to SQL object twice when editting it on a website.

    - by emzero
    Hi guys I know you are all tired of this Linq-to-Sql questions, but I'm barely starting to use it (never used an ORM before) and I've already find some "ugly" things. I'm pretty used to ASP.NET Webforms old school developing, but I want to leave that behind and learn the new stuff (I've just started to read a ASP.NET MVC book and a .NET 3.5/4.0 one). So here's is one thing I didn't like and I couldn't find a good alternative to it. In most examples of editing a LINQ object I've seen the object is loaded (hitting the db) at first to fill the current values on the form page. Then, the user modify some fields and when the "Save" button is clicked, the object is loaded for second time and then updated. Here's a simplified example of ScottGu NerdDinner site. // // GET: /Dinners/Edit/5 [Authorize] public ActionResult Edit(int id) { Dinner dinner = dinnerRepository.GetDinner(id); return View(new DinnerFormViewModel(dinner)); } // // POST: /Dinners/Edit/5 [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post), Authorize] public ActionResult Edit(int id, FormCollection collection) { Dinner dinner = dinnerRepository.GetDinner(id); UpdateModel(dinner); dinnerRepository.Save(); return RedirectToAction("Details", new { id=dinner.DinnerID }); } As you can see the dinner object is loaded two times for every modification. Unless I'm missing something about LINQ to SQL caching the last queried objects or something like that I don't like getting it twice when it should be retrieved only one time, modified and then comitted back to the database. So again, am I really missing something? Or is it really hitting the database twice (in the example above it won't harm, but there could be cases that getting an object or set of objects could be heavy stuff). If so, what alternative do you think is the best to avoid double-loading the object? Thank you so much, Greetings!

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  • iPhone - ModalViewController not raising to top of the screen

    - by Oliver
    Hello, I have a UIImagePickerController that is shown [self presentModalViewController:self.picker animated:NO]; Then later on the code, I allow the user to display a preference panel : PreferencesController *nextWindow = [[[PreferencesController alloc] initWithNibName:@"Preferences" bundle:nil] autorelease]; UINavigationController* navController = [[[UINavigationController alloc] initWithRootViewController:nextWindow] autorelease]; [self presentModalViewController:navController animated:YES]; At this point, the new controller raises on the screen, but don't go to the top. Some space is left "transparent" at the top (I can see the camera view behind), and the bottom of the view is hidden out of the screen. The space I am talking about is about a status bar height. The status bar is not present on the screen. The navigation controller is hidden : self.navigationController.navigationBarHidden = YES; There is a toolbar at the top of the view. Nothing special into the view. The height of the view is defined at 480. All simulated element are set off in IB. The autoresize properties are all set on. I had a previous xib (I rebuilt it from scratch) that worked very well. I don't see what I missed on this one (I have only changed the xib, that replaces the previous one). I've cleaned the cache to be sure there was nothing left. No change... I've deleted everything in the new view to prevent some conflicts. No change... What did I miss ? How could I remove this empty space ?

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  • Autologin for web application

    - by Maulin
    We want to AutoLogin feature to allow user directly login using link into our Web Application. What is the best way achieve this? We have following approches in our mind. 1) Store user credentials(username/password) in cookie. Send cookie for authentication. e.g. http: //www.mysite.com/AutoLogin (here username/password will be passed in cookie) OR Pass user credentials in link URL. http: //www.mysite.com/AutoLogin?userid=<&password=< 2) Generate randon token and store user random token and user IP on server side database. When user login using link, validate token and user IP on server. e.g. http: //www.mysite.com/AutoLogin?token=< The problem with 1st approach is if hacker copies link/cookie from user machine to another machine he can login. The problem with 2nd approach is the user ip will be same for all users of same organization behind proxy. Which one is better from above from security perspective? If there is better solution which is other than mentioned above, please let us know.

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  • Why This Maintainability Index Increase?

    - by Timothy
    I would be appreciative if someone could explain to me the difference between the following two pieces of code in terms of Visual Studio's Code Metrics rules. Why does the Maintainability Index increase slightly if I don't encapsulate everything within using ( )? Sample 1 (MI score of 71) public static String Sha1(String plainText) { using (SHA1Managed sha1 = new SHA1Managed()) { Byte[] text = Encoding.Unicode.GetBytes(plainText); Byte[] hashBytes = sha1.ComputeHash(text); return Convert.ToBase64String(hashBytes); } } Sample 2 (MI score of 73) public static String Sha1(String plainText) { Byte[] text, hashBytes; using (SHA1Managed sha1 = new SHA1Managed()) { text = Encoding.Unicode.GetBytes(plainText); hashBytes = sha1.ComputeHash(text); } return Convert.ToBase64String(hashBytes); } I understand metrics are meaningless outside of a broader context and understanding, and programmers should exercise discretion. While I could boost the score up to 76 with return Convert.ToBase64String(sha1.ComputeHash(Encoding.Unicode.GetBytes(plainText))), I shouldn't. I would clearly be just playing with numbers and it isn't truly any more readable or maintainable at that point. I am curious though as to what the logic might be behind the increase in this case. It's obviously not line-count.

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  • How do I use a custom authentication mechanism for a Java web application with Spring Security?

    - by Adam
    Hi, I'm working on a project to convert an existing Java web application to use Spring Web MVC. As a part of this I will migrate the existing log-on/log-off mechanism to use Spring Security. The idea at this stage is to replicate the existing functionality and replace only the web layer, leaving the service classes and objects in place. The required functionality is simple. Access is controlled to URLs and to access certain pages the user must log on. Authentication is performed with a simple username and password along with an extra static piece of information that comes from the login page. There is no notion of a role: once a user has logged on they have access to all of the pages. Behind the scenes, the service layer has a class with a simple authentication method: doAuthenticate(String username, String password, String info) throws ServiceException An exception is thrown if the login fails. I'd like to leave this existing service object that does the authentication intact but to "plug it into" the Spring Security mechanism. Can somebody suggest the best approach to take for this please? Naturally, I'd like to take the path of least resistance and leave the work where possible to Spring... Thanks in advance, Adam.

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  • Setting CommandTarget to selected control in a TabControl

    - by Bart
    I have a WPF window with a few buttons and a tabcontrol having a tab for each 'document' the user is working on. The tabcontrol uses a DataTemplate to render the data in ItemSource of the tabcontrol. The question: If one of the buttons is clicked, the command should be executed on the control rendering the document in the active tab, but I've no idea what I should set CommandTarget to. I tried {Binding ElementName=nameOfControlInDataTemplate} but that obviously doesn't work. I tried to make my problem a bit more abstract with the following code (no ItemSource and Document objects, but the idea is still the same). <Button Command="ApplicationCommands.Save" CommandTarget="{Binding ElementName=nestedControl}">Save</Button> <TabControl x:Name="tabControl"> <TabControl.Items> <TabItem Header="Header1">Item 1</TabItem> <TabItem Header="Header2">Item 2</TabItem> <TabItem Header="Header3">Item 3</TabItem> </TabControl.Items> <TabControl.ContentTemplate> <DataTemplate> <CommandTest:NestedControl Name="nestedControl"/> </DataTemplate> </TabControl.ContentTemplate> </TabControl> I tested the code by replacing the complete tabcontrol with only one single NestedControl, and then the command button just works. To be complete, here is the code of NestedControl: <UserControl x:Class="CommandTest.NestedControl" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml"> <Grid> <Label x:Name="label" Content="Not saved"/> </Grid> </UserControl> And code behind: public partial class NestedControl : UserControl { public NestedControl() { CommandBindings.Add(new CommandBinding(ApplicationCommands.Save, CommandBinding_Executed)); InitializeComponent(); } private void CommandBinding_Executed(object sender, ExecutedRoutedEventArgs e) { label.Content = "Saved"; } }

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  • Send mail in asp.net

    - by Zerotoinfinite
    Hi Experts, I am using asp.net 3.5 and C#. I want to send mail from asp.net, for that I have got some details from my hosting provider which are these: mail.MySite.net UserName Password But I am unable to send mail through these details, I have done the following changes in my web.config file: <system.net> <mailSettings> <smtp> <network host="mail.MySite.net" port="8080" userName="UserName" password="Password" /> </smtp> </mailSettings> </system.net> Also, at the code behind I am writing this function: MailMessage mail = new MailMessage("[email protected]", "[email protected]"); mail.Subject = "Hi"; mail.Body = "Test Mail from ASP.NET"; mail.IsBodyHtml = false; SmtpClient smp = new SmtpClient(); smp.Send(mail); but I am getting error message as message sending failed. Please let me know what I am doing wrong and what I have to do to make it work fine. Thanks in advance.

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  • Problem with relative path to image in XAML?

    - by Giri
    I am trying to reference a PNG file in my applications working directory through XAML with the following: <Image Name="contactImage"> <Image.Source> <BitmapImage UriSource="/Images/contact.png"> </Image.Source> </Image> Now in my code-behind I try to get the height of the image with contactImage.Source.Height This fails with System.IOException - cannot locate resource 'images/contact.png'. If I use something like PngBitmapDecoder p = new PngBitmapDecoder(new Uri("./Images/contact.png"), UriKind.Relative, BitmapCreateOptions.PreservePixelFormat, BitmapCacheOption.Default); Everything is happy. How can I reference an image in xaml to a path relative to the working deirectory of the app. BTW- this is being run on a remote machine (if that makes a difference). I have tried "./Images/contact.png" and ".\Images\contact.png" and several other combinations of back/forward slashes and dots. Here is the primary difference- Any time the file is referenced in XAML, it shows up as pack://aplication:,,, blah blah blah when I use the PngBitmapDecoder, it shows up correctly as "./Images/contact.png". How do I reference the image file in XAML and get it show a source as "./Images/contact.png" instead of a pack://application,,,blah blah blah?

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  • How to access application.xml file of an EAR deployed to IBM WebSphere 6.1

    - by Matt1776
    I am deploying an EAR file to the IBM WebSpehre server 6.1 - I want to be able to access the EAR application name which is stored in the deployment file under 'display-name'. Looking through stack overflow posts on related subjects, I've been able to gather that this is possible via the Java MBean API - or IBM's WAS API - Problem is I cannot find a place where these API lists are summarized, i.e. cannot figure out which one to begin looking at. I could hardcode the WAS install location and find the file by looking in the 'installedApps' directory, but this is not dynamic. Does anyone have any experience working with these APIs? Any other way to dynamically find the deployed EAR's display name? EDIT - I should add that the reason I would like this information is to dynamically load our properties files - that are named by the following convention "EARAppName.properties" - so you see there IS a reasonable 'rationale' behind desiring this information in my application EDIT 2 - I should also note that this app will always be deployed on a WAS - but in the case that it isnt, a generic non-proprietary solution would be preferred, but not necessary at this moment. EDIT 3 - What I want to accomplish: Is there a way to dynamically find the deployed EAR's display name from within the application code?

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  • What's the best way to read a UDT from a database with Java?

    - by Lukas Eder
    I thought I knew everything about UDTs and JDBC until someone on SO pointed out some details of the Javadoc of java.sql.SQLInput and java.sql.SQLData JavaDoc to me. The essence of that hint was (from SQLInput): An input stream that contains a stream of values representing an instance of an SQL structured type or an SQL distinct type. This interface, used only for custom mapping, is used by the driver behind the scenes, and a programmer never directly invokes SQLInput methods. This is quite the opposite of what I am used to do (which is also used and stable in productive systems, when used with the Oracle JDBC driver): Implement SQLData and provide this implementation in a custom mapping to ResultSet.getObject(int index, Map mapping) The JDBC driver will then call-back on my custom type using the SQLData.readSQL(SQLInput stream, String typeName) method. I implement this method and read each field from the SQLInput stream. In the end, getObject() will return a correctly initialised instance of my SQLData implementation holding all data from the UDT. To me, this seems like the perfect way to implement such a custom mapping. Good reasons for going this way: I can use the standard API, instead of using vendor-specific classes such as oracle.sql.STRUCT, etc. I can generate source code from my UDTs, with appropriate getters/setters and other properties My questions: What do you think about my approach, implementing SQLData? Is it viable, even if the Javadoc states otherwise? What other ways of reading UDT's in Java do you know of? E.g. what does Spring do? what does Hibernate do? What does JPA do? What do you do? Addendum: UDT support and integration with stored procedures is one of the major features of jOOQ. jOOQ aims at hiding the more complex "JDBC facts" from client code, without hiding the underlying database architecture. If you have similar questions like the above, jOOQ might provide an answer to you.

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  • TCL How to read , extract and count the occurent in .txt file (Current Directory)

    - by Passion
    Hi Folks, I am beginner to scripting and vigorously learning TCL for the development of embedded system. I have to Search for the files with only .txt format in the current directory, count the number of cases of each different "Interface # nnnn" string in .txt file, where nnnn is a four or 32 digits max hexadecimal no and o/p of a table of Interface number against occurrence. I am facing implementation issues while writing a script i.e, Unable to implement the data structure like Linked List, Two Dimensional array. I am rewriting a script using multi dimension array (Pass values into the arrays in and out of procedure) in TCL to scan through the every .txt file and search for the the string/regular expression ‘Interface # ’ to count and display the number of occurrences. If someone could help me to complete this part will be much appreciated. Search for only .txt extension files and obtain the size of the file Here is my piece of code for searching a .txt file in present directory set files [glob *.txt] if { [llength $files] > 0 } { puts "Files:" foreach f [lsort $files] { puts " [file size $f] - $f" } } else { puts "(no files)" } I reckon these are all the possible logical steps behind to complete it i) Once searched and find the .txt file then open all .txt files in read only mode ii) Create a array or list using the procedure (proc) Interface number to NULL and Interface count to zero 0 iii) Scan thro the .txt file and search for the string or regular expression "interface # iv) When a match found in .txt file, check the Interface Number and increment the count for the corresponding entry. Else add new element to the Interface Number list v) If there are no files return to the first directory My o/p is like follows Interface Frequency 123f 3 1232 4

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  • Problem with z-index

    - by ripper234
    I'm trying to use z-index to layer a button and a div. The button appears behind the div, while according to z-index it should be in front of it. Here is the style elements associated with the button & div as captured by Firebug: Button button { position:relative; z-index:2; } Site.css (line 356) Inherited fromdiv#note19.sticky .sticky { text-align:center; } Site.css (line 360) Inherited fromtd.taskcell .taskcell { text-align:center; } Site.css (line 345) Inherited fromtable.tasksgrid table { border-collapse:collapse; } Site.css (line 221) Inherited frombody element.style { cursor:auto; } body { color:#696969; font-family:Verdana,Helvetica,Sans-Serif; font-size:0.75em; } Div .sticky .edit { height:100px; position:relative; vertical-align:middle; width:150px; z-index:1; } Site.css (line 371) Inherited fromdiv#note18.sticky .sticky { text-align:center; } Site.css (line 360) Inherited fromtd.taskcell .taskcell { text-align:center; } Site.css (line 345) Inherited fromtable.tasksgrid table { border-collapse:collapse; } Site.css (line 221) Inherited frombody element.style { cursor:auto; } body { color:#696969; font-family:Verdana,Helvetica,Sans-Serif; font-size:0.75em; } Note that the button has a z-index of 2, the div has a z-index of 1, and both are position:relative. Edit - full HTML is in this pastebin.

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  • Android:Playing bigger size audio wav sound file produces crash

    - by user187532
    Hi Android experts, I am trying to play the bigger size audio wav file(which is 20 mb) using the following code(AudioTrack) on my Android 1.6 HTC device which basically has less memory. But i found device crash as soon as it executes reading, writing and play. But the same code works fine and plays the lesser size audio wav files(10kb, 20 kb files etc) very well. P.S: I should play PCM(.wav) buffer sound, the reason behind why i use AudioTrack here. Though my device has lesser memory, how would i read bigger audio files bytes by bytes and play the sound to avoid crashing due to memory constraints. private void AudioTrackPlayPCM() throws IOException { String filePath = "/sdcard/myWav.wav"; // 8 kb file byte[] byteData = null; File file = null; file = new File(filePath); byteData = new byte[(int) file.length()]; FileInputStream in = null; try { in = new FileInputStream( file ); in.read( byteData ); in.close(); } catch (FileNotFoundException e) { // TODO Auto-generated catch block e.printStackTrace(); } int intSize = android.media.AudioTrack.getMinBufferSize(8000, AudioFormat.CHANNEL_CONFIGURATION_MONO, AudioFormat.ENCODING_PCM_8BIT); AudioTrack at = new AudioTrack(AudioManager.STREAM_MUSIC, 8000, AudioFormat.CHANNEL_CONFIGURATION_MONO, AudioFormat.ENCODING_PCM_8BIT, intSize, AudioTrack.MODE_STREAM); at.play(); at.write(byteData, 0, byteData.length); at.stop(); at.release(); } Could someone guide me please to play the AudioTrack code for bigger size wav files?

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  • Why use INCLUDE in a SQL index

    - by StarLite
    I recently encountered an index in a database I maintain that was of the form: CREATE INDEX [IX_Foo] ON [Foo] ( Id ASC ) INCLUDE ( SubId ) In this particular case, the performance problem that I was encountering (a slow SELECT filtering on both Id and SubId) could be fixed by simply moving the SubId column into the index proper rather than as an included column. This got me thinking however that I don't understand the reasoning behind included columns at all, when generally, they could simply be a part of the index itself. Even if I don't particularly care about the items being in the index itself is there any downside to having column in the index rather than simply being included. After some research, I am aware that there are a number of restrictions on what can go into an indexed column (maximum width of the index, and some column types that can't be indexed like 'image'). In these cases I can see that you would be forced to include the column in the index page data. The only thing I can think of is that if there are updates on SubId, the row will not need to be relocated if the column is included (though the value in the index would need to be changed). Is there something else that I'm missing? I'm considering going through the other indexes in the database and shifting included columns in the index proper where possible. Would this be a mistake? I'm primarily interested in MS SQL Server, but information on other DB engines is welcome also.

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  • Noob question about a statement in a Java program

    - by happysoul
    I am beginner to java and was trying out this code puzzle from the book head first java which I solved as follows and got the output correct :D class DrumKit { boolean topHat=true; boolean snare=true; void playSnare() { System.out.println("bang bang ba-bang"); } void playTopHat() { System.out.println("ding ding da-ding"); } } public class DrumKitTestDriver { public static void main(String[] args) { DrumKit d =new DrumKit(); if(d.snare==true) { d.playSnare(); } d.playTopHat(); } } Output is :: bang bang ba-bang ding ding da-ding Now the problem is that in that code puzzle one code snippet is left that I did not include..it's as follows d.snare=false; Even though I did not write it , I got the output like the book. I am wondering why is there need for us to set it's value as false even when we know the code is gonna run without it too !?? I am wondering what the coder had in mind ..I mean what could be the possible future use and motive behind doing this ? I am sorry if it's a dumb question. I just wanna know why or why not to include that particular statement ? It's not like there's a loop or something that we need to come out of. Why is that statement there ?

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  • Block element, horizontal center aligned and minimum width possible

    - by Nazgulled
    Hi, I'm trying to have this block element to be horizontally aligned in the middle but at the same time I would like the width to be the minimum possible for the contents inside. But I don't think it's possible or I'm not able to do it myself... a#button-link { background: url("images/button-link.png") no-repeat scroll center left; margin: 12px auto 0 auto; display: block; width: 125px; height: 32px; line-height: 32px; padding-left: 35px; font-weight: bold; } This is my current code... The idea behind this is that the text for that tag could be slightly bigger or smaller depending on the user language and how much characters the same sentence has for that specific user's language. There's no way I can control but I still would like to have this element horizontally aligned to center. Is this possible with CSS?

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  • WPF validation red border doesn't show If UserControl collapsed first

    - by Creepy Gnome
    There seems to be a bug with WPF in 3.5, and I was hoping someone may have found a workaround. Basically if you have a custom UserControl that contains a TextBox and it is in a Window but initialized to be Collapsed by default in the xaml or code behind if it fails validation when you make the control visible it will not show the red border until it fails while visible. However, this works correctly when visibility is set to Hidden, just no when Collapsed. I am already overriding the ErrorTemplate with a style to workaround the Adornment issue with the red border staying visibile when you collapse the control. Below is my full style for the TextBox. If there is any additional changes or additions to make it work correctly with collapsed controls that would be great. <Style TargetType="TextBox"> <Setter Property="Margin" Value="3" /> <Setter Property="Validation.ErrorTemplate"> <Setter.Value> <ControlTemplate> <ControlTemplate.Resources> <BooleanToVisibilityConverter x:Key="converter" /> </ControlTemplate.Resources> <DockPanel LastChildFill="True"> <Border BorderThickness="2" BorderBrush="Red" Visibility="{ Binding ElementName=placeholder, Mode=OneWay, Path=AdornedElement.IsVisible, Converter={StaticResource converter}}" > <AdornedElementPlaceholder x:Name="placeholder" /> </Border> </DockPanel> </ControlTemplate> </Setter.Value> </Setter> <Style.Triggers> <Trigger Property="Validation.HasError" Value="true" > <Setter Property="ToolTip" Value="{Binding RelativeSource={RelativeSource Self}, Path=(Validation.Errors)[0].ErrorContent}" /> </Trigger> </Style.Triggers> </Style>

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  • Controls added in the designer are null during Page_Load

    - by mwright
    All of the names below are generic and not the actual names used. I have a custom UserControl with a Panel that contains a a couple Labels, both .aspx controls. .aspx: <asp:Panel runat="server"> <asp:Label ID="label1" runat="server"> </asp:Label> </asp:Panel> <asp:Panel runat="server"> <asp:Label ID="label2" runat="server"> </asp:Label> </asp:Panel> Codebehind: private readonly Object object; protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { // These are the lines that are failing // label1 and label2 are null label1.Text = object.Value1; label2.Text = object.Value2; } public ObjectRow(Object objectToDisplay) { object = objectToDisplay; } On another page, in the code behind, I create a new instance of the custom user control. protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { CustomControl control = new CustomControl(object); } The user control takes the parameter and attempts to set the labels based off of the object passed in. The labels that it tries to assign the values to are however, null. Is this an ASP.net lifecycle issue that I'm not understanding? My understanding based on the Microsoft ASP.net lifecycle page was that page controls were available after the Page_Initialization. What is the proper way to do this? Is there a better way?

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  • question regarding templatization of virtual function

    - by jan
    Hi, I am new to this forum and sorry If I am repeating this question. I know that you cannot templatize the virtual function and I do understand the concept behind it. But I still need a way to get across some errors I am getting it. I am able to make my stuff work but it doesn't look to me. Here's the deal, I have class called System, #include "Vector.h" class System { virtual void VectorToLocal(Vector<T>& global_dir,const Vector<T>* global_pos = 0) const = 0; }; class UnresolvedSystem : public System { virtual void VectorToLocal(Vector<T>& global_dir,const Vector<T>* global_pos = 0) const { //do something } }; In Vector.h tenplate<typename T> class Vector { //some functions }; See now I want to templatize VectorToLocal in system.h to take just Vector, but I cannot do it as it is a virtual function. I want a work around. I know I can have VectorToLocal take Vector, Vector etc as arguments. But I do not want to do it. Any help would be really appreciated. Thanks in advance, Jan

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  • Core Data - How to check if a managed object's properties have been deallocated?

    - by georryan
    I've created a program that uses core data and it works beautifully. I've since attempted to move all my core data methods calls and fetch routines into a class that is self contained. My main program then instantiates that class and makes some basic method calls into that class, and the class then does all the core data stuff behind the scenes. What I'm running into, is that sometimes I'll find that when I grab a managed object from the context, I'll have a valid object, but its properties have been deallocated, and I'll cause a crash. I've played with the zombies and looked for memory leaks, and what I have gathered is it seems that the run loop is probably responsible for deallocating the memory, but I'm not sure. Is there a way to determine if that memory has been deallocated and force the core data to get it back if I need to access it? My managedObjectContext never gets deallocated, and the fetchedResultsController never does, either. I thought maybe I needed to use the [managedObjectContext refreshObject:mergeData:] method, or the [managedObjectContext setRetainsRegisteredObjects:] method. Although, I'm under the impression that last one may not be the best bet since it will be more memory intensive (from what I understand). These errors only popped up when I moved the core data calls into another class file, and they are random when they show up. Any insight would be appreciated. -Ryan

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  • Silverlight databinding error

    - by Petezah
    I found an example online that explains how to perform databinding to a ListBox control using LINQ in WPF. The example works fine but when I replicate the same code in Silverlight it doesn't work. Is there a fundamental difference between Silverlight and WPF that I'm not aware of? Here is an Example of the XAML: <ListBox x:Name="listBox1"> <ListBox.ItemTemplate> <DataTemplate> <StackPanel> <TextBlock Text="{Binding Name}" FontSize="18"/> <TextBlock Text="{Binding Role}" /> </StackPanel> </DataTemplate> </ListBox.ItemTemplate> </ListBox> Here is an example of my code behind: private void UserControl_Loaded(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { string[] names = new string[] { "Captain Avatar", "Derek Wildstar", "Queen Starsha" }; string[] roles = new string[] { "Hero", "Captain", "Queen of Iscandar" }; listBox1.ItemSource = from n in names from r in roles select new { Name = n, Role = r} }

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  • Calling a SLSB with Seam security from a servlet

    - by wilth
    Hello, I have an existing application written in SEAM that uses SEAM Security (http://docs.jboss.org/seam/2.1.1.GA/reference/en-US/html/security.html). In a stateless EJB, I might find something like this: @In Identity identity; ... if(identity.hasRole("admin")) throw new AuthException(); As far as I understand, Seam injects the Identity object from the SessionContext of the servlet that invokes the EJB (this happens "behind the scenes", since Seam doesn't really use servlets) and removes it after the call. Is this correct? Is it now possible to access this EJB from another servlet (in this case, that servlet is the server side of a GWT application)? Do I have to "inject" the correct Identity instance? If I don't do anything, Seam injects an instance, but doesn't correctly correlate the sessions and instances of Identity (so the instances of Identity are shared between sessions and sometimes calls get new instances etc.). Any help and pointers are very welcome - thanks! Technology: EJB3, Seam 2.1.2. The servlets are actually the server-side of a GWT app, although I don't think this matters much. I'm using JBoss 5.

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  • Eclipse (Aptana) Typing Lag

    - by Zack
    Hello SO, I've been using Aptana for some time now, and as of recent I've been dealing with files that are really, really big (500+ lines of code, which is huge for me, being a novice developer). Whenever I deal with smaller files, I get that weird sensation that I'm "in front of" what's typing, but now I'm quite sure of it--there is a significant lag between when I type something and when I see the text appear on screen. I don't have this issue with Dreamweaver CS3, so I know my computer has the capability to edit these files without this happening, but Eclipse still lags. I also don't see when something is being deleted if I hold down backspace, I see the first few characters get deleted, but then everything "hangs." Once I release the backspace key, the characters that would've been shown deleting instantly vanish all at once. The same thing happens with the forward delete key. I'm beginning to think this is an issue with Java, since I have the same feeling that everything is slightly "behind me" when I'm using -any- Java application. The computer is an intel Pentium 4 3.2 GHz Prescott, with 2GB's of DDR400 RAM and a Radeon HD3650 graphics card. If anyone knows how to fix this lagging issue, I'm all ears (eyes?); if anyone can recommend a different IDE with capabilities similar to Aptana (I do Python, HTML, CSS and JS; I use Git for SCM), I'd be glad to give it a try. Thanks!

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  • WordPerfect programmers refusing to use anything but assembler

    - by Totophil
    There is a version (popularised by Joel Spolsky) attributing the demise of WordPerfect to a refusal of its programmers to use anything but assembler that led to delay of the first WPwin release and as result eventually to losing the all important battle with Microsoft. There are a few references to programming work being done using assembler in the autobiographical book "Almost Perfect" by W. E. Pete Peterson who used to have a major influence at running the corporation. But these references go back to early 80's when WordPerfect was trying to gain a significant market share by defeating WordStar and not early nineties when the battle with MS took place. I am looking for a second independent source to confirm the assumption. Maybe someone who worked for WordPerfect Corporation at a time, who was close to the company, or had a chance to see the source could clarify the issue. Your help is much appreciated, thanks! Please note that this question is not about any other theories or reasons behind WordPerfect demise. I really just need to clarify whether they used assembler as a primary language for WPwin and (as a bonus really) whether there were discussions held within the corporation about assembler being the right choice. Concisely: Did WPCorp use assembler as a primary language for WPwin? Were discussions held at a time amongst WP Corp staff about assembler being the right choice (was it management or programmers decision)?

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  • Sharing session variables from http and https versio

    - by tangurena
    I am trying to fix an ASP.NET site that a friend had botched converting from older technologies. To the user, the site appears to have public and secured sections. Behind the scenes, the public and private sites are separate web applications with separate app pools. The difficulty arises because it appears that the applications share the same session IDs (when going from the public to the secured pages, the session ID remains the same), yet none of the (InProc) session variables are getting passed from the public site to the private one. Basically, the workflow consists of the user checking a checkbox ("I agree" type of stuff) on the public site (let's call that page http://www.boring.gov/iAgree.aspx), then logging in on the secured site (let's call that page https://www.boring.gov/login.aspx). The commandments from the parent agency in DC are that the user may not bookmark the login page, the user has to click "I agree" every time they log in, and that the "I agree" stuff has to be on a separate page. What am I missing? How would you do it? Notes: 1 - This is getting hosted on a single Windows 2003 server. 2 - Yes, it is a government agency. 3 - I would have done things very differently if I was doing the conversion, but I wasn't brought in until the poop hit the fan, and it is too late to redo things. 4 - Two previous SO threads that appear to be related, yet don't apply are this and that

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