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  • Get a button in itemscontrol and add eventhandler to its click event

    - by rockdale
    I have a custom control shows a customer info with an itemscontrol shows this customer's invoices. within the itemscontrol, I have button, in my code behind I want to wire the button's click event to my host window, but do now know how. //public event RoutedEventHandler ViewDetailClick; public static readonly RoutedEvent ButtonViewClickEvent = EventManager.RegisterRoutedEvent( "ButtonViewClick", RoutingStrategy.Bubble, typeof(RoutedEventHandler), typeof(custitem)); public event RoutedEventHandler ButtonViewClick { add { AddHandler(ButtonViewClickEvent, value); } remove {RemoveHandler(ButtonViewClickEvent, value);} } public override void OnApplyTemplate() { base.OnApplyTemplate(); this.lstInv = GetTemplateChild("lstInv") as ItemsControl; lstInv.ItemContainerGenerator.StatusChanged += new EventHandler(ItemContainerGenerator_StatusChanged); } private void ItemContainerGenerator_StatusChanged(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (lstInv.ItemContainerGenerator.Status == System.Windows.Controls.Primitives.GeneratorStatus.ContainersGenerated) { lstInv.ItemContainerGenerator.StatusChanged -= ItemContainerGenerator_StatusChanged; for (int i = 0; i < this.lstInv.Items.Count; i++) { ContentPresenter c = lstInv.ItemContainerGenerator.ContainerFromItem(lstInv.Items[i]) as ContentPresenter; DataTemplate dt = c.ContentTemplate; Grid grd = dt.LoadContent() as Grid; Button btnView = grd.FindName("btnView") as Button; if (btnView != null) { btnView.Click += new RoutedEventHandler(ButtonView_Click); //btnView.Click+= delegate(object senderObj, RoutedEventArgs eArg) //{ // if (this.ViewDetailClick != null) // { // this.ViewDetailClick(this, eArg); // } //}; } } private void ButtonView_Click(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { MessageBox.Show("clicked"); //e.RoutedEvent = ButtonViewClickEvent; //e.Source = sender; //RaiseEvent(e); } I succeed getting the btnView, then attach the click event, but the click event never get fired. Thanks in advance -rockdale

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  • Displaying windows-1252 text in a literal control

    - by GordonB
    I currently have an aspx page that has a placeholder on it. In the code-behind page i'm adding a literal control to the placeholder controls collection. The literal control just contains text/html read from a sql server database field. The only text character encoding i've used so far is UTF-8. I have the requirement for a specific page to use windows-1252 encoding. I've strapped this to the page, and browsers now recognise the proper encoding. <% Response.Charset= "windows-1252" %> My issue is that i have various german characters ( ö / ü / etc ) that aren't displaying correctly. As presumably they are still be written to the page in UTF-8 not in windows-1252. I'm looking at; Dim textEncoder = System.Text.Encoding.GetEncoding(1252) Which seems to be more geared up to dealing with byte arrays than text. Do i have to change my text to a byte array then encode as windows-1252 then get the text back out again, or is there a simpler way of achieving what i'm after?

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  • Is there really such a thing as a char or short in modern programming?

    - by Dean P
    Howdy all, I've been learning to program for a Mac over the past few months (I have experience in other languages). Obviously that has meant learning the Objective C language and thus the plainer C it is predicated on. So I have stumbles on this quote, which refers to the C/C++ language in general, not just the Mac platform. With C and C++ prefer use of int over char and short. The main reason behind this is that C and C++ perform arithmetic operations and parameter passing at integer level, If you have an integer value that can fit in a byte, you should still consider using an int to hold the number. If you use a char, the compiler will first convert the values into integer, perform the operations and then convert back the result to char. So my question, is this the case in the Mac Desktop and IPhone OS environments? I understand when talking about theses environments we're actually talking about 3-4 different architectures (PPC, i386, Arm and the A4 Arm variant) so there may not be a single answer. Nevertheless does the general principle hold that in modern 32 bit / 64 bit systems using 1-2 byte variables that don't align with the machine's natural 4 byte words doesn't provide much of the efficiency we may expect. For instance, a plain old C-Array of 100,000 chars is smaller than the same 100,000 ints by a factor of four, but if during an enumeration, reading out each index involves a cast/boxing/unboxing of sorts, will we see overall lower 'performance' despite the saved memory overhead?

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  • selecting a row by means of a button ... using didSelectRowAtIndexPath

    - by John Smith
    hey people , I have a question concerning a button I would like to create which selects my previous selected row. This is what I came up so far but since I'm new with the functionality and such I could definately use some pointers I created a toolbar with a button and behind this button is the following action. -(void)clickRow { selectedRow = [self.tableView indexPathForSelectedRow]; [self.tableView:[self tableView] didSelectRowAtIndexPath:selectedRow]; } in my didSelectRowAtIndexPath there is a rootViewController being pushed rvController = [RootViewController alloc] ...etc So what I would like is my function clickRow to select the row and push the new rootviewcontroller (which has the right info since I'm using a tree ). I tried something like this as well -(void)clickRow { NSDictionary *dictionary = [self.tableDataSource objectAtIndex:indexPath.row]; NSArray *Children = [dictionary objectForKey:@"Children"]; rvController = [[RootViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"RootViewController" bundle:[NSBundle mainBundle]]; rvController.CurrentLevel += 1; rvController.CurrentTitle = [dictionary objectForKey:@"Title"]; [self.navigationController pushViewController:rvController animated:YES]; rvController.tableDataSource = Children; [rvController release]; } The last function works a little but a little is not enough;) For instance if I press the middle row or any other it constantly selects the toprow. thnx all for those of you reading and trying to help

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  • PHP: What is an efficient way to parse a text file containing very long lines?

    - by Shaun
    I'm working on a parser in php which is designed to extract MySQL records out of a text file. A particular line might begin with a string corresponding to which table the records (rows) need to be inserted into, followed by the records themselves. The records are delimited by a backslash and the fields (columns) are separated by commas. For the sake of simplicity, let's assume that we have a table representing people in our database, with fields being First Name, Last Name, and Occupation. Thus, one line of the file might be as follows [People] = "\Han,Solo,Smuggler\Luke,Skywalker,Jedi..." Where the ellipses (...) could be additional people. One straightforward approach might be to use fgets() to extract a line from the file, and use preg_match() to extract the table name, records, and fields from that line. However, let's suppose that we have an awful lot of Star Wars characters to track. So many, in fact, that this line ends up being 200,000+ characters/bytes long. In such a case, taking the above approach to extract the database information seems a bit inefficient. You have to first read hundreds of thousands of characters into memory, then read back over those same characters to find regex matches. Is there a way, similar to the Java String next(String pattern) method of the Scanner class constructed using a file, that allows you to match patterns in-line while scanning through the file? The idea is that you don't have to scan through the same text twice (to read it from the file into a string, and then to match patterns) or store the text redundantly in memory (in both the file line string and the matched patterns). Would this even yield a significant increase in performance? It's hard to tell exactly what PHP or Java are doing behind the scenes.

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  • codegen:nullValue vs msprop:nullValue

    - by Ken
    Ok, I have datasets that I created way back in 1.1 framework to which we used codegen:nullValue within the XSD to handle null values. However if I open one of these datasets with vs 2005 (i.e. 2.0 framework) and add a column, it removes the codegen setting from the entire xsd but adds in msprop:nullValue However, unlike previous years, I noticed this time the proper property code was NOT over riden from returning the null value specified in codegen as it was doing in the past. Meaning the msprop appears to be creating the proper code behind the scenes (See example). Anyone know of any other differnces? Should I be concerned with deploying a new xsd, WITHOUT the codegen code but instead with the msprop xml? Example: Original creates _ Public Property ParentID() As Integer Get If Me.IsParentIDNull Then Return -1 Else Return CType(Me(Me.tableCompany.ParentIDColumn),Integer) End If End Get Set Me(Me.tableCompany.ParentIDColumn) = value End Set End Property New creates _ Public Property ParentID() As Integer Get If Me.IsParentIDNull Then Return -1 Else Return CType(Me(Me.tableCompany.ParentIDColumn),Integer) End If End Get Set Me(Me.tableCompany.ParentIDColumn) = value End Set End Property BUT is there anything else that might be occuring that I am NOT seeing thus MAKING me re-enter all the codegen settings? THANKS!

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  • NSOpenGLFullScreen and SetSystemUIMode freeze bug!?

    - by Mattias
    Hi! I have a really strange problem which is perfectly re-producable using sample code! If I use Apple's NSOpenGLFullScreen sample I can click a button to enter fullscreen OpenGL mode. However if I click the mouse in the area where the menubar would be if I was running windowed mode, the entire program freezes because I really activate the menu-choice behind the OpenGL screen, so to speak. The solution I have found after some Googling is to use SetSystemUIMode to hide the menubar. Also I want to initiate the application to fullscreen at startup by adding a call to EnterFullScreen after initialization. Entering FullScreen works perfectly, BUT - if I add the call to SetSystemUIMode I get a really strange error! The entire screen hangs, the animation stops and no mouse coordinates seem to be reported. If I then exit the Fullscreen mode and press the FullScreen button again everything works and the menubar is gone.. What could be wrong here? I mean it obviously works to remove the menubar in that manner and it obviously works to enter fullscreen mode like that (using Cocoa), but why doesn't the combination work!? Pleeease help :) Sincerely, / Mattias

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  • Syncing magento database froms development to production

    - by ringerce
    I use git for version control. I have a development, staging and production environment. When I finish in development I push to staging for review by the client. When approved, I push changes from staging to production. That works fine as long as there is no database changes. What happens if I install modules via Magento connect on local development and it makes database modifications. How would I push those changes up to the production server since the production server is always changing? Edit: I wrote two shell scripts. One that pulls the production database down to my development server, replaces base url with develpment url and updates my development db accordingly. It also leaves the production sql dump behind to be added to my git repo. I'm not really sure if it's beneficial to keep the raw dumps in source control but I'm going to try it out. The second scripts moves the development database up to staging and essentially performs the same operations as the first. Now when it comes time to move to production I pull the updated production repo into the production server and allow magento to do it's thing. I also started using SQLYog recently and it has a database comparison wizard which will give me the differences in my development and production databases and allow me to merge the changes in selectively. It always creates a migration script that I added to source control as well. If anything goes wrong I can run the comparison to see if anything was missed. Does this sounds like a decent workflow to you guys?

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  • How use unobtrusive validation without a model

    - by Ross Cyrus
    i have simple a form wich made by htmlHelper(mvc3) then inside of it i have 2 input field 1:type=text 2:type=submit to submit the form. there is no model behind.so i need to perfom a clientside validation on the textfield before submit it to the server.but i dont know how. i tried this puting manualy the 'data-* artibute , but does not work : @using( Html.BeginForm()) { <label for="UserName" >User Name</label> <div class="editor-field"> <input type="text" data-val="true" data-val-requierd="You must provide an user Name" id="userName" name="userName" placeholder="Enter Your User Name" /> </div> <input type="submit" value="Recover" /> } the "jquery.validate.min.js" and jquery.validate.unobtrusive.min.js and jquery.validate.min.js and jquery.validate.unobtrusive.min.js are loaded to the page. It doesnt let me to answer my self ,so i put it here : I solve it my self,just made an other view wich has its own model and Required on its propertyis and then just copy the renderd html to my own,and i got this and works : <input data-val="true" data-val-required="You must provide an user Name" id="UserName" name="UserName" type="text" value="" placeholder="Enter your User Name"/> <span class="field-validation-valid" data-valmsg-for="UserName" data-valmsg-replace="true"></span> And there is no type="Required".any way thank you guys.

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  • ImageButton OnClick Event not firing

    - by webnoob
    Hi All, I am really confused about this one. I have some code that runs fine on my development server but I am now trying to get the site working on the sales guys new laptop. None of the image buttons on the website seem to be working for him (they just redirect me back to the websites homepage) whereas they used to on his previous machine. The only difference between each machine is that his old one was Vista and the new one is Windows 7. Has anyone come accross this issue? Some code: The form: <div class="form_text"></div> <div class="form_box_link"> <asp:ImageButton id="LoginSubmitButton" onClick="FLoginWebService" ImageURL="~/Images/login.png" runat="server" /> </div> The code behind (delphi): procedure TMemberLogin.FLoginWebService(Sender: TObject; e: System.EventArgs); begin //Code Removed but using OutputDebugString shows nothing is being done in here end; As mentioned, this works everywhere else except on his windows 7 machine.

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  • MVC 3, View Model for user registration process. Password validation not working properly

    - by sec_goat
    I am trying to create a user registration page using MVC 3, so that I can better understand the process of how it works, what's going on behind the scenes etc. I am running into some issues when trying to use [Compare] to check to see that the user entered the same password twice. I tried adding the ComparePassword field to my user model first, and found that would not work the way I wanted as I did not have the field in the database, so the obvious answer was to create a View Model using the same information including the ComparePassword field. So I now have created a User model and a RegistrationViewModel, however it appears that the [Compare] on the password is not returning anything, for instance no matter what I put in the two boxes, when I click create it gives no error, which seems to me to mean it was successfully validated. I am not sure what I am doing or not doing to make this work properly. I have tried updating the jQuery.Validate to the newest version as there were some bugs reported in older version, this has not helped my efforts. Below is a wall of code, that is what I am working with. } public class RegistrationViewModel { [Required] [StringLength(15, MinimumLength = 3)] [Display(Name = "User Name")] [RegularExpression(@"(\S)+", ErrorMessage = " White Space is not allowed in User Names")] [ScaffoldColumn(false)] public String Username { get; set; } [Required] [StringLength(15, MinimumLength = 3)] [Display(Name = "First Name")] public String firstName { get; set; } [Required] [StringLength(15, MinimumLength = 3)] [Display(Name = "Last Name")] public String lastName { get; set; } [Required] [Display(Name = "Email")] public String email { get; set; } [Required] [Display(Name = "Password")] [DataType(DataType.Password)] public String password { get; set; } [Required] [DataType(DataType.Password)] [Display(Name = "Re-enter Password")] [Compare("Password", ErrorMessage = "Passwords do not match.")] public String comparePassword { get; set; } }

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  • Action property of interface type

    - by Daniel
    Hi, guys. With my understading, the nature of a Action is that properties can be pushed w/ request parameter values. And, one wonderful feature is that Struts2 allows you to directly populate parameter values against Class type property ;) Assuming there exists a Action and property class as below, class Action extends ActionSupport { User user; @Action(value="hello" {@result=(.......)}) public void execute() { ........ } ..... public void setUser(User user) { this.user = user; } public User getUser() { return this.user; } } class User { String name; ..... public void setName(String name) { this.name = name; } public String getName() { return this.name; } } you could populate User class property by doing like this. http://...../hello.action?user.name=John or via jsp page Then, I realize that there are actually people make an Action property as a Interface type. My question is what is the reason behind this. If there is a sample code demonstrating it will be great. Thanks in advance!

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  • Why do InterruptedExceptions clear a thread's interrupted status?

    - by Hanno Fietz
    If a thread is interrupted while inside Object.wait() or Thread.join(), it throws an InterruptedException, which resets the thread's interrupted status. I. e., if I have a loop like this inside a Runnable.run(): while (!this._workerThread.isInterrupted()) { // do something try { synchronized (this) { this.wait(this._waitPeriod); } } catch (InterruptedException e) { if (!this._isStopping()) { this._handleFault(e); } } } the thread will continue to run after calling interrupt(). This means I have to explicitly break out of the loop by checking for my own stop flag in the loop condition, rethrow the exception, or add a break. Now, this is not exactly a problem, since this behaviour is well documented and doesn't prevent me from doing anything the way I want. However, I don't seem to understand the concept behind it: Why is a thread not considered interrupted anymore once the exception has been thrown? A similar behaviour also occurs if you get the interrupted status with interrupted() instead of isInterrupted(), then, too, the thread will only appear interrupted once. Am I doing something unusual here? For example, is it more common to catch the InterruptedException outside the loop? (Even though I'm not exactly a beginner, I tagged this "beginner", because it seems like a very basic question to me, looking at it.)

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  • How should I secure my webapp written using Wicket, Spring, and JPA?

    - by Martin
    So, I have an web-based application that is using the Wicket 1.4 framework, and it uses Spring beans, the Java Persistence API (JPA), and the OpenSessionInView pattern. I'm hoping to find a security model that is declarative, but doesn't require gobs of XML configuration -- I'd prefer annotations. Here are the options so far: Spring Security (guide) - looks complete, but every guide I find that combines it with Wicket still calls it Acegi Security, which makes me think it must be old. Wicket-Auth-Roles (guide 1 and guide 2) - Most guides recommend mixing this with Spring Security, and I love the declarative style of @Authorize("ROLE1","ROLE2",etc). I'm concerned about having to extend AuthenticatedWebApplication, since I'm already extending org.apache.wicket.protocol.http.WebApplication, and Spring is already proxying that behind org.apache.wicket.spring.SpringWebApplicationFactory. SWARM / WASP (guide) - This looks the newest (though the main contributor passed away years ago), but I hate all of the JAAS-styled text files that declare permissions for principals. I also don't like the idea of making an Action class for every single thing a user might want to do. Secure models also aren't immediately obvious to me. Plus, there isn't an Authn example. Additionally, it looks like lots of folks recommend mixing the first and second options. I can't tell what the best practice is at all, though.

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  • Which text margin does SWT Table use when drawing text?

    - by Zordid
    I got a relatively easy question - but I cannot find anything anywhere to answer it. I use a simple SWT table widget in my application that displays only text in the cells. I got an incremental search feature and want to highlight text snippets in all cells if they match. So when typing "a", all "a"s should be highlighted. To get this, I add an SWT.EraseItem listener to interfere with the background drawing. If the current cell's text contains the search string, I find the positions and calculate relative x-coordinates within the text using event.gc.stringExtent - easy. With that I just draw rectangles "behind" the occurrences. Now, there's a flaw in this. The table does not draw the text without a margin, so my x coordinate does not really match - it is slightly off by a few pixels! But how many?? Where do I retrieve the cell's text margins that table's own drawing will use? No clue. Cannot find anything. :-( Bonus question: the table's draw method also shortens text and adds "..." if it does not fit into the cell. Hmm. My occurrence finder takes the TableItem's text and thus also tries to mark occurrences that are actually not visible because they are consumed by the "...". How do I get the shortened text and not the "real" text within the EraseItem draw handler? Thanks!

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  • LoginControl not working correctly with Firefox, requires double login attempt.

    - by CmdrTallen
    Any idea why LoginControl requires users authenticate twice with FireFox but works correctly (once) with IE? I am using a custom MembershipProvider and RoleProvider, if that matters. Authentication portion of my web.config; <authentication mode="Forms"> <forms timeout="50000000" protection="All" requireSSL="false" slidingExpiration="true" cookieless="AutoDetect" domain="" enableCrossAppRedirects="true"> <credentials passwordFormat="SHA1" /> </forms> </authentication> Membership section; <membership defaultProvider="CustomMembershipProvider"> <providers> <add name="CustomMembershipProvider" type="CustomCrateMembershipProvider" connectionString="" enablePasswordRetrieval="false" enablePasswordReset="true" requiresQuestionAndAnswer="true" applicationName="/" requiresUniqueEmail="true" passwordFormat="Hashed" maxInvalidPasswordAttempts="5" minRequiredPasswordLength="5" minRequiredNonalphanumericCharacters="1" passwordAttemptWindow="10" passwordStrengthRegularExpression=""/> </providers> </membership> <roleManager defaultProvider="CustomRoleProvider" enabled="true"> <providers> <add name="CustomRoleProvider" type="CustomRoleProvider"/> </providers> </roleManager> Only code behind related to login; protected void OnLoggedIn(object sender, EventArgs e) { } protected void OnLoggingOut(object sender, EventArgs e) { }

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  • Static Property losing its value intermittently ?

    - by joedotnot
    Is there something fundamentally wrong with the following design, or can anyone see why would the static properties sometimes loose their values ? I have a class library project containing a class AppConfig; this class is consumed by a Webforms project. The skeleton of AppConfig class is as follows: Public Class AppConfig Implements IConfigurationSectionHandler Private Const C_KEY1 As String = "WebConfig.Key.1" Private Const C_KEY2 As String = "WebConfig.Key.2" Private Const C_KEY1_DEFAULT_VALUE as string = "Key1defaultVal" Private Const C_KEY2_DEFAULT_VALUE as string = "Key2defaultVal" Private Shared m_field1 As String Private Shared m_field2 As String Public Shared ReadOnly Property ConfigValue1() As String Get ConfigValue1= m_field1 End Get End Property Public Shared ReadOnly Property ConfigValue2() As String Get ConfigValue2 = m_field2 End Get End Property Public Shared Sub OnApplicationStart() m_field1 = ReadSetting(C_KEY1, C_KEY1_DEFAULT_VALUE) m_field2 = ReadSetting(C_KEY2, C_KEY1_DEFAULT_VALUE) End Sub Public Overloads Shared Function ReadSetting(ByVal key As String, ByVal defaultValue As String) As String Try Dim setting As String = System.Configuration.ConfigurationManager.AppSettings(key) If setting Is Nothing Then ReadSetting = defaultValue Else ReadSetting = setting End If Catch ReadSetting = defaultValue End Try End Function Public Function Create(ByVal parent As Object, ByVal configContext As Object, ByVal section As System.Xml.XmlNode) As Object Implements System.Configuration.IConfigurationSectionHandler.Create Dim objSettings As NameValueCollection Dim objHandler As NameValueSectionHandler objHandler = New NameValueSectionHandler objSettings = CType(objHandler.Create(parent, configContext, section), NameValueCollection) Return 1 End Function End Class The Static Properties get set once on application start, from the Application_Start event of the Global.asax Sub Application_Start(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As EventArgs) //Fires when the application is started AppConfig.OnApplicationStart() End Sub Thereafter, whenever we want to access a value in the Web.Config from anywhere, e.g. aspx page code-behind or another class or referenced class, we simply call the static property. For example, AppConfig.ConfigValue1() AppConfig.ConfigValue2() This is turn returns the value stored in the static backing fields m_field1, m_field2 Problem is sometimes these values are empty string, when clearly the Web.Config entry has values. Is there something fundamentally wrong with the above design, or is it reasonable to expect the static properties would keep their value for the life of the Application session?

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  • How do I control the background color during the iPhone flip view animation transition?

    - by Rob S.
    I have some pretty standing flipping action going on: [UIView beginAnimations:@"swapScreens" context:nil]; [UIView setAnimationTransition:UIViewAnimationTransitionFlipFromLeft forView:self.view cache:YES]; [UIView setAnimationDuration:1.0]; [self.view exchangeSubviewAtIndex:0 withSubviewAtIndex:1]; [UIView commitAnimations]; To Apple's credit, this style of animation is amazingly easy to work with. Very cool, and I've been able to animate transitions, flips, fades etc. throughout the app very easily. Question: During the flip transition, the background visible 'behind' the two views during the flip is white and I'd like it to be black. I've: Set the background of the containing view (self.view above) - no dice. I really thought that would work. Set the background of each view to black - no dice. I didn't think this would work although you give different things a shot to understand better :) Google'd like crazy; keep landing on Safari-related listings. Thanks in advance!

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  • MVVM Listbox DataTemplate SelectedItem

    - by StinkerPeter
    I am using a ListBox with a DataTemplate as shown below (xaml simplified and variable names changed). <ListBox ItemsSource="{Binding Path=ObservCollectionItems}" SelectedItem="{Binding Path=SelectedItemVar, Mode=TwoWay}"> <ListBox.ItemTemplate> <DataTemplate> <StackPanel> <TextBlock Text="{Binding SomeVar}" /> <Border> <StackPanel> <Button Content="String1" Command="{Binding DataContext.Command1} RelativeSource={RelativeSource FindAncestor, ListBox, 1}}" /> <Button Content="String2" Command="{Binding DataContext.Command2} RelativeSource={RelativeSource FindAncestor, ListBox, 1}}" /> </StackPanel> </Border> </StackPanel> </DataTemplate> <ListBox.ItemTemplate> </ListBox> I need the SelectedItemVar (dependency property) to update when I click on one of the buttons. SelectedItemVar is then used for the respective button's command. SelectedItemVar does update when I click on the TextBlock or the Border, but not when I click either button. I found a non-MVVM solution to this problem here. I do not want to add code in the file-behind to solve this, as they did in the link. Is there a clean solution that can be done in XAML. Beyond the non-MVVM solutions, I have not found anyone with this problem. I would have thought this was fairly common. Finally, I found this Command="{Binding DataContext.CommandName} RelativeSource={RelativeSource FindAncestor, ListBox, 1} for the Command binding. I do not fully understand what it is doing, but I do know that the command wasn't firing when I was binding directly to CommandName.

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  • How to bring a modal to the front of the page using bootstrap?

    - by sharataka
    I am trying to implement a modal using bootstrap. When I click on the button the screen fades and the modal appears, but it appears behind the images in and is unreadable for the user. How do I bring the modal forward? <div class ="container-fluid"> <div class = "row-fluid"> <div class = "span2"> <!-- Modal --> <div class="modal hide fade" id="myModal"> <div class="modal-header"> <a class="close" data-dismiss="modal">×</a> <h3>Modal header</h3> </div> <div class="modal-body"> <p>One fine body…</p> </div> <div class="modal-footer"> <a href="#" class="btn">Close</a> <a href="#" class="btn btn-primary">Save changes</a> </div> </div> <a data-toggle="modal" href="#myModal" class="btn btn-primary">Launch demo modal</a> </div> <div class = "span8"> #a lot of images in this div </div> </div> </div>

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  • window.open on load page (asp.net) using Method=POST

    - by Raul
    i need open pop up in asp.net using post Method and window.open to rezise te new windows. my code: ---- open the pop up --- function mdpbch(URL) { child = window.open(URL, "passwd","dependent=1,toolbar=0,location=0,directories=0,status=0,menubar=0,scrollbars=1,resizable=1,width=600,height=475"); child.location.href = URL; if (child.opener == null) { child.opener = window; } child.opener.name = "opener"; } -------- URL --- function PagoEnLinea(Banco) { switch(x){ case "BCH": document.frmEnvia.action = SERV + "/llamacom.asp"; url = SERV + "lamacom.asp alert(url); mdpbch(url); document.frmEnvia.submit(); break; } } -------ASPX-------------------- <body> <form id="frmEnvia" runat="server" name="formulario" method="post" target="_blank"> <div style="visibility:hidden;"> <asp:TextBox ID="txtXml" runat="server" Visible="true"></asp:TextBox> </div> ..... </body> on page load (code behind) i create a xml string and put it in the textbox txtXml. i need use post method becose the server validate te method, and window.open becose need customize the pop up thanks

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  • gluLookAt vectors and FPS-style camera

    - by Kevin Pamplona
    I am attempting to implemented an FPS-style camera by updating three vectors: EYE, DIR, UP. These vectors are the same that are used by gluLookAt (since gluLookAt is specified by the position of the camera, the direction it is looking at, and an up vector). I have already implemented the left-right and up-down strafing movements, but I'm having a lot of trouble understanding the math behind making the camera look-around while remaining stationary. In this case, the EYE vector remains the same, while I must update DIR and UP. Below is the code I tried, but it doesn't seem to work properly. Any suggestions? Thanks. void Transform::left(float degrees, vec3& dir, vec3& up) { vec3 axis; axis = glm::normalize(up); mat3 R = rotate(-degrees, axis); dir = R*dir; dir = R*up; }; void Transform::up(float degrees, vec3& dir, vec3& up) { vec3 axis; axis=glm::normalize(glm::cross(dir,up)); mat3 R = rotate(-degrees, axis); dir = R*dir-; up = R*up; };

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  • JUnit test failing - complaining of missing data that was just inserted

    - by Collin Peters
    I have an extremely odd problem in my JUnit tests that I just can't seem to nail down. I have a multi-module java webapp project with a fairly standard structure (DAO's, service clasess, etc...). Within this project I have a 'core' project which contains some abstracted setup code which inserts a test user along with the necessary items for a user (in this case an 'enterprise', so a user must belong to an enterprise and this is enforced at the database level) Fairly simple so far... but here is where the strangeness begins some tests fail to run and throw a database exception where it complains that a user cannot be inserted because an enterprise does not exist. But it just created the enterprise in the preceding line of code! And there was no errors in the insertion of the enterprise. Stranger yet, if this test class is run by itself everything works fine. It is only when the test is run as part of the project that it fails! And the exact same abstracted code was run by 10+ tests before the one that fails! f I have been banging my head against a wall with this for days and haven't really made any progress. I'm not even sure what information to offer up to help diagnose this. Using JUnit 4.4, Spring 2.5.6, iBatis 2.3.0, Postgresql 8.3 Switching to org.springframework.jdbc.datasource.DriverManagerDataSource from org.apache.commons.dbcp.BasicDataSource changed the problem. Using DriverManagerDataSource the tests work for the first time, but now all of a sudden a lot of data isn't rolled back in the database! It leaves everything behind. All with no errors Tests fail when run via Eclipse & Maven Please ask for any info which may help me solve my problem!

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  • VB.NET trying simple captcha

    - by Pride Grimm
    I'm trying to write a simple captcha program in vb.net. I'm just wanting to make an image from random numbers and display it, check the answer, and then proceed. I'm pretty new to vb.net, so I found some code to generate the information. I will cite the owner when I find it again (http://www.knowlegezone.com/80/article/Technology/Software/Asp-Net/Simple-ASP-NET-CAPTCHA-Tutorial) This is in the onload() of default2.aspx Public Sub returnNumer() Dim num1 As New Random Dim num2 As New Random Dim numQ1 As Integer Dim numQ2 As Integer Dim QString As String numQ1 = num1.Next(10, 15) numQ2 = num2.Next(17, 31) QString = numQ1.ToString + " + " + numQ2.ToString + " = " Session("answer") = numQ1 + numQ2 Dim bitmap As New Bitmap(85, 35) Dim Grfx As Graphics = Graphics.FromImage(bitmap) Dim font As New Font("Arial", 18, FontStyle.Bold, GraphicsUnit.Pixel) Dim Rect As New Rectangle(0, 0, 100, 50) Grfx.FillRectangle(Brushes.Brown, Rect) Grfx.DrawRectangle(Pens.PeachPuff, Rect) ' Border Grfx.DrawString(QString, font, Brushes.Azure, 0, 0) Response.ContentType = "Image/jpeg" bitmap.Save(Response.OutputStream, System.Drawing.Imaging.ImageFormat.Jpeg) bitmap.Dispose() Grfx.Dispose() End Sub So I put this in a separate page, like this This all works find and dandy, but when I get the answer from the session like this Dim literal As String = Convert.ToString(Session("answer")) It's always one behind. So if The images adds to 32, the answer in session isn't 32. But after a refresh (and a new image) the session("answer") will be 32. Is there a way to refresh the session on page 1, after the default2.aspx loads? Is there a better way to do this? I though about trying to run the code all on one page, and trying to set the src of and image to returnNumber(), but I need a bit of help on that one.

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  • help understanding differences between #define, const and enum in C and C++ on assembly level.

    - by martin
    recently, i am looking into assembly codes for #define, const and enum: C codes(#define): 3 #define pi 3 4 int main(void) 5 { 6 int a,r=1; 7 a=2*pi*r; 8 return 0; 9 } assembly codes(for line 6 and 7 in c codes) generated by GCC: 6 mov $0x1, -0x4(%ebp) 7 mov -0x4(%ebp), %edx 7 mov %edx, %eax 7 add %eax, %eax 7 add %edx, %eax 7 add %eax, %eax 7 mov %eax, -0x8(%ebp) C codes(enum): 2 int main(void) 3 { 4 int a,r=1; 5 enum{pi=3}; 6 a=2*pi*r; 7 return 0; 8 } assembly codes(for line 4 and 6 in c codes) generated by GCC: 6 mov $0x1, -0x4(%ebp) 7 mov -0x4(%ebp), %edx 7 mov %edx, %eax 7 add %eax, %eax 7 add %edx, %eax 7 add %eax, %eax 7 mov %eax, -0x8(%ebp) C codes(const): 4 int main(void) 5 { 6 int a,r=1; 7 const int pi=3; 8 a=2*pi*r; 9 return 0; 10 } assembly codes(for line 7 and 8 in c codes) generated by GCC: 6 movl $0x3, -0x8(%ebp) 7 movl $0x3, -0x4(%ebp) 8 mov -0x4(%ebp), %eax 8 add %eax, %eax 8 imul -0x8(%ebp), %eax 8 mov %eax, 0xc(%ebp) i found that use #define and enum, the assembly codes are the same. The compiler use 3 add instructions to perform multiplication. However, when use const, imul instruction is used. Anyone knows the reason behind that?

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