Search Results

Search found 8001 results on 321 pages for 'empty'.

Page 246/321 | < Previous Page | 242 243 244 245 246 247 248 249 250 251 252 253  | Next Page >

  • dealing cards in Clojure

    - by Ralph
    I am trying to write a Spider Solitaire player as an exercise in learning Clojure. I am trying to figure out how to deal the cards. I have created (with the help of stackoverflow), a shuffled sequence of 104 cards from two standard decks. Each card is represented as a (defstruct card :rank :suit :face-up) The tableau for Spider will be represented as follows: (defstruct tableau :stacks :complete) where :stacks is a vector of card vectors, 4 of which contain 5 cards face down and 1 card face up, and 6 of which contain 4 cards face down and 1 card face up, for a total of 54 cards, and :complete is an (initially) empty vector of completed sets of ace-king (represented as, for example, king-hearts, for printing purposes). The remainder of the undealt deck should be saved in a ref (def deck (ref seq)) During the game, a tableau may contain, for example: (struct-map tableau :stacks [[AH 2C KS ...] [6D QH JS ...] ... ] :complete [KC KS]) where "AH" is a card containing {:rank :ace :suit :hearts :face-up false}, etc. How can I write a function to deal the stacks and then save the remainder in the ref?

    Read the article

  • jquery clone only once

    - by tsiger
    I have a series of divs like this: <div id="available-posts"> <div class="post" id="unique_id"> <a href="#" class="addme">Add</a> Some text </div> <div class="post" id="unique_id"> <a href="#" class="addme">Add</a> Some text </div> </div> The unique_id is a different number for each of the divs. Now i have a new empty div like this <div class="related-posts"></div> And i clone items in there. The thing is that i want to check if an item is already cloned. If it is i want to stop it from being cloned again. This is how i clone items: // clone it $('.addme').live('click', function() { $(this).parents('div.thepost').clone().fadeIn('normal').appendTo('#related-posts').find('a.addme').html('Remove').removeClass('addme').addClass('removeme'); return false; }); // remove it $('.removeme').live('click', function() { $(this).parents('div.thepost').fadeOut('normal', function() {$(this).remove(); }); return false; }); In other words i want the cloned list to contain only unique items. Not for example 2 clones of the same post. *edit: i am using live coz the first list (available posts) is populated through an AJAX call.

    Read the article

  • XForms relation of 'constraint' and 'required' properties

    - by Danny
    As a reference, the most similar question already asked is: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/8667849/making-xforms-enforce-the-constraint-and-type-model-item-properties-only-when-fi The difference is that I cannot use the relevant properties since I do want the field to be visible and accessible. I'm attempting to make a XForms form that has the following properties: It displays a text field named 'information'. (for the example) This field must not be required, since it may not be necessary to enter data. (Or this data will be entered at a later time.) However, if data is entered in this field, it must adhere to the specified constraint. I cannot mark the field as not relevant since this would hide the field and some data may need to be entered in it. The trouble now is that even though the field has no data in it, the constraint is still enforced (i.e. even though it is not marked as 'required'). I have taken a look at the XForms 1.1 specification, however it does not seem to describe how the properties 'required' and 'constraint' should interact. The only option I see, is to add a part to the constraint such that an empty value is allowed. e.g.: . = '' or <actual-constraint However, I don't like this. It feels like a workaround to add this to every such field. Is there any other way to express that non-required fields should not need to match the constraint for that field? (Am I missing something?)

    Read the article

  • Proper way of naming your Java Google App Engine Project

    - by Saif Bechan
    I am starting out with Google's App Engine in Java. I have seen the tutorial video but I do not understand the naming of the project package. It is going to be a guestbook, that's why the name is guestbook, I understand that part. But after that I see package name. 1)Is that something you import into the project, or is is something you create. I have seen this a lot in projects, something like com.xxx.xxx. 2)How do you name this type of thing or is this an import. I have looked at another tutorial there they take the naming to a whole new level. The name of both the project and the package is de.vogella.gae.java.todo. 3)What does this mean in java terms. 4)Maybe one of you can help me with this specific project I want to start. I want to create a Google App project that for now only serves static files. I will leave the project empty and just put all my static files in the war directory of the project. I want the domain name to be mydomainstatic

    Read the article

  • Parse string to create a list of element

    - by Nick
    I have a string like this: "\r color=\"red\" name=\"Jon\" \t\n depth=\"8.26\" " And I want to parse this string and create a std::list of this object: class data { std::string name; std::string value; }; Where for example: name = color value = red What is the fastest way? I can use boost. EDIT: This is what i've tried: vector<string> tokens; split(tokens, str, is_any_of(" \t\f\v\n\r")); if(tokens.size() > 1) { list<data> attr; for_each(tokens.begin(), tokens.end(), [&attr](const string& token) { if(token.empty() || !contains(token, "=")) return; vector<string> tokens; split(tokens, token, is_any_of("=")); erase_all(tokens[1], "\""); attr.push_back(data(tokens[0], tokens[1])); } ); } But it does not work if there are spaces inside " ": like color="red 1".

    Read the article

  • Background problem on UITableView

    - by f0rz
    Hi ! I have come to a problem, wich I have no idea how to solve. Can anyone think outside the box and point me to right directions? I would be very thankfull ! The problem. I have a UITableView containing a first row wich is always the same (a empty row with repeating background) Next rows are bounch of dynamic data rows. I have set the yellow background on my UITableView in IBuilder, My cells (except first row) have white background with code: UIView* backgroundView = [ [ [ UIView alloc ] initWithFrame:CGRectZero ] autorelease ]; backgroundView.backgroundColor = [UIColor colorWithRed: 0.96078431372549 green: 0.96078431372549 blue: 0.96078431372549 alpha: 1.0]; cell.backgroundView = backgroundView; for ( UIView* view in cell.contentView.subviews ) { view.backgroundColor = [ UIColor clearColor ]; } The example yellow background, I only want to be showed at the top. As u see img example below. The thing is I dont want to have yellow background under the last datarow, I want to contain same white color I have on the cells. This should be white as the cells. Not yellow. Thank u for your time. Regards

    Read the article

  • Cloning input type file and set the value

    - by jribeiro
    I know that it isn't possible to set the value of an input type="file" for security reasons... My problem is: I needed to style an input type="file" so what I did was have a button and hide the file input. like: <a href="#" onclick="$('input[name=&quot;photo1&quot;]').click(); return false;" id="photo1-link"></a> <input type="file" name="photo1" class="fileInput jqtranformdone validate[required]" id="photo1" /> These works great in all browsers except IE which gives me an access denied error on submitting through ajax. I'm using the ajaxSubmit jquery plugin (malsup.com/jquery/form/) So after reading for a while I tried to do: var photo1Val = $('#photo1').val(); var clone1 = $('#photo1').clone().val(photo1Val); $('#photo1').remove(); clone1.appendTo('form'); console.log(photo1Val) //prints the right value C:/fakepath/blablabla.jpg $('form').ajaxSubmit(options); The problem is that after this the value of $('#photo1') is empty... Any ideas how to work around this? Thanks

    Read the article

  • JFLAP Turing Machine shortcut problem

    - by Robert Lamb
    In JFLAP (http://jflap.org), there are some shortcuts for Turing machine transitions. One of these shortcuts allows you to transition as long as the current tape symbol isn't the indicated symbol. For example, the transition !g,x;R basically says "Take this transition if the current tape symbol is not g". So far, so good. But the transition I want is !?,~;R which basically says "Move right as long as the current symbol is not the end-of-string (empty cell) symbol". The problem is I cannot figure out how to type in "!?". The JFLAP online documentation (http://www.jflap.org/tutorial/turing/one/index.html#syntax) has this to say: The first shortcut is that there exists the option of using the “!” character to convey the meaning of “any character but this character.” For example, concerning the transition (!a; x, R), if the head encounters any character but an “a”, it will replace the character with an “x” and move right. To write the expression “!?”, just type a “1” in when inputting a command. My question is...how do I actually do what that last sentence is trying to explain to me? Thanks for your help! Robert

    Read the article

  • VB .NET error handling, pass error to caller

    - by user1375452
    this is my very first project on vb.net and i am now struggling to migrate a vba working add in to a vb.net COM Add-in. I think i'm sort of getting the hang, but error handling has me stymied. This is a test i've been using to understand the try-catch and how to pass exception to caller Public Sub test() Dim ActWkSh As Excel.Worksheet Dim ActRng As Excel.Range Dim ActCll As Excel.Range Dim sVar01 As String Dim iVar01 As Integer Dim sVar02 As String Dim iVar02 As Integer Dim objVar01 As Object ActWkSh = Me.Application.ActiveSheet ActRng = Me.Application.Selection ActCll = Me.Application.ActiveCell iVar01 = iVar02 = 1 sVar01 = CStr(ActCll.Value) sVar02 = CStr(ActCll.Offset(1, 0).Value) Try objVar01 = GetValuesV(sVar01, sVar02) 'DO SOMETHING HERE Catch ex As Exception MsgBox("ERRORE: " + ex.Message) 'LOG ERROR SOMEWHERE Finally MsgBox("DONE!") End Try End Sub Private Function GetValuesV(ByVal QryStr As Object, ByVal qryConn As String) As Object Dim cnn As Object Dim rs As Object Try cnn = CreateObject("ADODB.Connection") cnn.Open(qryConn) rs = CreateObject("ADODB.recordset") rs = cnn.Execute(QryStr) If rs.EOF = False Then GetValuesV = rs.GetRows Else Throw New System.Exception("Query Return Empty Set") End If Catch ex As Exception Throw ex Finally rs.Close() cnn.Close() End Try End Function i'd like to have the error message up to test, but MsgBox("ERRORE: " + ex.Message) pops out something unexpected (Object variable or With block variable not set) What am i doing wrong here?? Thanks D

    Read the article

  • Pushing a local mercurial repository to a remote server or cloning at server from local

    - by Samaursa
    I have a local repository that I have now decided to push to a remote server (for example, I have a host that allows mercurial repositories and I am also trying to push to bitbucket). The repository has a lot of files and is a little more than 200mb. Locally, I am able to clone the repository without problems. Now I have a lot of changes in this repository, and I have wasted a couple of days trying to figure out how to get the remote server to clone my repository. I cannot get hg serve to work outside of the LAN. I have tried everything. So instead, I created a new repository at the remote servers (both at the host and bitbucket) with nothing in it. Now I am pushing the complete repository that I have locally to these remote locations. So far it has been unsuccessful, as the push operation is stuck on searching for changes and does not give me any other useful output. I have let it go for about an hour with no change. Now my questions is, what am I doing wrong as far as hg serve is concerned? I can access it locally but not remotely (through DynDns - I have configured it properly and the router forwards the ports correctly) so that I can get the server to clone the repository the first time after which I will be pushing to it. My second question is, assuming the clone at server does not work (for example, if I was to push my current repository to bitbucket), is creating an empty repository at the server and then pushing a local repository to the new remote repository ok? Is that the source of the searching for changes problem? Any help in this regard would be greatly appreciated.

    Read the article

  • Deep Zoom in Ajax - Possible? Any examples out there?

    - by Phil
    I have an idea to implement a deep zoom type interface hosted in a browser for sports training data (speed, distance, heart rate etc.) However, rather than images I actually want to zoom into a hierarchy of information. For example, the initial display would contain a grid of years - hover over 2008, for example, and spin the mouse wheel (or click) will zoom into that year but during the zoom I want 2008 to fade out and be replaced with a calendar of months. Again zoom into a month and the months are replaced with the months calendar, zoom into a day and you finally see a chart with the training data plotted on it. All the time only dates with actual data would be highlighted in some fashion. My question is whether this would even be possible and whether anyone has seen examples of this already. I'm imagining that most of the time the next level of information could be cached in the browser (in fact, because this is calendar-based, I can calculate most of that and cache the dates to be highlighted.) I could also zoom into an empty chart whilst an Ajax thread is fetching the data to display. I've never tried anything like this before and I'm especially interested in whether DHTML would be capable of this sort of zoom (I suspect not and I would have to resort to Silverlight) and whether the Ajax execution would be uninterrupted whilst the browser rendering thread is kept busy zooming.

    Read the article

  • Trying to use HttpWebRequest to load a page in a file.

    - by Malcolm
    Hi, I have a ASP.NET MVC app that works fine in the browser. I am using the following code to be able to write the html of a retrieved page to a file. (This is to use in a PDF conversion component) But this code errors out continually but not in the browser. I get timeout errors sometimes asn 500 errors. Public Function GetPage(ByVal url As String, ByVal filename As String) As Boolean Dim request As HttpWebRequest Dim username As String Dim password As String Dim docid As String Dim poststring As String Dim bytedata() As Byte Dim requestStream As Stream Try username = "pdfuser" password = "pdfuser" docid = "docid=inv12154" poststring = String.Format("username={0}&password={1}&{2}", username, password, docid) bytedata = Encoding.UTF8.GetBytes(poststring) request = WebRequest.Create(url) request.Method = "Post" request.ContentLength = bytedata.Length request.ContentType = "application/x-www-form-urlencoded" requestStream = request.GetRequestStream() requestStream.Write(bytedata, 0, bytedata.Length) requestStream.Close() request.Timeout = 60000 Dim response As HttpWebResponse Dim responseStream As Stream Dim reader As StreamReader Dim sb As New StringBuilder() Dim line As String = String.Empty response = request.GetResponse() responseStream = response.GetResponseStream() reader = New StreamReader(responseStream, System.Text.Encoding.ASCII) line = reader.ReadLine() While (Not line Is Nothing) sb.Append(line) line = reader.ReadLine() End While File.WriteAllText(filename, sb.ToString()) Catch ex As Exception MsgBox(ex.Message) End Try Return True End Function

    Read the article

  • Swing JTable Scrolling not working properly

    - by Marko
    I'm doing an application, which uses Swing JTable. I used drag and drop in NetBeans, to add the JTable. When I add the JTable, JScrollPane is added automaticly. All the look is done with drag and drop. By pressing the first button, I set the number of rows in the table. This is the code to set my DataModel int size = 50; String[] colNames = {"Indeks", "Ime", "Priimek", "Drzava"}; DefaultTableModel model = new DefaultTableModel(size, colNames.length); model.setColumnIdentifiers(colNames); table.setModel(model); So if the size is, let's say 10, it works OK, since there is no scroll bar. When I add 50 empty rows, when trying to scroll for 5 seconds, it doesn't work properly and crashes in some time. I added the picture, for better understanding (this is what happens to the rows when I scroll up and down for a while). What could be wrong? Am I not using the DataModel as it is supposed to be used, should I .revalidate() or .repaint() the JTable?

    Read the article

  • ASP.Net IE6 disable button

    - by RemotecUk
    Hi, I have the following code running as part of my OnClientclick attribute on my custom ASP.Net button.... function clickOnce(btnSubmit) { if ( typeof( Page_ClientValidate ) == 'function' ) { if ( ! Page_ClientValidate() ) { return false; } } btnSubmit.disabled = true; } There is a validator on the page. If a given text box is empty then the validator activates no problem. If a given text box is populated then the button disables but a post back does not occur. The rendered markup looks like this... <input type="submit" name="TestButton" value="Test Button" onclick="clickOnce(this);WebForm_DoPostBackWithOptions(new WebForm_PostBackOptions(&quot;TestButton&quot;, &quot;&quot;, true, &quot;&quot;, &quot;&quot;, false, false))" id="TestButton" class="euva-button-decorated" /> This works nicely in Firefox but not in IE6. Its almost like after the button has been disabled it simply does not run the post back javascript. Any ideas welcomed. EDIT: I have tried returning true from the function as well.

    Read the article

  • asp.net C# windows authentication iss config

    - by user1566209
    I'm developing a webpage where a need to know the users windows authentication values, more precisely the name. Others developments have been done with this kind of authentication but sadly for me their creators are long gone and i have no contact or documentation. I'm using Visual Studio 2008 and i'm accessing a webservice that is in a remote server. The server is a windows server 2008 r2 standard and is using ISS version 7.5. Since i have the source code of the other developments what i did was copy paste and was working fine when i was calling the webservice that was in my machine (localhost). The code is the following: //1st way WindowsPrincipal wp = new WindowsPrincipal(WindowsIdentity.GetCurrent()); string strUser = wp.Identity.Name;//ALWAYS GET NT AUTHORITY\NETWORK SERVICE //2nd way WindowsIdentity winId = WindowsIdentity.GetCurrent(); WindowsPrincipal winPrincipal = new WindowsPrincipal(winId); string user = winPrincipal.Identity.Name;//ALWAYS GET NT AUTHORITY\NETWORK SERVICE //3rd way IIdentity WinId = HttpContext.Current.User.Identity; WindowsIdentity wi = (WindowsIdentity)WinId; string userstr = wi.Name; //ALWAYS GET string empty btn_select.Text = userstr; btn_cancelar.Text = strUser; btn_gravar.Text = user; As you can see i have here 3 ways to get the same and in a sad manner show my user's name. As for my web.config i have: <authentication mode="Windows"/> <identity impersonate="true" /> In the IIS manager i have tried lots of combination of enable and disable between Anonymous Authentication, ASP.NET Impersonation, Basic Authentication, Forms Authentication and Windows Authentication. Can please someone help me?? NOTE: The respective values i get from each try are in the code

    Read the article

  • C++ iterators, default initialization and what to use as an uninitialized sentinel.

    - by Hassan Syed
    The Context I have a custom template container class put together from a map and vector. The map resolves a string to an ordinal, and the vector resolves an ordinal (only an initial string to ordinal lookup is done, future references are to the vector) to the entry. The entries are modified intrusively to contain a a bool "assigned" and an iterator_type which is a const_iterator to the container class's map. My container class will use RCF's serialization code (which models boost::serialization) to serialize my container classes to nodes in a network. Serializing iterator's is not possible, or a can of worms, and I can easily regenerate them onces the vectors and maps are serialized on the remote site. The Question I need to default initialize, and be able to test that the iterator has not been assigned to (if it is assigned it is valid, if not it is invalid). Since map iterators are not invalidated upon operations performed on it (unless of course items are removed :D) am I to assume that map<x,y>::end() is a valid sentinel (regardless of the state of the map -- i.e., it could be empty) to initialize to ? I will always have access to the parent map, I'm just unsure wheather end() is the same as the map contents change. I don't want to use another level of indirection (--i.e., boost::optional) to achieve my goal, I'd rather forego compiler checks to correct logic, but it would be nice if I didn't need to. Misc This question exists, but most of its content seems non-sense. Assigning a NULL to an iterator is invalid according to g++ and clang++. This is another similar question, but it focuses on the common use-cases of iterators, which generally tends to be using the iterator to iterate, ofcourse in this use-case the state of the container isn't meant to change whilst iteration is going on.

    Read the article

  • Asp MVC - "The Id field is required" validation message on Create; Id not set to [Required]

    - by burnt_hand
    This is happening when I try to create the entity using a Create style action in Asp.Net MVC 2. The POCO has the following properties: public int Id {get;set;} [Required] public string Message {get; set} On the creation of the entity, the Id is set automatically, so there is no need for it on the Create action. The ModelState says that "The Id field is required", but I haven't set that to be so. Is there something automatic going on here? EDIT - Reason Revealed The reason for the issue is answered by Brad Wilson via Paul Speranza in one of the comments below where he says (cheers Paul): You're providing a value for ID, you just didn't know you were. It's in the route data of the default route ("{controller}/{action}/{id}"), and its default value is the empty string, which isn't valid for an int. Use the [Bind] attribute on your action parameter to exclude ID. My default route was: new { controller = "Customer", action = "Edit", id = " " } // Parameter defaults EDIT - Update Model technique I actually changed the way I did this again by using TryUpdateModel and the exclude parameter array asscoiated with that. [HttpPost] public ActionResult Add(Venue collection) { Venue venue = new Venue(); if (TryUpdateModel(venue, null, null, new[] { "Id" })) { _service.Add(venue); return RedirectToAction("Index", "Manage"); } return View(collection); }

    Read the article

  • Associate "Code/Properties/Stuff" with Fields in C# without reflection. I am too indoctrinated by J

    - by AlexH
    I am building a library to automatically create forms for Objects in the project that I am working on. The codebase is in C#, and essentially we have a HUGE number of different objects to store information about different things. If I send these objects to the client side as JSON, it is easy enough to programatically inspect them to generate a form for all of the properties. The problem is that I want to be able to create a simple way of enforcing permissions and doing validation on the client side. It needs to be done on a field by field level. In javascript I would do this by creating a parallel object structure, which had some sort of { permissions : "someLevel", validator : someFunction } object at the nodes. With empty nodes implying free permissions and universal validation. This would let me simply iterate over the new object and the permissions object, run the check, and deal with the result. Because I am overfamilar with the hammer that is javascript, this is really the only way that I can see to deal with this problem. My first implementation thus uses reflection to let me treat objects as dictionaries, that can be programatically iterated over, and then I just have dictionaries of dictionaries of PermissionRule objects which can be compared with. Very javascripty. Very awkward. Is there some better way that I can do this? Essentially a way to associate a data set with each property, and then iterate over those properties. Or else am I Doing It Wrong?

    Read the article

  • WCF service reference namespace differs from original

    - by Thorarin
    I'm having a problem regarding namespaces used by my service references. I have a number of WCF services, say with the namespace MyCompany.Services.MyProduct (the actual namespaces are longer). As part of the product, I'm also providing a sample C# .NET website. This web application uses the namespace MyCompany.MyProduct. During initial development, the service was added as a project reference to the website and uses directly. I used a factory pattern that returns an object instance that implements MyCompany.Services.MyProduct.IMyService. So far, so good. Now I want to change this to use an actual service reference. After adding the reference and typing MyCompany.Services.MyProduct in the namespace textbox, it generates classes in the namespace MyCompany.MyProduct.MyCompany.Services.MyProduct. BAD! I don't want to have to change using directives in several places just because I'm using a proxy class. So I tried prepending the namespace with global::, but that is not accepted. Note that I hadn't even deleted the original assembly references yet, and "reuse types" is enabled, but no reusing was done, apparently. However, I don't want to keep the assembly references around in my sample website for it to work anyway. The only solution I've come up with so far is setting the default namespace for my web application to MyCompany (because it cannot be empty), and adding the service reference as Services.MyProduct. Suppose that a customer wants to use my sample website as a starting point, and they change the default namespace to OtherCompany.Whatever, this will obviously break my workaround. Is there a good solution to this problem? To summarize: I want to generate a service reference proxy in the original namespace, without referencing the assembly. Note: I have seen this question, but there was no solution provided that is acceptable for my use case. Edit: As John Saunders suggested, I've submitted some feedback to Microsoft about this: Feedback item @ Microsoft Connect

    Read the article

  • MySQL query does not return any data

    - by Alex L
    Hi, I need to retrieve data from a specific time period. The query works fine until I specify the time period. Is there something wrong with the way I specify time period? I know there are many entries within that time-frame. This query returns empty: SELECT stop_times.stop_id, STR_TO_DATE(stop_times.arrival_time, '%H:%i:%s') as stopTime, routes.route_short_name, routes.route_long_name, trips.trip_headsign FROM trips JOIN stop_times ON trips.trip_id = stop_times.trip_id JOIN routes ON routes.route_id = trips.route_id WHERE stop_times.stop_id = 5508 HAVING stopTime BETWEEN DATE_SUB(stopTime,INTERVAL 1 MINUTE) AND DATE_ADD(stopTime,INTERVAL 20 MINUTE); Here is it's EXPLAIN: +----+-------------+------------+--------+------------------+---------+---------+-------------------------------+------+-------------+ | id | select_type | table | type | possible_keys | key | key_len | ref | rows | Extra | +----+-------------+------------+--------+------------------+---------+---------+-------------------------------+------+-------------+ | 1 | SIMPLE | stop_times | ref | trip_id,stop_id | stop_id | 5 | const | 605 | Using where | | 1 | SIMPLE | trips | eq_ref | PRIMARY,route_id | PRIMARY | 4 | wmata_gtfs.stop_times.trip_id | 1 | | | 1 | SIMPLE | routes | eq_ref | PRIMARY | PRIMARY | 4 | wmata_gtfs.trips.route_id | 1 | | +----+-------------+------------+--------+------------------+---------+---------+-------------------------------+------+-------------+ 3 rows in set (0.00 sec) The query works if I remove the HAVING clause (don't specify time range). Returns: +---------+----------+------------------+-----------------+---------------+ | stop_id | stopTime | route_short_name | route_long_name | trip_headsign | +---------+----------+------------------+-----------------+---------------+ | 5508 | 06:31:00 | "80" | "" | "FORT TOTTEN" | | 5508 | 06:57:00 | "80" | "" | "FORT TOTTEN" | | 5508 | 07:23:00 | "80" | "" | "FORT TOTTEN" | | 5508 | 07:49:00 | "80" | "" | "FORT TOTTEN" | | 5508 | 08:15:00 | "80" | "" | "FORT TOTTEN" | | 5508 | 08:41:00 | "80" | "" | "FORT TOTTEN" | | 5508 | 09:08:00 | "80" | "" | "FORT TOTTEN" | I am using Google Transit format Data loaded into MySQL. The query is supposed to provide stop times and bus routes for a given bus stop. For a bus stop, I am trying to get: Route Name Bus Name Bus Direction (headsign) Stop time The results should be limited only to buses times from 1 min ago to 20 min from now. Please let me know if you could help.

    Read the article

  • Why is Routes.rb not loading the IPs from cache?

    - by Christian Fazzini
    I am testing this in local. My ip is 127.0.0.1. The ip_permissions table, is empty. When I browse the site, everything works as expected. Now, I want to simulate browsing the site with a banned IP. So I add the IP into the ip_permissions table via: IpPermission.create!(:ip => '127.0.0.1', :note => 'foobar', :category => 'blacklist') In Rails console, I clear the cache via; Rails.cache.clear. I browse the site. I don't get sent to pages#blacklist. If I restart the server. And browse the site, then I get sent to pages#blacklist. Why do I need to restart the server every time the ip_permissions table is updated? Shouldn't it fetch it based on cache? Routes look like: class BlacklistConstraint def initialize @blacklist = IpPermission.blacklist end def matches?(request) @blacklist.map { |b| b.ip }.include? request.remote_ip end end Foobar::Application.routes.draw do match '/(*path)' => 'pages#blacklist', :constraints => BlacklistConstraint.new .... end My model looks like: class IpPermission < ActiveRecord::Base validates_presence_of :ip, :note, :category validates_uniqueness_of :ip, :scope => [:category] validates :category, :inclusion => { :in => ['whitelist', 'blacklist'] } def self.whitelist Rails.cache.fetch('whitelist', :expires_in => 1.month) { self.where(:category => 'whitelist').all } end def self.blacklist Rails.cache.fetch('blacklist', :expires_in => 1.month) { self.where(:category => 'blacklist').all } end end

    Read the article

  • Closures and universal quantification

    - by Apocalisp
    I've been trying to work out how to implement Church-encoded data types in Scala. It seems that it requires rank-n types since you would need a first-class const function of type forAll a. a -> (forAll b. b -> b). However, I was able to encode pairs thusly: import scalaz._ trait Compose[F[_],G[_]] { type Apply = F[G[A]] } trait Closure[F[_],G[_]] { def apply[B](f: F[B]): G[B] } def pair[A,B](a: A, b: B) = new Closure[Compose[PartialApply1Of2[Function1,A]#Apply, PartialApply1Of2[Function1,B]#Apply]#Apply, Identity] { def apply[C](f: A => B => C) = f(a)(b) } For lists, I was able to get encode cons: def cons[A](x: A) = { type T[B] = B => (A => B => B) => B new Closure[T,T] { def apply[B](xs: T[B]) = (b: B) => (f: A => B => B) => f(x)(xs(b)(f)) } } However, the empty list is more problematic and I've not been able to get the Scala compiler to unify the types. Can you define nil, so that, given the definition above, the following compiles? cons(1)(cons(2)(cons(3)(nil)))

    Read the article

  • Static Property losing its value intermittently ?

    - by joedotnot
    Is there something fundamentally wrong with the following design, or can anyone see why would the static properties sometimes loose their values ? I have a class library project containing a class AppConfig; this class is consumed by a Webforms project. The skeleton of AppConfig class is as follows: Public Class AppConfig Implements IConfigurationSectionHandler Private Const C_KEY1 As String = "WebConfig.Key.1" Private Const C_KEY2 As String = "WebConfig.Key.2" Private Const C_KEY1_DEFAULT_VALUE as string = "Key1defaultVal" Private Const C_KEY2_DEFAULT_VALUE as string = "Key2defaultVal" Private Shared m_field1 As String Private Shared m_field2 As String Public Shared ReadOnly Property ConfigValue1() As String Get ConfigValue1= m_field1 End Get End Property Public Shared ReadOnly Property ConfigValue2() As String Get ConfigValue2 = m_field2 End Get End Property Public Shared Sub OnApplicationStart() m_field1 = ReadSetting(C_KEY1, C_KEY1_DEFAULT_VALUE) m_field2 = ReadSetting(C_KEY2, C_KEY1_DEFAULT_VALUE) End Sub Public Overloads Shared Function ReadSetting(ByVal key As String, ByVal defaultValue As String) As String Try Dim setting As String = System.Configuration.ConfigurationManager.AppSettings(key) If setting Is Nothing Then ReadSetting = defaultValue Else ReadSetting = setting End If Catch ReadSetting = defaultValue End Try End Function Public Function Create(ByVal parent As Object, ByVal configContext As Object, ByVal section As System.Xml.XmlNode) As Object Implements System.Configuration.IConfigurationSectionHandler.Create Dim objSettings As NameValueCollection Dim objHandler As NameValueSectionHandler objHandler = New NameValueSectionHandler objSettings = CType(objHandler.Create(parent, configContext, section), NameValueCollection) Return 1 End Function End Class The Static Properties get set once on application start, from the Application_Start event of the Global.asax Sub Application_Start(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As EventArgs) //Fires when the application is started AppConfig.OnApplicationStart() End Sub Thereafter, whenever we want to access a value in the Web.Config from anywhere, e.g. aspx page code-behind or another class or referenced class, we simply call the static property. For example, AppConfig.ConfigValue1() AppConfig.ConfigValue2() This is turn returns the value stored in the static backing fields m_field1, m_field2 Problem is sometimes these values are empty string, when clearly the Web.Config entry has values. Is there something fundamentally wrong with the above design, or is it reasonable to expect the static properties would keep their value for the life of the Application session?

    Read the article

  • Nmock2 and Event Expectations

    - by Kildareflare
    Im in the process of writing a test for a small application that follows the MVP pattern. Technically, I know I should have written the test before the code, but I needed to knock up a demo app quick smart and so im now going back to the test before moving on to the real development. In short I am attempting to test the presenter, however I cannot even get an empty test to run due to an Internal.ExpectationException. The exception is raised on a unexpected invocation of an event assignation. Here is the presenter class, public LBCPresenter(IView view, IModel model) { m_model = model; m_model.BatteryModifiedEvent += new EventHandler(m_model_BatteryModifiedEvent); } Model Interface public interface IModel { event EventHandler BatteryModifiedEvent; } And here is the test class, I can't see what im missing, ive told NMock to expect the event... [TestFixture] public class MVP_PresenterTester { private Mockery mocks; private IView _mockView; private IViewObserver _Presenter; private IModel _mockModel; [SetUp] public void SetUp() { mocks = new Mockery(); _mockView = mocks.NewMock<IView>(); _mockModel = mocks.NewMock<IModel>(); _Presenter = new LBCPresenter(_mockView, _mockModel); } [Test] public void TestClosingFormWhenNotDirty() { Expect.Once.On(_mockModel).EventAdd("BatteryModifiedEvent", NMock2.Is.Anything); //makes no difference if following line is commented out or not //mocks.VerifyAllExpectationsHaveBeenMet(); } } Every time I run the test I get the same expectation Exception. Any ideas?

    Read the article

  • Django: How to dynamically add tag field to third party apps without touching app's source code

    - by Chris Lawlor
    Scenario: large project with many third party apps. Want to add tagging to those apps without having to modify the apps' source. My first thought was to first specify a list of models in settings.py (like ['appname.modelname',], and call django-tagging's register function on each of them. The register function adds a TagField and a custom manager to the specified model. The problem with that approach is that the function needs to run BEFORE the DB schema is generated. I tried running the register function directly in settings.py, but I need django.db.models.get_model to get the actual model reference from only a string, and I can't seem to import that from settings.py - no matter what I try I get an ImportError. The tagging.register function imports OK however. So I changed tactics and wrote a custom management command in an otherwise empty app. The problem there is that the only signal which hooks into syncdb is post_syncdb which is useless to me since it fires after the DB schema has been generated. The only other approach I can think of at the moment is to generate and run a 'south' like database schema migration. This seems more like a hack than a solution. This seems like it should be a pretty common need, but I haven't been able to find a clean solution. So my question is: Is it possible to dynamically add fields to a model BEFORE the schema is generated, but more specifically, is it possible to add tagging to a third party model without editing it's source. To clarify, I know it is possible to create and store Tags without having a TagField on the model, but there is a major flaw in that approach in that it is difficult to simultaneously create and tag a new model.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 242 243 244 245 246 247 248 249 250 251 252 253  | Next Page >