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  • Reduce unwanted noise

    - by Rajeev
    In the below code sometimes when microphone is not connected some noise is generated and the system just keeps on buzzing the same sound.Whats wrong with the code below and how to reduce the unwanted noise. Should i set myMic.setLoopBack(false) in the below code <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <mx:Application xmlns:mx="http://www.adobe.com/2006/mxml" layout="absolute" width="300" height="100" creationComplete="init()"> <mx:Script> <![CDATA[ import mx.controls.Alert; import flash.net.NetStream; private var myMic:Microphone; private var recordingState:String = "idle"; private function init():void { myMic = Microphone.getMicrophone(); myMic.setSilenceLevel(0); myMic.rate = 44; myMic.gain = 100; myMic.setUseEchoSuppression(true); micLevel.visible = true; //Security.showSettings(SecurityPanel.MICROPHONE); myMic.setLoopBack(true); if (myMic != null) { myMic.setUseEchoSuppression(true); micLevel.setProgress(myMic.activityLevel, 100); addEventListener(Event.ENTER_FRAME, showMicLevel); //micLevel.setProgress(myMic.activityLevel, 100); } } private function showMicLevel(event:Event):void{ switch (recordingState){ case "idle" : micLevel.setProgress(myMic.activityLevel, 100); break; } } ]]> </mx:Script> <mx:ProgressBar x="0" y="36" mode="manual" id="micLevel" label="" labelPlacement="bottom" width="100" fontSize="10" fontWeight="normal"/> </mx:Application>

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  • prevent javascript in the WMD editor's preview box

    - by Justin Grant
    There are many SO questions (e.g. here and here) about how to do server-side scrubbing of Markdown produced by the WMD editor to ensure the HTML generated doesn't contain malicious script, like this: <img onload="alert('haha');" src="http://www.google.com/intl/en_ALL/images/srpr/logo1w.png" /> Unfortunately, this still allows script to show up in the WMD client's preview box. I doubt this is a big deal since if you're scrubbing the HTML on the server, an attacker can't save the bad HTML so no one else will be able to see it later and have their cookies stolen or sessions hijacked by the bad script. But it's still kinda odd to allow an attacker to run any script in the context of your site, and it's probably a bad idea to allow the client preview window to allow different HTML than your server will allow. StackOverflow has clearly plugged this hole. How did they do it? [NOTE: I already figured this out but it required some tricky javascript debugging, so I'm answering my own question here to help others who may want to do ths same thing]

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  • How to distribute the android reusable code in a package?

    - by Kaillash
    Hi, I have developed some reusable android component which is basically a class . This class has some resource dependencies e.g. some png drawables, some xml layouts etc. So this class referenced the auto-generated R file.I would like to distribute this code in a single package like jar file to other developers for use in their applications. I have read that the only possible solution is to distribute code together with all my resources, which others have to copy to their "res" folder (source). So I created a jar file having the class file (say MyClass which is in the package com.xyz.android.app) and resources and tried to use this in my new application. So I added the jar file to my new applications build path using add external jars option in eclipse and copied all the resources to my new application's res folder. (The activity class say MainActivity of my new application is in com.abc.myapplication package, just for the case if it may helpful) But when I run this new application there is java.lang.ClassCastException in the MyClass class. I tried to debug the application and then I found that in the MyClass class, there is "R cannot be resolved" problem. Then I changed MainActivity's package to com.xyz.android.app (which is not the way, other developers will be happy to do), But again the same problem. But When I just copy the source java file such that both MainActivity.java and MyClass.java are in com.xyz.android.app package then application runs fine. So if I need to distribute such that other users need not to bother these package naming things, how can I accomplish this? Please help !!

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  • Avoiding Multiple Dialog Calls with htaccess

    - by Jeffrey J Weimer
    OK, I'm new to this, so pardon if the question is already a FAQ. Searching multiple places still leaves me dumbfounded. I have a Web site generated with iWeb09/Mac hosting on an ISP. To secure certain pages, I am trying to set up .htaccess + .htpasswd files. The basic directory structure is ... Main index.html Images.html Images (some css, js stuff) Media Image01 Image01.jpeg ... Image02 Image02.jpeg ... I want to password protect access to the Images directory and all the files therein. The index.html file has a link to the Images.html file that contains the layout for the files in the Images directory. I have put a basic .htaccess file at the Main level that restricts access via ... <Files "Images.html"> AuthType Basic AuthName "Images" AuthUserFile /Main/.htpasswd AuthGroupFile /dev/null Require valid-user </Files> I have then created a valid .htpasswd file. All works at the start, however after the first call to set up the Images.html page, the secure login prompt is displayed multiple times, presumably once for every sub-sub-directory Images/Media/ImageXX (with multiple sub-directories, I just give up after two or three times). I have also tried placing the .htaccess file inside the Images directory with the same problem. Recommendations I have seen suggest a better convention is needed in the basic .htaccess file itself. Alternatively, perhaps a companion .htaccess is needed in the Images directory. So, how do I fix this problem? -- JJW

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  • Nhibernate fires SQL commands

    - by Chris
    Hi all, when updating an entity A, NHibernate also send an SQL update command for some other entity B. A and B are not related. Just before saving entity A, the parent of entity B is loaded via a SQLQuery. Then, when accessed, B is lazy loaded (part of a collection). If I save entity A an update statement for entity B is generated as well. How can that be, that when saving an entity, another entity loaded before but is not related to the entity saved, is updated as well?! Can I somehow track where the update comes from? Btw. I am using an save event listener. Could it be that this is always triggered for entity loaded, even though they are not saved explicitly? public class EntitySaveEventListener : NHibernate.Event.Default.DefaultSaveEventListener { protected override object PerformSaveOrUpdate(SaveOrUpdateEvent e) { //auditing return base.PerformSaveOrUpdate(e); } } Update (sorry for providing not enough info): I tracked it down a bit. A select stateement on a entity called address is executed (is it lazy loaded by a parent). Then I create a new entity called Request. Right before saving this entity a session flush is called which updates the address, even though I did not call save or update on the address. Address is a collection within Request. <class name="Request" table="Request"> <bag name="addresses" access="field" cascade="all-delete-orphan" where="IsDeleted = 0"> <key column="RequestId"/> <one-to-many class="Address"/> </bag> ... // address is fetched only NHibernate.SQL: 2010-02-17 11:47:21,306 [21] DEBUG NHibernate.SQL [(null)] - SELECT addresses0_.RequestId as ServiceP8_3_, .... // session flushed here // address is updated NHibernate.SQL: 2010-02-17 11:47:34,306 [21] DEBUG NHibernate.SQL [(null)] - Batch commands: command 0:UPDATE Address SET Street = @p0, ..... Would the address be updated automatically when it is manipulated somehow even though it is not explicitly saved via it's parent (cascade)?

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  • Does ASP.NET need to be configured for Full Trust to implement 'PageHandlerFactory' ?

    - by Kev
    Our hosting platform (running IIS6/ASP.NET 2.0) is configured to run under partial trust. In the machine wide web.config file we set the ASP.NET trust level to Medium (and lock to prevent overrides) and use a modified policy file. When trying to add a custom HttpHandler to handle .aspx requests for a website running in this configuration I get the following security exception: Security Exception Description: The application attempted to perform an operation not allowed by the security policy. To grant this application the required permission please contact your system administrator or change the application's trust level in the configuration file. Exception Details: System.Security.SecurityException: Request failed. Source Error: An unhandled exception was generated during the execution of the current web request. Information regarding the origin and location of the exception can be identified using the exception stack trace below. Stack Trace: [SecurityException: Request failed.] System.Reflection.Assembly._GetType(String name, Boolean throwOnError, Boolean ignoreCase) +0 System.Reflection.Assembly.GetType(String name, Boolean throwOnError, Boolean ignoreCase) +42 System.Web.Compilation.CompilationUtil.GetTypeFromAssemblies(AssemblyCollection assembliesCollection, String typeName, Boolean ignoreCase) +172 System.Web.Compilation.BuildManager.GetType(String typeName, Boolean throwOnError, Boolean ignoreCase) +291 System.Web.Configuration.ConfigUtil.GetType(String typeName, String propertyName, ConfigurationElement configElement, XmlNode node, Boolean checkAptcaBit, Boolean ignoreCase) +52 I'm using a class derived from PageHandlerFactory, for example: public class MyPageHandlerFactory : PageHandlerFactory { public override System.Web.IHttpHandler GetHandler(System.Web.HttpContext context, string requestType, string virtualPath, string path) { // CustomPageHandler derives from System.Web.UI.Page return new CustomPageHandler(); } } My web.config httpHandler configuration is as follow: <httpHandlers> <add verb="*" path="*.aspx" type="MyPageHandler.MyPageHandlerFactory" /> </httpHandlers> The documentation for PageHandlerFactory shows that PageHandlerFactory is decorated with the following attributes: [PermissionSetAttribute(SecurityAction.LinkDemand, Unrestricted = true)] [PermissionSetAttribute(SecurityAction.InheritanceDemand, Unrestricted = true)] public class PageHandlerFactory : IHttpHandlerFactory Does this mean that I need to set ASP.NET to run at Full Trust to be able to create my own PageHandlerFactory classes?

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  • How can I bind a javascript dialog using Knockout?

    - by Brian
    I've got a list of data in an observableArray and I want to show it in a javascript dialog window (I'm using jQuery.blockUI if it matters). Unfortunately the dialog seems to come unbound after the page is loaded. The dialog initializes correctly (the data is displayed), but it isn't updating with changes. There are no Javascript errors and I've moved the binding to after the dialog is generated and added to the document (no effect). I've also tried calling ko.applyBinding on the main div that makes up the dialog but that, for some reason, causes part of the main page to hide (the DOM is there, but they are hidden). EDIT: I've created a project on jsfiddle that reproduces the problem. The main culprit seems to be wrapping the content of the dialog in a div. If I show the content directly it seems to work (of course I can't do that, the wrappers provide a common style for our dialogs). I'm recovering from the flu and could easily be missing something obvious, but I've been trying all day and nothing is coming to me. Any ideas?

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  • On-Demand thumbnail creation with django and nginx

    - by sharjeel
    I want to generate thumbnails of images on the fly. My site is built with django and deployed using nginx which serves all the static content and communicates with django/apache using reverse proxy. Right now, for every image in my site, I generate all required sizes of thumbnails on-hand and deliver them when required. The problem is that whenever I change the size of a thumbnail, I have to regenerate all of them (and they are tons). However now I'd like to generate the thumbnail the first time it is accessed and later on nginx would deliver the same file over n over. If I delete that thumbnail file because of lesser accesses, it should get generated automatically the next time. Thumbnails in my case also have watermarks which require some computation logic of my application so a webserver thumbnail module might not work very well. The size of the thumbnail can be embedded in the URL. So http://www.example.com/thumbnail/abc_320x240.jpg gets the 320x240 size of the thumbnail. The approach I'm looking right now is to let nginx lookup the file and if it doesn't exist, forward the query to my django application which would create the thumbnail and send either the response or a redirect string. However I'm not sure about the concurrency issues and any other issues which might pop up later. What is the appropriate way to achieve this?

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  • Replace low level web-service reference call transport with custom one

    - by hoodoos
    I'm not sure if title sounds right actually, so I will give more explanation here. I will begin from very beginning :) I'm using c# and .net for my development. I have an application that makes requests to some soap web-service and for each user request it produces 3 to 10 requests for web-service, they should all run async to finish in one time, so I use Async method of the web-service generated reference and then wait for result on callback. But it seems like it starts a thread (or takes it from pool) for every async call I make, so if I have 10 clients I got to spawn 30 to 100 threads and it sounds terrible even for my 16 cores server :) So i wanted to replace low level transport implementation with my own which uses non-blocking sockets and can handle at least 50 sockets run parallel in one thread with not much overhead. But I actually dunno where to put my override best. I analyzed System.Web.Services.Protocols.SoapHttpClientProtocol class and see that it has some GetWebRequest method which I actually could use. If only I could somehow interupt the object it creates and get a http request with all headers and body from there and then send it with my own sockets.. Any ideas what approach to use? Or maybe there's something built in the framework I can use?

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  • Dealing with expired session for a partially filled form?

    - by aaronls
    I have a large webform, and would like to prompt the user to login if their session expires, or have them login when they submit the form. It seems that having them login when they submit the form creates alot of challenges because they get redirected to the login page and then the postback data for the original form submission is lost. So I'm thinking about how to prompt them to login asynchrounsly when the session expires. So that they stay on the original form page, have a panel appear telling them the session has expired and they need to login, it submits the login asynchronously, the login panel disapears, and the user is still on the original partially filled form and can submit it. Is this easily doable using the existing ASP.NET Membership controls? When they submit the form will I need to worry about the session key? I mean, I am wondering if the session key the form submits will be the original one from before the session expired which won't match the new one generated after logging in again asynchrounously(I still do not understand the details of how ASP.NET tracks authentication/session IDs). Edit: Yes I am actually concerned about authentication expiration. The user must be authenticated for the submitted data to be considered valid.

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  • Suppressing PostSharp Multicast with Attribute

    - by Dan Bryant
    I've recently started experimenting with PostSharp and I found a particularly helpful aspect to automate implementation of INotifyPropertyChanged. You can see the example here. The basic functionality is excellent (all properties will be notified), but there are cases where I might want to suppress notification. For instance, I might know that a particular property is set once in the constructor and will never change again. As such, there is no need to emit the code for NotifyPropertyChanged. The overhead is minimal when classes are not frequently instantiated and I can prevent the problem by switching from an automatically generated property to a field-backed property and writing to the field. However, as I'm learning this new tool, it would be helpful to know if there is a way to tag a property with an attribute to suppress the code generation. I'd like to be able to do something like this: [NotifyPropertyChanged] public class MyClass { public double SomeValue { get; set; } public double ModifiedValue { get; private set; } [SuppressNotify] public double OnlySetOnce { get; private set; } public MyClass() { OnlySetOnce = 1.0; } }

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  • questions about name mangling in C++

    - by Tim
    I am trying to learn and understand name mangling in C++. Here are some questions: (1) From devx When a global function is overloaded, the generated mangled name for each overloaded version is unique. Name mangling is also applied to variables. Thus, a local variable and a global variable with the same user-given name still get distinct mangled names. Are there other examples that are using name mangling, besides overloading functions and same-name global and local variables ? (2) From Wiki The need arises where the language allows different entities to be named with the same identifier as long as they occupy a different namespace (where a namespace is typically defined by a module, class, or explicit namespace directive). I don't quite understand why name mangling is only applied to the cases when the identifiers belong to different namespaces, since overloading functions can be in the same namespace and same-name global and local variables can also be in the same space. How to understand this? Do variables with same name but in different scopes also use name mangling? (3) Does C have name mangling? If it does not, how can it deal with the case when some global and local variables have the same name? C does not have overloading functions, right? Thanks and regards!

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  • How do I send text to a UITextView?

    - by Lee
    I'm new to iphone development. I'm a VB programmer who is trying to convert a VB application to an ipad app. I need some help with sending text to a UITextView. I want to first have a UIPickerView and then once the user hits a UIButton, a UITextView appears and the text is then generated by my source code code, line by line. The code would constantly be concatenating strings to the text. It would sort of go like this-- 1) User makes selections with UIPickerView. 2) User then hits UIButton. 3) UIPickerView is replaced on the screen with a UITextView. 4) The code does stuff. 5) The code adds the 1st line of text into the UITextView. 6) The code does more stuff. 7) The code then adds the 2nd line of text into the UITextView, retaining the 1st line that was already there. Steps 6 and 7 are repeated until the code is done. Does anyone know of any examples of this that I could look at? I am mostly interested in finding something like a youtube video, a webpage that explains the code or even a good book that covers this particular topic. I am finding that the sample codes that Apple has on this site goes over my head. In fact, I could probably benefit from a good book. But, I am looking for one that I would already know covers this particular topic, since it is so essential to the app that I am trying to build.

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  • How to model parent to child pair in MySQL (SQL)

    - by mikeschuld
    I have a data model that includes element types Stage, Actor, and Form. Logically, Stages can be assigned pairs of ( Form <--- Actor ) which can be duplicated many times (i.e. same person and same form added to the same stage at a later date/time). Right now I am modeling this with these tables: Stage Form Actor Form_Actor _______________ |Id | |FormId | --> Id in Form |ActorId | --> Id in Actor Stage_FormActor __________________ |Id | |StageId | --> Id in Stage |FormActorId | --> Id in Form_Actor I am using CodeSmith to generate the data layer for this setup and none of the templates really know how to handle this type of relationship correctly when generating classes. Ideally, the ORM would have Stage.FormActors where FormActor would be the pair Form, Actor. Is this the correct way to model these relationships. I have tried using all three Ids in one table as well Stage_Form_Actor ______________ |Id | |StageId | --> Id in Stage |FormId | --> Id in Form |ActorId | --> Id in Actor This doesn't really get generated very well either. Ideas?

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  • iphone crash log with dSym not loading debug information

    - by AngeDeLaMort
    Hello, I was trying to see why my application crashed on the device (iPhone) using the dSym generated along the executable (in ad hoc), but I don't know why, there isn't any useful information. It seems that "Organizer" is able to find the appropriate dSym and translate some data into more readable one, but when it comes to my application, I just have an address. Since I know how to reproduce it, I've tried to setup my build so it can help me in the future. So, I've tried to find if I had all the proper flags set int the project build properties and everything seems fine. So after doing some research, it seems that all information are stripped during link time and the dSym seems completely useless. I've played with some flags, but nothing changed. So, is there something special to do in order to get the crash file human readable? Or is it impossible in the ad hoc setting? The closest thing near to work that I've done was to build a debug version and look up the address in it. At least it seems to give the right file. So, I made a sample app and here what I have: (the line I want is #4): Thread 0 Crashed: 0 libobjc.A.dylib 0x00003ebc objc_msgSend + 20 1 UIKit 0x0005c970 -[UIView dealloc] + 60 2 UIKit 0x0005c840 -[UIImageView dealloc] + 76 3 CoreFoundation 0x0003963a -[NSObject release] + 28 4 MyApplication 0x000046a6 0x1000 + 13990 5 UIKit 0x00069750 -[UIViewController view] + 44 6 MyApplication 0x000053fa 0x1000 + 17402 The crash is made using 2 successive releases on an object. Thanks in advance.

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  • Why would I need a using statement to Libary B extn methods, if they're used in Library A & it's Li

    - by Greg
    Hi, I have: Main Program Class - uses Library A Library A - has partial classes which mix in methods from Library B Library B - mix in methods & interfaces Why would I need a using statement to LibaryB just to get their extension methods working in the main class? That is given that it's Library B that defines the classes that will be extended. EDIT - Except from code // *** PROGRAM *** using TopologyDAL; using Topology; // *** THIS WAS NEEDED TO GET EXTN METHODS APPEARING *** class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { var context = new Model1Container(); Node myNode; // ** trying to get myNode mixin methods to appear seems to need using line to point to Library B *** } } // ** LIBRARY A namespace TopologyDAL { public partial class Node { // Auto generated from EF } public partial class Node : INode<int> // to add extension methods from Library B { public int Key } } // ** LIBRARY B namespace ToplogyLibrary { public static class NodeExtns { public static void FromNodeMixin<T>(this INode<T> node) { // XXXX } } public interface INode<T> { // Properties T Key { get; } // Methods } }

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  • closing an unordered list

    - by snorpey
    On a website, I want to display the main navigation as an unordered list. After 3 items I want to close that list and open a new one, so it eventually looks something like this: <div id="navigation"> <ul> <li>1</li> <li>2</li> <li>3</li> </ul> <ul> <li>4</li> <li>5</li> <li>6</li> </ul> </div> The navigation is dynmically generated using jQuery + Ajax. This is what the code I'm using looks like: $.getJSON("load.php", { some: value }, function(data) { $.each(data.items, function(i, item) { $('#navigation').find('ul').append('<li>' + i + '</li>'); if(i % 3 == 0) { $('#navigation').find('ul').append('</ul><ul>'); } }); }); Unfortunately, the browser doesn't interpret this right and treats the closing ul tag as a nested object of the first ul. How do I fix this?

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  • Microsoft products such as Visual Studio 2010 does not require to enter serial number

    - by MainMa
    Hi, I am member of WebsiteSpark and was member of DreamSpark. Both programs enable to download software and provide serial keys to use. Some software like Windows Server has an ISO file to download and a serial number displayed on the website which I must enter during installation. Some other software does not have any serial key. For example, when I downloaded Visual Studio 2010, there was just a link to an ISO file. During installation, there was no such a field as serial number (whereas Visual Studio 2008 had this field at the beginning of installation process). There is the same thing with SQL Server 2008 and Microsoft Expression Studio 3. Even when I've downloaded the public trial RTM version of Windows Seven Enterprise, there were no serial number to enter. I don't think that such expensive products as SQL Server 2008 Enterprise are delivered without serials and online validation, so I suppose that the serial is embedded into the product itself, either in installation binaries or in a separate config file, so is already in the ISO I download so I do not have to enter it. So my question is, how it is done technically? Is each 2 GBs ISO generated on-demand on the server to embed a serial each time this ISO is requested? I suppose that if it is done, it has a huge impact on servers performance (no caching, no streaming...), so what may be the techniques used behind? I want to implement the same feature in a product I intend to ship (to simplify installation by avoiding to ask to enter serial number), but I really don't see how to do it with low impact on server performance.

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  • Implementing eval and load functions inside a scripting engine with Flex and Bison.

    - by Simone Margaritelli
    Hy guys, i'm developing a scripting engine with flex and bison and now i'm implementing the eval and load functions for this language. Just to give you an example, the syntax is like : import std.*; load( "some_script.hy" ); eval( "foo = 123;" ); println( foo ); So, in my lexer i've implemented the function : void hyb_parse_string( const char *str ){ extern int yyparse(void); YY_BUFFER_STATE prev, next; /* * Save current buffer. */ prev = YY_CURRENT_BUFFER; /* * yy_scan_string will call yy_switch_to_buffer. */ next = yy_scan_string( str ); /* * Do actual parsing (yyparse calls yylex). */ yyparse(); /* * Restore previous buffer. */ yy_switch_to_buffer(prev); } But it does not seem to work. Well, it does but when the string (loaded from a file or directly evaluated) is finished, i get a sigsegv : Program received signal SIGSEGV, Segmentation fault. 0xb7f2b801 in yylex () at src/lexer.cpp:1658 1658 if ( YY_CURRENT_BUFFER_LVALUE->yy_buffer_status == YY_BUFFER_NEW ) As you may notice, the sigsegv is generated by the flex/bison code, not mine ... any hints, or at least any example on how to implement those kind of functions? PS: I've succesfully implemented the include directive, but i need eval and load to work not at parsing time but execution time (kind of PHP's include/require directives).

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  • How do I make a third party .jar available to my .jsp page?

    - by Matthew
    I'm just starting to learn JSP (and I'm pretty new to Java in general), and I'd like to use JSON-lib with it. I want to make a page something like this: <%@ page import="net.sf.json.JSONObject"%> <% String json = new JSONObject().put("hello", "world").toString(); out.println(json); %> I downloaded json-lib-2.3-jdk15.jar and put it in the same directory as the .jsp page. But I get this error org.apache.jasper.JasperException: Unable to compile class for JSP: An error occurred at line: 6 in the generated java file Only a type can be imported. net.sf.json.JSONObject resolves to a package An error occurred at line: 3 in the jsp file: /getCard.jsp JSONObject cannot be resolved to a type 1: <%@ page import="net.sf.json.JSONObject" %> 2: <% 3: String json = new JSONObject().put("hello", "world").toString(); 4: out.println(json); 5: %> 6: How do I make the JSONObject class available to my .jsp page?

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  • POST a form in an iframe.

    - by Stavros Korokithakis
    I would like to POST a form in an iframe, generated like so: My JS loads an iframe inside the page, adds a form to the iframe and submits the form. What I would like to happen is the iframe to load the result of that request. So, I would effectively like to post a form and render the result inside the iframe, without touching the parent (apart from putting the iframe up for display in the first place). I am using the code from this answer: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/133925/javascript-post-request-like-a-form-submit/134003#134003 but I can't get it to not reload the parent. I post the form, and instead of the iframe refreshing, the entire parent refreshes. I don't know why that is, since the url it's posting to is different and would at least redirect there. Can anyone help me with this problem? I just want a post inside an iframe and only within the iframe, basically. EDIT: After some more research, apparently the form is not being created properly. I'm using document.createElement("form") and then document.getElementById("my_iframe_id").appendChild(form) to append it, but it does not seem to be working correctly.

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  • document.write Not working when loading external Javascript source

    - by jadent
    I'm trying to load an external JavaScript file dynamically into an HTML element to preview an ad tag. The script loads and executes but the script contains "document.write" which has an issue executing properly but there are no errors. <html> <head> <script src="//ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/2.0.3/jquery.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(function() { source = 'http://ib.adnxs.com/ttj?id=555281'; // DOM Insert Approach // ----------------------------------- var script = document.createElement('script'); script.setAttribute('type', 'text/javascript'); script.setAttribute('src', source); document.body.appendChild(script); }); </script> </head> <body> </body> </html> I can get it to work if If i move the the source to the same domain for testing If the script was modified to use document.createElement and appendChild instead of document.write like the code above. I don't have the ability to modify the script since it being generated and hosted by a 3rd party. Does anyone know why the document.write will not work correctly? And is there a way to get around this? Thanks for the help!

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  • One or more rows contain values violating non-null, unique, or foreign-key constraints in SQL Script

    - by Musikero31
    Need help on this. I'm just wondering why this error occurred. Below is the script concerned. SELECT loc.ID ,loc.LocCode ,loc.LocName ,st.StateName ,reg.RegionName ,ctry.CountryName ,ISNULL(CONVERT(DATE, loc.UpdatedDate), CONVERT(DATE,loc.CreatedDate)) AS [ModifiedDate] ,stf.Name AS [ModifiedBy] FROM Spkr_Country AS ctry WITH (NOLOCK) INNER JOIN Spkr_Location AS loc WITH (NOLOCK) ON ctry.ID = loc.CountryID INNER JOIN Spkr_State AS st WITH (NOLOCK) ON loc.StateID = st.ID INNER JOIN Spkr_Region AS reg WITH (NOLOCK) ON loc.RegionID = reg.ID INNER JOIN Staff AS stf ON ISNULL(loc.UpdatedBy, loc.CreatedBy) = stf.StaffId WHERE (loc.IsActive = 1) AND ( (@LocCode = '') OR ( @LocCode <> '' AND loc.LocCode LIKE @LocCode + '%' ) ) AND ( (@RegionID < 1) OR ( @RegionID > 0 AND loc.RegionID = @RegionID ) ) AND ( (@StateID < 1) OR ( @StateID > 0 AND loc.StateID = @StateID ) ) AND ( (@CountryID < 1) OR ( @CountryID > 0 AND loc.CountryID = @CountryID ) ) The error probably occurred here INNER JOIN Staff AS stf ON ISNULL(loc.UpdatedBy, loc.CreatedBy) = stf.StaffId The requirement that I wanted is that if the loc.UpdatedBy is null, it will use the loc.CreatedBy column. However, when I used this, it generated the error mentioned. In the database, the loc.CreatedBy is not null while the loc.UpdatedBy is nullable. I checked it by running the script but it's working fine. How do I do with it? What's wrong with my code? Please help.

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  • Error when loading YAML config files in Rails

    - by ZelluX
    I am configuring Rails with MongoDB, and find a strange problem when paring config/mongo.yml file. config/mongo.yml is generated by executing script/rails generate mongo_mapper:config, and it looks like following: defaults: &defaults host: 127.0.0.1 port: 27017 development: <<: *defaults database: tc_web_development test: <<: *defaults database: tc_web_test From the config file we can see the objects development and test should both have a database field. But when it is parsed and loaded in config/initializers/mongo.db, config = YAML::load(File.read(Rails.root.join('config/mongo.yml'))) puts config.inspect MongoMapper.setup(config, Rails.env) the strange thing comes: the output of puts config.inspect is {"defaults"=>{"host"=>"127.0.0.1", "port"=>27017}, "development"=>{"host"=>"127.0.0.1", "port"=>27017}, "test"=>{"host"=>"127.0.0.1", "port"=>27017}} which does not contain database attribute. But when I execute the same statements in a plain ruby console, instead of using rails console, mongo.yml is parsed in a right way. {"defaults"=>{"host"=>"127.0.0.1", "port"=>27017}, "development"=>{"host"=>"127.0.0.1", "port"=>27017, "database"=>"tc_web_development"}, "test"=>{"host"=>"127.0.0.1", "port"=>27017, "database"=>"tc_web_test"}} I am wondering what may be the cause of this problem. Any ideas? Thanks.

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  • What is the best method for updating all changed data in EF 4?

    - by Soul_Master
    I try to create some method that can update any changed data from changed Data object (this object is generated by ASP.NET MVC) to old Data object (this object is retrieved from current data in DBMS) like the following code. public static bool UpdateSomeData(SomeEntities context, SomeModelType changedData) { var oldData = GetSomeModelTypeById(context, changedData.ID); UpdateModel(oldData, changedData); return context.SaveChanges() > 0; } I try to create method for saving any changed data without affects other unchanged data like the following source code. public static void UpdateModel<TModel>(TModel oldData, TModel changedData) { foreach (var pi in typeof(TModel).GetProperties() .Where ( // Ignore Change ID property for security reason x => x.Name.ToUpper() != "ID" && x.CanRead && x.CanWrite && ( // It must be primitive type or Guid x.PropertyType.FullName.StartsWith("System") && !x.PropertyType.FullName.StartsWith("System.Collection") && !x.PropertyType.FullName.StartsWith("System.Data.Entity.DynamicProxies") ) ) { var oldValue = pi.GetValue(oldData, null); var newValue = pi.GetValue(changedData, null); if (!oldValue.Equals(newValue)) { pi.SetValue(oldData, newValue, null); } } } I am not sure about the above method because it is so ugly method for updating data. From recent bug, it realizes me that if you update some property like Navigation Properties (related data from other table), it will remove current record from database. I don't understand why it happened. But it is very dangerous for me. So, do you have any idea for this question to ensure me about updating data from ASP.NET MVC? Thanks,

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