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  • SWF (using XML) only working locally, not on home server or web hosting server

    - by Andy
    Hi, I use a main SWF file, which has some animations. It uses xml from a .php file which specifies several items, e.g. images and other SWFs to be used in the main SWF. Locally everything works perfectly, but when invoking it via my home server, or hosting provider it doesn't work anymore and I don't get why. All links are relative and correct. Somehow the main SWF doesn't load fully, or has problems with the XML from the .php file. I'm not sure, now I only get a black box that doesn't show any of the other content it's supposed to. check it out: http://deoshermes.ath.cx/cc-common/templates/dynamiclead/dynamic_leadee.swf the XML: <?xml version="1.0" ?><dynamic_content> <item blurb="Text 1" content_url="" content_source="" content_timer="8000" content_target="_self" tab_color="0x000000" tab_border_color="0x000000" tab_arrow_color="0xFFFFFF" tab_text_color="0xFFFFFF" tab_image="/template/images/dle_TOPmay06.jpg" cycle="true" content_border_color="0x" content_bg_image="" tab_hl_color="0x000000" tab_highlight_color="0x" tab_highlight_text_color="0x" tab_highlight_image="" > </item> <item blurb="Text 2" content_timer="5000" cycle="true" content_border_color="0x" content_bg_image="" tab_hl_color="0xFFFFFF" tab_border_color="0xFFFFFF" tab_color="0xFFFFFF" tab_arrow_color="0xFFFFFF" tab_text_color="0xFFFFFF" tab_image="/template/images/dle_MIDandBOTmay06.jpg" tab_highlight_color="0x" tab_highlight_text_color="0x" tab_highlight_image="" content_url="" content_source="" content_target="_self" > </item> <item blurb="Text 3" content_timer="5000" cycle="true" content_border_color="0x" content_bg_image="" tab_hl_color="0xFFFFFF" tab_border_color="0xFFFFFF" tab_color="0xFFFFFF" tab_arrow_color="0xFFFFFF" tab_text_color="0xFFFFFF" tab_image="/template/images/dle_MIDandBOTmay06.jpg" tab_highlight_color="0x" tab_highlight_text_color="0x" tab_highlight_image="" content_url="" content_source="" content_target="_self" > </item> </dynamic_content> this works like a charm when invoking the main SWF locally. The ActionScript from the main sWF can be found at samedomain as above/Actionscript_mainmovie.txt This also seems to work great. the function formattabs (line 68) uses some javascript. Locally the main SWF functions even without this hbx file which is located /cc-common/wss/hbx.js and use in the webpage actually. I haven't got a clue what's keeping the main SWF from working properly, because all other single SWFs work properly when invoked using a direct link. And this one just isn't working... Do I maybe need to add something in the php.ini file?? Any help would be appreciated!

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  • How to add fadeIn and fadeOut to idTabs plugin's JS snippet?

    - by iMagdy
    Hi, I am using the jQuery plugin idTabs [ [www.sunsean.com/idTabs][1] ] and it allows me to line tabs and tabs' content via element#id and element href="#id" Ok, so I use this snippet: <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $("#requestPool").idTabs(); $(".tabs").idTabs(); $(".miniTabs").idTabs(".active"); $(".switchers").idTabs(".activePanel"); }); </script> To run the plugin on two different areas: div#requestPool this has it's own tabs and it's own tab content, Also the div.tabs which is another place and has it's own tabs and it's own tabs content. The div.miniTabs and div.switchers are the divs that includes the tabs links (tabs headers) and I putted them in the snippet to change the default selected tab class from .selected to .active and .activePanel Now, what I would love to add is a nice fadeIn and fadeOut effects to the content of my tabs while browsing through them. Thanks Here is the HTML code for one of the tabbed areas: <div id="requestPool"> <!-- The tabs heads --> <div class="miniTabs"> <a href="#today" class="active">Today</a> <!-- First active tab --> <a href="#tomorrow">Tomorrow</a> <a href="#friday">Friday</a> <a href="#saturday">Saturday</a> <a href="#sunday">Sunday</a> <a href="#monday">Monday</a> <a href="#tuesday">Tuesday</a> </div> <!-- The tabs contents (the ones that I want them to fade in and out while browsing through them using the tabs above) --> <div id="today"class="miniTab"></div> <div id="tomorrow"class="miniTab"></div> <div id="friday"class="miniTab"></div> <div id="saturday"class="miniTab"></div> <div id="sunday"class="miniTab"></div> ...etc the week days </div> Thanks very much (again the tabs are working very fine, but without the fade effect which I want to have).

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  • Multi domain rails app. How to intelligently use MVC?

    - by denial
    Background: We have app a, b, and plan to add more apps into this same application. The apps are similar enough they could share many views, assets, and actions. Currently a,b live in a single rails app(2.3.10). c will be similar enough that it could also be in this rails app. The problem: As we continue to add more apps to this one app, there's going to be too much case logic that the app will soon become a nightmare to maintain. There will also be potential namespace issues. However, the apps are very similar in function and layout, it also makes sense to keep them in one app so that it's one app to maintain(since roughly 50% of site look/functionality will be shared). What we are trying to do is keep this as clean as possible so it's easy for multiple teams to work on and easy to maintain. Some things we've thought about/are trying: Engines. Make each app an engine. This would let us base routes on the domain. It also allows us to pull out controllers, models and views for the specific app. This solution does not seem ideal as we won't be reusing the apps any time soon. And explicitly stating the host in the routes doesn't seem right. Skinning/themes. The auth logic would be different between the apps. Each user model would be different. So it's not just a skinning problem. In app/view add folder sitea for sitea views, siteb for siteb views and so on. Do the same for controllers and models. This is still pretty messy and since it didn't follow naming conventions, it did not work with rails so nicely and made much of the code messier. Making another rails app. We just didn't want to maintain the same controller or view in 2 apps if they are identical. What we want to do is make the app intelligently use a controller based on the host. So there would be a sessions controller for each app, and perhaps some parent session controller for shared logic(not needed now). In each of these session controllers, it handles authentication for that specific app. So if the domain is a.mysite.com, it would use session controller for app a and know to use app a's views,models,controllers. And if the domain is b.mysite, it would use the session controller for b. And there would be a user model for a and user model for b, which also would be determined by the domain. Does anyone have any suggestions or experience with this situation? And ideally using rails 2.3.x as updating to rails 3 isn't an option right now.

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  • 'Scanner' does not name a type error in g++

    - by Max
    Hi. I'm trying to compile code in g++ and I get the following errors: In file included from scanner.hpp:8, from scanner.cpp:5: parser.hpp:14: error: ‘Scanner’ does not name a type parser.hpp:15: error: ‘Token’ does not name a type Here's my g++ command: g++ parser.cpp scanner.cpp -Wall Here's parser.hpp: #ifndef PARSER_HPP #define PARSER_HPP #include <string> #include <map> #include "scanner.hpp" using std::string; class Parser { // Member Variables private: Scanner lex; // Lexical analyzer Token look; // tracks the current lookahead token // Member Functions <some function declarations> }; #endif and here's scanner.hpp: #ifndef SCANNER_HPP #define SCANNER_HPP #include <iostream> #include <cctype> #include <string> #include <map> #include "parser.hpp" using std::string; using std::map; enum { // reserved words BOOL, ELSE, IF, TRUE, WHILE, DO, FALSE, INT, VOID, // punctuation and operators LPAREN, RPAREN, LBRACK, RBRACK, LBRACE, RBRACE, SEMI, COMMA, PLUS, MINUS, TIMES, DIV, MOD, AND, OR, NOT, IS, ADDR, EQ, NE, LT, GT, LE, GE, // symbolic constants NUM, ID, ENDFILE, ERROR }; class Token { public: int tag; int value; string lexeme; Token() {tag = 0;} Token(int t) {tag = t;} }; class Num : public Token { public: Num(int v) {tag = NUM; value = v;} }; class Word : public Token { public: Word() {tag = 0; lexeme = "default";} Word(int t, string l) {tag = t; lexeme = l;} }; class Scanner { private: int line; // which line the compiler is currently on int depth; // how deep in the parse tree the compiler is map<string,Word> words; // list of reserved words and used identifiers // Member Functions public: Scanner(); Token scan(); string printTag(int); friend class Parser; }; #endif anyone see the problem? I feel like I'm missing something incredibly obvious.

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  • Mobile Safari text selection after input field focus

    - by Andy
    I have some legacy html that needs to work on old and new browsers (down to IE7) as well as the iPad. The iPad is the biggest issues because of how text selection is handled. On a page there is a textarea as well as some text instructions. The instructions are in a <div> and the user needs to be able to select the instructions. The problem is that once focus is placed in the textarea, the user cannot subsequently select the text instructions in the <div>. This is because the text cannot receive focus. According to the Safari Web Content Guide: Handling Events (especially, "Making Elements Clickable"), you can add a onclick event handler to the div you want to receive focus. This solution works (although it is not ideal) in iOS 6x but it does not work in iOS 5x. Does anyone have a suggestion that minimizes changes to our existing code and produces consistant user interaction. Here is sample code that shows the problem. <!DOCTYPE HTML PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD HTML 4.01 Transitional//EN"> <html> <head> <meta http-equiv="content-type" content="text/html; charset=UTF-8"> <script src="http://code.jquery.com/jquery-1.8.2.js"></script> <!-- Resources: Safari Web Content Guide: Handling Events (especially, "Making Elements Clickable") http://developer.apple.com/library/safari/#documentation/appleapplications/reference/safariwebcontent/HandlingEvents/HandlingEvents.html#//apple_ref/doc/uid/TP40006511-SW1 --> </head> <body> <div style="width:550"> <div onclick='function() { void(0); }'> <p>On the iPad, I want to be able to select this text after the textarea has had focus.</p> </div> <textarea rows="20" cols="80">After focus is in the textarea, can you select the text above?</textarea> </div> </body> </html>

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  • Local Variables take 7x longer to access than global variables?

    - by ItzWarty
    I was trying to benchmark the gain/loss of "caching" math.floor, in hopes that I could make calls faster. Here was the test: <html> <head> <script> window.onload = function() { var startTime = new Date().getTime(); var k = 0; for(var i = 0; i < 1000000; i++) k += Math.floor(9.99); var mathFloorTime = new Date().getTime() - startTime; startTime = new Date().getTime(); window.mfloor = Math.floor; k = 0; for(var i = 0; i < 1000000; i++) k += window.mfloor(9.99); var globalFloorTime = new Date().getTime() - startTime; startTime = new Date().getTime(); var mfloor = Math.floor; k = 0; for(var i = 0; i < 1000000; i++) k += mfloor(9.99); var localFloorTime = new Date().getTime() - startTime; document.getElementById("MathResult").innerHTML = mathFloorTime; document.getElementById("globalResult").innerHTML = globalFloorTime; document.getElementById("localResult").innerHTML = localFloorTime; }; </script> </head> <body> Math.floor: <span id="MathResult"></span>ms <br /> var mathfloor: <span id="globalResult"></span>ms <br /> window.mathfloor: <span id="localResult"></span>ms <br /> </body> </html> My results from the test: [Chromium 5.0.308.0]: Math.floor: 49ms var mathfloor: 271ms window.mathfloor: 40ms [IE 8.0.6001.18702] Math.floor: 703ms var mathfloor: 9890ms [LOL!] window.mathfloor: 375ms [Firefox [Minefield] 3.7a4pre] Math.floor: 42ms var mathfloor: 2257ms window.mathfloor: 60ms [Safari 4.0.4[531.21.10] ] Math.floor: 92ms var mathfloor: 289ms window.mathfloor: 90ms [Opera 10.10 build 1893] Math.floor: 500ms var mathfloor: 843ms window.mathfloor: 360ms [Konqueror 4.3.90 [KDE 4.3.90 [KDE 4.4 RC1]]] Math.floor: 453ms var mathfloor: 563ms window.mathfloor: 312ms The variance is random, of course, but for the most part In all cases [this shows time taken]: [takes longer] mathfloor Math.floor window.mathfloor [is faster] Why is this? In my projects i've been using var mfloor = Math.floor, and according to my not-so-amazing benchmarks, my efforts to "optimize" actually slowed down the script by ALOT... Is there any other way to make my code more "efficient"...? I'm at the stage where i basically need to optimize, so no, this isn't "premature optimization"...

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  • Java Flow Control Problem

    - by Kyle_Solo
    I am programming a simple 2d game engine. I've decided how I'd like the engine to function: it will be composed of objects containing "events" that my main game loop will trigger when appropriate. A little more about the structure: Every GameObject has an updateEvent method. objectList is a list of all the objects that will receive update events. Only objects on this list have their updateEvent method called by the game loop. I’m trying to implement this method in the GameObject class (This specification is what I’d like the method to achieve): /** * This method removes a GameObject from objectList. The GameObject * should immediately stop executing code, that is, absolutely no more * code inside update events will be executed for the removed game object. * If necessary, control should transfer to the game loop. * @param go The GameObject to be removed */ public void remove(GameObject go) So if an object tries to remove itself inside of an update event, control should transfer back to the game engine: public void updateEvent() { //object's update event remove(this); System.out.println("Should never reach here!"); } Here’s what I have so far. It works, but the more I read about using exceptions for flow control the less I like it, so I want to see if there are alternatives. Remove Method public void remove(GameObject go) { //add to removedList //flag as removed //throw an exception if removing self from inside an updateEvent } Game Loop for(GameObject go : objectList) { try { if (!go.removed) { go.updateEvent(); } else { //object is scheduled to be removed, do nothing } } catch(ObjectRemovedException e) { //control has been transferred back to the game loop //no need to do anything here } } // now remove the objects that are in removedList from objectList 2 questions: Am I correct in assuming that the only way to implement the stop-right-away part of the remove method as described above is by throwing a custom exception and catching it in the game loop? (I know, using exceptions for flow control is like goto, which is bad. I just can’t think of another way to do what I want!) For the removal from the list itself, it is possible for one object to remove one that is farther down on the list. Currently I’m checking a removed flag before executing any code, and at the end of each pass removing the objects to avoid concurrent modification. Is there a better, preferably instant/non-polling way to do this?

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  • Help with code optimization

    - by Ockonal
    Hello, I've written a little particle system for my 2d-application. Here is raining code: // HPP ----------------------------------- struct Data { float x, y, x_speed, y_speed; int timeout; Data(); }; std::vector<Data> mData; bool mFirstTime; void processDrops(float windPower, int i); // CPP ----------------------------------- Data::Data() : x(rand()%ScreenResolutionX), y(0) , x_speed(0), y_speed(0), timeout(rand()%130) { } void Rain::processDrops(float windPower, int i) { int posX = rand() % mWindowWidth; mData[i].x = posX; mData[i].x_speed = WindPower*0.1; // WindPower is float mData[i].y_speed = Gravity*0.1; // Gravity is 9.8 * 19.2 // If that is first time, process drops randomly with window height if (mFirstTime) { mData[i].timeout = 0; mData[i].y = rand() % mWindowHeight; } else { mData[i].timeout = rand() % 130; mData[i].y = 0; } } void update(float windPower, float elapsed) { // If this is first time - create array with new Data structure objects if (mFirstTime) { for (int i=0; i < mMaxObjects; ++i) { mData.push_back(Data()); processDrops(windPower, i); } mFirstTime = false; } for (int i=0; i < mMaxObjects; i++) { // Sleep until uptime > 0 (To make drops fall with randomly timeout) if (mData[i].timeout > 0) { mData[i].timeout--; } else { // Find new x/y positions mData[i].x += mData[i].x_speed * elapsed; mData[i].y += mData[i].y_speed * elapsed; // Find new speeds mData[i].x_speed += windPower * elapsed; mData[i].y_speed += Gravity * elapsed; // Drawing here ... // If drop has been falled out of the screen if (mData[i].y > mWindowHeight) processDrops(windPower, i); } } } So the main idea is: I have some structure which consist of drop position, speed. I have a function for processing drops at some index in the vector-array. Now if that's first time of running I'm making array with max size and process it in cycle. But this code works slower that all another I have. Please, help me to optimize it. I tried to replace all int with uint16_t but I think it doesn't matter.

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  • Bug in Safari: options.length = 0; not working as expected in Safari 4

    - by Stefan
    This is not a real question, but rather an answer to save some others the hassle of tracking this nasty bug down. I wasted hours finding this out. When using options.length = 0; to reset all options of a select element in safari, you can get mixed results depending on wether you have the Web Inspector open or not. If the web inspector is open you use myElement.options.length = 0; and after that query the options.length(), you might get back 1 instead of 0 (expected) but only if the Web Inspector is open (which is often the case when debugging problem like this). Workaround: Close the Web Inspector or call myElement.options.length = 0; twice like so: myElement.options.length = 0; myElement.options.length = 0; Testcase: <!DOCTYPE HTML PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD HTML 4.01//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/html4/strict.dtd"> <html> <head> <title>Testcase</title> <script type="text/javascript" language="javascript" charset="utf-8"> function test(el){ var el = document.getElementById("sel"); alert("Before calling options.length=" + el.options.length); el.options.length = 0; alert("After calling options.length=" + el.options.length); } </script> </head> <body onLoad="test();"> <p> Make note of the numbers displayed in the Alert Dialog, then open Web inspector, reload this page and compare the numbers. </p> <select id="sel" multiple> <option label="a----------" value="a"></option> <option label="b----------" value="b"></option> <option label="c----------" value="c"></option> </select> </body> </html>

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  • Different behavior of reflected generic delegates with and without debugger

    - by Andrew_B
    Hello. We have encountered some strange things while calling reflected generic delegates. In some cases with attatched debuger we can make impossible call, while without debugger we cannot catch any exception and application fastfails. Here is the code: using System; using System.Windows.Forms; using System.Reflection; namespace GenericDelegate { public partial class Form1 : Form { public Form1() { InitializeComponent(); } private delegate Class2 Delegate1(); private void button1_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { MethodInfo mi = typeof (Class1<>).GetMethod("GetClass", BindingFlags.NonPublic | BindingFlags.Static); if (mi != null) { Delegate1 del = (Delegate1) Delegate.CreateDelegate(typeof (Delegate1), mi); MessageBox.Show("1"); try { del(); } catch (Exception) { MessageBox.Show("No, I can`t catch it"); } MessageBox.Show("2"); mi.Invoke(null, new object[] {});//It's Ok, we'll get exception here MessageBox.Show("3"); } } class Class2 { } class Class1<T> : Class2 { internal static Class2 GetClass() { Type type = typeof(T); MessageBox.Show("Type name " + type.FullName +" Type: " + type + " Assembly " + type.Assembly); return new Class1<T>(); } } } } There are two problems: Behavior differs with debugger and without You cannot catch this error without debugger by clr tricks. It's just not the clr exception. There are memory acces vialation, reading zero pointer inside of internal code. Use case: You develop something like plugins system for your app. You read external assembly, find suitable method in some type, and execute it. And we just forgot about that we need to check up is the type generic or not. Under VS (and .net from 2.0 to 4.0) everything works fine. Called function does not uses static context of generic type and type parameters. But without VS application fails with no sound. We even cannot identify call stack attaching debuger. Tested with .net 4.0 The question is why VS catches but runtime do not?

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  • This code appears to achieve the return of a null reference in C++

    - by Chuck
    Hi folks, My C++ knowledge is somewhat piecemeal. I was reworking some code at work. I changed a function to return a reference to a type. Inside, I look up an object based on an identifier passed in, then return a reference to the object if found. Of course I ran into the issue of what to return if I don't find the object, and in looking around the web, many people claim that returning a "null reference" in C++ is impossible. Based on this advice, I tried the trick of returning a success/fail boolean, and making the object reference an out parameter. However, I ran into the roadblock of needing to initialize the references I would pass as actual parameters, and of course there is no way to do this. I retreated to the usual approach of just returning a pointer. I asked a colleague about it. He uses the following trick quite often, which is accepted by both a recent version of the Sun compiler and by gcc: MyType& someFunc(int id) { // successful case here: // ... // fail case: return *static_cast<MyType*>(0); } // Use: ... MyType& mt = somefunc(myIdNum); if (&mt) // test for "null reference" { // whatever } ... I have been maintaining this code base for a while, but I find that I don't have as much time to look up the small details about the language as I would like. I've been digging through my reference book but the answer to this one eludes me. Now, I had a C++ course a few years ago, and therein we emphasized that in C++ everything is types, so I try to keep that in mind when thinking things through. Deconstructing the expression: "*static_cast(0);", it indeed seems to me that we take a literal zero, cast it to a pointer to MyType (which makes it a null pointer), and then apply the dereferencing operator in the context of assigning to a reference type (the return type), which should give me a reference to the same object pointed to by the pointer. This sure looks like returning a null reference to me. Any advice in explaining why this works (or why it shouldn't) would be greatly appreciated. Thanks, Chuck

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  • Zend Framework AjaxContext filters the results and Decorators not removable

    - by Janis Peisenieks
    Ok, since this problem has 2 parts, it will be easier to explain them together. So here goes: I am trying to remove the default decorators from these elements, since I am using a little different way of styling them. But no matter what i do, the DtDDWrapper still shows up. If I try to remove all of the decorators, all of the fields below disappear. public function newfieldAction() { $ajaxContext = $this->_helper->getHelper('AjaxContext'); $ajaxContext->addActionContext('newfield', 'html')->initContext(); $id = $this->_getParam('id', null); $id1=$id+1; $id2=$id+2; $element = new Zend_Form_Element_Text("newTitle$id1"); $element->setOptions(array('escape'=>false)); $element->setRequired(true)->setLabel('Vertiba')->removeDecorator('label'); $tinyelement=new Zend_Form_Element_Text("newName$id"); $tinyelement->setRequired(true)->setOptions(array('escape'=>false))->setLabel('Vertiba')->removeDecorator('label'); $textarea_element = new Zend_Form_Element_Textarea("newText$id2"); $textarea_element->setRequired(true)->setOptions(array('escape'=>false))->setLabel('Vertiba')->removeDecorator('label'); $this->view->descriptionField = "<td>".$textarea_element->__toString()."</td>"; $this->view->titleField = $element->__toString(); $this->view->field = $tinyelement->__toString(); $this->view->id=$id; } The context view script seams to trim my code in one way or another. When I try to put a <td> or a <table> tag in the view script, it just skips the tags. Is there a way to stop this escaping from happening? My view script: id; ?" asdfasdfasdfasd field ? titleField ? descriptionField ? id ?"remove P.S. the code formatting system is barfing at me, could someone please help me with the formatting of the code?

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  • Using KnockoutJS 2.2.0 & jQuery 1.8.2 remove all bindings from all children of #someDiv

    - by Nukeface
    I'm wanting to delete All bindings (ko.cleanNode) from all child elements of a certain div. Must be a noobie question but I can't figure out how to use jQuery to loop through all childre, grand-children, great-grand-children, etc. whilst having KnockoutJS remove the bindings of all the DOM elements. I do NOT want to remove the elements from the DOM. This is a single page application, therefore the elements are pre-loaded as embedded resources and don't get resend to a client if they were to visit the page again. If a client revisits that part of the application I'll have a function rebind the necessary elements, which currently works fine. Current setup: <html> <head> //loading all resources </head> <body> //load first element using some obscure setup <div id="firsPage" data-role="page"> <div data-role="header">@Global.header</div> <div data-role="fieldcontain"> <label for="firstInput" /> <input id="firstInput some other stuff /> </div> <div data-role="datebox <!-- some settings --> > //creates table using jQuery mobile (lots of (great-)(grand-)children) </div> <div data-role="fieldcontain"> <div id="secondInput"> <div class="checklist"> <ul> <li /> <li /> </ul> </div> </div> </div> </div> //Here the whole thing starts again <div id="secondPage" data-role="page"> <!-- repeat above innerHTML in your mind ;) --> </div> //And here again! and again... </body> The problem I'm having is that bindings of the children don't seem to get "cleaned up" when i use ko.cleanNode($('#firstPage')[0]); Or when I get the Element into a variable and then format it to ko.cleanNode($element). Is there a way to do this? Been staring at it for a good few hours now, so probably overlooking a way too obvious way of doing it... Thanks!

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  • How to retrieve an input's value without the browser interpreting html special entities?

    - by CaptainQwyx
    Is there a way in JavaScript or MooTools to retrieve the actual text in the value from an input element without the browser interpreting any html special entites? Please see the example included below. My desired outcome is: <div id="output"> <p>Your text is: <b>[&lt;script&gt;alert('scrubbed');&lt;/script&gt;]</b></p> </div> Note that it works if I type/copy &lt;script&gt;alert('scrubbed');&lt;/script&gt; directly into the text input box, but fails if I insert right after loading the page. <html> <head> <meta http-equiv="Content-type" content="text/html; charset=utf-8"> <title>scrubtest</title> </head> <body id="scrubtest" onload=""> <script type="text/javascript" language="JavaScript" src="/js/mootools-core.js"></script> <input type="text" name="scrubtext" value="&lt;script&gt;alert('scrubbed');&lt;/script&gt;" id="scrubtext"/><br /> <input type="button" value="Insert" onclick="insertText();"/><br /> <input type="button" value="Get via MooTools" onclick="alert($('scrubtext').get('value'));"/><br /> <input type="button" value="Get via JavaScript" onclick="alert(document.getElementById('scrubtext').value);"/><br /> <div id="output"> </div> <script type="text/javascript" charset="utf-8"> function insertText() { var stext = $('scrubtext').get('value'); var result = new Element( 'p', {html: "Your text is: <b>["+stext+"]</b>"} ); result.inject($('output')); } </script> </body> </html>

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  • Creating a multiplatform webapp with HTML5 and Google maps

    - by Bart L.
    I'm struggling how to develop a webapp for Android and iOS. My first app was a simple todo app which was easy to test in my browser and it only used html, javascript and css. However, I have to create an app which uses Google Maps Api to get the location. I created a simple html5 page to test which places a marker on a map. It works fine when testing it on my local server. But when I create an .apk file for Android, the app doesn't work. So I'm wondering, isn't it possible to use it like this? Do I have the use the phonegap libraries to use their geolocation library? And if so, how do you handle the development of a webapp in phonegap for multiple OS? Do you have to install an Android environment and an iOS environment to each include the right phonegap library and to test them properly? Update: I use the following code on my webserver and it works perfectly. When I upload it in a zip-folder to the photogap cloud and install the APK file on my phone, it doesn't work. <!DOCTYPE html> <html> <head> <meta charset="utf-8"> <title>Simple Geo test</title> <script src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.8/jquery.min.js"></script> </head> <body> <script type="text/javascript" src="http://maps.google.com/maps/api/js?sensor=true"></script> <script> function success(position) { var mapcanvas = document.createElement('div'); mapcanvas.id = 'mapcontainer'; mapcanvas.style.height = '200px'; mapcanvas.style.width = '200px'; document.querySelector('article').appendChild(mapcanvas); var coords = new google.maps.LatLng(position.coords.latitude, position.coords.longitude); var options = { zoom: 15, center: coords, mapTypeControl: false, navigationControlOptions: { style: google.maps.NavigationControlStyle.SMALL }, mapTypeId: google.maps.MapTypeId.ROADMAP }; var map = new google.maps.Map(document.getElementById("mapcontainer"), options); var marker = new google.maps.Marker({ position: coords, map: map, title:"You are here!" }); } if (navigator.geolocation) { navigator.geolocation.getCurrentPosition(success); } else { error('Geo Location is not supported'); } </script> <article></article> </body> </html>

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  • Why Swift is 100 times slower than C in this image processing test?

    - by xiaobai
    Like many other developers I have been very excited at the new Swift language from Apple. Apple has boasted its speed is faster than Objective C and can be used to write operating system. And from what I learned so far, it's a very type-safe language and able to have precisely control over the exact data type (like integer length). So it does look like having good potential handling performance critical tasks, like image processing, right? That's what I thought before I carried out a quick test. The result really surprised me. Here is a much simplified image alpha blending code snippet in C: test.c: #include <stdio.h> #include <stdint.h> #include <string.h> uint8_t pixels[640*480]; uint8_t alpha[640*480]; uint8_t blended[640*480]; void blend(uint8_t* px, uint8_t* al, uint8_t* result, int size) { for(int i=0; i<size; i++) { result[i] = (uint8_t)(((uint16_t)px[i]) *al[i] /255); } } int main(void) { memset(pixels, 128, 640*480); memset(alpha, 128, 640*480); memset(blended, 255, 640*480); // Test 10 frames for(int i=0; i<10; i++) { blend(pixels, alpha, blended, 640*480); } return 0; } I compiled it on my Macbook Air 2011 with the following command: gcc -O3 test.c -o test The 10 frame processing time is about 0.01s. In other words, it takes the C code 1ms to process one frame: $ time ./test real 0m0.010s user 0m0.006s sys 0m0.003s Then I have a Swift version of the same code: test.swift: let pixels = UInt8[](count: 640*480, repeatedValue: 128) let alpha = UInt8[](count: 640*480, repeatedValue: 128) let blended = UInt8[](count: 640*480, repeatedValue: 255) func blend(px: UInt8[], al: UInt8[], result: UInt8[], size: Int) { for(var i=0; i<size; i++) { var b = (UInt16)(px[i]) * (UInt16)(al[i]) result[i] = (UInt8)(b/255) } } for i in 0..10 { blend(pixels, alpha, blended, 640*480) } The build command line is: xcrun swift -O3 test.swift -o test Here I use the same O3 level optimization flag to make the comparison hopefully fair. However, the resulting speed is 100 time slower: $ time ./test real 0m1.172s user 0m1.146s sys 0m0.006s In other words, it takes Swift ~120ms to processing one frame which takes C just 1 ms. I also verified the memory initialization time in both test code are very small compared to the blend processing function time. What happened?

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  • Export to word from php doesn't seem to work for me...

    - by chandru_cp
    I exported data from php page to word document but the problem is the header is not available in all pages.... Header is present in the first page but not in the next pages of the word document..... Here is my code, function changeDetails() { $bType = $this->input->post('textvalue'); if($bType == "word") { $this->load->library('table'); $data['countrytoword'] = $this->AddEditmodel1->export(); $this->table->set_heading('Name','Country','State','Town'); $out = $this->table->generate($data['countrytoword']); header("Content-Type: application/vnd.ms-word"); header("Expires: 0"); header("Cache-Control: must-revalidate, post-check=0, pre-check=0"); header("Content-disposition: attachment; filename=$cur_date.doc"); echo '<br><br>'; echo '<strong>CountryList</strong><br><br>'; print_r($out); } } <? if(isset($countrytoword)) { ?> <table align="center" border="0"> <tr> <td> Name </td> <td> Country </td> <td> State </td> <td> Town </td> </tr> <? foreach($countrytoword as $dsasffd) { ?> <tr> <td><?= $dsasffd['dbName'] ?></td> <td><?= $dsasffd['dbCountry']; ?></td> <td><?= $dsasffd['dbState']; ?></td> <td><?= $dsasffd['dbTown']; ?></td> <? } } ?> </tr> </table>

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  • matrix multiplication with MPI [on hold]

    - by user3695701
    I'm working on an assignment on matrix multiplication with MPI. A*B=C. the requirement is that B should be vertically partitioned. Here's what I intend to do: broadcast matrix A to all processes and scatter B into several slices with each slice containing n/p columns. The following code only works when the number of process(p) is 1. when p1(say 2), I got [cluster2:21080] *** Process received signal *** [cluster2:21080] Signal: Segmentation fault (11) [cluster2:21080] Signal code: Address not mapped (1) [cluster2:21080] Failing at address: (nil) [cluster2:21080] [ 0] /lib/libpthread.so.0(+0xf8f0) [0x7f49f38108f0] [cluster2:21080] [ 1] /lib/libc.so.6(memcpy+0xe1) [0x7f49f35024c1] [cluster2:21080] [ 2] /usr/lib/libmpi.so.0(ompi_convertor_unpack+0x121)[0x7f49f47c88e1] [cluster2:21080] [ 3] /usr/lib/openmpi/lib/openmpi/mca_pml_ob1.so(+0x8a26) [0x7f49f0dcea26] [cluster2:21080] [ 4] /usr/lib/openmpi/lib/openmpi/mca_btl_tcp.so(+0x662c) [0x7f49efce462c] [cluster2:21080] [ 5] /usr/lib/libopen-pal.so.0(+0x1ede8) [0x7f49f42e0de8] [cluster2:21080] [ 6] /usr/lib/libopen-pal.so.0(opal_progress+0x99) [0x7f49f42d5369] [cluster2:21080] [ 7] /usr/lib/openmpi/lib/openmpi/mca_pml_ob1.so(+0x5585) [0x7f49f0dcb585] [cluster2:21080] [ 8] /usr/lib/openmpi/lib/openmpi/mca_coll_tuned.so(+0xcc01) [0x7f49eeeb1c01] [cluster2:21080] [ 9] /usr/lib/openmpi/lib/openmpi/mca_coll_tuned.so(+0x266c) [0x7f49eeea766c] [cluster2:21080] [10] /usr/lib/openmpi/lib/openmpi/mca_coll_sync.so(+0x1388) [0x7f49ef0c0388] [cluster2:21080] [11] /usr/lib/libmpi.so.0(MPI_Bcast+0x10e) [0x7f49f47d025e] [cluster2:21080] [12] ./out(main+0x259) [0x401571] [cluster2:21080] [13] /lib/libc.so.6(__libc_start_main+0xfd) [0x7f49f3498c8d] [cluster2:21080] [14] ./out() [0x400f29] [cluster2:21080] *** End of error message *** Can someone help me? Thanks. //matrices A and B //double* A =(double *)malloc(n*n*sizeof(double)); //double* B =(double *)malloc(n*n*sizeof(double)); //code initializing A,B... //n is the size of the matrix //p is the number of processes //myrank is the rank of calling process MPI_Init (&argc, &argv); MPI_Comm_rank(MPI_COMM_WORLD, &myrank); MPI_Comm_size(MPI_COMM_WORLD, &p); //broadcast A to all processes MPI_Bcast (A, n*n, MPI_DOUBLE, 0, MPI_COMM_WORLD); MPI_Datatype tmp_type, col_type; // extract a slice from B MPI_Type_vector(n, num_of_col_per_slice, n, MPI_DOUBLE, &tmp_type); // position of the first (0) and each next (stride * sizeof(double) ) slice MPI_Type_create_resized(tmp_type, 0, n * sizeof(double), &col_type); MPI_Type_commit(&col_type); //scatter a slice of B to each process MPI_Scatter(B, 1, col_type, B+myrank*n/p, n * n/p, MPI_DOUBLE, 0, MPI_COMM_WORLD); //use blas function to calculate A*sliceOfB and store the resulting slice to C cblas_dgemm(CblasRowMajor, CblasNoTrans, CblasNoTrans, n, n/p, n, 1.0, A, n, B+myrank*n/p, n, 0.0, C+myrank*n/p, n); //gather all those resulting slices into C MPI_Gather (C+myrank*n/p, n*n/p, MPI_DOUBLE, C, n*n/p, MPI_DOUBLE, 0, MPI_COMM_WORLD);

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  • Return the Largest Span in a given Array -Core Java and Arrays Question

    - by Deepak
    Hi Stack People, Merry Christmas and hope you are in great Spirits,I have a Question in Java-Arrays as shown below.Im stuck up with this struggling to get it rite. Consider the leftmost and righmost appearances of some value in an array. We'll say that the "span" is the number of elements between the two inclusive. A single value has a span of 1. Write a **Java Function** that returns the largest span found in the given array. **Example: maxSpan({1, 2, 1, 1, 3}) ? 4,answer is 4 coz MaxSpan between 1 to 1 is 4 maxSpan({1, 4, 2, 1, 4, 1, 4}) ? 6,answer is 6 coz MaxSpan between 4 to 4 is 6 maxSpan({1, 4, 2, 1, 4, 4, 4}) ? 6,answer is 6 coz Maxspan between 4 to 4 is 6 which is greater than MaxSpan between 1 and 1 which is 4,Hence 64 answer is 6. I have the code which is not working,it includes all the Spans for a given element,im unable to find the MaxSpan for a given element. Please help me out. Results of the above Program are as shown below Expected This Run maxSpan({1, 2, 1, 1, 3}) ? 4 5 X maxSpan({1, 4, 2, 1, 4, 1, 4}) ? 6 8 X maxSpan({1, 4, 2, 1, 4, 4, 4}) ? 6 9 X maxSpan({3, 3, 3}) ? 3 5 X maxSpan({3, 9, 3}) ? 3 3 OK maxSpan({3, 9, 9}) ? 2 3 X maxSpan({3, 9}) ? 1 1 OK maxSpan({3, 3}) ? 2 3 X maxSpan({}) ? 0 1 X maxSpan({1}) ? 1 1 OK ::Code:: public int maxSpan(int[] nums) { int count=1;//keep an intial count of maxspan=1 int maxspan=0;//initialize maxspan=0 for(int i=0;i<nums.length;i++){ for(int j=i+1;j<nums.length;j++){ if(nums[i] == nums[j]){ //check to see if "i" index contents == "j" index contents count++; //increment count maxspan=count; //make maxspan as your final count int number = nums[i]; //number=actual number for maxspan } } } return maxspan+1; //return maxspan }

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  • C++ stream as a parameter when overloading operator<<

    - by TheOm3ga
    I'm trying to write my own logging class and use it as a stream: logger L; L << "whatever" << std::endl; This is the code I started with: #include <iostream> using namespace std; class logger{ public: template <typename T> friend logger& operator <<(logger& log, const T& value); }; template <typename T> logger& operator <<(logger& log, T const & value) { // Here I'd output the values to a file and stdout, etc. cout << value; return log; } int main(int argc, char *argv[]) { logger L; L << "hello" << '\n' ; // This works L << "bye" << "alo" << endl; // This doesn't work return 0; } But I was getting an error when trying to compile, saying that there was no definition for operator<<: pruebaLog.cpp:31: error: no match for ‘operator<<’ in ‘operator<< [with T = char [4]](((logger&)((logger*)operator<< [with T = char [4]](((logger&)(& L)), ((const char (&)[4])"bye")))), ((const char (&)[4])"alo")) << std::endl’ So, I've been trying to overload operator<< to accept this kind of streams, but it's driving me mad. I don't know how to do it. I've been loking at, for instance, the definition of std::endl at the ostream header file and written a function with this header: logger& operator <<(logger& log, const basic_ostream<char,char_traits<char> >& (*s)(basic_ostream<char,char_traits<char> >&)) But no luck. I've tried the same using templates instead of directly using char, and also tried simply using "const ostream& os", and nothing. Another thing that bugs me is that, in the error output, the first argument for operator<< changes, sometimes it's a reference to a pointer, sometimes looks like a double reference...

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  • How to invoke the getView method in the baseAdapter in Android from another WebService Bean?

    - by greysh
    The adapter in my code as follows, I extends the base adapter: @Override public View getView(final int position, View convertView, ViewGroup parent) { ViewHolder vHolder; // if (convertView == null) { vHolder = new ViewHolder(); convertView = mInflater.inflate(R.layout.home_item, null); vHolder.albumIcon = (ImageView) convertView .findViewById(R.id.albumIcon); try { Bitmap icon = aws.getAlbumImg(itemInfolist.get(position) .getAlbumInfoCol().get(0).getAlbumID(), 0); if (icon != null) { vHolder.albumIcon.setImageBitmap(icon); } else { vHolder.albumIcon.setImageBitmap(BitmapFactory.decodeResource( context.getResources(), R.drawable.album)); } } catch (Exception e) { vHolder.albumIcon.setImageBitmap(BitmapFactory.decodeResource( context.getResources(), R.drawable.album)); } convertView.setTag(vHolder); return convertView; } However, I download the imagine asynchronously, When invoke Bitmap icon = aws.getAlbumImg(itemInfolist.get(position).getAlbumInfoCol().get(0).getAlbumID(), 0); Some pictures which haven't downloaded will use the default image, after these picutures have downloaded in another Web Service Bean, I want the Web Service bean sends a message to invoke the getView method in this adapter in order to implement the auto refresh function. But if I change the Web Service Download Bean as follows,it will cause the exception 03-19 07:46:33.241: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(716): android.view.ViewRoot$CalledFromWrongThreadException: Only the original thread that created a view hierarchy can touch its views. HomeAdapter mHomeAdapter; public AlbumWS(HomeAdapter homeAdapter) { mHomeAdapter = homeAdapter; } And after download, public boolean getAlbumImgWS(final ArrayList albumIDs) { new Thread(new Runnable() { @Override public void run() { // TODO Auto-generated method stub AlbumInfoWS aiws = new AlbumInfoWS(); for (int i = 0; i < albumIDs.size(); ++i) { if (ABSCENTALBUMIMGS.contains(albumIDs.get(i))) { continue; } if (FunctionUtil.isExist(albumIDs.get(i))) { continue; } String urlPath = aiws.getAlbumImage("en_US", Config.IMG_ATTIBUTETYPE, albumIDs.get(i)); boolean ret = FunctionUtil.simpleDownload(Config.HOST + urlPath, "/data/data/com.greysh.amped/img/" + albumIDs.get(i) + ".jpg"); if (!ret) { if (!ABSCENTALBUMIMGS.contains(albumIDs.get(i))) { ABSCENTALBUMIMGS.add(albumIDs.get(i)); } } mHomeAdapter.notifyDataSetChanged(); } } }).start(); return true; }

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  • MySQL Database Query - Codeigniter

    - by user2450349
    I am building an application with Codeigniter and need some help with a DB query. I have a table called users with the following fields: user_id, user_name, user_password, user_email, user_role, user_manager_id In my app, I pull all records from the user table using the following: function get_clients() { $this->db->select('*'); $this->db->where('user_role', 'client'); $this->db->order_by("user_name", "Asc"); $query = $this->db->get("users"); return $query->result_array(); } This works as expected, however when I display the results in the view, I also want to display a new column called Manager which will display the managers user_name field. The user_manager_id is the id of the user from the same table. Im guessing you can create an outer join on the same table but not sure. In the view, I am displaying the returned info as follows: <table class="table table-striped" id="zero-configuration"> <thead> <tr> <th>Name</th> <th>Email</th> <th>Manager</th> </tr> </thead> <tbody> <?php foreach($clients as $row) { ?> <tr> <td><?php echo $row['user_name']; ?> (<?php echo $row['user_username']; ?>)</td> <td><?php echo $row['user_email']; ?></td> <td><?php echo $row['???']; ?></td> </tr> <?php } ?> </tbody> </table> Any idea of how I can form the query and display the manager name is the view? Example: user_id user_name user_password user_email user_role user_manager_id 1 Ollie adjjk34jcd [email protected] client null 2 James djklsdfsdjk [email protected] client 1 When i query the database, i want to display results like this: Ollie [email protected] James [email protected] Ollie

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  • Big Oh Notation - formal definition.

    - by aloh
    I'm reading a textbook right now for my Java III class. We're reading about Big-Oh and I'm a little confused by its formal definition. Formal Definition: "A function f(n) is of order at most g(n) - that is, f(n) = O(g(n)) - if a positive real number c and positive integer N exist such that f(n) <= c g(n) for all n = N. That is, c g(n) is an upper bound on f(n) when n is sufficiently large." Ok, that makes sense. But hold on, keep reading...the book gave me this example: "In segment 9.14, we said that an algorithm that uses 5n + 3 operations is O(n). We now can show that 5n + 3 = O(n) by using the formal definition of Big Oh. When n = 3, 5n + 3 <= 5n + n = 6n. Thus, if we let f(n) = 5n + 3, g(n) = n, c = 6, N = 3, we have shown that f(n) <= 6 g(n) for n = 3, or 5n + 3 = O(n). That is, if an algorithm requires time directly proportional to 5n + 3, it is O(n)." Ok, this kind of makes sense to me. They're saying that if n = 3 or greater, 5n + 3 takes less time than if n was less than 3 - thus 5n + n = 6n - right? Makes sense, since if n was 2, 5n + 3 = 13 while 6n = 12 but when n is 3 or greater 5n + 3 will always be less than or equal to 6n. Here's where I get confused. They give me another example: Example 2: "Let's show that 4n^2 + 50n - 10 = O(n^2). It is easy to see that: 4n^2 + 50n - 10 <= 4n^2 + 50n for any n. Since 50n <= 50n^2 for n = 50, 4n^2 + 50n - 10 <= 4n^2 + 50n^2 = 54n^2 for n = 50. Thus, with c = 54 and N = 50, we have shown that 4n^2 + 50n - 10 = O(n^2)." This statement doesn't make sense: 50n <= 50n^2 for n = 50. Isn't any n going to make the 50n less than 50n^2? Not just greater than or equal to 50? Why did they even mention that 50n <= 50n^2? What does that have to do with the problem? Also, 4n^2 + 50n - 10 <= 4n^2 + 50n^2 = 54n^2 for n = 50 is going to be true no matter what n is. And how in the world does picking numbers show that f(n) = O(g(n))? Please help me understand! :(

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  • gauge chart is not displaying any thing

    - by Sandy
    i am trying to display the latest speed in mysql database on guage chart. i have tried so many things but gauge is not display plz any can help me...my code is attached and php part shows the correct value but dont know why guage is not display <?php $host="localhost"; // Host name $username="root"; // Mysql username $password=""; // Mysql password $db_name="mysql"; // Database name $tbl_name="gpsdb"; // Table name // Connect to server and select database. $con=mysql_connect("$host", "$username")or die("cannot connect"); mysql_select_db("$db_name")or die("cannot select DB"); $data = mysql_query("SELECT speed FROM gpsdb WHERE DeviceId=1234 ORDER BY TIME DESC LIMIT 1") or die(mysql_error()); while ($nt = mysql_fetch_assoc($data)) { $speed = $nt['speed']; $jsonTable = json_encode($speed); echo $jsonTable; } ?> <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Strict//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-strict.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head> <meta http-equiv="content-type" content="text/html; charset=utf-8"/> <title> Google Visualization API Sample </title> <script type="text/javascript" src="//www.google.com/jsapi"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> google.load('visualization', '1', {packages: ['gauge']}); </script> <script type="text/javascript"> function drawVisualization() { // Create and populate the data table. var data = new google.visualization.DataTable(<?=$speed?>); // Create and draw the visualization. new google.visualization.Gauge(document.getElementById('visualization')). draw(data); } google.setOnLoadCallback(drawVisualization); </script> </head> <body style="font-family: Arial;border: 0 none;"> <div id="visualization" style="width: 600px; height: 300px;"></div> </body> </html>

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  • 'Good' programming form in maintaining / updating / accessing files by entry

    - by zhermes
    Basic Question: If I'm storying/modifying data, should I access elements of a file by index hard-coded index, i.e. targetFile.getElement(5); via a hardcoded identifier (internally translated into index), i.e. target.getElementWithID("Desired Element"), or with some intermediate DESIRED_ELEMENT = 5; ... target.getElement(DESIRED_ELEMENT), etc. Background: My program (c++) stores data in lots of different 'dataFile's. I also keep a list of all of the data-files in another file---a 'listFile'---which also stores some of each one's properties (see below, but i.e. what it's name is, how many lines of information it has etc.). There is an object which manages the data files and the list file, call it a 'fileKeeper'. The entries of a listFile look something like: filename , contents name , number of lines , some more numbers ... Its definitely possible that I may add / remove fields from this list --- but in general, they'll stay static. Right now, I have a constant string array which holds the identification of each element in each entry, something like: const string fileKeeper::idKeys[] = { "FileName" , "Contents" , "NumLines" ... }; const int fileKeeper::idKeysNum = 6; // 6 - for example I'm trying to manage this stuff in 'good' programatic form. Thus, when I want to retrieve the number of lines in a file (for example), instead of having a method which just retrieves the '3'rd element... Instead I do something like: string desiredID = "NumLines"; int desiredIndex = indexForID(desiredID); string desiredElement = elementForIndex(desiredIndex); where the function indexForID() goes through the entries of idKeys until it finds desiredID then returns the index it corresponds to. And elementForIndex(index) actually goes into the listFile to retrieve the index'th element of the comma-delimited string. Problem: This still seems pretty ugly / poor-form. Is there a way I should be doing this? If not, what are some general ways in which this is usually done? Thanks!

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