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• JQuery: Live <a> tag partially working second time around.

  - by BPotocki

  I have the following jquery code: $("a[id*='Add_']").live('click', function() { //Get parentID to add to. var parentID = $(this).attr('id').substring(4); //Get div. var div = $("#CreateList"); //Ajax call to refresh "CreateList" div with new XML. div.load("/AddUnit?ParentID=" + parentID); }); Basically, contained within the div is a nested unordered list with several "Add_#" links. Clicking the links uses an ajax call to recreate the list with a new node. It clears all the add links, but they are added again by the ajax call. This is why I used the .live method so newly added "Add_#" links still have the binding. This works in most cases. If I click "Add_1", the div refreshes with the new info. If I then click "Add_2", it works again as expected. The problem I'm having happens when I click "Add_1", then the page refreshes (and creates a new "Add_1" link), then I click the re-rendered "Add_1" again. It's the same link, but it was refreshed during the ajax call. When I do that, the javascript function still gets called, but the .load method doesn't work. Any ideas why this might be happening? Thanks.

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• jQuery $.ajax calls success handler when reuqest fails because of browser reloading

  - by Martin

  I have the following code: $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: url, data: sendable, dataType: "json", success: function(data) { if(customprocessfunc) customprocessfunc(data); }, error: function(XMLHttpRequest, textStatus, errorThrown){ // error handler here } }); I have a timer which makes AJAX requests often. If I do not receive anything in 'data', I show an error message to the user - it means, something wnet bad on the server. The problem is when user reloads the page while the AJAX call is in progress. I can see in the firebug that the AJAX call fails (URL is colored red and no HTTP status is displayed) so I expect that jQuery will stop the reuqest or at least go to the error handler. But it goes to the success handler and passes null in the 'data' variable. As a result, when user reloads the page, sometimes he can see my big red message about unknown error (because data is null). Is there any way to make jQuery abort the request on complete reloading all at least not to call my success function? I have no way to know in the success handler why the data is null - did it came empty from the server or the call was aborted because of reload.

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• Design interoperable web services

  - by Zyd

  Hi everyone, I'm designing a set of web services to allow our clients to connect from their apps to one of our systems. Our clients have their apps developed in all varieties of frameworks (.NET, Java, PHP, Python and even the occasional all JS app), so obviously WS is the way to go. Investigating a little about truly interop WS I've found that the way to go is to design first the WSDL and XSD and derive the implementations from there. What i'm really looking for is guidance if this is really the way to go. I've read that WCF creates interoperable WS but i'm not a fan of MS creating something standard. Should i use WCF or there is a good set of tools for designing WSDL and XSD without the pain i'm expecting. Thanks in advance

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• How to pass data to a C++0x lambda function that will run in a different thread?

  - by Dimitri C.

  In our company we've written a library function to call a function asynchronously in a separate thread. It works using a combination of inheritance and template magic. The client code looks as follows: DemoThread thread; std::string stringToPassByValue = "The string to pass by value"; AsyncCall(thread, &DemoThread::SomeFunction, stringToPassByValue); Since the introduction of lambda functions I'd like to use it in combination with lambda functions. I'd like to write the following client code: DemoThread thread; std::string stringToPassByValue = "The string to pass by value"; AsyncCall(thread, [=]() { const std::string someCopy = stringToPassByValue; }); Now, with the Visual C++ 2010 this code doesn't work. What happens is that the stringToPassByValue is not copied. Instead the "capture by value" feature passes the data by reference. The result is that if the function is executed after stringToPassByValue has gone out of scope, the application crashes as its destructor is called already. So I wonder: is it possible to pass data to a lambda function as a copy? Note: One possible solution would be to modify our framework to pass the data in the lambda parameter declaration list, as follows: DemoThread thread; std::string stringToPassByValue = "The string to pass by value"; AsyncCall(thread, [=](const std::string stringPassedByValue) { const std::string someCopy = stringPassedByValue; } , stringToPassByValue); However, this solution is so verbose that our original function pointer solution is both shorter and easier to read. Update: The full implementation of AsyncCall is too big to post here. In short, what happens is that the AsyncCall template function instantiates a template class holding the lambda function. This class is derived from a base class that contains a virtual Execute() function, and upon an AsyncCall() call, the function call class is put on a call queue. A different thread then executes the queued calls by calling the virtual Execute() function, which is polymorphically dispatched to the template class which then executes the lambda function.

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• How do I query delegation properties of an active directory user account?

  - by Mark J Miller

  I am writing a utility to audit the configuration of a WCF service. In order to properly pass credentials from the client, thru the WCF service back to the SQL back end the domain account used to run the service must be configured in Active Directory with the setting "Trust this user for delegation" (Properties - "Delegation" tab). Using C#, how do I access the settings on this tab in Active Directory. I've spent the last 5 hours trying to track this down on the web and can't seem to find it. Here's what I've done so far: using (Domain domain = Domain.GetCurrentDomain()) { Console.WriteLine(domain.Name); // get domain "dev" from MSSQLSERVER service account DirectoryEntry ouDn = new DirectoryEntry("LDAP://CN=Users,dc=dev,dc=mydomain,dc=lcl"); DirectorySearcher search = new DirectorySearcher(ouDn); // get sAMAccountName "dev.services" from MSSQLSERVER service account search.Filter = "(sAMAccountName=dev.services)"; search.PropertiesToLoad.Add("displayName"); search.PropertiesToLoad.Add("userAccountControl"); SearchResult result = search.FindOne(); if (result != null) { Console.WriteLine(result.Properties["displayName"][0]); DirectoryEntry entry = result.GetDirectoryEntry(); int userAccountControlFlags = (int)entry.Properties["userAccountControl"].Value; if ((userAccountControlFlags & (int)UserAccountControl.TRUSTED_FOR_DELEGATION) == (int)UserAccountControl.TRUSTED_FOR_DELEGATION) Console.WriteLine("TRUSTED_FOR_DELEGATION"); else if ((userAccountControlFlags & (int)UserAccountControl.TRUSTED_TO_AUTH_FOR_DELEGATION) == (int)UserAccountControl.TRUSTED_TO_AUTH_FOR_DELEGATION) Console.WriteLine("TRUSTED_TO_AUTH_FOR_DELEGATION"); else if ((userAccountControlFlags & (int)UserAccountControl.NOT_DELEGATED) == (int)UserAccountControl.NOT_DELEGATED) Console.WriteLine("NOT_DELEGATED"); foreach (PropertyValueCollection pvc in entry.Properties) { Console.WriteLine(pvc.PropertyName); for (int i = 0; i < pvc.Count; i++) { Console.WriteLine("\t{0}", pvc[i]); } } } } The "userAccountControl" does not seem to be the correct property. I think it is tied to the "Account Options" section on the "Account" tab, which is not what we're looking for but this is the closest I've gotten so far. The justification for all this is: We do not have permission to setup the service in QA or in Production, so along with our written instructions (which are notoriously only followed in partial) I am creating a tool that will audit the setup (WCF and SQL) to determine if the setup is correct. This will allow the person deploying the service to run this utility and verify everything is setup correctly - saving us hours of headaches and reducing downtime during deployment.

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• Control Javascript > CSS through Flash

  - by Jason b.

  Hi All, Ideal situation/setup: A page containing 1 Flash movie and a separate div containing a few hyperlinks. These hyperlinks each have a unique class name like so: Copy code <ul> <li><a href="" class="randomname1"></a></li> <li><a href="" class="randomname2"></a></li> <li><a href="" class="randomname3"></a></li> <li><a href="" class="randomname4"></a></li> </ul> The Flash movie itself will contain 4 buttons. Clicking on one of these buttons should make the Flash communicate with Jquery/JS and tell it to highlight the specific classname. Ideas so far For the javascript, it would look like $(function() { function setClass(className) {$("."+className).css("background","red");} }); And in specific keyframes within Flash 1. button 1 ExternalInterface.call("setClass","randomname1"); 1. button 2 ExternalInterface.call("setClass","randomname2"); 1. button 3 ExternalInterface.call("setClass","randomname3"); 1. button 4 ExternalInterface.call("setClass","randomname4"); The problem is that it is not really working well and i am not sure if i am making Flash communicate with JS properly. Any ideas or hints to steer me in the right direction again? Thank you in advance J.

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• Apply [ThreadStatic] attribute to a method in external assembly

  - by Sen Jacob

  Can I use an external assembly's static method like [ThreadStatic] method? Here is my situation. The assembly class (which I do not have access to its source) has this structure public class RegistrationManager() { private RegistrationManager() {} public static void RegisterConfiguration(int ID) {} public static object DoWork() {} public static void UnregisterConfiguration(int ID) {} } Once registered, I cannot call the DoWork() with a different ID without unregistering the previously registered one. Actually I want to call the DoWork() method with different IDs simultaneously with multi-threading. If the RegisterConfiguration(int ID) method was [ThreadStatic], I could have call it in different threads without problems with calls, right? So, can I apply the [ThreadStatic] attribute to this method or is there any other way I can call the two static methods same time without waiting for other thread to unregister it? If I check it like the following, it should work. for(int i=0; i < 10; i++) { new Thread(new ThreadStart(() => Checker(i))).Start(); } public string Checker(int i) { public static void RegisterConfiguration(i); // Now i cannot register second time public static object DoWork(i); Thread.Sleep(5000); // DoWork() may take a little while to complete before unregistered public static void UnregisterConfiguration(i); }

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• how to handle db concurrency in client-server application in C#?

  - by RAJ K

  I am developing an application in C# WPF which will have Client-Server architecture (Client will do products sales billing). I am novice in this area and I asked this question to start my development process. Click here to view question. So, ultimately I have selected MySQl, WCf & WPF. Now I have one silly question. Do i need to handle DB concurrency explicitly in my application (like 3 clients inserting data same time) or MySQl will handle this without any conflict? To accomplish my project i thought, I will create a service in WCf which will do DB queries from client application. Do you have any suggestion to improve my application performance.

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• 2 (or more) ComboBoxes dependent on each other

  - by Mcad001

  Hi, I have an Organisation entity and a Region entity. An object of type Organisation can have one or more Region objects connected to it, thus I have a foreign key in my Region entity to the Organisation Entity. The Organisation and Region objects are pulled from my database using WCF RIA and entity framework. I want to put the Organisation objects in one ComboBox and the Region objects in another ComboBox, and when selecting an organsation having the ComboBox for Region objects automatically only showing regions that are connected to the selected organisation. Should be pretty basic, but the way I've designed it right now it doesnt work at all. So, any hint to how I can achive this? A simple simple codeexample is much appreciated! (I'm using SL4,WCF RIA MVVM)

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• C# and Objects/Classes

  - by user1192890

  I have tried to compile code from Deitel's C# 2010 for programmers. I copied it exactly out of the book, but it still can't find main, even though I declared it in one of the classes. Here is a look at the two classes: For GradeBookTest: // Fig. 4.2: GradeBookTest.cs // Create a GradeBook object and call its DisplayMessage method. public class GradeBookTest { // Main method begins program execution public static void Main(string[] args) { // create a GradeBook object and assign it to myGradeBook GradeBook myGradeBook = new GradeBook(); // call myGradeBook's DisplayMessage method myGradeBook.DisplayMessage(); } // end Main } // end class GradeBookTest Now for the GradeBook class: // Fig. 4.1: GradeBook.cs // Class declaration with one method. using System; public class GradeBook { // display a welcome message to the GradeBook user public void DisplayMessage() { Console.WriteLine( "Welcome to the Grade Book!" ); } // end method DisplayMessage } // end class GradeBook That is how I copied them. Here is how they appeared in the book: 1 // Fig. 4.2: GradeBookTest.cs 2 // Create a GradeBook object and call its DisplayMessage method. 3 public class GradeBookTest 4 { 5 // Main method begins program execution 6 public static void Main( string[] args ) 7 { 8 // create a GradeBook object and assign it to myGradeBook 9 GradeBook myGradeBook = new GradeBook(); 10 11 // call myGradeBook's DisplayMessage method 12 myGradeBook.DisplayMessage(); 13 } // end Main 14 } // end class GradeBookTest and // Fig. 4.1: GradeBook.cs // Class declaration with one method. using System; public class GradeBook { // display a welcome message to the GradeBook user public void DisplayMessage() { Console.WriteLine( "Welcome to the Grade Book!" ); } // end method DisplayMessage } // end class GradeBook I don't see why they are not working. Right now I am using Visual Studio Pro 2010. Any Thoughts?

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• What can cause a spontaneous EPIPE error without either end calling close() or crashing?

  - by Hongli

  I have an application that consists of two processes (let's call them A and B), connected to each other through Unix domain sockets. Most of the time it works fine, but some users report the following behavior: A sends a request to B. This works. A now starts reading the reply from B. B sends a reply to A. The corresponding write() call returns an EPIPE error, and as a result B close() the socket. However, A did not close() the socket, nor did it crash. A's read() call returns 0, indicating end-of-file. A thinks that B prematurely closed the connection. Users have also reported variations of this behavior, e.g.: A sends a request to B. This works partially, but before the entire request is sent A's write() call returns EPIPE, and as a result A close() the socket. However B did not close() the socket, nor did it crash. B reads a partial request and then suddenly gets an EOF. The problem is I cannot reproduce this behavior locally at all. I've tried OS X and Linux. The users are on a variety of systems, mostly OS X and Linux. Things that I've already tried and considered: Double close() bugs (close() is called twice on the same file descriptor): probably not as that would result in EBADF errors, but I haven't seen them. Increasing the maximum file descriptor limit. One user reported that this worked for him, the rest reported that it did not. What else can possibly cause behavior like this? I know for certain that neither A nor B close() the socket prematurely, and I know for certain that neither of them have crashed because both A and B were able to report the error. It is as if the kernel suddenly decided to pull the plug from the socket for some reason.

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• Django templatetag "order of processing"

  - by Jason Persampieri

  I am trying to write a set of template tags that allow you to easily specify js and css files from within the template files themselves. Something along the lines of {% requires global.css %}, and later in the request, {% get_required_css %}. I have this mostly working, but there are a couple of issues. We'll start with the 'timing' issues. Each template tag is made up of two steps, call/init and render. Every call/init happens before any render procedure is called. In order to guarantee that all of the files are queued before the {% get_required_css %} is rendered, I need to build my list of required files in the call/init procedures themselves. So, I need to collect all of the files into one bundle per request. The context dict is obviously the place for this, but unfortunately, the call/init doesn't have access to the context variable. Is this making sense? Anyone see a way around this (without resorting to a hack-y global request object)? Another possibility to store these in a local dict but they would still need to be tied to the request somehow... possibly some sort of {% start_requires %} tag? But I have no clue how to make that work either.

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• Always send certain values with an ajax request/post

  - by DZittersteyn

  I'm building a system that displays a list of user, and on selection of a user requests some form of password. These values are saved in a hidden field on the page, and need to be sent with every request as a form of authentication. (I'm aware of the MITM-vulnerability that lies herein, but it's a very low-key system, so security is not a large concern). Now I need to send these values with each and every request, to auth the currently 'logged in' user. I'd like to automate this, via ajaxSetup, however i'm running into some issues. My first try was: init_user_auth: function(){ $.ajaxSetup({ data: { 'user' : site_user.selected_user_id(), 'passcode': site_user.selected_user_pc(), 'barcode' : site_user.selected_user_bc() } }); }, However, as I should have known, this reads the values once, at the time of the call to ajaxSetup, and never rereads them. What I need is a way to actually call the functions every time an ajax-call is made. I'm currently trying to understand what is happening here: https://groups.google.com/forum/?fromgroups=#!topic/jquery-dev/OBcEfgvTJ9I, however through the flamewar and very low-level stuff going on there, I'm not exactly sure I get what is going on. Is this the way to proceed, or should I just face facts and manually add login-info to each ajax-call?

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• Javascript Namespace Help

  - by Jason

  Hi, I have a pretty big Javascript script with loads of global variables & functions in it. Then a piece of code that calls one function from this js file: myfunc(); Ok, now I have cloned this script and modified some functionality, all function prototypes and variables are named the same in both scripts. So now I have two scripts loaded and one call to myfunc(), now we have a clash because there are loads of global variables with the same names and two myfunc()s. What I want to do is wrap this cloned script in a namespace, so that I can modify the original call to: clone.myfunc() which will call the new function, but I also want myfunc() to just refer to the original script. In other words I can't touch the original script (no permissions) and I want to be able to use both the clone and the original at runtime. This is the script im cloning: http://pastebin.com/6KR5T3Ah Javascript namespaces seem quite tricky this seems a nice namespace method: var namespace = { foo: function() { } bar: function() { } } ... namespace.foo(); } However that requires using an object, and the script (as posted above) is humongous at nearly 4000 lines, too much to objectize I think? Anyone know a better solution to avoid namespace pollution, with one script I cant touch and one being a clone of that script. Just so I can call myfunc() and clone.myfunc() and all global variables will behave in their respected scope. It's either that, or I go through and modify everything to have unique names, which may take a lifetime This is a Mozilla addon if it helps context wise. Thanks.

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• wx_ref and custom wx_object's

  - by Iogann

  Hi! I am developing MDI application with help of wxErlang. I have a parent frame, implemented as wx_object: -module(main_frame). -export([new/0, init/1, handle_call/3, handle_event/2, terminate/2]). -behaviour(wx_object). .... And I have a child frame, implemented as wx_object too: module(child_frame). -export([new/2, init/1, handle_call/3, handle_event/2, terminate/2]). -export([save/1]). -behaviour(wx_object). % some public API method save(Frame) -> wx_object:call(Frame, save). .... I want to call save/1 for an active child frame from the parent frame. There is my code: ActiveChild = wxMDIParentFrame:getActiveChild(Frame), case wx:is_null(ActiveChild) of false - child_frame:save(ActiveChild); _ - ignore end This code fails because ActiveChild is #wx_ref{} with state=[], but wx_object:call/2 needs #wx_ref{} where state is set to the pid of the process which we call. What is the right method to do this? I thought only to store a list of all created child frames with its pids in the parent frame and search the pid in this list, but this is ugly.

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• Nested bind expressions

  - by user328543

  This is a followup question to my previous question. #include <functional> int foo(void) {return 2;} class bar { public: int operator() (void) {return 3;}; int something(int a) {return a;}; }; template <class C> auto func(C&& c) -> decltype(c()) { return c(); } template <class C> int doit(C&& c) { return c();} template <class C> void func_wrapper(C&& c) { func( std::bind(doit<C>, std::forward<C>(c)) ); } int main(int argc, char* argv[]) { // call with a function pointer func(foo); func_wrapper(foo); // error // call with a member function bar b; func(b); func_wrapper(b); // call with a bind expression func(std::bind(&bar::something, b, 42)); func_wrapper(std::bind(&bar::something, b, 42)); // error // call with a lambda expression func( [](void)->int {return 42;} ); func_wrapper( [](void)->int {return 42;} ); return 0; } I'm getting a compile errors deep in the C++ headers: functional:1137: error: invalid initialization of reference of type ‘int (&)()’ from expression of type ‘int (*)()’ functional:1137: error: conversion from ‘int’ to non-scalar type ‘std::_Bind(bar, int)’ requested func_wrapper(foo) is supposed to execute func(doit(foo)). In the real code it packages the function for a thread to execute. func would the function executed by the other thread, doit sits in between to check for unhandled exceptions and to clean up. But the additional bind in func_wrapper messes things up...

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• Socket Programming for the Web

  - by Benny

  I have to interact with a legacy system that accepts socket communication and messages. My goal is to make the application cross-platform, but I need the ability to push messages to the client (i.e. - .NET's WCF, Java's Comet) and detect when the user closes out of their browser to destroy the socket. I have built a prototype of .NET wrapper + WCF + Silverlight but it is so disconnected it is difficult to manage the state of the user and seems to be a nightmare to support. All of that considered, what would be my best option?

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• Templates, Function Pointers and C++0x

  - by user328543

  One of my personal experiments to understand some of the C++0x features: I'm trying to pass a function pointer to a template function to execute. Eventually the execution is supposed to happen in a different thread. But with all the different types of functions, I can't get the templates to work. #include `<functional`> int foo(void) {return 2;} class bar { public: int operator() (void) {return 4;}; int something(int a) {return a;}; }; template <class C> int func(C&& c) { //typedef typename std::result_of< C() >::type result_type; typedef typename std::conditional< std::is_pointer< C >::value, std::result_of< C() >::type, std::conditional< std::is_object< C >::value, std::result_of< typename C::operator() >::type, void> >::type result_type; result_type result = c(); return result; } int main(int argc, char* argv[]) { // call with a function pointer func(foo); // call with a member function bar b; func(b); // call with a bind expression func(std::bind(&bar::something, b, 42)); // call with a lambda expression func( [](void)->int {return 12;} ); return 0; } The result_of template alone doesn't seem to be able to find the operator() in class bar and the clunky conditional I created doesn't compile. Any ideas? Will I have additional problems with const functions?

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• VS 2010 Error “Object reference not set to an instance of an object” when adding Service Reference f

  - by Andy

  I have a VS2010 (RTM) solution which contains: WCF Service project Console WCF client project Class project for DataContracts and members Class project for some simple classes I successfully added a service reference in the console client project and ran the client. I then did a long dev cycle repeatedly modifying the service then updating console service reference. I then changed the namespace and assembly names for the projects as well as the .cs using references and app.config. I of course missed some things as it would not build so I eventually removed the project references and the service reference, cleaned and built successfully. I then attempted to add the service reference again, it discovered it but threw the “Object reference not set to an instance of an object” when OK'ing. Fix in answer below...

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• [MSBuild] Problem with setting properties 's values.

  - by Nam Gi VU

  Let's consider the below example. There, I have: target MAIN call target t then call target tt. target t call target ttt, target tt call target tttt. target t define property aa, target ttt modify aa. target tttt try to print property aa 's value. in short we have: MAIN - {t - {ttt-modify aa, define aa}, tt - tttt - print aa} But in target tttt, we can't "see" aa's updated value (by ttt)! Please help me to make that value visible to target tttt. Thank you! The whole script is as below: <Project xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/developer/msbuild/2003" DefaultTargets="MAIN" > <Target Name="MAIN" > <CallTarget Targets="t" /> <CallTarget Targets="tt" /> </Target> <Target Name="t"> <Message Text="t" /> <PropertyGroup> <aa>1</aa> </PropertyGroup> <CallTarget Targets="ttt" /> </Target> <Target Name="tt"> <Message Text="tt" /> <CallTarget Targets="tttt" /> </Target> <Target Name="ttt"> <PropertyGroup> <aa>122</aa> </PropertyGroup> <Message Text="ttt" /> </Target> <Target Name="tttt"> <Message Text="tttt" /> <Message Text="tttt:$(aa)" /> </Target> </Project>

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• jQuery/Ajax IE7 - Long requests fail

  - by iQ

  Hi guys, I have a problem with IE7 regarding an ajax call that is made by jQuery.load function. Basically the request works in cases where the URL string is not too long, but as soon as the URL gets very large it fails. Doing some debugging on the Ajax call I found this error: URL: <blanked out security reasons but it's very long> Content Type: Headers size (bytes): 0 Data size (bytes): 0 Total size (bytes): 0 Transferred data size (bytes): 0 Cached data: No Error result: 0x800c0005 Error constant: INET_E_RESOURCE_NOT_FOUND Error description: The server or proxy was not found Extended error result: 0x7a Extended error description: The data area passed to a system call is too small. As you can see, it looks like nothing is being sent. Now this only happens on IE7 but not other browsers, with IE8 there is a small delay but still works. The same request works fine when the URL string is relatively small. Now I need this working on IE7 for compatibility reasons and I cannot find workarounds for this so any help is greatly appreciated. The actual ajax call is like this: $("ID").load("url?lotsofparams",callbac func(){}); "lotsofparams" can vary, sometimes being small or very large. It's when the string is very large that I get the above error for IE7 only.

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• Javascript - Wait for function to return

  - by LoadData

  So, I am working on a project which requires me to call upon a function to get data from an external source. The issue I am having, I call upon the function - However the code after the function call is continuing before the function has returned a value. Here is the function - function getData() { var myVar; var xmlLoc = $.get("http://ec.urbentom.co.uk/StudentAppData.xml", function(data) { $xml = $(data); myVar = $xml; console.log(myVar); console.log(String($xml)); localStorage.setItem("Data", $xml); console.log(String(localStorage.getItem("Data"))); return myVar; }); return myVar; console.log("Does this continue"); } And here is where it is called upon - $(document).on("pageshow","#Information",function() { $xml = $(getData()); //Here is the function call console.log($xml); //However, it will instantly go to this line before 'getData' has returned a value. $xml.find('AllData').each(function() { $(this).find('item').each(function() { if ($(this).find('Category').text()=="Facilities") { console.log($(this).find('Title').text()); //Do stuff here } else if ($(this).find('Category').text()=="Contacts" || $(this).find('Category').text()=="Information") { console.log($(this).find('Title').text()); //Do stuff here too } }); $('#informationList').html(output).listview().listview("refresh"); console.log("Finished"); }); }); Right now, I'm unsure of why it is not working. My guess is that it is because I am calling a function within a function. Does anyone have any ideas on how this issue can be fixed?

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• Need a design approach or suggestion for a simple structure using Servlet.

  - by akshay

  Hi I have to design such that whenever user pass a query I process it using servlet and then call the js page to draw the chart 1 user writes a query on a page 2 the page call the servelt class public class MyServlet extends Httpservlet implements DataSourceServlet {..... return data The user see a beautiful string like this.. google.visualization.Query.setResponse......... /Tiger'},{v:80.0}, {v:false}]}]}}); 3 when the user hits on different html page myhtml.js it draws the chart. I want the Myservlet class itself call the myhtml.js page and draw the chart directly. and want to eliminate the beautiful string google.visualization.Query.setResponse......... /Tiger'},{v:80.0}, {v:false}]}]}}); from coming on user's browser What should i do? I tried using functions to call another page like request dispatcher(), redirect() calling myhtml.js page directly after myservlet process the query results. But i get the result like this google.visualization.Query.setResponse......... /Tiger'},{v:80.0}, {v:false}]}]}}); and the entire myhtml.js code page below it on the browsers that to without the chart been draw. Is there anyway to element the beautiful string from coming on clients browser and only show them the chart been drawn ? :) This is the small tutorial i am following http://code.google.com/apis/visualization/documentation/dev/dsl_get_started.html

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• Can a second stored procedure doing the same thing finish before first one?

  - by evanmortland

  Hello, I have an audit record table that I am writing to. I am connecting to MyDb, which has a stored procedure called 'CreateAudit', which is a passthrough stored procedure to another database on the same machine called 'CreatedAudit' as well. I call the CreateAudit stored procedure from my application, using subsonic as the DAL. The first time I call it, I call it with the following (pseudocode): Result = CreateAudit(recordId, "Opened") Right after that, I call: Result2 = CreateAudit(recordId, "Closed") In my second stored procedure it is supposed to mark the record that was created by the CreateAudit(recordId, "Opened") with a status of closed. It works great if I run them independently of one another, but when they run in sequence in the application, the record is not marked as "Closed". When I run SQL profiler I see that both queries ran, and if I copy the queries out and run them from query analyzer the record gets marked as closed 100% of the time! When I run it from the application, about once every 20 times or so, the record is successfully marked closed - the other 19 times nothing happens, but I do not get an error! Is it possible for the .NET app to skip over the ouput from the first stored procedure and start executing the second stored procedure before the record in the first is created? When I add a "WAITFOR DELAY '00:00:00:003'" to the top of my stored procedure, the record is also closed 100% of the time. My head is spinning, any ideas why this is happening! Thanks for any responses, very interested in hearing how this can happen.

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• simplemodal click events stopped working in IE7

  - by prettynerd

  Here's my code: $('#alertInfo').modal({ close :false, overlayId :'confirmModalOverlay', containerId :'confirmModalContainer', onShow : function(dialog) { dialog.data.find('.message').append(message); dialog.data.find('.yes').click(function(){ if ($.isFunction(callback)) callback.apply(); $.modal.close(); }); dialog.data.find('.close').click(function(){ $.modal.close(); }); } }); Basically, this is a dialogue box which I call to show a warning message that has a "X" button (with class 'close') and an "OK" button (with class 'yes'). The problem occurs in IE7. When I call this dialogue box and use my "X" button to close it everytime, my "X" button does not work anymore on the third time I call it (YES ON THE THIRD TIME!). However, if I use my "OK" button to close the dialogue box, it works fine no matter how many times I call it. I thought I found a workaround by unbinding and binding my click event of the '.close' class, as below: dialog.data.find('.close').unbind('click'); dialog.data.find('.close').bind('click',function(){$.modal.close();}); and it worked!!! unfortunately, however, the problem now occurs in my "OK" button. so, i did the same unbinding and binding the click event of the '.yes' class, as below: dialog.data.find('.yes').unbind('click'); dialog.data.find('.yes').bind('click', function() { if ($.isFunction(callback)) callback.apply(); $.modal.close(); }); BUT NOPE, IT DOES NOT WORK.. please help me.. @ericmmartin, i hope you're online now.. huhu..

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