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• Extending / changing how Zend_Search_Lucene searches

  - by Grant Collins

  Hi, I am currently using Zend_Search_Lucene to index and search a number of documents currently at around a 1000 or so. What I would like to do is change how the engine scores hits on a document, from the current default. Zend_Search_Lucene scores on the frequency of number of hits within a document, so a document that has 10 matches of the word PHP will score higher than a document with only 3 matches of PHP. What I am trying to do is pass a number of key words and score depending on the hits of those keywords. e.g. I pass 5 key words say,PHP, MySQL, Javascript, HTML and CSS that I search against the index. One document has 3 matches to those key words and one document has all 4 matches, the 4 matches scores the highest. The number of instances of those words in the document do not concern me. Now I've had a quick look at Zend_Search_Lucene_Search_Similarity however I have to confess that I am not sure (or that bright) to know how to use this to achieve what I am after. Is what I want to do possible using Lucene or is there a better solution out there?

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• JavaScript Keycode 46 is DEL Function key or (.) period sign?

  - by Omar

  Im writing some logic in JavaScript using jquery, where i must check the input content against a REGEX pattern ex: "^[a-zA-Z0-9_]*$" //Alpha-numeric and _ The logic is almost done, i just have a little problem filtering the function key DEL, my logic goes like this: var FunctionsKey = new Array(8, 9, 13, 16, 35, 36, 37, 39, 46); function keypressValidation(key) { if (config.regexExp != null) { if ($.inArray(key, FunctionsKey) != -1) { return true; } else { var keyChar = String.fromCharCode(key); return RegexCheck(keyChar); } } return true; } If the KeyCode is one of those in the array, i let it pass, if not i get the char and compare it against the REGEX. The problem is: in some Browsers the DEL and '.' (period sign) have the same key Code 46. So is there a better logic to filter the function keys or must i write a condition for that case, maybe removing the 46 from the array and try to convert it to char and if is (.) let it go to the Regex function if not let it pass? The other question will be are there more shared Key Codes in some browsers? EDIT: My suggested solution wont work because it doesn't matter which key the user pressed (DEL or period) i always get (.) as CHAR at least on OPERA and FF =(.

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• Symfony 2 - Updating a table based on newly inserted record in another table

  - by W00d5t0ck

  I'm trying to create a small forum application using Symfony 2 and Doctrine 2. My ForumTopic entity has a last_post field (oneToOne mapping). Now when I persist my new post with $em->persist($post); I want to update my ForumTopic entity so its last_post field would reference this new post. I have just realised that it cannot be done with a Doctrine postPersist Listener, so I decided to use a small hack, and tried: $em->persist($post); $em->flush(); $topic->setLastPost($post); $em->persist($post); $em->flush(); but it doesn't seem to update my topics table. I also took a look at http://docs.doctrine-project.org/projects/doctrine-orm/en/2.1/reference/working-with-associations.html#transitive-persistence-cascade-operations hoping it will solve the problem by adding cascade: [ 'persist' ] to my Topic.orm.yml file, but it didn't help, either. Could anyone point me to a solution or an example class? My ForumTopic is: FrontBundle\Entity\ForumTopic: type: entity table: forum_topics id: id: type: integer generator: strategy: AUTO fields: title: type: string(100) nullable: false slug: type: string(100) nullable: false created_at: type: datetime nullable: false updated_at: type: datetime nullable: true update_reason: type: text nullable: true oneToMany: posts: targetEntity: ForumPost mappedBy: topic manyToOne: created_by: targetEntity: User inversedBy: articles nullable: false updated_by: targetEntity: User nullable: true default: null topic_group: targetEntity: ForumTopicGroup inversedBy: topics nullable: false oneToOne: last_post: targetEntity: ForumPost nullable: true default: null cascade: [ persist ] uniqueConstraint: uniqueSlugByGroup: columns: [ topic_group, slug ] And my ForumPost is: FrontBundle\Entity\ForumPost: type: entity table: forum_posts id: id: type: integer generator: strategy: AUTO fields: created_at: type: datetime nullable: false updated_at: type: datetime nullable: true update_reason: type: string nullable: true text: type: text nullable: false manyToOne: created_by: targetEntity: User inversedBy: forum_posts nullable: false updated_by: targetEntity: User nullable: true default: null topic: targetEntity: ForumTopic inversedBy: posts

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• EF 4.0 Guid or Int as A primary Key

  - by bigb

  I am Implementing custom ASPNetMembership using EF 4.0 Is there any reason why i should use Guid as a primary key in User tables? As far as i know Int as a PK on SQL Server more performanced than strings. And Int is easier to iterate. Also, for security purpose if i need to pass this it id somewhere in url i may encrypt it somehow and pass it like a strings with no probs. But if i want to use auto generated Guid on SQL Server side using EF 4.0 i need to do this trick http://leedumond.com/blog/using-a-guid-as-an-entitykey-in-entity-framework-4/ I can't see any cases why i should use Guid as PK, may be only one if system going to have millions ans millions users, but also, theoretically, Guid could be duplicated sometime isn't so? Anyway Int32 size is 2,147.483.647 it is pretty much even for very-very big system, but if this number is still not enough I may go with Int64, in that cases I may have 9,223.372.036.854.775.807 rows. Pretty much huh? From another hand, M$ using Guids as PK in their ASPNetMembership implementation. [aspnetdb].[aspnet_Users] - PK UserId Type uniqueidentifier, should be some reasons/explanation why the did it?! May be some one has any ideas/experience about that?

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• Importing package as a submodule

  - by wecac

  Hi, I have a package 3rd party open source package "foo"; that is in beta phase and I want to tweak it to my requirements. So I don't want to get it installed in /usr/local/lib/python or anywhere in current sys.path as I can't make frequent changes in top level packages. foo/ __init__.py fmod1.py import foo.mod2 fmod2.py pass I want to install the the package "foo" as a sub package of my namespace say "team.my_pkg". So that the "fullname" of the package becomes "team.my_pkg.foo" without changing the code in inner modules that refer "team.my_pkg.foo" as "foo". team/ __init__.py my_pkg/ __init__.py foo/ fmod1.py import foo.mod2 fmod2.py pass One way to do this is to do this in team.my_pkg.init.py: import os.path import sys sys.path.append(os.path.dirname(__file__)) But I think it is very unsafe. I hope there is some way that only fmod1.py and fmod2.py can call "foo" by its short name everything else should use its complete name "team.my_pkg.foo" I mean this should fail outside team/my_pkg/foo: import team.my_pkg import foo But this should succeed outside team/my_pkg/foo: import team.my_pkg.foo

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• which is better: a lying copy constructor or a non-standard one?

  - by PaulH

  I have a C++ class that contains a non-copyable handle. The class, however, must have a copy constructor. So, I've implemented one that transfers ownership of the handle to the new object (as below) class Foo { public: Foo() : h_( INVALID_HANDLE_VALUE ) { }; // transfer the handle to the new instance Foo( const Foo& other ) : h_( other.Detach() ) { }; ~Foo() { if( INVALID_HANDLE_VALUE != h_ ) CloseHandle( h_ ); }; // other interesting functions... private: /// disallow assignment const Foo& operator=( const Foo& ); HANDLE Detach() const { HANDLE h = h_; h_ = INVALID_HANDLE_VALUE; return h; }; /// a non-copyable handle mutable HANDLE h_; }; // class Foo My problem is that the standard copy constructor takes a const-reference and I'm modifying that reference. So, I'd like to know which is better (and why): a non-standard copy constructor: Foo( Foo& other ); a copy-constructor that 'lies': Foo( const Foo& other ); Thanks, PaulH

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• Is using advanced constructs (function, new, function calls) in JSON safe?

  - by Vilx-

  JSON is a nice way to pass complex data from my server side code to client side JavaScript. For example, in PHP I can write: <script type="text/javascript> var MyComplexVariable = <?= BigFancyObjectGraph.GetJSON() ?>; DoMagic(MyComplexVariable); </script> This is pretty cool, but sometimes you want to pass more than basic date, like dates or even function definitions. There is a simple and straightforward way of doing it too, like: <script type="text/javascript> var MyComplexVariable = { 'SimpleProperty' : 42, 'FunctionProperty' : function() { return 6*7; }, 'DateProperty' : new Date(989539200000), 'ArbitraryProperty' : GetTheMeaningOfLifeUniverseAndEverything() }; DoMagic(MyComplexVariable); </script> And this works like a charm on all browsers I've seen so far. But according to JSON.org such syntax is invalid. On the other hand, I've seen this syntax being used in very many places, including some popular JavaScript frameworks. So... Can I expect any problems if I use "unsupported" JSON features like the above? Why is it wrong or not?

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• What wrapper class in C++ should I use for automated resource management?

  - by Vilx-

  I'm a C++ amateur. I'm writing some Win32 API code and there are handles and weirdly compositely allocated objects aplenty. So I was wondering - is there some wrapper class that would make resource management easier? For example, when I want to load some data I open a file with CreateFile() and get a HANDLE. When I'm done with it, I should call CloseHandle() on it. But for any reasonably complex loading function there will be dozens of possible exit points, not to mention exceptions. So it would be great if I could wrap the handle in some kind of wrapper class which would automatically call CloseHandle() once execution left the scope. Even better - it could do some reference counting so I can pass it around in and out of other functions, and it would release the resource only when the last reference left scope. The concept is simple - but is there something like that in the standard library? I'm using Visual Studio 2008, by the way, and I don't want to attach a 3rd party framework like Boost or something.

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• Change Sequence to Choice

  - by Gordon

  In my Schema File I defined a Group with a Sequence of possible Elements. <group name="argumentGroup"> <sequence> <element name="foo" type="double" /> <element name="bar" type="string" /> <element name="baz" type="integer" /> </sequence> </group> I then reference this Group like this: <element name="arguments"> <complexType> <group ref="my:argumentGroup"/> </complexType> </element> Is it possible to reference the Group at some other point but restrict it so it's a Choice instead of a Sequence. The position where I want to reuse it would only allow one of the Elements within. <element name="argument" minOccurs="0" maxOccurs="1"> <complexType> <group name="my:argumentGroup"> <! -- Somehow change argumentGroup sequence to choice here --> </group> <complexType> </element>

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• what is the best practice approach for n-tier application development with entity framework?

  - by samsur

  I am building an application using entity framework. I am using the T4 template to generate self tracking entities. Currently, I am thinking of creating the entity framework code in a separate project. In this same project, I would have partial classes with additional methods for the entities. I am thinking of creating a separate project for a service layer (WCF) with methods for the upper/presentation tier. The WCF layer will reference the entity framework project. The methods in the WCF layer will return the entities or accept the entities as the parameters. I am thinkg of creating a third project for the presentation layer (ASP.net), this will make calls to the WCF service but will also need to reference the entities as the WCF methods take these types as the parameters/return types. In short, i want to use the STE entities generated by the T4 template as a DTO to be used in all layers. I was originally thinking of creating a business logic layer that maps to each entities. Example: If i have a customer class, the Business Layer would have a CustomerBLL class and then methods in the customerBLL will be used by the service layer. I was also trying to create a DTO in this business layer. I however found that this approach is very time consuming and i do not see a major benefit as it would create more maintenance work. What is the best practice for n-tier application development using entity framework 4?

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• How to draw a part of a window into a memory device context?

  - by Nell

  I'm using simple statements to keep it, er, simple: The screen goes from 0, 0 to 1000, 1000 (screen coordinates). A window goes from 100, 100 to 900, 900 (screen coordinates). I have a memory device context that goes from 0, 0 to 200, 200 (logical coordinates). I need to send a WM_PRINT message to the window. I can pass the device context to the window via WM_PRINT, but I cannot pass which part of its window it should draw into the device context. Is there some way to alter the device context that will result in the window drawing a specific part of itself into the device context (say, its bottom right portion from 700, 700 to 900, 900)? (This is all under plain old GDI and in C or C++. Any solution must be too.) Please note: This problem is part of a larger solution in which the device context size is fixed and speed is crucial, so I cannot draw the window in full into a separate device context and blit the part I want from the resultant full bitmap into my device context.

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• Magento: The best way to hook into the checkout process

  - by dan.codes

  I am integrating with a third party order management system and I have to make calls to it throughout the checkout process. The problem is, I don't think there are many events available because of how the onepage checkout is all done in javascript/ajax calls. There are a few like after saving the shipping method, and none of the dynamic events seem to fit either. basically I need to know as soon as the user is getting access to the shipping method tab to pass the billing shipping address over, then after the shipping method, to pass that over. Obviously there is an event for that. I know there are ones for when you submit an order so that should be good. I guess I only need to know when the billing/shipping address is saved. I was using controller_action_layout_render_before_checkout_onepage_progress but the progress gets called way to late. It just doesn't seem like there are a lot of hooks through the onepage checkout. if anyone can give me some examples of what they have done that would be great!

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• JavaScript, jQuery, XML - if statement not executing for unknown reason

  - by Jack Roscoe

  Hi, I have a 'for' loop which extracts data from an XML document and adds it into some JavaScript objects, each time the loop executes I want it to run a certain function depending on the value of the attribute 'typ' which is being retrieved from the xml. Currently, the data from the XML is successfully being parsed, which is proven by the first 'alert' you can see which produces the correct value. However, neither of the 'alert' lines in the 'if' statement lower down are being executed and as a result I cannot test the 'ctyp3' function which is supposed to be called. Where have I gone wrong? for (j=0; j<arrayIds.length; j++) { $(xml).find("C[ID='" + arrayIds[j] + "']").each(function(){ // pass values questions[j] = { typ: $(this).attr('typ'), width: $(this).find("I").attr('wid'), height: $(this).find("I").attr('hei'), x: $(this).find("I").attr('x'), y: $(this).find("I").attr('x'), baC: $(this).find("I").attr('baC'), boC: $(this).find("I").attr('boC'), boW: $(this).find("I").attr('boW') } alert($(this).attr('typ')); if ($(this).attr('typ') == '3') { ctyp3(x,y,width,height,baC); alert('pass'); } else { // Add here alert('fail'); } }); }

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• Issue with the Entity Manager and phpunit in Symfony 2

  - by rgazelot

  I have an issue with my Entity Manager in phpunit. This is my test : public function testValidChangeEmail() { $client = self::createAuthClient('user','password'); $crawler = $client->request('GET', '/user/edit/30'); $crawler = $client->submit($crawler->selectButton('submit')->form(array( 'form[email]' => '[email protected]', ))); /* * With this em, this work perfectly * $em = $client->getContainer()->get('doctrine.orm.entity_manager'); */ $user = self::$em->getRepository('MyBundle:User')->findUser('[email protected]'); die(var_dump($user->getEmail())); } and this is my WebTestCase which extends original WebTestCase : class WebTestCase extends BaseWebTestCase { static protected $container; static protected $em; static protected function createClient(array $options = array(), array $server = array()) { $client = parent::createClient($options, $server); self::$em = $client->getContainer()->get('doctrine.orm.entity_manager'); self::$container = $client->getContainer(); return $client; } protected function createAuthClient($user, $pass) { return self::createClient(array(), array( 'PHP_AUTH_USER' => $user, 'PHP_AUTH_PW' => $pass, )); } As you can see, I replace the self::$em when I created my client. My issue : In my test, the die() give me the old email and not the new email ([email protected]) which has registered in the test. However in my database, I have the [email protected] correctly saved. When I retrieve my user in the database, I use sefl::$em. If I use the $em in comments, I retrieve the right new email. I don't understand why in my WebTestCase, I can access to the new Entity Manager...

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• how do I copy value from one table and inserted to another in the same database??

  - by mathew

  I am having a tough time to do this... I have created two table say table-1 and table-2 in same database.what I want is I need to copy some values from table-1 and insert the same to table-2. I have tried many ways but it does not seems work. below is my code can any one tell me where I am missing?? $db = mysql_connect("localhost", "user", "pass") or die("Could not connect."); mysql_select_db("comdata",$db)or die(mysql_error()); $resultb = mysql_query("SELECT * FROM table-2")or die(mysql_error()); $row = mysql_fetch_array($resultb); $days = (strtotime(date("Y-m-d")) - strtotime($row['regtime'])) / (60 * 60 * 24); if($row > 0 && $days < 1){ $person = $row['person']; $catogr = $row['catog']; $position = $row['position']; $location = $row['location']; $rank = $row['rank']; mysql_close($db); }else{ $db = mysql_connect("localhost", "user", "pass") or die("Could not connect."); mysql_select_db("comdata",$db)or die(mysql_error()); $result = mysql_query("SELECT * FROM table-1 WHERE regtime = DATE(NOW()) ORDER BY rank ASC LIMIT 1;")or die(mysql_error()); $row = mysql_fetch_array($result); $person = $row['person']; $catogr = $row['catog']; $position = $row['position']; $location = $row['location']; $rank = $row['rank']; mysql_query("INSERT INTO table-2 (regtime,person,catog,position,location,rank) VALUES(NOW(),'$person','$catogr','$position','$location','$rank')"); mysql_close($db); }

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• How do I define a monadic function to work on a list in J?

  - by Gregory Higley

  Let's say I have the following J expression: # 3 ((|=0:)#]) 1+i.1000 This counts the number of numbers between 1 and 1000 that are evenly divisible by 3. (Now, before anyone points out that there's an easier way to do this, this question is about the syntax of J, and not mathematics.) Let's say I define a monadic function for this, as follows: f =: monad define # y ((|=0:)#]) 1+i.1000 ) This works great with a single argument, e.g., f 4 250 If I pass a list in, I get a length error: f 1 2 3 |length error: f Now, I completely understand why I get the length error. When you substitute the list 1 2 3 for the y argument of the monad, you get: # 1 2 3 ((|=0:)#]) 1+i.1000 If you know anything about J, it's pretty clear why the length error is occurring. So, I don't need an explanation of that. I want to define the function such that when I pass a list, it returns a list, e.g., f 1 2 3 1000 500 333 How can I either (a) redefine this function to take a list and return a list or (b) get the function to work on a list as-is without being redefined, perhaps using some adverb or other technique?

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• How to convert a lambda to an std::function using templates

  - by retep998

  Basically, what I want to be able to do is take a lambda with any number of any type of parameters and convert it to an std::function. I've tried the following and neither method works. std::function([](){});//Complains that std::function is missing template parameters template <typename T> void foo(function<T> f){} foo([](){});//Complains that it cannot find a matching candidate The following code does work however, but it is not what I want because it requires explicitly stating the template parameters which does not work for generic code. std::function<void()>([](){}); I've been mucking around with functions and templates all evening and I just can't figure this out, so any help would be much appreciated. As mentioned in a comment, the reason I'm trying to do this is because I'm trying to implement currying in C++ using variadic templates. Unfortunately, this fails horribly when using lambdas. For example, I can pass a standard function using a function pointer. template <typename R, typename...A> void foo(R (*f)(A...)) {} void bar() {} int main() { foo(bar); } However, I can't figure out how to pass a lambda to such a variadic function. Why I'm interested in converting a generic lambda into an std::function is because I can do the following, but it ends up requiring that I explicitly state the template parameters to std::function which is what I am trying to avoid. template <typename R, typename...A> void foo(std::function<R(A...)>) {} int main() { foo(std::function<void()>([](){})); }

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• C Programming - Passing a pointer to array

  - by Pedro

  How do I pass a pointer value to an array of the struct; For example, on a txt I have this: John Doe;[email protected];214425532; My code: typedef struct Person{ char name[100]; char email[100]; int phone; }PERSON; int main(){ PERSON persons[100]; FILE *fp; char *ap_name; char *ap_email; char *ap_phone; char line[100]; fp=("text.txt","r"); if(fp==NULL){ exit(1); } else{ fgets(line,100,fp); ap_name=strtok(line,";"); ap_email=strtok(NULL,";"); ap_phone=strtok(NULL,";"); } return 0; } My question is how can I pass the value of ap_name, ap_email, ap_phone to the struct? And, do I need to use all of these pointers?

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• XML digital signature interface

  - by yeekang

  I am trying to call a WebService and it requires me to prepare an XML digital signature interface. I came across this website and it shows how to sign an XML document. My problem now is that I do not create the XML document myself. My code is as follows: string myResult; GenericWS.ServicesService a = new GenericWS.ServicesService(); GenericWS.Service2 b = new GenericWS.Service2(); b.Something = "3"; X509Certificate cert = X509Certificate.CreateFromCertFile("C:\\somepath\\somecert.cer"); a.ClientCertificates.Add(cert); ServicePointManager.ServerCertificateValidationCallback = delegate (object s, X509Certificate certificate, X509Chain chain, SslPolicyErrors sslPolicyErrors) { return true; }; myResult= a.WSRequest(b).WSReturnValue.ToString(); Label1.Text = myResult; Basically, the WSRequest() will generate the body of the SOAP message. However, in order to sign the SOAP message, I need to pass in the XML file that needs to be signed. I tried to serialize the object and cast it as XML and pass it into the signature interface but I do not have another method that I can invoke to call the webmethod. Is there any other solution?

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• How to draw mutiple rectangles using c#

  - by Nivas

  I have drawn and saved the Rectangle on the image i loaded in the picture box. How i like to draw multiple rectangles for that i tried array in the rectangle but it gives error ("Object reference not set to an instance of an object." (Null reference Exception was unhandled). enter code here private void pictureBox1_MouseDown(object sender, MouseEventArgs e) { if (mybitmap == null) { mybitmap = new Bitmap(sz.Width, sz.Height); } rect = new Rectangle(e.X, e.Y, 0, 0); this.Invalidate(); } private void pictureBox1_MouseMove(object sender, MouseEventArgs e) { if (stayToolStripMenuItem.Checked == true) { switch (e.Button) { case MouseButtons.Left: { rect = new Rectangle(rect.Left, rect.Top, e.X - rect.Left, e.Y - rect.Top); pictureBox1.Invalidate(); break; } } } } private void pictureBox1_Paint(object sender, PaintEventArgs e) { if (stayToolStripMenuItem.Checked == true) { button1.Visible = true; button2.Visible = true; if (mybitmap == null) { return; } using (g = Graphics.FromImage(mybitmap)) { using (Pen pen = new Pen(Color.Red, 2)) { //g.Clear(Color.Transparent); e.Graphics.DrawRectangle(pen, rect); label1.Top = rect.Top; label1.Left = rect.Left; label1.Width = rect.Width; label1.Height = rect.Height; if (label1.TextAlign == ContentAlignment.TopLeft) { e.Graphics.DrawString(label1.Text, label1.Font, new SolidBrush(label1.ForeColor), rect); g.DrawString(label1.Text, label1.Font, new SolidBrush(label1.ForeColor), rect); g.DrawRectangle(pen, rect); } } } } } How can i do this.....

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• Same random numbers from instantiated class

  - by user1797202

  I'm learning C# and created a class within my program that holds a random number generator: class RandomNumberGenerator { Random RNG = new Random(); // A bunch of methods that use random numbers are in here } Inside this class are a few methods that use the RNG. Data gets sent here from other parts of the program, gets processed, then gets returned. One of the methods does the following: // Method works something like this int Value1 = RNG.Next(x, y); int Value2 = RNG.Next(x, y); int Value3 = RNG.Next(x, y); The x, y values are to be sent here from another class. So, I have to create an instance of the RandomNumberGenerator within that class so I can call its methods and pass the x and y values to it. class DoStuff { RandomNumberGenerator Randomizer = new RandomNumberGenerator // Here I call a bunch of Randomizer methods that give me values I need } The problem in the above method is that I get the same numbers every time for all three values. I'm not sure if it's because they're so close together and Randomizer's seed value hasn't had time to change or if I'm doing something wrong when I create a new instance of the RandomNumberGenerator class. I've gone through a bunch of answers on here already and typically problems like this are due to people creating many new Random objects when they run methods (thus setting the seed for all of them to the same value), but the only new Random object I create is within the RandomNumberGenerator class. I then instantiate that once within the other class so I can pass it data and use its methods. Why is this happening and how would I fix this?

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• Get Form Input via Ajax

  - by user3651491

  I have a jqgrid plugin which I call via Ajax. I have index.php and a getGridData.php. How will I pass form input in getGridData.php via ajax and use it in getGridData.php? I tried serialize but I can't pass or access it on getGridData.php. I need it as parameters for mysql. Here's my code. <script language="javascript" type="text/javascript"> function jgGrid() { $(document).ready(function () { $("#grid").jqGrid({ url: "inc/Controller/getGridData.php"+$("#thisForm").serialize(), data : formData, datatype: "json", mtype: "POST", colNames: ["SiteID", "TerminalID", "TransactionType", "Amount", "ServiceStatus"], colModel: [ { name: "SiteID"}, { name: "TerminalID"}, { name: "TransactionType"}, { name: "Amount"}, { name: "ServiceStatus"}, ], pager: "#pager", rowNum: 10, rowList: [10,20], sortname: "SiteID", sortorder: "asc", height: 'auto', viewrecords: true, gridview: true, caption: "" }); }); } </script> getGridData.php include('../Model/Queries.php'); $cardnumber = $_POST['cardnumber']; $transact_type = $_POST['transact_type']; $fromdate = $_POST['fromdate']; $todate = $_POST['todate']; $loyalty = new Queries(); $get_mid = $loyalty->loyaltyConn($cardnumber); $somedata = json_encode($loyalty->nposConn($get_mid, $transact_type, $fromdate, $todate)); echo $somedata;

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• How do I check if a scalar has a compiled regex in it with Perl?

  - by Robert P

  Let's say I have a subroutine/method that a user can call to test some data that (as an example) might look like this: sub test_output { my ($self, $test) = @_; my $output = $self->long_process_to_get_data(); if ($output =~ /\Q$test/) { $self->assert_something(); } else { $self->do_something_else(); } } Normally, $test is a string, which we're looking for anywhere in the output. This was an interface put together to make calling it very easy. However, we've found that sometimes, a straight string is problematic - for example, a large, possibly varying number of spaces...a pattern, if you will. Thus, I'd like to let them pass in a regex as an option. I could just do: $output =~ $test if I could assume that it's always a regex, but ah, but the backwards compatibility! If they pass in a string, it still needs to test it like a raw string. So in that case, I'll need to test to see if $test is a regex. Is there any good facility for detecting whether or not a scalar has a compiled regex in it?

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• Is there a case for parameterising using Abstract classes rather than Interfaces?

  - by Chris

  I'm currently developing a component based API that is heavily stateful. The top level components implement around a dozen interfaces each. The stock top-level components therefore sit ontop of a stack of Abstract implementations which in turn contain multiple mixin implementations and implement multiple mixin interfaces. So far, so good (I hope). The problem is that the base functionality is extremely complex to implement (1,000s of lines in 5 layers of base classes) and therefore I do not wish for component writers to implement the interfaces themselves but rather to extend my base classes (where all the boiler plate code is already written). If the API therefore accepts interfaces rather than references to the Abstract implementation that I wish for component writers to extends, then I have a risk that the implementer will not perform the validation that is both required and assumed by other areas of code. Therefore, my question is, is it sometimes valid to paramerise API methods using an abstract implementation reference rather than a reference to the interface(s) that it implements? Do you have an example of a well-designed API that uses this technique or am I trying to talk myself into bad-practice?

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• How to use a variable in a function expression which is injected in a page?

  - by anonymous

  I'm trying to inject a function into a webpage via Chrome extension content script by: function inject(code) { var actualCode = '(' + code + ')();'; var script = document.createElement('script'); script.textContent = actualCode; (document.head||document.documentElement).appendChild(script); script.parentNode.removeChild(script); } var myObj = person; // myObj/person is passed in from elsewhere var fn = function() { alert(myObj.name); }; inject(fn); // myObj undefined My issue is, since fn is a function expression, I can't pass in myObj.personName. So my question is, how can I construct a function expression that includes a variable? Do I do some sort of string concatenation instead? I also tried to pass the object to the function, as follows: function inject(code, myObj) { var actualCode = '(' + code + ')(' + myObj +');'; ... But this did not work, and caused a "Uncaught SyntaxError: Unexpected identifier" error. Related: Building a Chrome Extension - Inject code in a page using a Content script

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