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• Zend Partial + Zend Action Helper causes an additional request to bootstrap?

  - by AndreLiem

  I've been profiling some zend framework code with webgrind to see where some bottle necks are and I'm noticing some very odd behavior. Using the zend partial for example, if I pass a variable value that comes from a zend action helper, it results in two requests being made. in sample.phtml echo $this->partial('partial/embed.phtml', array('url' => $this->url)); in indexcontroller.php $this->view->url = $this->_helper->Embed()->url; But if I don't pass the value from the helper to the partial, but still run the helper, it only makes one request in webgrind. e.g. $this->view->url = 'test'; $this->_helper->Embed()->url; Does anybody know why this could be happening? Am I potentially interpreting web grind incorrectly, or is it really calling the bootstrap twice when the an action helper value is tied to a partial? I'm starting to realize how inefficient some components of Zend are. Thanks

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• Developing Job References

  - by Joe Smith

  How do you develop references for jobs? I have 6 years of programming experience spanning two jobs, but sadly I don't have a lot of people I can draw on as references. It's been several years since I left my last job, which was at a small company, and I've lost touch with the few people I knew there. I now work at another small company. I think I've gone as far as I can in my current position, and would like to look for greener pastures, but I can't exactly use my current boss as a reference, even though I have a very good repore with him. I'm sure he'd make a great reference down the road, but I'm afraid I'd insult him or jeopardize my current job by mentioning that I'm thinking of leaving and would like him to help me. I've applied to some jobs, and I have gotten several replies like, "Oh, you're exactly what we're looking for. Send us a couple references and we'll schedule an interview. Oh, no references? You must be a psychopath, nevermind." I've tried doing some small freelance work on the side, just so I can have a contact who can vouch for my work, but the competition for even small projects is pretty fierce and I can rarely devote adequate time to freelancing while holding a full time job. In addition, I often encounter a Catch-22 where a lot of freelancing jobs also require references. So how do programmers maintain existing references and develop new ones, especially while holding a full time job?

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• Setting objct literal property value via asynchronous callback.

  - by typeof

  I'm creating a self-contained javascript utility object that detects advanced browser features. Ideally, my object would look something like this: Support = { borderRadius : false, // values returned by functions gradient : false, // i am defining dataURI : true }; My current problem deals with some code I'm adapting from Weston Ruter's site which detects dataURI support. It attempts to use javascript to create an image with a dataURI source, and uses onload/onerror callbacks to check the width/height. Since onload is asynchronous, I lose my scope and returning true/false does not assign true/false to my object. Here is my attempt: Support = { ... dataURI : function(prop) { prop = prop; // keeps in closure for callback var data = new Image(); data.onload = data.onerror = function(){ if(this.width != 1 || this.height != 1) { that = false; } that = true; } data.src = "data:image/gif;base64,R0lGODlhAQABAIAAAAAAAP///ywAAAAAAQABAAACAUwAOw=="; return -1; }(this) }; I'm executing the anonymous function immediately, passing this (which I hoped was a reference to Support.dataURI), but unfortunately references the window object -- so the value is always -1. I can get it to work by using an externally defined function to assign the value after the Support object is created... but I don't think it's very clean that way. Is there a way for it to be self-contained? Can the object literal's function reference the property it's assigned to?

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• How does the receiver of a cipher text know the IV used for encryption?

  - by PatrickL

  If a random IV is used in encrypting plain text, how does the receiver of the cipher text know what the IV is in order to decrypt it? This is a follow-up question to a response to the previous stackoverflow question on IVs here. The IV allows for plaintext to be encrypted such that the encrypted text is harder to decrypt for an attacker. Each bit of IV you use will double the possibilities of encrypted text from a given plain text. The point is that the attacker doesn't know what the IV is and therefore must compute every possible IV for a given plain text to find the matching cipher text. In this way, the IV acts like a password salt. Most commonly, an IV is used with a chaining cipher (either a stream or block cipher). ... So, if you have a random IV used to encrypt the plain text, how do you decrypt it? Simple. Pass the IV (in plain text) along with your encrypted text. Wait. You just said the IV is randomly generated. Then why pass it as plain text along with the encrypted text?

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• Adding an Array inside an array in a PHP function

  - by bateman_ap

  I have created a function in PHP that calls a webservice and parses through the result, assinging values to variables and returning them all as an Array. This all works perfectly, however I have come across a need to have an "array within my array" I am assigning values as below: $productName = $product->Name; $productID = $product->ID; $productArray = array( 'productName' => "$productName", 'productID' => "$productID" ); return $productArray; However I now have a piece of data that comes back with multiple results so I need to have a additional array to store these, I am getting the values from the returned XML using a foreach loop, however I want to be able to add them to the array with a name so I can reference them in the returned data, this is where I have a problem... $bestForLists = $product->BestFors; foreach( $bestForLists as $bestForList ) { $productBestFors = $bestForList->BestFor; foreach( $productBestFors as $productBestFor ) { $productBestForName = $productBestFor->Name; $productBestForID = $productBestFor->ID; } } I tried creating an array for these using the below code: $bestForArray[] = (array( "productBestForID" => "$productBestForID", "productBestForName" => "$productBestForName" )); And then at the end merging these together: $productArray= array_merge($productArray,$bestForArray); If I print out the returned value I get: Array ( [productName] => Test Product [productID] => 14128 [0] => Array ( [productBestForID] => 56647 [productBestForName] => Lighting ) [1] => Array ( [productBestForID] => 56648 [productBestForName] => Sound ) ) I would like to give the internal Array a name so I can reference it in my code, or is there a better way of doing this, at the moment I am using the following in my PHP page to get values: $productName = $functionReturnedValues['productName']; I would like to use the following to access the array I could then loop through: $bestForArray = $functionReturnedValues['bestForArray']; Hope someone can help

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• Getting a UIImage from MySQL using PHP and jSON

  - by Daniel

  I'm developing a little news reader that retrieves the info from a website by doing a POST request to a URL. The response is a jSON object with the unread-news. E.g. the last news on the App has a timeStamp of "2013-03-01". When the user refreshes the table, it POSTS "domain.com/api/api.php?newer-than=2013-03-01". The api.php script goes to the MySQL database and fetches all the news posted after 2013-03-01 and prints them json_encoded. This is // do something to get the data in an array echo $array_of_fetched_data; for example the response would be [{"title": "new app is coming to the market", "text": "lorem ipsum dolor sit amet...", image: XXX}] the App then gets the response and parses it, obtaining an NSDictionary and adds it to a Core Data db. NSDictionary* obtainedNews = [NSJSONSerialization JSONObjectWithData:responseData options:kNilOptions error:&error]; My question is: How can I add an image to the MySQL database, store it, pass it using jSON trough a POST HTTP Request and then interpret it as an UIImage. It's clear that to store an UIImage in CoreData, they must be transform into/from NSData. How can I pass the NSData back and forth to a MySQL db using php and jSON? How should I upload the image to the db? (Serialized, as a BLOB, etc)

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• How to get a JTextField event that started a pop up menu in Java ?

  - by Frank

  I have a JTextField that represents a day, such as "Sunday", when I left mouse click on it, it changes background color, when I right mouse click on it, a pop up menu comes up, after I click on a menu item, such as "1st of month", it gets the value, closes the menu and then change the bgcolor, my code looks like this : JTextField dayHeading=new JTextField("Su"); ...... final JPopupMenu Pmenu; JMenuItem menuItem; Pmenu=new JPopupMenu(); menuItem=new JMenuItem("1st of month"); Pmenu.add(menuItem); menuItem=new JMenuItem("2nd of month"); Pmenu.add(menuItem); ...... menuItem.addMouseListener(new MouseAdapter() { public void mouseReleased(final MouseEvent e) { System.out.println(((JMenuItem)e.getComponent()).getText()); onHeadingClicked(e); // Error : java.lang.ClassCastException: javax.swing.JMenuItem cannot be cast to javax.swing.JTextField // How to get the orininal JTextField event that started this pop up menu, so I can pass it onto onHeadingClicked() ? } }); ...... dayHeading.setEditable(false); dayHeading.setFocusable(false); dayHeading.addMouseListener(new MouseAdapter() { public void mouseReleased(final MouseEvent evt) { if (SwingUtilities.isLeftMouseButton(evt)) onHeadingClicked(evt); else if (SwingUtilities.isRightMouseButton(evt)) Pmenu.show(evt.getComponent(),evt.getX(),evt.getY()); } }); ...... void onHeadingClicked(final java.awt.event.MouseEvent evt) { final javax.swing.JTextField fld=(javax.swing.JTextField) evt.getSource(); ... } My question is : in the menuItem.addMouseListener section, how to get the orininal JTextField event that started this pop up menu, so I can pass it onto onHeadingClicked() ?

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• Developing ASP.Net User Control to be imported to SharePoint MOSS 2007

  - by Don Kirkham

  Apologies if this has been answered, but I could not find a similar question: I am developing a webpart for MOSS 2007. I am using WSPBuilder to built a visual webpart (ascx) and everything works fine, but the development/debug cycle is just painfully slow, so I'd like to know if it is possible (without being too painful) to develop the user control faster using an .Net Web Application project with all of the nice F5 debugging, then import the final product into my SharePoint visual webpart. The user control interacts with a LOB system (SQL) and does not reference the SharePoint API at all. (The reason I am building this as a webpart is because I don't need another web app to run this one page, so putting it into a webpart on a new webpart page on my existing site is the best solution IMO.) I would obviously need to import (reference?) my data access classes into my "temp" web app, but think that would not be too much trouble. I realize this will be extra effort to get this set up, but am thinking the payoff will be reduced development time of the actual user control using a little web application vs having to use the compile/build WSP/deploy WSP/reset ISS/test/make a change/repeat cycle that MOSS requires. (I guess SP2010/VS2010 has spoiled me with the native SharePoint tools available.)

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• Enum exeeding the 65535 bytes limit of static initializer... what's best to do?

  - by Daniel Bleisteiner

  I've started a rather large Enum of so called Descriptors that I've wanted to use as a reference list in my model. But now I've come across a compiler/VM limit the first time and so I'm looking for the best solution to handle this. Here is my error : The code for the static initializer is exceeding the 65535 bytes limit It is clear where this comes from - my Enum simply has far to much elements. But I need those elements - there is no way to reduce that set. Initialy I've planed to use a single Enum because I want to make sure that all elements within the Enum are unique. It is used in a Hibernate persistence context where the reference to the Enum is stored as String value in the database. So this must be unique! The content of my Enum can be devided into several groups of elements belonging together. But splitting the Enum would remove the unique safety I get during compile time. Or can this be achieved with multiple Enums in some way? My only current idea is to define some Interface called Descriptor and code several Enums implementing it. This way I hope to be able to use the Hibernate Enum mapping as if it were a single Enum. But I'm not even sure if this will work. And I loose unique safety. Any ideas how to handle that case?

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• dynamical binding or switch/case?

  - by kingkai

  A scene like this: I've different of objects do the similar operation as respective func() implements. There're 2 kinds of solution for func_manager() to call func() according to different objects Solution 1: Use virtual function character specified in c++. func_manager works differently accroding to different object point pass in. class Object{ virtual void func() = 0; } class Object_A : public Object{ void func() {}; } class Object_B : public Object{ void func() {}; } void func_manager(Object* a) { a->func(); } Solution 2: Use plain switch/case. func_manager works differently accroding to different type pass in typedef _type_t { TYPE_A, TYPE_B }type_t; void func_by_a() { // do as func() in Object_A } void func_by_b() { // do as func() in Object_A } void func_manager(type_t type) { switch(type){ case TYPE_A: func_by_a(); break; case TYPE_B: func_by_b(); default: break; } } My Question are 2: 1. at the view point of DESIGN PATTERN, which one is better? 2. at the view point of RUNTIME EFFCIENCE, which one is better? Especailly as the kinds of Object increases, may be up to 10-15 total, which one's overhead oversteps the other? I don't know how switch/case implements innerly, just a bunch of if/else? Thanks very much!

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• wpf observableCollection

  - by Asha

  I have an ObservableCollection which is dataContext for my treeview when I try to remove an Item from ObservableCollection I will get an error that Object reference not set to an instance of an object . can you please tell me why this error is happening and what is the solution thanks EDIT 1: The code is something like : class MyClass : INotifyPropertyChanged { //my class code here } public partial class UC_myUserControl : UserControl { private ObservableCollection<MyClass> myCollection = new ObservableCollection<MyClass>(); private void UserControl_Loaded(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { myCollection.add(new myClass); myTreeView.DataContext = myCollection ; } private void deleteItem() { myCollection.RemoveAt(0); //after removing I get error Which I guess should be something related //to interface update but I don't know how can I solve it } } Exception Detail : System.NullReferenceException was unhandled Message="Object reference not set to an instance of an object." Source="PresentationFramework" EDIT 3: I have a style which is for my treeitem to keep the treeitems expanded <Style TargetType="TreeViewItem"> <Setter Property="IsExpanded" Value="True" /> </Style> and with commenting this part I wont get any error !!! Now I want to change my question to why having this style is causing error ?

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• Going "behind Hibernate's back" to update foreign key values without an associated entity

  - by Alex Cruise

  Updated: I wound up "solving" the problem by doing the opposite! I now have the entity reference field set as read-only (insertable=false updatable=false), and the foreign key field read-write. This means I need to take special care when saving new entities, but on querying, the entity properties get resolved for me. I have a bidirectional one-to-many association in my domain model, where I'm using JPA annotations and Hibernate as the persistence provider. It's pretty much your bog-standard parent/child configuration, with one difference being that I want to expose the parent's foreign key as a separate property of the child alongside the reference to a parent instance, like so: @Entity public class Child { @Id @GeneratedValue Long id; @Column(name="parent_id", insertable=false, updatable=false) private Long parentId; @ManyToOne(cascade=CascadeType.ALL) @JoinColumn(name="parent_id") private Parent parent; private long timestamp; } @Entity public class Parent { @Id @GeneratedValue Long id; @OrderBy("timestamp") @OneToMany(mappedBy="parent", cascade=CascadeType.ALL, fetch=FetchType.LAZY) private List<Child> children; } This works just fine most of the time, but there are many (legacy) cases when I'd like to put an invalid value in the parent_id column without having to create a bogus Parent first. Unfortunately, Hibernate won't save values assigned to the parentId field due to insertable=false, updatable=false, which it requires when the same column is mapped to multiple properties. Is there any nice way to "go behind Hibernate's back" and sneak values into that field without having to drop down to JDBC or implement an interceptor? Thanks!

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• Django url rewrites and passing a parameter from Javascript

  - by William T Wild

  As a bit of a followup question to my previous , I need to pass a parameter to a view. This parameter is not known until the JS executes. In my URLConf: url(r'^person/device/program/oneday/(?P<meter_id>\d+)/(?P<day_of_the_week>\w+)/$', therm_control.Get_One_Day_Of_Current_Thermostat_Schedule.as_view(), name="one-day-url"), I can pass it this URL and it works great! ( thanks to you guys). http://127.0.0.1:8000/personview/person/device/program/oneday/149778/Monday/ In My template I have this: var one_day_url = "{% url personview:one-day-url meter_id=meter_id day_of_the_week='Monday' %}"; In my javascript: $.ajax({ type: 'GET', url: one_day_url , dataType: "json", timeout: 30000, beforeSend: beforeSendCallback, success: successCallback, error: errorCallback, complete: completeCallback }); When this triggers it works fine except I dont necessarily want Monday all the time. If I change the javascript to this: var one_day_url = "{% url personview:one-day-url meter_id=meter_id %}"; and then $.ajax({ type: 'GET', url: one_day_url + '/Monday/', dataType: "json", timeout: 30000, beforeSend: beforeSendCallback, success: successCallback, error: errorCallback, complete: completeCallback }); I get the Caught NoReverseMatch while rendering error. I assume because the URLconf still wants to rewrite to include the ?P\w+) . I seems like if I change the URL conf that breaks the abailty to find the view , and if I do what I do above it gives me the NoREverseMatch error. Any guidance would be appreciated.

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• Fetching just the Key/id from a ReferenceProperty in App Engine

  - by ozone

  Hi SO, I could use a little help in AppEngine land... Using the [Python] API I create relationships like this example from the docs: class Author(db.Model): name = db.StringProperty() class Story(db.Model): author = db.ReferenceProperty(Author) story = db.get(story_key) author_name = story.author.name As I understand it, that example will make two datastore queries. One to fetch the Story and then one to deference the Author inorder to access the name. But I want to be able to fetch the id, so do something like: story = db.get(story_key) author_id = story.author.key().id() I want to just get the id from the reference. I do not want to have to deference (therefore query the datastore) the ReferenceProperty value. From reading the documentation it says that the value of a ReferenceProperty is a Key Which leads me to think that I could just call .id() on the reference's value. But it also says: The ReferenceProperty model provides features for Key property values such as automatic dereferencing. I can't find anything that explains when this referencing takes place? Is it safe to call .id() on the ReferenceProperty's value? Can it be assumed that calling .id() will not cause a datastore lookup?

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• How do I keep users from spoofing data through a form?

  - by Jonathan

  I have a site which has been running for some time now that uses a great deal of user input to build the site. Naturally there are dozens of forms on the site. When building the site, I often used hidden form fields to pass data back to the server so that I know which record to update. an example might be: <input type="hidden" name="id" value="132" /> <input type="text" name="total_price" value="15.02" /> When the form is submitted, these values get passed to the server and I update the records based on the data passed (i.e. the price of record 132 would get changed to 15.02). I recently found out that you can change the attributes and values via something as simple as firebug. So...I open firebug and change the id value to "155" and the price value to "0.00" and then submit the form. Viola! I view product number 155 on the site and it now says that it's $0.00. This concerns me. How can I know which record to update without either a query string (easily modified) or a hidden input element passing the id to the server? And if there's no better way (I've seen literally thousands of websites that pass the data this way), then how would I make it so that if a user changes these values, the data on the server side is not executed (or something similar to solve the issue)? I've thought about encrypting the id and then decrypting it on the other side, but that still doesn't protect me from someone changing it and just happening to get something that matches another id in the database. I've also thought about cookies, but I've heard that those can be manipulated as well. Any ideas? This seems like a HUGE security risk to me.

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• Problem with UITextView

  - by user367039

  I have a strange problem with trying to pass a string from one viewcontroller to another view controller if the string originates from a UITextview instead of UITextfield. Both UITextview.text and UITextfield.text are of type NSString. The following code takes either Textfield.text or Textview.text depending on the fieldType and puts it into a string called aString. NSString *aString = [[NSString alloc] init]; if (fieldType == 3) { aString = textView.text; } else { aString = textField.text; } When I examine aString on either cases, I can see that it has successfully assigned the text into aString. I then pass the string to the other view controller using this code. [delegate updateSite:aString :editedFieldKey :fieldType]; [self.navigationController popViewControllerAnimated:YES]; This works fine if aString originated from textfield.text but nothing happens except the view controller is popped if aString was from textview.text This is the code that takes aString and does stuff with it, however it doesn't even execute the first line of code "NSLog(@"Returned object: %@, field type:%@", aString,editedFieldKey);" if aString was from textview.text Any help will be appreciated. -(void)updateSite:(NSString *)aString :(NSString *)editedFieldKey :(int)fieldType { NSLog(@"Returned object: %@, field type:%@", aString,editedFieldKey); switch (fieldType) { case 0: //string [aDiveSite setValue:aString forKey:editedFieldKey] ; NSLog(@"String set %@",[aDiveSite valueForKey:editedFieldKey] ); break; case 1: //int [aDiveSite setValue:[NSNumber numberWithInt:aString.intValue] forKey:editedFieldKey]; NSLog(@"Integer set"); break; case 2: //float NSLog(@"Saving floating value"); [aDiveSite setValue:[NSNumber numberWithFloat:aString.floatValue] forKey:editedFieldKey]; NSLog(@"Float set"); break; case 3: //Text view [aDiveSite setValue:aString forKey:editedFieldKey]; NSLog(@"Textview text saved"); default: break; } [self.tableView reloadData]; }

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• Manhattan Heuristic function for A-star (A*)

  - by Shawn Mclean

  I found this algorithm here. I have a problem, I cant seem to understand how to set up and pass my heuristic function. static public Path<TNode> AStar<TNode>(TNode start, TNode destination, Func<TNode, TNode, double> distance, Func<TNode, double> estimate) where TNode : IHasNeighbours<TNode> { var closed = new HashSet<TNode>(); var queue = new PriorityQueue<double, Path<TNode>>(); queue.Enqueue(0, new Path<TNode>(start)); while (!queue.IsEmpty) { var path = queue.Dequeue(); if (closed.Contains(path.LastStep)) continue; if (path.LastStep.Equals(destination)) return path; closed.Add(path.LastStep); foreach (TNode n in path.LastStep.Neighbours) { double d = distance(path.LastStep, n); var newPath = path.AddStep(n, d); queue.Enqueue(newPath.TotalCost + estimate(n), newPath); } } return null; } As you can see, it accepts 2 functions, a distance and a estimate function. Using the Manhattan Heuristic Distance function, I need to take 2 parameters. Do I need to modify his source and change it to accepting 2 parameters of TNode so I can pass a Manhattan estimate to it? This means the 4th param will look like this: Func<TNode, TNode, double> estimate) where TNode : IHasNeighbours<TNode> and change the estimate function to: queue.Enqueue(newPath.TotalCost + estimate(n, path.LastStep), newPath); My Manhattan function is: private float manhattanHeuristic(Vector3 newNode, Vector3 end) { return (Math.Abs(newNode.X - end.X) + Math.Abs(newNode.Y - end.Y)); }

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• JSF2.0: variable list of custom component

  - by rattaman

  Hello Is there any way of using JSF2.0 in connection with variable lists of components? For example, lets say I have list o people that I would like to edit. They are presented on the page as list of components PersonEditor, which allow changing person data. Each editor is associated with single Person element. In order for this to work I need to perform following steps: On initial request: Get list of people For each person create PersonEditor and associate it with Person object. Fill editor's data. On user action: When user changes values and presses Save, data is processed by backing bean. I can either fill editor with data from list of people or bind it to the backing bean, but not at the same time, so I am stuck. I tried people.xhtml <ui:render value="#{bean.people}" var="person"> <example:personEditor person="#{person}"/> </ui:render> where personEditor.xhtml: a) proper association with person object, but no connection to backing bean <h:form> <h:outputText value="#{cc.attr.person.name}"/> <h:commandButton name="Save" actionListener="editorBean.save"> <f:ajax execute="@form" render="@form"/> </h:commandButton> </h:form> b) no association with person object, but there is connection to backing bean - there is no way to pass that person to the backing bean <h:form> <h:outputText value="#{editorBean.name}"/> <h:commandButton name="Save" actionListener="editorBean.save"> <f:ajax execute="@form" render="@form"/> </h:commandButton> </h:form> If I had each editor on separate page, I could pass the person id as url parameter (either using f:param or f:attribute) and initialize it accordingly. Is there any solution to this problem?

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• Serving static media in django application

  - by Ed

  I notice that when I reference my java scripts and static image files from my templates, they show up in development, but not from the production server. From development, I access them as such: <img src="/my_proj/media/css/images/collapsed.png" /> but from production, I have to remove the project directory: <img src="/media/css/images/collapsed.png" /> I'm assuming I'm doing something wrong with regard to serving static media. I'm caught between a number of seemingly different options for serving static media in Django. On one hand, it's been recommended that I use django-staticfiles to serve media. On the other I see reference to STATIC_ROOT and STATIC_URL in the documentation (with caveats about use in production). I have small .png files of "plus" and "minus" symbols for use in some of my jQuery scripts. In addition, the scripts themselves need to be referenced. 1) Am I correctly categorizing scripts and site images as static media? 2) What is the best method to access this media (from production)?

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• Is there an x86 or x64 emulator that passes system calls back to the Windows API?

  - by Chris Lomont

  I want to emulate windows programs (not VM, true emulation) under windows. This would require the emulator to make calls back to the system APIs, but the program itself would be emulated. The reason is I want to change the opcode formats for research purposes. The process should be: Take existing program. Disassemble and then reassemble with my new opcode formats. Put the new format into the PE with a stub calling the emulator and passing the new code. The emulator would have to pass system calls from the emulated side back to windows API calls. I can do all these steps, except I need an open source emulator with the ability to pass the API calls out. I could try Bochs or QEMU, but I think I'd have to add in the system calls, which I could do if needed. I wonder if there is already something closer to what I need. I know I would have to change the instruction decoding in the emulator to match my new formats, but that is a given. Thanks.

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• XML Decryption Bug (referencing issue)

  - by OrangePekoe

  Hi, Needing some explanation of what exactly the decryption is doing, in addition to some help on solving the problem. Currently, when a portion of XML is encrypted, and then decrypted, the DOM appears to work correctly. We can see the element is encrypted and then see it return back once it is decrypted. Our problem lies when a user tries to change data in that same element after decryption has occurred. When a user changes some settings, data in the XML should change. However, if the user attempts to change an XML element that has been decrypted the changes are not reflected in the DOM. We have a reference pointer to the XML element that is used to bind the element to an object. If you encrypt the node and then decrypt it, the reference pointer now points to a valid orphaned XML element that is no longer part of the DOM. After decryption, there will be 2 copies of the XML element. One in the DOM as expected (though will not reflect new changes), and one orphaned element in memory that is still referenced by our pointer. The orphaned element is valid (reflects new changes). We can see that this orphaned element is owned by the DOM, but when we try to return its parent, it returns null. The question is: Where did this orphaned xml element come from? And how can we get it to correctly append (replace old data) to the DOM? The code resembles: public static void Decrypt(XmlDocument Doc, SymmetricAlgorithm Alg) { if (Doc == null) throw new ArgumentNullException("Doc"); if (Alg == null) throw new ArgumentNullException("Alg"); XmlElement encryptedElement = Doc.GetElementsByTagName("EncryptedData")[0] as XmlElement; if (encryptedElement == null) { throw new XmlException("The EncryptedData element was not found."); } EncryptedData edElement = new EncryptedData(); edElement.LoadXml(encryptedElement); EncryptedXml exml = new EncryptedXml(); byte[] rgbOutput = exml.DecryptData(edElement, Alg); exml.ReplaceData(encryptedElement, rgbOutput); }

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• IBM WESB/WAS JCA security configuration

  - by user594883

  I'm working with IBM tools. I have a Websphere ESB (WESB) and a CICS transaction gateway (CTG). The basic set-up is as follows: A SOAP service needs data from CICS. The SOAP-service is connecting to service bus (WESB) to handle data and protocol transformation and then WESB calls the CTG which in turn calls CICS and the reply is handled vice verse (synchronously). WESB calls the CTG using Resource Adapter and JCA connector (or CICS adapter as it is called in WESB). Now, I have all the pieces in place and working. My question is about the security, and even though I'm working with WESB, the answer is probably the same as in Websphere Application Server (WAS). The Resource Adaper is secured using JAAS - J2C authentication data. I have configured the security using J2C authentication data entry, so basically I have a reference in the application I'm running and at runtime the application does a lookup for the security attributes from the server. So basically I'm always accessing the CICS adapter with the same security reference. My problem is that I need to access the resource in more dynamic way in the future. The security cannot be welded into the application anymore but instead given as a parameter. Could some WESB or WAS guru help me out, how this could be done in WESB/WAS exactly?

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• Firefox proxy dilemma

  - by Mike L.

  Any idea why when using system proxy settings in firefox, it can not accept a proxy such as: user:[email protected]:port ??? IE will allow and connect to a proxy in this format. Not only does firefox not work, but it does not prompt for the password, nor attempt to make a connection to the proxy. Basically get a "proxy server not found" error. Anybody know a way around this? I am working on a proxy switching program for IE & Firefox, and I would like to use system-wide proxy settings. If I just store the server:port combination, firefox prompts for the password, as well as IE. Then they can be cached and it will not ask again. Maybe my only option is to programmatically cache the user/pass? Anybody know a way to do this? I am pretty sure IE stores them at HTTP basic authentication passwords and I can add them with AddCredential. After saving a password for a proxy in firefox, it shows up in saved passwords in a format like "moz-proxy://server:port" anybody know how to programmatically add a saved password to firefox? Thanks

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• CreateThread() fails on 64 bit Windows, works on 32 bit Windows. Why?

  - by Stephen Kellett

  Operating System: Windows XP 64 bit, SP2. I have an unusual problem. I am porting some code from 32 bit to 64 bit. The 32 bit code works just fine. But when I call CreateThread() for the 64 bit version the call fails. I have three places where this fails. 2 call CreateThread(). 1 calls beginthreadex() which calls CreateThread(). All three calls fail with error code 0x3E6, "Invalid access to memory location". The problem is all the input parameters are correct. HANDLE h; DWORD threadID; h = CreateThread(0, // default security 0, // default stack size myThreadFunc, // valid function to call myParam, // my param 0, // no flags, start thread immediately &threadID); All three calls to CreateThread() are made from a DLL I've injected into the target program at the start of the program execution (this is before the program has got to the start of main()/WinMain()). If I call CreateThread() from the target program (same params) via say a menu, it works. Same parameters etc. Bizarre. If I pass NULL instead of &threadID, it still fails. If I pass NULL as myParam, it still fails. I'm not calling CreateThread from inside DllMain(), so that isn't the problem. I'm confused and searching on Google etc hasn't shown any relevant answers. If anyone has seen this before or has any ideas, please let me know. Thanks for reading.

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• Message Handlers and the WeakReference issue

  - by user1058647

  The following message Handler works fine receiving messages from my service... private Handler handler = new Handler() { public void handleMessage(Message message) { Object path = message.obj; if (message.arg1 == 5 && path != null) //5 means its a single mapleg to plot on the map { String myString = (String) message.obj; Gson gson = new Gson(); MapPlot mapleg = gson.fromJson(myString, MapPlot.class); myMapView.getOverlays().add(new DirectionPathOverlay(mapleg.fromPoint, mapleg.toPoint)); mc.animateTo(mapleg.toPoint); } else { if (message.arg1 == RESULT_OK && path != null) { Toast.makeText(PSActivity.this, "Service Started" + path.toString(), Toast.LENGTH_LONG).show(); } else { Toast.makeText(PSActivity.this,"Service error" + String.valueOf(message.arg1), Toast.LENGTH_LONG).show(); } } }; }; However, even though it tests out alright in the AVD (I'm feeding it a large KML file via DDMS) the "object path = message.obj;" line has a WARNING saying "this Handler class should be static else leaks might occur". But if I say "static Handler handler = new Handler()" it won't compile complaining that I "cannot make a static reference to a non-static field myMapView. If I can't make such references, I can't do anything useful. This led me into several hours of googling around on this issue and learning more about weakReferences than I ever wanted to know. The often found reccomendation I find is that I should replace... private Handler handler = new Handler() with static class handler extends Handler { private final WeakReference<PSActivity> mTarget; handler(PSActivity target) { mTarget = new WeakReference<PSActivity>(target); } But this won't compile still complaining that I can't make a static reference to a non-dtatic field. So, my question a week or to ago was "how can I write a message handler for android so my service can send data to my activity. Even though I have working code, the question still stands with the suffix "without leaking memory". Thanks, Gary

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