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  • How do I update a NSTableView when its data source has changed?

    - by Jergason
    I am working along with Cocoa Programming For Mac OS X (a great book). One of the exercises the book gives is to build a simple to-do program. The UI has a table view, a text field to type in a new item and an "Add" button to add the new item to the table. On the back end I have a controller that is the data source and delegate for my NSTableView. The controller also implements an IBAction method called by the "Add" button. It contains a NSMutableArray to hold the to do list items. When the button is clicked, the action method fires correctly and the new string gets added to the mutable array. However, my data source methods are not being called correctly. Here they be: - (NSInteger)numberOfRowsInTableView:(NSTableView *)aTableView { NSLog(@"Calling numberOfRowsInTableView: %d", [todoList count]); return [todoList count]; } - (id)tableView:(NSTableView *)aTableView objectValueForTableColumn:(NSTableColumn *)aTableColumn row:(NSInteger)rowIndex { NSLog(@"Returning %@ to be displayed", [todoList objectAtIndex:rowIndex]); return [todoList objectAtIndex:rowIndex]; } Here is the rub. -numberOfRowsInTableView only gets called when the app first starts, not every time I add something new to the array. -objectValueForTableColumn never gets called at all. I assume this is because Cocoa is smart enough to not call this method when there is nothing to draw. Is there some method I need to call to let the table view know that its data source has changed, and it should redraw itself?

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  • How to return ArrayList results from an IntentService

    - by gcl1
    I have an IntentService that loads up an ArrayList with data from a network source (AWS SDB tables). The ArrayList is in a global space -- accessible to both the calling Activity and the IntentService (like this: appState = ((App)getApplicationContext())). When the IntentService is done, it notifies the Activity through a ResultReceiver, and the Activity calls adapter.notifyDataChanged() to update the ListView. This solution works most of the time, ... but it violates the rule that only the UI thread should make changes to data underlying a ListView. So as it is, I sometimes get an error: "The content of the adapter has changed but ListView did not receive a notification." I think this must be a common situation. Please let me know if you have any suggestions or best practices for this problem. Here are three options I'm aware of: Keep the IntentService, and have it store the results in another "working" ArrayList, also in the global space. When the result is ready, the IntentService calls the ResultReceiver (on the UI thread), which can then: a) copy the result to the ArrayList associated with the ListView, and b) call adapter.notifyDataChanged(). CONS: I don't like the idea of putting temp/working data in a global space, and copying the result list seems inefficient. Keep the IntentService, and have it pass the results back through a bundle loaded with a ParcelableArrayList. CONS: I'm not sure if this approach would scale for very large result sets. It also requires copying the result list. Switch to a Service which builds a local copy of the result list. Have the Activity directly access the address space of the Service in order to read the result list. CON: Still requires copying results to the ArrayList associated with the ListView. Thank you.

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  • Route WCF ServiceHost to another computer

    - by I2nfo
    GoodDay, I'm not a guru when it comes to WCF, but i do know the basics. My question is, how do i create a ServiceHost on machine X, while the code is on machine Y? if i build and run this code on my dev machine(localhost) : servicehost = new ServiceHost(typeof(MyService1)); servicehost.AddServiceEndpoint(typeof(IMyService1), new NetTcpBinding(),"net.tcp://my.datacenter.com/MyApp/MyService1"); //This is normally set to localhost. What implementation must be done on the datacenter server, so that if i had to point to http://my.datacenter.com/MyApp/MyService1 , it will route the service operation to my dev machine (localhost). However, the datacenter should not be accessible via the internet. It is a possible infrastructure that we researching to see if we can create a service bus type architecture so that all our customers can invoke other customer services running on their respective machines just by calling our datacenter url. We have looked at Windows Azure, but we have our own datacenter infrasture that we wish to leverage off. Come think of it, we kind of building our own Azure, on a very very basic scale. How does one go creating this? Thanks in Advance

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  • How can I receive mouse events when a wrapped control has set capture?

    - by Greg
    My WndProc isn't seeing mouse-up notifications when I click with a modifier key (shift or control) pressed. I see them without the modifier key, and I see mouse-down notifications with the modifier keys. I'm trying to track user actions in a component I didn't write, so I'm using the Windows Forms NativeWindow wrapper (wrapping the component) to get Windows messages from the WndProc() method. I've tried tracking the notifications I do get, and I the only clue I see is WM_CAPTURECHANGED. I've tried calling SetCapture when I receive the WM_LBUTTONDOWN message, but it doesn't help. Without modifier (skipping paint, timer and NCHITTEST messages): WM_PARENTNOTIFY WM_MOUSEACTIVATE WM_MOUSEACTIVATE WM_SETCURSOR WM_LBUTTONDOWN WM_SETCURSOR WM_MOUSEMOVE WM_SETCURSOR WM_LBUTTONUP With modifier (skipping paint, timer and NCHITTEST messages): WM_KEYDOWN WM_PARENTNOTIFY WM_MOUSEACTIVATE WM_MOUSEACTIVATE WM_SETCURSOR WM_LBUTTONDOWN WM_SETCURSOR (repeats) WM_KEYDOWN (repeats) WM_KEYUP If I hold the mouse button down for a long time, I can usually get a WM_LBUTTONUP notification, but it should be possible to make it more responsive.. Edit: I've tried control-clicking outside of the component of interest and moving the cursor into it before releasing the mouse button, and then I do get a WM_LBUTTONUP notification, so it looks like the component is capturing the mouse on mouse-down. Is there any way to receive that notification when another window has captured the mouse? Thanks.

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  • c++ use of winmain()

    - by Jack
    Hi, I just started learning programming for windows in c++. I had this crazy image, that win32 programming is based on calling windows functions and sending parameters to and from them. Like, when you want to create window, you call some win32 function that handles windows GUI and say "Hi, please, create me new window, 100 x 100 px, with two buttons", and that GUI function says "Hi, no problem, when something happends, like user clicks one button, I will change this variable xy located in this location". So, I thought that it will be very similiar to console programming. But the very first instruction surprised me. I always thought that every program executes main() function first. So, when I launch app, windows stores some parameters on top of stack and run that application. So I assumed that initializing main() is just a c++ way to tell the compiler where the first instruction should be. But in win32 programming, there is function called winmain() which starts first. So I am little confused. I thought it´s rule that compiler must have main() to start with, that main just defines where ti start, like some start point identifier. So, please, why is there winmain() function instead of main()? When I thought that C++ programming is as logical as assembler, it confuses me once again.

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  • c++ use of winmain()

    - by Jack
    Hi, I just started learning programming for windows in c++. I had this crazy image, that win32 programming is based on calling windows functions and sending parameters to and from them. Like, when you want to create window, you call some win32 function that handles windows GUI and say "Hi, please, create me new window, 100 x 100 px, with two buttons", and that GUI function says "Hi, no problem, when something happends, like user clicks one button, I will change this variable xy located in this location". So, I thought that it will be very similiar to console programming. But the very first instruction surprised me. I always thought that every program executes main() function first. So, when I launch app, windows stores some parameters on top of stack and run that application. So I assumed that initializing main() is just a c++ way to tell the compiler where the first instruction should be. But in win32 programming, there is function called winmain() which starts first. So I am little confused. I thought it´s rule that compiler must have main() to start with, that main just defines where ti start, like some start point identifier. So, please, why is there winmain() function instead of main()? When I thought that C++ programming is as logical as assembler, it confuses me once again.

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  • Automaticaly update ActiveRecord object

    - by Aleksandr Koss
    I have same models: class Father < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :children end class Child < ActiveRecord::Base  belongs_to :father end Then do something like that: $ script/console test Loading test environment (Rails 2.3.5) >> @f1 = Father.create :test => "Father" => #<Father id: 1, test: "Father", created_at: "2010-03-30 08:01:41", updated_at: "2010-03-30 08:01:41"> >> @f2 = Father.find :first => #<Father id: 1, test: "Father", created_at: "2010-03-30 08:01:41", updated_at: "2010-03-30 08:01:41"> >> @f1 == @f2 => true >> @f1.children => [] >> @f2.children => [] >> @f1.children.create :test => "Child1" => #<Child id: 1, test: "Child1", father_id: 1, created_at: "2010-03-30 08:02:15", updated_at: "2010-03-30 08:02:15"> >> @f1.children => [#<Child id: 1, test: "Child1", father_id: 1, created_at: "2010-03-30 08:02:15", updated_at: "2010-03-30 08:02:15">] >> @f2.children => [] >> @f2.reload => #<Father id: 1, test: "Father", created_at: "2010-03-30 08:01:41", updated_at: "2010-03-30 08:01:41"> >> @f2.children => [#<Child id: 1, test: "Child1", father_id: 1, created_at: "2010-03-30 08:02:15", updated_at: "2010-03-30 08:02:15">] As you see rails cache @f2 object. To get actual data we should call reload. There is a way to automatically reload @f2 after children update without calling method "reload"?

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  • In Ruby, why is a method invocation not be able to be treated as a unit when "do" and "end" is used?

    - by Jian Lin
    The following question is related to the question "Ruby Print Inject Do Syntax". My question is, can we insist on using do and end and make it work with puts or p? This works: a = [1,2,3,4] b = a.inject do |sum, x| sum + x end puts b # prints out 10 so, is it correct to say, inject is a class method of the Array class, which takes a block of code, and then returns a number. If so, then it should be no different from calling a function and getting back a return value: b = foo(3) puts b or b = circle.getRadius() puts b In the above two cases, we can directly say puts foo(3) puts circle.getRadius() so, there is no way to make it work directly by using the following 2 ways: a = [1,2,3,4] puts a.inject do |sum, x| sum + x end but it gives ch01q2.rb:7:in `inject': no block given (LocalJumpError) from ch01q2.rb:4:in `each' from ch01q2.rb:4:in `inject' from ch01q2.rb:4 grouping the method call using ( ) doesn't work either: a = [1,2,3,4] puts (a.inject do |sum, x| sum + x end) and this gives: ch01q3.rb:4: syntax error, unexpected kDO_BLOCK, expecting ')' puts (a.inject do |sum, x| ^ ch01q3.rb:4: syntax error, unexpected '|', expecting '=' puts (a.inject do |sum, x| ^ ch01q3.rb:6: syntax error, unexpected kEND, expecting $end end) ^ finally, the following version works: a = [1,2,3,4] puts a.inject { |sum, x| sum + x } but why doesn't the grouping of the method invocation using ( ) work in the earlier example? What if a programmer insist that he uses do and end, can it be made to work?

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  • Python: Convert format string to regular expression

    - by miracle2k
    The users of my app can configure the layout of certain files via a format string. For example, the config value the user specifies might be: layout = '%(group)s/foo-%(locale)s/file.txt' I now need to find all such files that already exist. This seems easy enough using the glob module: glob_pattern = layout % {'group': '*', 'locale': '*'} glob.glob(glob_pattern) However, now comes the hard part: Given the list of glob results, I need to get all those filename-parts that matched a given placeholder, for example all the different "locale" values. I thought I would generate a regular expression for the format string that I could then match against the list of glob results (or then possibly skipping glob and doing all the matching myself). But I can't find a nice way to create the regex with both the proper group captures, and escaping the rest of the input. For example, this might give me a regex that matches the locales: regex = layout % {'group': '.*', 'locale': (.*)} But to be sure the regex is valid, I need to pass it through re.escape(), which then also escapes the regex syntax I have just inserted. Calling re.escape() first ruins the format string. I know there's fnmatch.translate(), which would even give me a regex - but not one that returns the proper groups. Is there a good way to do this, without a hack like replacing the placeholders with a regex-safe unique value etc.? Is there possibly some way (a third party library perhaps?) that allows dissecting a format string in a more flexible way, for example splitting the string at the placeholder locations?

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  • Common Lisp condition system for transfer of control

    - by Ken
    I'll admit right up front that the following is a pretty terrible description of what I want to do. Apologies in advance. Please ask questions to help me explain. :-) I've written ETLs in other languages that consist of individual operations that look something like: // in class CountOperation IEnumerable<Row> Execute(IEnumerable<Row> rows) { var count = 0; foreach (var row in rows) { row["record number"] = count++; yield return row; } } Then you string a number of these operations together, and call The Dispatcher, which is responsible for calling Operations and pushing data between them. I'm trying to do something similar in Common Lisp, and I want to use the same basic structure, i.e., each operation is defined like a normal function that inputs a list and outputs a list, but lazily. I can define-condition a condition (have-value) to use for yield-like behavior, and I can run it in a single loop, and it works great. I'm defining the operations the same way, looping through the inputs: (defun count-records (rows) (loop for count from 0 for row in rows do (signal 'have-value :value `(:count ,count @,row)))) The trouble is if I want to string together several operations, and run them. My first attempt at writing a dispatcher for these looks something like: (let ((next-op ...)) ;; pick an op from the set of all ops (loop (handler-bind ((have-value (...))) ;; records output from operation (setq next-op ...) ;; pick a new next-op (call next-op))) But restarts have only dynamic extent: each operation will have the same restart names. The restart isn't a Lisp object I can store, to store the state of a function: it's something you call by name (symbol) inside the handler block, not a continuation you can store for later use. Is it possible to do something like I want here? Or am I better off just making each operation function explicitly look at its input queue, and explicitly place values on the output queue?

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  • javascript: "Object doesn't support this property or method" when ActiveX object called.

    - by agnieszka
    I've got simple html on Login.aspx with an ActiveX object: <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html> <head><title></title> <script language="javaScript" type="text/javascript"> function getUserInfo() { var userInfo = MyActiveX.GetInfo(); form1.info.value = userInfo; form1.submit(); } </script> </head> <body onload="javascript:getUserInfo()"> <object id="MyActiveX" name="MyActiveX" codebase="MyActiveX.cab" classid="CLSID:C63E6630-047E-4C31-H457-425C8412JAI25"></object> <form name="form1" method="post" action="Login.aspx"> <input type="hidden" id="info" name="info" value="" /> </form> </body> </html> The code works perfectly fine on my machine (edit: hosted and run), it does't work on the other: there is an error "Object doesn't support this property or method" in the first line of javascript function. The cab file is in the same folder as the page file. I don't know javascript at all and have no idea why is the problem occuring. Googling didn't help. Do you ave any idea? Edit: on both machines IE was used and activex was enabled. Edit2: I also added if (document.MyActiveX) at the beggining of the function and I still get error in the same line of code - I mean it looks like document.MyActiveX is true but calling the method still fails

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  • Updating Android Tab Icons

    - by lnediger
    I have an activity which has a TabHost containing a set of TabSpecs each with a listview containing the items to be displayed by the tab. When each TabSpec is created, I set an icon to be displayed in the tab header. The TabSpecs are created in this way within a setupTabs() method which loops to create the appropriate number of tabs: TabSpec ts = mTabs.newTabSpec("tab"); ts.setIndicator("TabTitle", iconResource); ts.setContent(new TabHost.TabContentFactory( { public View createTabContent(String tag) { ... } }); mTabs.addTab(ts); There are a couple instances where I want to be able to change the icon which is displayed in each tab during the execution of my program. Currently I am deleting all the tabs, and calling the above code again to re-create them. mTabs.getTabWidget().removeAllViews(); mTabs.clearAllTabs(true); setupTabs(); Is there a way to replace the icon that is being displayed without deleting and re-creating all of the tabs?

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  • Problem with jquery #find on partial postback

    - by anonymous
    I have a third party component. It is a calendar control. I have a clientside event on it which fires javascript to show a popup menu. I do everything client side so I can use MVC. dd function MouseDown(oDayView, oEvent, element) { try { e = oEvent.event; var rightClick = (e.button == 2); if (rightClick) { var menu = $find("2_menuSharedCalPopUp"); menu.showAt(200, 200, e); } } catch (err) { alert("MouseDown() err: " + err.description); } } The javascript fires perfectly withe $find intially. I have another clientside method which updates the calendar via a partial postback. Once I have done this all subsequent MouseDowns( rightclicks) which use the $find statment error with 'null'. All similar problems people have out there seem to be around calling javascript after a postback - with solutions being re-registering an event using PageRequestManager or registering a clientside function on the server - et cetera. However, the event is firing, and the javascript working - it's the reference in the DOM that seems an issue. Any ideas?

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  • How do I add code automatically to a derived function in C++

    - by Ian
    I have code that's meant to manage operations on both a networked client and a server, since there is significant overlap between the two. However, there are a few functions here and there that are meant to be exclusively called by the client or server, and accidentally calling a client function on the server (or vice versa) is a significant source of bugs. To reduce these sorts of programming errors, I'm trying to tag functions so that they'll raise a ruckus if they're misused. My current solution is a simple macro at the start of each function that calls an assert if the client or server accesses members they shouldn't. However, this runs into problems when there are multiple derived instances of classes, in that I have to tag the implementation as client or server side in EVERY child class. What I'd like to be able to do is put a tag in the virtual member's signature in the base class, so that I only have to tag it once and not run into errors by forgetting to do it repeatedly. I've considered putting a check in a base class implementation and then referring to it with something like base::functionName, but that runs into the same issue as far as needing to manually add the function call to every implementation. Ideally, I'd be able to have parent versions of the function called automatically like default constructors do. Does anybody know how to achieve something like this in C++? Is there an alternate approach I should be considering? Thanks!

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  • Doing a POST to a Service Operation in ADO.NET data services

    - by DataServices123
    Is it possible to POST to a service operation defined in an ADO.NET data service (it is decorated with WebInvoke)? I had no problem calling the service operation as an HTTP GET. However, when I switched to doing a POST, the stack trace consistently comes back with "Parameter cannot be NULL". I am using the jQuery syntax below, and sending the POST as JSON (though I'm not including the $.ajax call, the parameter names line up exactly). It would be possible to try this with WCF, as opposed to ADO.NET data services (newly renamed as WCF data services). However, my preference would be to use this approach first. I have tried this with and without the stringify method. Most examples online only show how to use a POST to entities (i.e. for handling CRUD operations). However, in this case we are POSTing to a Service Operation. function PostToDataService() { varType = "POST"; varUrl = "http://dev-server/MyServices/MyService.svc/SampleSO"; varData = { CustomMessage: $("#TextBox1").val() }; varData = JSON.stringify(varData); varContentType = "application/json; charset=utf-8"; varDataType = "json"; varProcessData = true; CallService(); }

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  • Using the Loader display object to load X jpegs, then resize each of the images differently while th

    - by Supernovah
    Hey there, I was wondering if this is possible to do I am able to load the image in and have it displayed easily enough by using addChild(myLoader); where myLoader is in the classWide private scope. The problem is, whenever I call my function inside that class which adds the loader to the stage, it clears the old one and puts this new one in even if I add a bit where I change myLoader.name to something related to how many images it has completed. This is a serious hinderance as I can't do anything besides KNOW how many images I will need to load and write the code X times. The problem being is that the urls are read from an XML file. My main desire was to have a classWide private Array which contained my loaders and I would assign them using myArray.push(myLoader) each time the load had completed. There is a problem which is that it compiles but they never get displayed it would work as this is written public class Images extends Sprite { private var imagesLoaded = 0; private var myLoader:Loader; ... public function Images():Void { myLoader = new Loader; //loop calling a myLoader.load(imageURL) for a bunch of urls myLoader.contentLoaderInfo.addEventListener(Event.COMPLETE, imageLoaded); } public function imageLoaded { myArray[imagesLoaded] = myLoader; trace("does\'nt get to here!!"); addChild(myArray[imagesLoaded]); imagesLoaded++; } }

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  • CONSOLE appender was turned off. But JBoss still writes some traces to STDOUT

    - by Vladimir Bezugliy
    CONSOLE appender was turned off. But JBoss still writes some traces to STDOUT during startup. Why? C:\as\jboss-5.1.0.GA\bin>start.cmd Calling C:\as\jboss-5.1.0.GA\bin\run.conf.bat =============================================================================== JBoss Bootstrap Environment JBOSS_HOME: C:\as\jboss-5.1.0.GA JAVA: C:\as\jdk1.6.0_07\bin\java JAVA_OPTS: -Dprogram.name=run.bat -Xms512M -Xmx758M -XX:MaxPermSize=256M -server CLASSPATH: C:\as\jboss-5.1.0.GA\bin\run.jar =============================================================================== 13:11:25,080 INFO [ServerImpl] Starting JBoss (Microcontainer)... 13:11:25,080 INFO [ServerImpl] Release ID: JBoss [The Oracle] 5.1.0.GA (build: SVNTag=JBoss_5_1_0_GA date=200905221053) 13:11:25,080 INFO [ServerImpl] Bootstrap URL: null 13:11:25,080 INFO [ServerImpl] Home Dir: C:\as\jboss-5.1.0.GA 13:11:25,080 INFO [ServerImpl] Home URL: file:/C:/as/jboss-5.1.0.GA/ 13:11:25,080 INFO [ServerImpl] Library URL: file:/C:/as/jboss-5.1.0.GA/lib/ 13:11:25,080 INFO [ServerImpl] Patch URL: null 13:11:25,080 INFO [ServerImpl] Common Base URL: file:/C:/as/jboss-5.1.0.GA/common/ 13:11:25,080 INFO [ServerImpl] Common Library URL: file:/C:/as/jboss-5.1.0.GA/common/lib/ 13:11:25,080 INFO [ServerImpl] Server Name: web 13:11:25,080 INFO [ServerImpl] Server Base Dir: C:\as\jboss-5.1.0.GA\server 13:11:25,080 INFO [ServerImpl] Server Base URL: file:/C:/as/jboss-5.1.0.GA/server/ 13:11:25,080 INFO [ServerImpl] Server Config URL: file:/C:/as/jboss-5.1.0.GA/server/web/conf/ 13:11:25,080 INFO [ServerImpl] Server Home Dir: C:\as\jboss-5.1.0.GA\server\web 13:11:25,080 INFO [ServerImpl] Server Home URL: file:/C:/as/jboss-5.1.0.GA/server/web/ 13:11:25,080 INFO [ServerImpl] Server Data Dir: C:\as\jboss-5.1.0.GA\server\web\data ...

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  • Classic ASP application-wide initializations and object caching

    - by slack3r
    In classic ASP (which I am forced to use), I have a few factory functions, that is, functions that return classes. I use JScript. In one include file I use these factory functions to create some classes that are used throughout the application. This include file is included with the #include directive in all pages. These factory functions do some "heavy lifting" and I don't want them to be executed on every page load. So, to make this clear I have something like this: // factory.inc function make_class(arg1, arg2) { function klass() { //... } // ... Some heavy stuff return klass; } // init.inc, included everywhere <!-- #include FILE="factory.inc" --> // ... MyClass1 = make_class(myarg01, myarg02); MyClass2 = make_class(myarg11, myarg12); //... How can I achieve the same effect without calling make_class on every page load? I know that I can't cache the classes in the Application object I can't use the Application_OnStart hook in Global.asa I could probably create a scripting component, but I really don't want to do that So, is there something else I can do? Maybe some way to achieve caching of these classes, which are really objects in JScript. PS: [further clarification] In the above code "heavy stuff" is not so heavy, but I just want to know if there's a way to avoid it being executed all the time. It reads database meta information, builds a table of the primary keys in the database and another table that resolves strings to classes, etc.

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  • Runing bcdedit from python in Windows 2008 SP2

    - by Lee-Man
    I do not know windows well, so that may explain my dilemma ... I am trying to run bcdedit in Windows 2008R2 from Python 2.6. My Python routine to run a command looks like this: def run_program(cmd_str): """Run the specified command, returning its output as an array of lines""" dprint("run_program(%s): entering" % cmd_str) cmd_args = cmd_str.split() subproc = subprocess.Popen(cmd_args, stdout=subprocess.PIPE, stderr=subprocess.PIPE, shell=True) (outf, errf) = (subproc.stdout, subproc.stderr) olines = outf.readlines() elines = errf.readlines() if Options.debug: if elines: dprint('Error output:') for line in elines: dprint(line.rstrip()) if olines: dprint('Normal output:') for line in olines: dprint(line.rstrip()) errf.close() outf.close() res = subproc.wait() dprint('wait result=', res) return (res, olines) I call this function thusly: (res, o) = run_program('bcdedit /set {current} MSI forcedisable') This command works when I type it from a cmd window, and it works when I put it in a batch file and run it from a command window (as Administrator, of course). But when I run it from Python (as Administrator), Python claims it can't find the command, returning: bcdedit is not recognized as an internal or external command, operable program or batch file Also, if I trying running my batch file from Python (which works from the command line), it also fails. I've also tried it with the full path to bcdedit, with the same results. What is it about calling bcdedit from Python that makes it not found? Note that I can call other EXE files from Python, so I have some level of confidence that my Python code is sane ... but who knows. Any help would be most appreciated.

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  • How to get child nodes after store load

    - by Azincourt
    Version: ExtJs 4.1 To change the child items I use this function: TreeStore (Ext.data.TreeStore) storeId : 'treeStore', ... constructor: function( oConfig ) { ... this.on( 'expand', function( oObj ) { oObj.eachChild(function(oNode) { switch(oNode.data.type) { case "report": oNode.set('icon', strIconReport); break; case "view": oNode.set('icon', strIconView); break; } }); }); Reload After removing or adding items in the tree, I reload the tree somewhere else with: var oStore = Ext.getStore('treeStore'); oStore.load({ node : oNode, params : { newpath : oNode.data.path, overwrite : true } }); Although it is the same store treeStore, after loading and expanding to the correct path, the icons are not changed since the .on( 'expand') function is not called. Why? Question How can I change the icons of this newly loaded store before it expands to the node path? What I tried Before calling .load() I tried to edit the children with oNode.eachChild(function(oChild) {} but no success.

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  • iPhone: Does it ever make sense for an object to retain its delegate?

    - by randombits
    According to the rules of memory management in a non garbage collected world, one is not supposed to retain a the calling object in a delegate. Scenario goes like this: I have a class that inherits from UITableViewController and contains a search bar. I run expensive search operations in a secondary thread. This is all done with an NSOperationQueue and subclasses NSOperation instances. I pass the controller as a delegate that adheres to a callback protocol into the NSOperation. There are edge cases when the application crashes because once an item is selected from the UITableViewController, I dismiss it and thus its retain count goes to 0 and dealloc gets invoked on it. The delegate didn't get to send its message in time as the results are being passed at about the same time the dealloc happens. Should I design this differently? Should I call retain on my controller from the delegate to ensure it exists until the NSOperation itself is dealloc'd? Will this cause a memory leak? Right now if I put a retain on the controller, the crashes goes away. I don't want to leak memory though and need to understand if there are cases where retaining the delegate makes sense. Just to recap. UITableViewController creates an NSOperationQueue and NSOperation that gets embedded into the queue. The UITableViewController passes itself as a delegate to NSOperation. NSOperation calls a method on UITableViewController when it's ready. If I retain the UITableViewController, I guarantee it's there, but I'm not sure if I'm leaking memory. If I only use an assign property, edge cases occur where the UITableViewController gets dealloc'd and objc_msgSend() gets called on an object that doesn't exist in memory and a crash is imminent.

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  • cancelPreviousPerformRequestWithTarget is not canceling my previously delayed thread started with pe

    - by jmurphy
    Hello, I've launched a delayed thread using performSelector but the user still has the ability to hit the back button on the current view causing dealloc to be called. When this happens my thread still seems to be called which causes my app to crash because the properties that thread is trying to write to have been released. To solve this I am trying to call cancelPreviousPerformRequestsWithTarget to cancel the previous request but it doesn't seem to be working. Below are some code snippets. - (void) viewDidLoad { [self performSelector:@selector(myStopUpdatingLocation) withObject:nil afterDelay:6]; } (void)viewWillDisappear:(BOOL)animated { [NSObject cancelPreviousPerformRequestsWithTarget:self selector:@selector(myStopUpdatingLocation) object:nil]; } Am I doing something incorrect here? The method myStopUpdatingLocation is defined in the same class that I'm calling the perform requests. A little more background. The function that I'm trying to implement is to find a users location, search google for some locations around that location and display several annotations on the map. On viewDidLoad I start updating the location with CLLocationManager. I've build in a timeout after 6 seconds if I don't get my desired accuracy within the timeout and I'm using a performSelector to do this. What can happen is the user clicks the back button in the view and this thread will still execute even though all my properties have been released causing a crash. Thanks in advance! James

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  • Using javascript and php together

    - by EmmyS
    I have a PHP form that needs some very simple validation on submit. I'd rather do the validation client-side, as there's quite a bit of server-side validation that happens to deal with writing form values to a database. So I just want to call a javascript function onsubmit to compare values in two password fields. This is what I've got: function validate(form){ var password = form.password.value; var password2 = form.password2.value; alert("password:"+password+" password2:" + password2); if (password != password2) { alert("not equal"); document.getElementByID("passwordError").style.display="inline"; return false; } alert("equal"); return true; } The idea being that a default-hidden div containing an error message would be displayed if the two passwords don't match. The alerts are just to display the values of password and password2, and then again to indicate whether they match or not (will not be used in production code). I'm using an input type=submit button, and calling the function in the form tag: <form action="<?php echo $_SERVER['PHP_SELF']; ?>" method="post" onsubmit="return validate(this);"> Everything is alerting as expected when entering non-matching values. I would have hoped (and assumed, based on past use) that if the function returned false, the actual submit would not occur. And yet, it is. I'm testing by entering non-matching values in the password fields, and the alerts clearly show me the values and the not equal result, but the actual form action is still occurring and it's trying to write to my database. I'm pretty new at PHP; is there something about it that will not let me combine with javascript this way? Would it be better to use an input type=button and include submit() in the function itself if it returns true?

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  • How to properly use Object Contexts in Entity Framework using BackgroundWorker

    - by OffApps Cory
    Good day, I am developing using Entity Framework and WPF, and I am encountering some errors and I don't know why. When saving a record (using a BackgroundWorker), I set the entities change tracker to nothing (null), attach the record to a new disposable context, save it, detach, and dispose of the context. Saving a record fires and event in the MainViewModel of the program that the other ViewModels (including the one that is saving) need to refresh their entities to reflect changes. Private Sub _saveRecordWorker_DoWork(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As System.ComponentModel.DoWorkEventArgs) Handles _saveRecordWorker.DoWork Using MyContext As New RVShippingEntities Dim MyShipment = CType(ShipmentRecord, IEntityWithChangeTracker) MyShipment.SetChangeTracker(Nothing) MyContext.Attach(MyShipment) MyContext.Detach(ShipmentRecord) End Using End Sub The Refresh background worker is similar, but it has a Do While block to keep it from interfering with the save worker (which doesn't appear to be working; hence the post). When I save (and it subsequently refreshes) I get the following error: The calling thread cannot access this object because a different thread owns it. I thought that with the DoWhile block, it would wait (and when i step through it does) until the save thread finished, and all would be good. But it would seem that something (either the main thread or the save thread) is still doing something that is interfering. Is there a better way of doing this? Am I doing it is a goofy kludgey fashion? Any help would be appreciated. (Apparently Firefox recognized kludgey as a word. Interesting)

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  • How to specify allowed exceptions in WCF's configuration file?

    - by tucaz
    Hello! I´m building a set of WCF services for internal use through all our applications. For exception handling I created a default fault class so I can return treated message to the caller if its the case or a generic one when I have no clue what happened. Fault contract: [DataContract(Name = "DefaultFault", Namespace = "http://fnac.com.br/api/2010/03")] public class DefaultFault { public DefaultFault(DefaultFaultItem[] items) { if (items == null || items.Length== 0) { throw new ArgumentNullException("items"); } StringBuilder sbItems = new StringBuilder(); for (int i = 0; i Specifying that my method can throw this exception so the consuming client will be aware of it: [OperationContract(Name = "PlaceOrder")] [FaultContract(typeof(DefaultFault))] [WebInvoke(UriTemplate = "/orders", BodyStyle = WebMessageBodyStyle.Bare, ResponseFormat = WebMessageFormat.Json, RequestFormat = WebMessageFormat.Json, Method = "POST")] string PlaceOrder(Order newOrder); Most of time we will use just .NET to .NET communication with usual binds and everything works fine since we are talking the same language. However, as you can see in the service contract declaration I have a WebInvoke attribute (and a webHttp binding) in order to be able to also talk JSON since one of our apps will be built for iPhone and this guy will talk JSON. My problem is that whenever I throw a FaultException and have includeExceptionDetails="false" in the config file the calling client will get a generic HTTP error instead of my custom message. I understand that this is the correct behavior when includeExceptionDetails is turned off, but I think I saw some configuration a long time ago to allow some exceptions/faults to pass through the service boundaries. Is there such thing like this? If not, what do u suggest for my case? Thanks a LOT!

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