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  • UIViewController memory management

    - by jAmi
    Hi I have a very basic issue of memory management with my UIViewController (or any other object that I create); The problem is that in Instruments my Object allocation graph is always rising even though I am calling release on then assigning them nil. I have 2 UIViewController sub-classes each initializing with a NIB; I add the first ViewController to the main window like [window addSubView:first.view]; Then in my first ViewController nib file I have a Button which loads the second ViewController like : -(IBAction)loadSecondView{ if(second!=nil){ //second is set as an iVar and @property (nonatomic, retain)ViewController2* sceond; [second release]; second=nil; } second=[[ViewController2* second]initWithNibName:@"ViewController2" bundle:nil]; [self.view addSubView:second.view]; } In my (second) ViewController2 i have a button with an action method -(IBAction) removeSecond{ [self.view removeFromSuperView]; } Please let me know if the above scheme works in a managed way for memory...? In Instruments It does not show release of any allocation and keeps the bar status graph keeps on rising.

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  • Values are not returning from MY SQL database to my java class

    - by sam
    Hi, This is my Query DELIMITER $$ DROP PROCEDURE IF EXISTSdiscoverdb.getuser_info$$ # MySQL returned an empty result set (i.e. zero rows). `CREATE PROCEDURE discoverdb.getuser_info ( IN name VARCHAR(100), IN pass VARCHAR(100) ) BEGIN SELECT * FROM ad_user WHERE sLogin = name AND sPassHash=password(pass); END $$ # MySQL returned an empty result set (i.e. zero rows). DELIMITER ; This is my calling method public Authentication getAuthentication (String username,String password) { //TODO write your implementation code here: Authentication ack = new Authentication(); try{ String simpleProc = "{ call getuser_infosam(?,?)}"; java.sql.CallableStatement cs = con.prepareCall(simpleProc); cs.setString(1, username); cs.setString(2, password); java.sql.ResultSet rs = cs.executeQuery(); while (rs.next()) { System.out.println(rs.getString("sLogin")); System.out.println(rs.getString("sPassHash")); System.out.println(rs.getString("sForename")); System.out.println(rs.getString("sName")); System.out.println(rs.getString("company")); System.out.println(rs.getString("sEmail")); rs.close();} }catch ( Exception e) { e.printStackTrace(); System.out.print(e); } return ack; }

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  • Use Django ORM as standalone [closed]

    - by KeyboardInterrupt
    Possible Duplicates: Use only some parts of Django? Using only the DB part of Django I want to use the Django ORM as standalone. Despite an hour of searching Google, I'm still left with several questions: Does it require me to set up my Python project with a setting.py, /myApp/ directory, and modules.py file? Can I create a new models.py and run syncdb to have it automatically setup the tables and relationships or can I only use models from existing Django projects? There seems to be a lot of questions regarding PYTHONPATH. If you're not calling existing models is this needed? I guess the easiest thing would be for someone to just post a basic template or walkthrough of the process, clarifying the organization of the files e.g.: db/ __init__.py settings.py myScript.py orm/ __init__.py models.py And the basic essentials: # settings.py from django.conf import settings settings.configure( DATABASE_ENGINE = "postgresql_psycopg2", DATABASE_HOST = "localhost", DATABASE_NAME = "dbName", DATABASE_USER = "user", DATABASE_PASSWORD = "pass", DATABASE_PORT = "5432" ) # orm/models.py # ... # myScript.py # import models.. And whether you need to run something like: django-admin.py inspectdb ... (Oh, I'm running Windows if that changes anything regarding command-line arguments.).

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  • how to send binary data within an xml string

    - by daemonkid
    I want to send a binary file to .net c# component in the following xml format <BinaryFileString fileType='pdf'> <!--binary file data string here--> </BinaryFileString> In the component that is called I will use the above xml string and convert the binary string recieved within the BinaryFileString tag, into a file as specified by the filetype='' attribute. The file type could be doc/pdf/xls/rtf I have the code in the calling application to get out the bytes from the file to be sent. How do I prepare it to be sent with xml tags wrapped around it? I want the application to send out a string to the component and not a byte stream. This is because there is no way I can decipher the file type [pdf/doc/xls] by just looking at the byte stream. Hence the xml string with the filetype attribute. Any ideas on this? method for extracting Bytes below FileStream fs = new FileStream(_filePath, FileMode.Open, FileAccess.Read); using (Stream input = fs) { byte[] buffer = new byte[8192]; int bytesRead; while ((bytesRead = input.Read(buffer, 0, buffer.Length)) > 0) { } } return buffer; Thanks.

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  • accessing a method from a button within a class?

    - by flo
    #import "GameObject.h" #import "Definitions.h" @implementation GameObject @synthesize owner; @synthesize state; @synthesize mirrored; @synthesize button; @synthesize switcher; - (id) init { if ( self = [super init] ) { [self setOwner: EmptyField]; button = [UIButton buttonWithType:UIButtonTypeCustom]; [self setSwitcher: FALSE]; } return self; } - (UIButton*) display{ button.frame = CGRectMake(0, 0, GO_Width, GO_Height); [button setBackgroundImage:[UIImage imageNamed:BlueStone] forState:UIControlStateNormal]; [button addTarget:self action:@selector(buttonPressed:) forControlEvents:UIControlEventTouchUpInside]; return button; } -(void)buttonPressed:(id) sender { //... } } - (void) dealloc { [super dealloc]; } @end Hi! i would like to know if the above is possible somehow within a class (in my case it is called GameObject) or if i HAVE to have the button call a methode in the viewcontroller... the above results with the app crashing. i would call display within a loop on the viewcontroller and id like to change some of the GameObjects instance variables within buttonPressed. Also id like to change some other stuff by calling some other methods from within buttonPressed but i think that will be the lesser of my problems ;) also id like to know how i can pass some variables to the buttonPressed method... cant find it anywhere :( help on this one would be much appreciated ;) thanks flo

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  • Partially constructed object / Multi threading

    - by reto
    Heya! I'm using joda due to it's good reputation regarding multi threading. It goes great distances to make multi threaded date handling efficient, for example by making all Date/Time/DateTime objects immutable. But here's a situation where I'm not sure if Joda is really doing the right thing. It probably is correct, but I'd be very interested to see the explanation for it. When a toString() of a DateTime is being called Joda does the following: /* org.joda.time.base.AbstractInstant */ public String toString() { return ISODateTimeFormat.dateTime().print(this); } All formatters are thread safe, as they are as well ready-only. But what's about the formatter-factory: private static DateTimeFormatter dt; /* org.joda.time.format.ISODateTimeFormat */ public static DateTimeFormatter dateTime() { if (dt == null) { dt = new DateTimeFormatterBuilder() .append(date()) .append(tTime()) .toFormatter(); } return dt; } This is a common pattern in single threaded applications. I see the following dangers: Race condition during null check -- worst case: two objects get created. No Problem, as this is solely a helper object (unlike a normal singleton pattern situation), one gets saved in dt, the other is lost and will be garbage collected sooner or later. the static variable might point to a partially constructed object before the objec has been finished initialization (before calling me crazy, read about a similar situation in this Wikipedia article. So how does Joda ensure that not partially created formatter gets published in this static variable? Thanks for your explanations! Reto

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  • correct format for function prototype

    - by yCalleecharan
    Hi, I'm writing to a text file using the following declaration: void create_out_file(char file_name[],long double *z1){ FILE *out; int i; if((out = fopen(file_name, "w+")) == NULL){ fprintf(stderr, "***> Open error on output file %s", file_name); exit(-1); } for(i = 0; i < ARRAY_SIZE; i++) fprintf(out, "%.16Le\n", z1[i]); fclose(out); } Where z1 is an long double array of length ARRAY_SIZE. The calling function is: create_out_file("E:/first67/jz1.txt", z1); I defined the prototype as: void create_out_file(char file_name[], long double z1[]); which I'm putting before "int main" but after the preprocessor directives. My code works fine. I was thinking of putting the prototype as void create_out_file(char file_name[],long double *z1). Is this correct? *z1 will point to the first array element of z1. Is my declaration and prototype good programming practice? Thanks a lot...

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  • NullPointerException with Servlet

    - by RonaDona
    I am calling a Servlet using its URL address. This is the URL I am typing http://localhost:7001/ryan/olympics?action=selectCatalog&id=1 This is the Servlet's URL for sure; if I change the address I get page not found This is the code for the Servlet. public class Servlet extends javax.servlet.http.HttpServlet implements javax.servlet.Servlet { private static final long serialVersionUID = 1L; public Servlet() { super(); } public void init(ServletConfig config) throws ServletException { System.out.println("*** initializing controller servlet."); super.init(config); } protected void doPost(HttpServletRequest request, HttpServletResponse response) throws ServletException, IOException { String action = request.getParameter("action"); if (action.equals("selectCatalog")) { String categoryId = request.getParameter("id"); ProductModelDAO dao4 = new ProductModelDAOImpl("jpac"); if (categoryId != null && !categoryId.trim().equals("")) { CategoryDAO dao1 = new CategoryDAOImpl("jpac"); try { Category category = dao1.getCategoryName(categoryId); request.setAttribute("category", category); } catch (Exception e) { e.printStackTrace(); } } try { @SuppressWarnings("unchecked") List<Product> products = dao4 .getProductsByCategory(categoryId); request.setAttribute("products", products); } catch (Exception e) { e.printStackTrace(); } url = "SelectCatalog.jsp"; RequestDispatcher requestDispatcher = getServletContext().getRequestDispatcher(url); requestDispatcher.forward(request, response); I get the NullPointerException pointing to the RequestDispatcher's line. Any help?

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  • How to debug problems in Linux kernel module `init()`?

    - by Kimvais
    I am using remote (k)gdb to debug a problem in a module that causes a panic when loaded e.g. when init() is called. The stack trace just shows that do_one_initcall(mod->init) causes the crash. In order to get the symbol file loaded in the gdb, I need to get the address of the module text section, and to get that I need to get the module loaded. Because the insmod in busybox (1.16.1) doesn't support -m so I'm stuck to grep modulename /proc/modules + adding the offset from nm to figure out the address. So I'm facing a sort a of a chicken and an egg problem here - to be able to debug the module loading, I need to get the module loaded - but in order to get the module loaded, I need to debug the problem... So I am currently thinking about two options - is there a way to get the address information either: by printk() in the module init code by printk() somewhere in the kernel code all this prior to calling the mod->init() - so I could place a breakpoint there, load the symbol file, hit c and see it crash and burn...

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  • how can I know current viewcontroller name in iphone

    - by Shikhar
    I have BaseView which implement UIViewController. Every view in project must implement this BaseView. In BaseView, I have method: -(void) checkLoginStatus { defaults = [[NSUserDefaults alloc] init]; if(![[defaults objectForKey:@"USERID"] length] > 0 ) { Login *login=[[Login alloc] initWithNibName:@"Login" bundle:nil]; [self.navigationController pushViewController:login animated:TRUE]; [login release]; } [defaults release]; } The problem is my Login view also implement BaseView, checks for login, and again open LoginView i.e. stuck in to recursive calling. Can I check in checkLoginStatus method if request is from LoginView then take no action else check login. Ex: (void) checkLoginStatus { if(SubView is NOT Login){ defaults = [[NSUserDefaults alloc] init]; if(![[defaults objectForKey:@"USERID"] length] 0 ) { Login *login=[[Login alloc] initWithNibName:@"Login" bundle:nil]; [self.navigationController pushViewController:login animated:TRUE]; [login release]; } [defaults release]; } } Please help..

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  • Google Maps API v3 not working

    - by user1496322
    I've been banging my head on the wall after going through the documentation on this several times! I can't seem to get past the API error to get the map to appear on my site. I am getting the following error message from the web page where I want the map to be displayed: ~~~~~~~~~~~ Google has disabled use of the Maps API for this application. The provided key is not a valid Google API Key, or it is not authorized for the Google Maps Javascript API v3 on this site. If you are the owner of this application, you can learn about obtaining a valid key here: https://developers.google.com/maps/documentation/javascript/tutorial#Obtaining_Key ~~~~~~~~~~~ I have (several times now) gone into my account and 1) enabled the Maps v3 API service. 2) Generated a new API key. and 3) added my allowed referrers to the key. (both www.domain.com and domain.com URLs) I have the following added to the head of the web page: < script src="http://maps.googleapis.com/maps/api/js?sensor=false&key=MY_API_KEY_HERE" type="text/JavaScript" language="JavaScript" And... I have the following javascript function that executes when a link is clicked on the page: alert("viewMap()"); var map = new GMap3(document.getElementById("map_canvas")); var geocoder = new GClientGeocoder(); var address = "1600 Amphitheatre Parkway, Mountain View"; alert("Calling getLatLng ..."); geocoder.getLatLng(address, function(point) { var latitude = point.y; var longitude = point.x; // do something with the lat lng alert("Lat:"+latitude+" - Lng:"+longitude); }); The initial 'viewMap' alert is displayed and then is followed by the 'Google has disbled use...' error message. The error console is also showing 'GMap3 is not defined'. Can anyone please assist with showing me the errors of my ways?!?!? Thank you in advance for any help you can provide. -Dennis

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  • Problem creating a custom input element using FluentHtml (MVCContrib)

    - by seth
    Hi there, I just recently started dabbling in ASP.NET MVC 1.0 and came across the wonderful MVCContrib. I had originally gone down the path of creating some extended html helpers, but after finding FluentHTML decided to try my hand at creating a custom input element. Basically I am wanting to ultimately create several custom input elements to make it easier for some other devs on the project I'm working on to add their input fields to the page and have all of my preferred markup to render for them. So, in short, I'd like to wrap certain input elements with additional markup.. A TextBox would be wrapped in an <li /> for example. I've created my custom input elements following Tim Scott's answer in another question on here: DRY in the MVC View. So, to further elaborate, I've created my class, "TextBoxListItem": public class TextBoxListItem : TextInput<TextBox> { public TextBoxListItem (string name) : base(HtmlInputType.Text, name) { } public TextBoxListItem (string name, MemberExpression forMember, IEnumerable<IBehaviorMarker> behaviors) : base(HtmlInputType.Text, name, forMember, behaviors) { } public override string ToString() { var liBuilder = new TagBuilder(HtmlTag.ListItem); liBuilder.InnerHtml = ToString(); return liBuilder.ToString(TagRenderMode.SelfClosing); } } I've also added it to my ViewModelContainerExtensions class: public static TextBox TextBoxListItem<T>(this IViewModelContainer<T> view, Expression<Func<T, object>> expression) where T : class { return new TextBoxListItem(expression.GetNameFor(view), expression.GetMemberExpression(), view.Behaviors) .Value(expression.GetValueFrom(view.ViewModel)); } And lastly, I've added it to ViewDataContainerExtensions as well: public static TextBox TextBoxListItem(this IViewDataContainer view, string name) { return new TextBox(name).Value(view.ViewData.Eval(name)); } I'm calling it in my view like so: <%= this.TextBoxListItem("username").Label("Username:") %> Anyway, I'm not getting anything other than the standard FluentHTML TextBox, not wrapped in <li></li> elements. What am I missing here? Thanks very much for any assistance.

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  • ajax login problem

    - by rdanee
    $(document).ready(function() { $("form#login_form").submit(function() { var login_username = $('#login_username').attr('value'); var login_password = $('#login_password').attr('value'); type: "POST", $.ajax({ url: "login.php", data: "username="+ login_username +"& password="+ login_password, success: function(data){ alert(data); if (data == "ok"){ $('form#login_form').hide(function(){$('div.success').fadeIn();}); } } }); return false; }); Login.php: <?php include("settings.php"); $query = "select * from users where username = '{$_POST['login_username']}' and password = md5('{$_POST['login_password']}')"; $query = mysql_query($query, $connection); if ( mysql_num_rows($query) == 1 ) { print "ok"; $array = mysql_fetch_array($query); if ( $_POST['stay'] ) { $time = time()+2592000; } else { $time = 0; } } else { print "no"; } mysql_close($connection); ?> My problem: In the alert the message always "no" whether username/password is correct, however on the site "ok" appears when username/pw is correct. I have read the other questions in connection with this problem, but I couldn't solve the response problem from login.php with Json. Could you help me how should I response to the ajax calling? ( with a code if it is possible) Thank you very much, and sorry for questioning again.

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  • Is it possible to defer member initialization to the constructor body?

    - by Kjir
    I have a class with an object as a member which doesn't have a default constructor. I'd like to initialize this member in the constructor, but it seems that in C++ I can't do that. Here is the class: #include <boost/asio.hpp> #include <boost/array.hpp> using boost::asio::ip::udp; template<class T> class udp_sock { public: udp_sock(std::string host, unsigned short port); private: boost::asio::io_service _io_service; udp::socket _sock; boost::array<T,256> _buf; }; template<class T> udp_sock<T>::udp_sock(std::string host = "localhost", unsigned short port = 50000) { udp::resolver res(_io_service); udp::resolver::query query(udp::v4(), host, "spec"); udp::endpoint ep = *res.resolve(query); ep.port(port); _sock(_io_service, ep); } The compiler tells me basically that it can't find a default constructor for udp::socket and by my research I understood that C++ implicitly initializes every member before calling the constructor. Is there any way to do it the way I wanted to do it, or is it too "Java-oriented" and not feasible in C++? I worked around the problem by defining my constructor like this: template<class T> udp_sock<T>::udp_sock(std::string host = "localhost", unsigned short port = 50000) : _sock(_io_service) { udp::resolver res(_io_service); udp::resolver::query query(udp::v4(), host, "spec"); udp::endpoint ep = *res.resolve(query); ep.port(port); _sock.bind(ep); } So my question is more out of curiosity and to better understand OOP in C++

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  • Using C++ DLL in C# project

    - by Frank
    Hello, I got a C++ dll which has to be integrated in a C# project. I think I found the correct way to do it, but calling the dll gives me this error: System.BadImageFormatException: An attempt was made to load a program with an incorrect format. (Exception from HRESULT: 0x8007000B) This is the function in the dll: extern long FAR PASCAL convert (LPSTR filename); And this is the code I'm using in C# namespace Test{ public partial class Form1 : Form { [DllImport("convert.dll", SetLastError = true)] static extern Int32 convert([MarshalAs(UnmanagedType.LPStr)] string filename); private void button1_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { // generate textfile string filename = "testfile.txt"; StreamWriter sw = new StreamWriter(filename); sw.WriteLine("line1"); sw.WriteLine("line2"); sw.Close(); // add checksum Int32 ret = 0; try { ret = convert(filename); Console.WriteLine("Result of DLL: {0}", ret.ToString()); } catch (Exception ex) { lbl.Text = ex.ToString(); } } }} Any ideas on how to proceed with this? Thanks a lot, Frank

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  • Hibernate is persisting entity during flush when the entity has not changed

    - by Preston
    I'm having a problem where the entity manger is persisting an entity that I don't think has changed during the flush. I know the following code is the problem because if I comment it out the entity doesn't persist. In this code all I'm doing is loading the entity and calling some getters. Query qry = em.createNamedQuery("Clients.findByClientID"); qry.setParameter("clientID", clientID); Clients client = (Clients) qry.getSingleResult(); results.setFname(client.getFirstName()); results.setLname(client.getLastName()); ... return results; Later in a different method I do another namedQuery which causes the entity manger to flush. For some reason the client loaded above is persisted. The reason this is a problem is because in the middle of all this, there is some old code that is making some straight JDBC changes to the client. When the entity manger persists the changes made by the straight JDBC are lost. The theory we have at moment is that the entity manger is comparing the entity to the underlying record, sees that it's different, then persists it. Can someone explain or confirm the behavior we're seeing?

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  • Python - Checking for membership inside nested dict

    - by victorhooi
    heya, This is a followup questions to this one: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2901422/python-dictreader-skipping-rows-with-missing-columns Turns out I was being silly, and using the wrong ID field. I'm using Python 3.x here. I have a dict of employees, indexed by a string, "directory_id". Each value is a nested dict with employee attributes (phone number, surname etc.). One of these values is a secondary ID, say "internal_id", and another is their manager, call it "manager_internal_id". The "internal_id" field is non-mandatory, and not every employee has one. (I've simplified the fields a little, both to make it easier to read, and also for privacy/compliance reasons). The issue here is that we index (key) each employee by their directory_id, but when we lookup their manager, we need to find managers by their "internal_id". Before, when employee.keys() was a list of internal_ids, I was using a membership check on this. Now, the last part of my if statement won't work, since the internal_ids is part of the dict values, instead of the key itself. def lookup_supervisor(manager_internal_id, employees): if manager_internal_idis not None and manager_internal_id!= "" and manager_internal_id in employees.keys(): return (employees[manager_internal_id]['mail'], employees[manager_internal_id]['givenName'], employees[manager_internal_id]['sn']) else: return ('Supervisor Not Found', 'Supervisor Not Found', 'Supervisor Not Found') So the first question is, how do I check whether the manager_internal_id is present in the dict's values. I've tried substituting employee.keys() with employee.values(), that didn't work. Also, I'm hoping for something a little more efficient, not sure if there's a way to get a subset of the values, specifically, all the entries for employees[directory_id]['internal_id']. Hopefully there's some Pythonic way of doing this, without using a massive heap of nested for/if loops. My second question is, how do I then cleanly return the required employee attributes (mail, givenname, surname etc.). My for loop is iterating over each employee, and calling lookup_supervisor. I'm feeling a bit stupid/stumped here. def tidy_data(employees): for directory_id, data in employees.items(): # We really shouldnt' be passing employees back and forth like this - hmm, classes? data['SupervisorEmail'], data['SupervisorFirstName'], data['SupervisorSurname'] = lookup_supervisor(data['manager_internal_id'], employees) Thanks in advance =), Victor

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  • Why is a NullReferenceException thrown when a ToolStrip button is clicked twice with code in the `Click` event handler?

    - by Patrick
    I created a clean WindowsFormsApplication solution, added a ToolStrip to the main form, and placed one button on it. I've added also an OpenFileDialog, so that the Click event of the ToolStripButton looks like the following: private void toolStripButton1_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { openFileDialog1.ShowDialog(); } I didn't change any other properties or events. The funny thing is that when I double-click the ToolStripButton (the second click must be quite fast, before the dialog opens), then cancel both dialogs (or choose a file, it doesn't really matter) and then click in the client area of main form, a NullReferenceException crashes the application (error details attached at the end of the post). Please note that the Click event is implemented while DoubleClick is not. What's even more strange that when the OpenFileDialog is replaced by any user-implemented form, the ToolStripButton blocks from being clicked twice. I'm using VS2008 with .NET3.5. I didn't change many options in VS (only fontsize, workspace folder and line numbering). Does anyone know how to solve this? It is 100% replicable on my machine, is it on others too? One solution that I can think of is disabling the button before calling OpenFileDialog.ShowDialog() and then enabling the button back (but it's not nice). Any other ideas? And now the promised error details: System.NullReferenceException was unhandled Message="Object reference not set to an instance of an object." Source="System.Windows.Forms" StackTrace: at System.Windows.Forms.NativeWindow.WindowClass.Callback(IntPtr hWnd, Int32 msg, IntPtr wparam, IntPtr lparam) at System.Windows.Forms.UnsafeNativeMethods.PeekMessage(MSG& msg, HandleRef hwnd, Int32 msgMin, Int32 msgMax, Int32 remove) at System.Windows.Forms.Application.ComponentManager.System.Windows.Forms.UnsafeNativeMethods.IMsoComponentManager.FPushMessageLoop(Int32 dwComponentID, Int32 reason, Int32 pvLoopData) at System.Windows.Forms.Application.ThreadContext.RunMessageLoopInner(Int32 reason, ApplicationContext context) at System.Windows.Forms.Application.ThreadContext.RunMessageLoop(Int32 reason, ApplicationContext context) at System.Windows.Forms.Application.Run(Form mainForm) at WindowsFormsApplication1.Program.Main() w C:\Users\Marchewek\Desktop\Workspaces\VisualStudio\WindowsFormsApplication1\Program.cs:line 20 at System.AppDomain._nExecuteAssembly(Assembly assembly, String[] args) at System.AppDomain.ExecuteAssembly(String assemblyFile, Evidence assemblySecurity, String[] args) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.HostingProcess.HostProc.RunUsersAssembly() at System.Threading.ThreadHelper.ThreadStart_Context(Object state) at System.Threading.ExecutionContext.Run(ExecutionContext executionContext, ContextCallback callback, Object state) at System.Threading.ThreadHelper.ThreadStart() InnerException:

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  • Cannot access Class methods from previous windows form - C#

    - by George
    I am writing an app, still, where I need to test some devices every minute for 30 minutes. It made sense to use a timer set to kick off every 60 secs and do whats required in the event handler. However, I need the app to wait for the 30 mins until I have finished with the timer since the following code alters the state of the devices I am trying to monitor. I obviously don't want to use any form of loop to do this. I thought of using another windows form, since I also display the progress, which will simply kick off the timer and wait until its complete. The problem I am having with this is that I use a device Class and cant seem to get access to the methods in the device class from the 2nd (3rd actually - see below) windows form. I have an initial windows form where I get input from the user, then call the 2nd windows form where it work out which tests need to be done and which device classes need to be used, and then I want to call the 3rd windows form to handle the timer. I will have up to 6-7 device classes and so wanted to only instantiate them when actually requiring them, from the 2nd form. Should I have put this logic into the 1st windows form (program class ??) ? Would I not still have the problem of not being able to access device class methods from there too ? Anyway, perhaps someone knows of a better way to do the checks every minute without the rest of the code executing (and changing the status of the devices) or how I should be accessing the methods in the app ?? Well that's the problem, I cant get that part of it to work correctly. Here is the definition for the calling form including the device class - namespace NdtStart { public partial class fclsNDTCalib : Form { NDTClass NDT = new NDTClass(); public fclsNDTCalib() (new fclsNDTTicker(NDT)).ShowDialog(); Here is the class def for the called form - namespace NdtStart { public partial class fclsNDTTicker : Form { public fclsNDTTicker() I tried lots but couldn't get the arguments to work.

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  • Why do InterruptedExceptions clear a thread's interrupted status?

    - by Hanno Fietz
    If a thread is interrupted while inside Object.wait() or Thread.join(), it throws an InterruptedException, which resets the thread's interrupted status. I. e., if I have a loop like this inside a Runnable.run(): while (!this._workerThread.isInterrupted()) { // do something try { synchronized (this) { this.wait(this._waitPeriod); } } catch (InterruptedException e) { if (!this._isStopping()) { this._handleFault(e); } } } the thread will continue to run after calling interrupt(). This means I have to explicitly break out of the loop by checking for my own stop flag in the loop condition, rethrow the exception, or add a break. Now, this is not exactly a problem, since this behaviour is well documented and doesn't prevent me from doing anything the way I want. However, I don't seem to understand the concept behind it: Why is a thread not considered interrupted anymore once the exception has been thrown? A similar behaviour also occurs if you get the interrupted status with interrupted() instead of isInterrupted(), then, too, the thread will only appear interrupted once. Am I doing something unusual here? For example, is it more common to catch the InterruptedException outside the loop? (Even though I'm not exactly a beginner, I tagged this "beginner", because it seems like a very basic question to me, looking at it.)

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  • adapting combination code for larger list

    - by vbNewbie
    I have the following code to generate combinations of string for a small list and would like to adapt this for a large list of over 300 string words.Can anyone suggest how to alter this code or to use a different method. Public Class combinations Public Shared Sub main() Dim myAnimals As String = "cat dog horse ape hen mouse" Dim myAnimalCombinations As String() = BuildCombinations(myAnimals) For Each combination As String In myAnimalCombinations 'Look on the Output Tab for the results! Console.WriteLine("(" & combination & ")") Next combination Console.ReadLine() End Sub Public Shared Function BuildCombinations(ByVal inputString As String) As String() 'Separate the sentence into useable words. Dim wordsArray As String() = inputString.Split(" ".ToCharArray) 'A plase to store the results as we build them Dim returnArray() As String = New String() {""} 'The 'combination level' that we're up to Dim wordDistance As Integer = 1 'Go through all the combination levels... For wordDistance = 1 To wordsArray.GetUpperBound(0) 'Go through all the words at this combination level... For wordIndex As Integer = 0 To wordsArray.GetUpperBound(0) - wordDistance 'Get the first word of this combination level Dim combination As New System.Text.StringBuilder(wordsArray(wordIndex)) 'And all all the remaining words a this combination level For combinationIndex As Integer = 1 To wordDistance combination.Append(" " & wordsArray(wordIndex + combinationIndex)) Next combinationIndex 'Add this combination to the results returnArray(returnArray.GetUpperBound(0)) = combination.ToString 'Add a new row to the results, ready for the next combination ReDim Preserve returnArray(returnArray.GetUpperBound(0) + 1) Next wordIndex Next wordDistance 'Get rid of the last, blank row. ReDim Preserve returnArray(returnArray.GetUpperBound(0) - 1) 'Return combinations to the calling method. Return returnArray End Function End Class

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  • c# delegate and abstract class

    - by BeraCim
    Hi all: I currently have 2 concrete methods in 2 abstract classes. One class contains the current method, while the other contains the legacy method. E.g. // Class #1 public abstract class ClassCurrent<T> : BaseClass<T> where T : BaseNode, new() { public List<T> GetAllRootNodes(int i) { //some code } } // Class #2 public abstract class MyClassLegacy<T> : BaseClass<T> where T : BaseNode, new() { public List<T> GetAllLeafNodes(int j) { //some code } } I want the corresponding method to run in their relative scenarios in the app. I'm planning to write a delegate to handle this. The idea is that I can just call the delegate and write logic in it to handle which method to call depending on which class/project it is called from (at least thats what I think delegates are for and how they are used). However, I have some questions on that topic (after some googling): 1) Is it possible to have a delegate that knows the 2 (or more) methods that reside in different classes? 2) Is it possible to make a delegate that spawns off abstract classes (like from the above code)? (My guess is a no, since delegates create concrete implementation of the passed-in classes) 3) I tried to write a delegate for the above code. But I'm being technically challenged: public delegate List GetAllNodesDelegate(int k); GetAllNodesDelegate del = new GetAllNodesDelegate(ClassCurrent.GetAllRootNodes); I got the following error: An object reference is required for the non-static field, method, property ClassCurrent<BaseNode>.GetAllRootNodes(int) I might have misunderstood something... but if I have to manually declare a delegate at the calling class, AND to pass in the function manually as above, then I'm starting to question whether delegate is a good way to handle my problem. Thanks.

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  • How can I find out if the MainActivity is being paused from my Java class?

    - by quinestor
    I am using motion sensor detection in my application. My design is this: a class gets the sensor services references from the main activity and then it implements SensorEventListener. That is, the MainActivity does not listen for sensor event changes: public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { // ... code mSensorManager = (SensorManager) getSystemService(Context.SENSOR_SERVICE); mAccelerometer = mSensorManager.getDefaultSensor(Sensor.TYPE_ACCELEROMETER); // The following is my java class, it does not extends any android fragment/activty mShakeUtil = new ShakeUtil(mSensorManager,mAccelerometer,this); // ..more code.. } I can't redesign ShakeUtil so it is a fragment nor activity, unfortunately. Now to illustrate the problem consider: MainActivity is on its way to be destroyed/paused. I.e screen rotation ShakeUtil's onSensorChanged(SensorEvent event) gets called in the process.. One of the things that happen inside onSensorChanged is a dialog interaction, which gives the error: java.lang.IllegalStateException: Can not perform this action after onSaveInstanceState When the previous happens between MainActivity's onSaveInstanceState and onPause. I know this can be prevented if I successfully detect that MainActivity is being pause in ShakeUtil. How can I detect that MainActivity is being paused or onSaveInstanceState was called from ShakeUtil? Alternatively, how can I avoid this issue without making Shakeutil extend activity? So far I have tried with flag variables but that isn't good enough, I guess these are not atomic operations. I tried using Activity's isChangingConfigurations(), but I get an undocummented "NoSuchMethodFound" error.. I am unregistering the sensors by calling ShakeUtil when onPause in main ACtivity

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  • Stop an executing recursive javascript function

    - by DA
    Using jQuery, I've build an image/slide rotator. The basic setup is (in pseudocode): function setupUpSlide(SlideToStartWith){ var thisSlide = SlideToStartWith; ...set things up... fadeInSlide(thisSlide) } function fadeInSlide(thisSlide){ ...fade in this slide... fadeOutSlide(thisSlide) } function fadeOutSlide(thisSlide){ ...fade out this slide... setupUpSlide(nextSlide) } I call the first function and pass in a particular slide index, and then it does its thing calling chain of functions which then, in turn, calls the first function again passing in the next index. This then repeats infinitely (resetting the index when it gets to the last item). This works just fine. What I want to do now is allow someone to over-ride the slide show by being able to click on a particular slide number. Therefore, if slide #8 is showing and I click #3, I want the recursion to stop and then call the initial function passing in slide #3, which then, in turn, will start the process again. But I'm not sure how to go about that. How does one properly 'break' a recursive script. Should I create some sort of global 'watch' variable that if at any time is 'true' will return: false and allow the new function to execute?

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  • Call ASP.NET 2.0 Server side code from Javascript

    - by Kannabiran
    I'm struggling with this for the past 3 days. I need to call asp.net serverside code from Javascript when the user closes the browser. I'm using the following code to accomplish this. In my asp.net form I have various validation controls. Even if there are some validation errors, When I close the form the server side code works perfectly in my development box(windows 7). But the same code doesnt work in my production environment(windows server). Does it have something to do with the Validation summary or Validation controls. The button control has Causes validation set to false. So even if there is a validation error still my form will post back. Am I correct? I suspect the form is not getting post back to the server when there is a validation error. But i'm disabling all the validation controls in the javascript before calling the button click event. Can someone throw some light on this issue. There are few blogs which suggests to use JQUERY, AJAX (Pagemethods and script manager). function ConfirmClose(e) { var evtobj = window.event ? event : e; if (evtobj == e) { //firefox if (!evtobj.clientY) { evtobj.returnValue = message; } } else { //IE if (evtobj.clientY < 0) { DisablePageValidators(); document.getElementById('<%# buttonBrowserCloseClick.ClientID %>').click(); } } } function DisablePageValidators() { if ((typeof (Page_Validators) != "undefined") && (Page_Validators != null)) { var i; for (i = 0; i < Page_Validators.length; i++) { ValidatorEnable(Page_Validators[i], false); } } } //HTML <div style="display:none" > <asp:Button ID="buttonBrowserCloseClick" runat="server" onclick="buttonBrowserCloseClick_Click" Text="Button" Width="141px" CausesValidation="False" /> //Server Code protected void buttonBrowserCloseClick_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { //Some C# code goes here }

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