Search Results

Search found 7959 results on 319 pages for 'broken logic'.

Page 253/319 | < Previous Page | 249 250 251 252 253 254 255 256 257 258 259 260  | Next Page >

  • ASP.NET page content doesn't change

    - by WtFudgE
    Hi, I created an application which has a menu where it's items are created dynamicly. The menu acts as a language menu. <body runat="server"> <form id="Form1" runat="server"> <table class="TableLayout"> <tr> <td class="TopNav" align="right"> <asp:Menu runat="server" ID="LanguageMenu" Orientation="Horizontal" OnMenuItemClick="LanguageMenu_MenuItemClick"> <LevelMenuItemStyles> <asp:MenuItemStyle CssClass="TopNavItem" /> </LevelMenuItemStyles> <StaticHoverStyle CssClass="TopNavItemHover" /> </asp:Menu> </td> </tr> ... I use session variables to set my current language. however if I click on the menu to change the session variable: public void LanguageMenu_MenuItemClick(Object sender, MenuEventArgs e) { Session["language"] = e.Item.Text; } The page reloads with the following code: sportsPath = String.Format(@"{0}{1}\Sports\", xmlPath, Session["language"]); //create LeftNavigation string[] sports = Directory.GetFiles(sportsPath); LeftNavigation.Items.Clear(); foreach (string sport in sports) { string text = sport.Replace(sportsPath, "").Replace(".xml", ""); MenuItem item = new MenuItem(); item.Text = text; LeftNavigation.Items.Add(item); } The thing is the content doesn't change, only after I click on something else. If I skip through my code after clicking on the menuItem I can see that it passes the code and it should change, however for some reason the page needs another extra trigger to modify it's content. I also see the page reloading so I don't understand why it's not changing immediatly. I guess I'm not understanding the asp.net logic just quite yet. What am I doing wrong?

    Read the article

  • Removing and adding persistent stores to a core data application

    - by mkko
    I'm using core data on an iPhone application. I have multiple persisntent stores that I'm switching from one to another so that only one of the stores can be active at the time. I have one managed object context and the different persistent stores are similar in data format (sqlite) and share the same managed object model. I'm importing the data to each persistent store from a respective XML file. For the first import everything works fine, but after I remove the imported data (the persistent store and the physical file) and then re-import, core data gives me an error: *** Terminating app due to uncaught exception 'NSObjectInaccessibleException', reason: 'The NSManagedObject with ID:0x3c14e00 <x-coredata://6D14F11E-2EA7-4141-9BE8-53747DE6FCC6/Book/p2> has been invalidated.' This error comes from the save: of NSManagedObjectContext. Before re-importing, i'm removing the persistent store from the persistent store coordinator and removing the physical file, so everything should be as if re-importing was done for the first time. Alos, the objects in managed object context are removed and the context is sent the reset: message (I don't know if this is actually needed). Could some one help me out here? How should the persistent store be switched? I'm basically using the same logic as tutored here: http://blog.sallarp.com/iphone-core-data-uitableview-drill-down/ Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • C#: WebBrowser.Navigated Only Fires when I MessageBox.Show();

    - by tsilb
    I have a WebBrowser control which is being instantiated dynamically from a background STA thread because the parent thread is a BackgroundWorker and has lots of other things to do. The problem is that the Navigated event never fires, unless I pop a MessageBox.Show() in the method that told it to .Navigate(). I shall explain: ThreadStart ts = new ThreadStart(GetLandingPageContent_ChildThread); Thread t = new Thread(ts); t.SetApartmentState(ApartmentState.STA); t.Name = "Mailbox Processor"; t.Start(); protected void GetLandingPageContent_ChildThread() { WebBrowser wb = new WebBrowser(); wb.Navigated += new WebBrowserNavigatedEventHandler(wb_Navigated); wb.Navigate(_url); MessageBox.Show("W00t"); } protected void wb_Navigated(object sender, WebBrowserNavigatedEventArgs e) { WebBrowser wb = (WebBrowser)sender; // Breakpoint HtmlDocument hDoc = wb.Document; } This works fine; but the messagebox will get in the way since this is an automation app. When I remove the MessageBox.Show(), the WebBrowser.Navigated event never fires. I've tried supplanting this line with a Thread.Sleep(), and by suspending the parent thread. Once I get this out of the way, I intend to Suspend the parent thread while the WebBrowser is doing its job and find some way of passing the resulting HTML back to the parent thread so it can continue with further logic. Why does it do this? How can I fix it? If someone can provide me with a way to fetch the content of a web page, fill out some data, and return the content of the page on the other side of the submit button, all against a webserver that doesn't support POST verbs nor passing data via QueryString, I'll also accept that answer as this whole exercise will have been unneccessary.

    Read the article

  • Login URL using authentication information in Django

    - by fuSi0N
    I'm working on a platform for online labs registration for my university. Login View [project views.py] from django.http import HttpResponse, HttpResponseRedirect, Http404 from django.shortcuts import render_to_response from django.template import RequestContext from django.contrib import auth def index(request): return render_to_response('index.html', {}, context_instance = RequestContext(request)) def login(request): if request.method == "POST": post = request.POST.copy() if post.has_key('username') and post.has_key('password'): usr = post['username'] pwd = post['password'] user = auth.authenticate(username=usr, password=pwd) if user is not None and user.is_active: auth.login(request, user) if user.get_profile().is_teacher: return HttpResponseRedirect('/teachers/'+user.username+'/') else: return HttpResponseRedirect('/students/'+user.username+'/') else: return render_to_response('index.html', {'msg': 'You don\'t belong here.'}, context_instance = RequestContext(request) return render_to_response('login.html', {}, context_instance = RequestContext(request)) def logout(request): auth.logout(request) return render_to_response('index.html', {}, context_instance = RequestContext(request)) URLS #========== PROJECT URLS ==========# urlpatterns = patterns('', (r'^media/(?P<path>.*)$', 'django.views.static.serve', {'document_root': settings.MEDIA_ROOT }), (r'^admin/', include(admin.site.urls)), (r'^teachers/', include('diogenis.teachers.urls')), (r'^students/', include('diogenis.students.urls')), (r'^login/', login), (r'^logout/', logout), (r'^$', index), ) #========== TEACHERS APP URLS ==========# urlpatterns = patterns('', (r'^(?P<username>\w{0,50})/', labs), ) The login view basically checks whether the logged in user is_teacher [UserProfile attribute via get_profile()] and redirects the user to his profile. Labs View [teachers app views.py] from django.http import HttpResponse, HttpResponseRedirect, Http404 from django.shortcuts import render_to_response from django.template import RequestContext from django.contrib.auth.decorators import user_passes_test from django.contrib.auth.models import User from accounts.models import * from labs.models import * def user_is_teacher(user): return user.is_authenticated() and user.get_profile().is_teacher @user_passes_test(user_is_teacher, login_url="/login/") def labs(request, username): q1 = User.objects.get(username=username) q2 = u'%s %s' % (q1.last_name, q1.first_name) q2 = Teacher.objects.get(name=q2) results = TeacherToLab.objects.filter(teacher=q2) return render_to_response('teachers/labs.html', {'results': results}, context_instance = RequestContext(request)) I'm using @user_passes_test decorator for checking whether the authenticated user has the permission to use this view [labs view]. The problem I'm having with the current logic is that once Django authenticates a teacher user he has access to all teachers profiles basically by typing the teachers username in the url. Once a teacher finds a co-worker's username he has direct access to his data. Any suggestions would be much appreciated.

    Read the article

  • Looking for ideas how to refactor my (complex) algorithm

    - by _simon_
    I am trying to write my own Game of Life, with my own set of rules. First 'concept', which I would like to apply, is socialization (which basicaly means if the cell wants to be alone or in a group with other cells). Data structure is 2-dimensional array (for now). In order to be able to move a cell to/away from a group of another cells, I need to determine where to move it. The idea is, that I evaluate all the cells in the area (neighbours) and get a vector, which tells me where to move the cell. Size of the vector is 0 or 1 (don't move or move) and the angle is array of directions (up, down, right, left). This is a image with representation of forces to a cell, like I imagined it (but reach could be more than 5): Let's for example take this picture: Forces from lower left neighbour: down (0), up (2), right (2), left (0) Forces from right neighbour : down (0), up (0), right (0), left (2) sum : down (0), up (2), right (0), left (0) So the cell should go up. I could write an algorithm with a lot of if statements and check all cells in the neighbourhood. Of course this algorithm would be easiest if the 'reach' parameter is set to 1 (first column on picture 1). But what if I change reach parameter to 10 for example? I would need to write an algorithm for each 'reach' parameter in advance... How can I avoid this (notice, that the force is growing potentialy (1, 2, 4, 8, 16, 32,...))? Can I use specific design pattern for this problem? Also: the most important thing is not speed, but to be able to extend initial logic. Things to take into consideration: reach should be passed as a parameter i would like to change function, which calculates force (potential, fibonacci) a cell can go to a new place only if this new place is not populated watch for corners (you can't evaluate right and top neighbours in top-right corner for example)

    Read the article

  • C# Why can't I find Sum() of this HashSet. says "Arithmetic operation resulted in an overflow."

    - by user2332665
    I was trying to solve this problem projecteuler,problem125 this is my solution in python(just for understanding the logic) import math lim=10**8 found=set() for start in xrange(1,int(math.sqrt(lim))): sos = start*start for i in xrange(start+1,int(math.sqrt(lim))): sos += (i*i) if sos >= lim: break s=str(int(sos)) if s==s[::-1]: found.add(sos) print sum(found) the same code I wrote in C# is as follows using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Text; namespace ConsoleApplication1 { class Program { public static bool isPalindrome(string s) { string temp = ""; for (int i=s.Length-1;i>=0;i-=1){temp+=s[i];} return (temp == s); } static void Main(string[] args) { int lim = Convert.ToInt32(Math.Pow(10,8)); var found = new HashSet<int>(); for (int start = 1; start < Math.Sqrt(lim); start += 1) { int s = start *start; for (int i = start + 1; start < Math.Sqrt(lim); i += 1) { s += i * i; if (s > lim) { break; } if (isPalindrome(s.ToString())) { found.Add(s); } } } Console.WriteLine(found.Sum()); } } } the code debugs fine until it gives an exception at Console.WriteLine(found.Sum()); (line31). Why can't I find Sum() of the set found

    Read the article

  • How could I make this display for listbox?

    - by baron
    Hello everyone, I have a databound listbox which is actually displaying two columns of data. It is displayed as follows: <UserControl.Resources> <DataTemplate x:Key="AlignedPairs"> <Grid> <Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <ColumnDefinition Width="*" /> <ColumnDefinition Width="Auto" /> <ColumnDefinition Width="10" /> <ColumnDefinition Width="*" /> </Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <TextBlock Text="{Binding Fruits}" Grid.Column="0" /> <TextBlock Text="->" TextAlignment="Center" Grid.Column="1" /> <TextBlock Text="{Binding Colors}" Grid.Column="3" /> </Grid> </DataTemplate> </UserControl.Resources> <ListBox Name="lbStuff" Grid.ColumnSpan="2" Grid.Row="1" ItemTemplate="{StaticResource AlignedPairs}"> <ListBox.ItemContainerStyle> <Style TargetType="ListBoxItem"> <Setter Property="HorizontalContentAlignment" Value="Stretch" /> </Style> </ListBox.ItemContainerStyle> </ListBox> Then Itemsource set in codebehind. Based on some logic however, I would like to set either a line or a item in one of the columns, e.g. a fruit to red, or the line to bold. I have code to work out which Fruit or Color I would like to differentiate (by color/bold) in the code behind, but I can't figure out, especially given the custom listbox display, how I could go about setting a particular item to a different color/bold. Does anyone have any ideas? Let me know if any further code is required. Cheers.

    Read the article

  • Code for decoding/encoding a modified base64 URL

    - by Kirk Liemohn
    I want to base64 encode data to put it in a URL and then decode it within my HttpHandler. I have found that Base64 Encoding allows for a '/' character which will mess up my UriTemplate matching. Then I found that there is a concept of a "modified Base64 for URL" from wikipedia: A modified Base64 for URL variant exists, where no padding '=' will be used, and the '+' and '/' characters of standard Base64 are respectively replaced by '-' and '_', so that using URL encoders/decoders is no longer necessary and has no impact on the length of the encoded value, leaving the same encoded form intact for use in relational databases, web forms, and object identifiers in general. Using .NET I want to modify my current code from doing basic base64 encoding and decoding to using the "modified base64 for URL" method. Has anyone done this? To decode, I know it starts out with something like: string base64EncodedText = base64UrlEncodedText.Replace('-', '+').Replace('_', '/'); // Append '=' char(s) if necessary - how best to do this? // My normal base64 decoding now uses encodedText But, I need to potentially add one or two '=' chars to the end which looks a little more complex. My encoding logic should be a little simpler: // Perform normal base64 encoding byte[] encodedBytes = Encoding.UTF8.GetBytes(unencodedText); string base64EncodedText = Convert.ToBase64String(encodedBytes); // Apply URL variant string base64UrlEncodedText = base64EncodedText.Replace("=", String.Empty).Replace('+', '-').Replace('/', '_'); I have seen the Guid to Base64 for URL StackOverflow entry, but that has a known length and therefore they can hardcode the number of equal signs needed at the end.

    Read the article

  • VS2010 / Target Framework = 3.5 / Building on Continuous Integration Server

    - by granadaCoder
    I'm checking into upgrading to VS2010. Our production servers only have 3.5 Framework and it will be 6-9 months before they are updated. We also have a Continuous Integration Server, running CruiseControl.NET (CC.NET). It has the 3.5 Framework on it as well. Our implementation of CC.NET mainly calls msbuild.exe MySolution.msbuild. (We encapsulate most of the build logic into .msbuild files fyi) Inside the .msbuild file, the following is the "Build" syntax: < Target Name="Build" DependsOnTargets="Checkout" < MSBuild Projects="$(WorkingCheckout)\MySolution.sln" Targets="Build" Properties="Configuration=$(Configuration)" < Output TaskParameter="TargetOutputs" ItemName="TargetOutputsItemName"< /Output < /MSBuild < /Target (A few spaces added to make it display here) =========== I know the VS2010 can "Target" the 3.5 Framework. My question is what happens when I have a VS2010 dev machine, and I check the VS2010 .sln and .csproj(s) files into source control (svn, btw).....will the CC.NET machine ~~which only have the 3.5 Framework installed on it........be able to build the .sln ? I guess I could test it, but the catch22 is that I don't have VS2010 (yet). So I'm asking before I try (the trial or a real install. ............. Any ideas what will happen? I guess the crux question is, what will happen. c:\WINDOWS\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v3.5\MSBuild.exe "MyVS2010SolutionFile.sln" ?? My hopeful goal would be, allow the developers to have VS2010 (now!), and it still be "ok" for the CC.NET machine and the Production Servers which will only have the 3.5 Framework on them for the foreseeable future. Just to be clear, developers NEVER create deployable builds. Only the CC.NET machine produces builds that will be pushed as production builds. Any help?

    Read the article

  • The ViewData item that has the key 'MY KEY' is of type 'System.String' but must be of type 'IEnumerable<SelectListItem>'.

    - by JBibbs
    I am trying to populate a dropdown list from a database mapped with Linq 2 SQL, using ASP.NET MVC 2, and keep getting this error. I am so confused because I am declaring a variable with the type IEnumerable<SelectListItem> on the second line, but the error makes me think this is not the case. I feel like this should be very simple, but I am struggling. Any help is appreciated. Here are the interesting bits of my controller: public ActionResult Create() { var db = new DB(); IEnumerable<SelectListItem> basetypes = db.Basetypes.Select(b => new SelectListItem { Value = b.basetype, Text = b.basetype }); ViewData["basetype"] = basetypes; return View(); } And here are the interesting bits of my view: <div class="editor-label"> <%: Html.LabelFor(model => model.basetype) %> </div> <div class="editor-field"> <%: Html.DropDownList("basetype") %> <%: Html.ValidationMessageFor(model => model.basetype) %> </div> Here is the Post action when submitting the Form // POST: /Meals/Create [HttpPost] public ActionResult Create(Meal meal) { if (ModelState.IsValid) { try { // TODO: Add insert logic here var db = new DB(); db.Meals.InsertOnSubmit(meal); db.SubmitChanges(); return RedirectToAction("Index"); } catch { return View(meal); } } else { return View(meal); } } Thanks.

    Read the article

  • ASP, sorting database with conditions using multiple columns...

    - by Mitch
    First of all, I'm still working in classic ASP (vbScript) with an MS Access Database. And, yes I know its archaic, but I'm still hopeful I can do this! So now to my problem: Take the following table as an example: PROJECTS ContactName StartDate EndDate Complete Mitch 2009-02-13 2011-04-23 No Eric 2006-10-01 2008-11-15 Yes Mike 2007-05-04 2009-03-30 Yes Kyle 2009-03-07 2012-07-08 No Using ASP (with VBScript), and an MS Access Database as the backend, I’d like to be able to sort this table with the following logic: I would like to sort this table by date, however, depending on whether a given project is complete or not I would like it to use either the “StartDate” or “EndDate” as the reference for a particular row. So to break it down further, this is what I’m hoping to achieve: For PROJECTS where Complete = “Yes”, reference “EndDate” for the purpose of sorting. For PROJECTS where Complete = “No”, reference “StartDate” for the purpose of sorting. So, if I were to sort the above table following these rules, the output would be: PROJECTS ContactName StartDate EndDate Complete 1 Eric 2006-10-01 2008-11-15* Yes 2 Mitch 2009-02-13* 2011-04-23 No 3 Kyle 2009-03-07* 2012-07-08 No 4 Mike 2007-05-04 2009-03-30* Yes *I’ve put a star next to the date that should be used for the sort in the table above. NOTE: This is actually a simplified version of what I really need to do, but I think that if I could just figure this out, I’ll be able to do the rest on my own. ANY HELP IS GREATLY APPRECIATED; I’VE BEEN STRUGGLING WITH THIS FOR FAR TOO LONG NOW! Thank you!

    Read the article

  • ADT-like polymorphism in Java (without altering class)

    - by ffriend
    In Haskell I can define following data type: data Tree = Empty | Leaf Int | Node Tree Tree and then write polymorphic function like this: depth :: Tree -> Int depth Empty = 0 depth (Leaf n) = 1 depth (Node l r) = 1 + max (depth l) (depth r) In Java I can emulate algebraic data types with interfaces: interface Tree {} class Empty implements Tree {} class Leaf implements Tree { int n; } class Node implements Tree { Tree l; Tree r; } But if I try to use Haskell-like polymorphism, I get an error: int depth(Empty node) { return 0; } int depth(Leaf node) { return 1; } int depth(Node node) { return 1 + Math.max(depth(node.l), depth(node.r)); // ERROR: Cannot resolve method 'depth(Tree)' } Correct way to overcome this is to put method depth() to each class. But what if I don't want to put it there? For example, method depth() may be not directly related to Tree and adding it to class would break business logic. Or, even worse, Tree may be written in 3rd party library that I don't have access to. In this case, what is the simplest way to implement ADT-like polymorpism? Just in case, for the moment I'm using following syntax, which is obviously ill-favored: int depth(Tree tree) { if (tree instanceof Empty) depth((Empty)tree) if (tree instanceof Leaf) depth((Leaf)tree); if (tree instanceof Node) depth((Node)tree); else throw new RuntimeException("Don't know how to find depth of " + tree.getClass()); }

    Read the article

  • .NET Test Harness what should it have

    - by Conor
    Hi Folks, We have a software house developing code for us on a project, .NET Web Service (WCF) and we are also paying for a test harness to be built as a separate billable task on a daily rate. I have just joined the company and am reviewing what we are getting from the software house and wanted to know what you guys in industry thought about it? Basically what we got was a WinForm that called the w/s that had an input area (Web Service Request) to drop our XML a Submit button along with a response area for the result of the Web Response and that's it... Our internal BA has created all the xml request documents so there was no logic put into the harness around this. Looking on the Net for a definition of a Test Harness I got this: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Test_harness It states it should have these 3 below things: Automate the testing process. Execute test suites of test cases. Generate associated test reports. Clearly we have got none of this apart from a partial "Automate the testing process" via a WinForm. OK, from my development background I would expect someone to Produce a WinForm as a test harness 5 years ago and really should be using some sort of Tooling around this, I explicitly told the Software House I expected some sort of tooling (NUnit,NBUnit, SOAPIU) so we could create a regression test pack for future use. [Didn’t get it but I asked for this after the requirements were signed off as I wasn’t employed then :)] Would someone be able to clarify with me if my requirement for this is over realistic, I know if I did this, I would use NUnit and TDD and then reuse the test harness as a regression test pack in future? I am interested to see what the community thought. Cheers

    Read the article

  • Unit Testing - Validation of ViewModel ASP.NET MVC 2

    - by dean nolan
    I am currently unit testing a service that adds users to a repository. I am using dependency injection to test using a fake repository. The repository has a method CreateUser(User user) which just adds it to the database or in this case a List of Users. The logic for the creation is in the UserServices class. The application has a form for creating a user that requires some properties such as name and address. This is an MVC 2 app and I will be using the new validation using data annotations. This makes me wonder about a few things: 1) Should I annotate a POCO object that will map to the database? Or should I create a specific View Model that has these annotations and pass this data to the UserServices class? 2)Should the UserServicesClass also check this data? Would I best be constructing a Usr out of the ViewModel and passing this into the Service as a parameter? 3) The actual unit testing would depend on 2), I either populate a User object and pass that in, or I pass a large list of strings to the method CreateUser. Writing this out I get a basic idea that I should probably annotate the view model only, pass in a user (constructed by the view model if the data is valid) and also just construct the user in the unit test also. Is this the best way to go?

    Read the article

  • Establishing Upper / Lower Bound in T-SQL Procedure

    - by Code Sherpa
    Hi. I am trying to establish upper / lower bound in my stored procedure below and am having some problems at the end (I am getting no results where, without the temp table inner join i get the expected results). I need some help where I am trying to join the columns in my temp table #PageIndexForUsers to the rest of my join statement and I am mucking something up with this statement: INNER JOIN #PageIndexForUsers ON ( dbo.aspnet_Users.UserId = #PageIndexForUsers.UserId AND #PageIndexForUsers.IndexId >= @PageLowerBound AND #PageIndexForUsers.IndexId <= @PageUpperBound ) I could use feedback at this point - and, any advice on how to improve my procedure's logic (if you see anything else that needs improvement) is also appreciated. Thanks in advance... ALTER PROCEDURE dbo.wb_Membership_GetAllUsers @ApplicationName nvarchar(256), @sortOrderId smallint = 0, @PageIndex int, @PageSize int AS BEGIN DECLARE @ApplicationId uniqueidentifier SELECT @ApplicationId = NULL SELECT @ApplicationId = ApplicationId FROM dbo.aspnet_Applications WHERE LOWER(@ApplicationName) = LoweredApplicationName IF (@ApplicationId IS NULL) RETURN 0 -- Set the page bounds DECLARE @PageLowerBound int DECLARE @PageUpperBound int DECLARE @TotalRecords int SET @PageLowerBound = @PageSize * @PageIndex SET @PageUpperBound = @PageSize - 1 + @PageLowerBound BEGIN TRY -- Create a temp table TO store the select results CREATE TABLE #PageIndexForUsers ( IndexId int IDENTITY (0, 1) NOT NULL, UserId uniqueidentifier ) -- Insert into our temp table INSERT INTO #PageIndexForUsers (UserId) SELECT u.UserId FROM dbo.aspnet_Membership m, dbo.aspnet_Users u WHERE u.ApplicationId = @ApplicationId AND u.UserId = m.UserId ORDER BY u.UserName SELECT @TotalRecords = @@ROWCOUNT SELECT dbo.wb_Profiles.profileid, dbo.wb_ProfileData.firstname, dbo.wb_ProfileData.lastname, dbo.wb_Email.emailaddress, dbo.wb_Email.isconfirmed, dbo.wb_Email.emaildomain, dbo.wb_Address.streetname, dbo.wb_Address.cityorprovince, dbo.wb_Address.state, dbo.wb_Address.postalorzip, dbo.wb_Address.country, dbo.wb_ProfileAddress.addresstype,dbo.wb_ProfileData.birthday, dbo.wb_ProfileData.gender, dbo.wb_Session.sessionid, dbo.wb_Session.lastactivitydate, dbo.aspnet_Membership.userid, dbo.aspnet_Membership.password, dbo.aspnet_Membership.passwordquestion, dbo.aspnet_Membership.passwordanswer, dbo.aspnet_Membership.createdate FROM dbo.wb_Profiles INNER JOIN dbo.wb_ProfileAddress ON ( dbo.wb_Profiles.profileid = dbo.wb_ProfileAddress.profileid AND dbo.wb_ProfileAddress.addresstype = 'home' ) INNER JOIN dbo.wb_Address ON dbo.wb_ProfileAddress.addressid = dbo.wb_Address.addressid INNER JOIN dbo.wb_ProfileData ON dbo.wb_Profiles.profileid = dbo.wb_ProfileData.profileid INNER JOIN dbo.wb_Email ON ( dbo.wb_Profiles.profileid = dbo.wb_Email.profileid AND dbo.wb_Email.isprimary = 1 ) INNER JOIN dbo.wb_Session ON dbo.wb_Profiles.profileid = dbo.wb_Session.profileid INNER JOIN dbo.aspnet_Membership ON dbo.wb_Profiles.userid = dbo.aspnet_Membership.userid INNER JOIN dbo.aspnet_Users ON dbo.aspnet_Membership.UserId = dbo.aspnet_Users.UserId INNER JOIN dbo.aspnet_Applications ON dbo.aspnet_Users.ApplicationId = dbo.aspnet_Applications.ApplicationId INNER JOIN #PageIndexForUsers ON ( dbo.aspnet_Users.UserId = #PageIndexForUsers.UserId AND #PageIndexForUsers.IndexId >= @PageLowerBound AND #PageIndexForUsers.IndexId <= @PageUpperBound ) ORDER BY CASE @sortOrderId WHEN 1 THEN dbo.wb_ProfileData.lastname WHEN 2 THEN dbo.wb_Profiles.username WHEN 3 THEN dbo.wb_Address.postalorzip WHEN 4 THEN dbo.wb_Address.state END END TRY BEGIN CATCH IF @@TRANCOUNT > 0 ROLLBACK TRAN EXEC wb_ErrorHandler RETURN 55555 END CATCH RETURN @TotalRecords END GO

    Read the article

  • JQuery how to resubmit form after ajax call success

    - by Steven Rosato
    I am using JQuery to perform form submission through an ajax request. I use form.submit(function() { if( success ) { return true; } validate(); //proceeds to an ajax call return false; } On request success I want to either proceed with form submission or user callback. Therefore, if the user callback is undefined, I will submit the form on form validation success (from my validate function). config = { successCallback: function() { success = true; form.submit(); //does not work } }; validate = function() { $.ajax( ... success: function(data) { //code logic config.successCallback(); } ); }; The ajax success callback will call config.successCallback() and if it was never overridden by the user, it would proceed to normal form submission. I tried using an instance variable (success) to make sure 'return true' would proceed to default form submission. Unfortunately this is not working. It seems that the 'return false' statement that prevents default form submission will neglect any further submit calls even if an instance variable was set. It only works after clicking the submit button another time (that makes it twice for it to work). Is there any workaround for this. I want to both use a user callback when provided but proceed with default form submission when not, and since I am using an ajax function to validate the form, the ajax success callback is complicating things.

    Read the article

  • Looking for an elegant appwidget skin solution

    - by sam-henwood
    I have an appwidget application and would like to enable users to create skins which can be applied at runtime. My preferred solution is to use apk files with nine patch png images that stretch to fit the ImageView's of widget, however its starting to look like I might have to use another packaging technique (e.g. zip files). What I've tried: Importing nine patch resources as Drawable with context.getResourcesForApplication(my.app).getResources..., converting them to bitmaps using a canvas and setting the bitmap to the RemoteView using setImageViewBitap. This didn't work because I needed to specify the size of the resulting view (myBitmap.setBounds(..,..)) during conversion and some of the widths/heights in my appwidget aren't fixed. Perhaps there is a way to get the heights etc that I missed. Importing resources directly to the RemoteView using setImageViewUri() This doesn't work because the function doesn't seem to read android.resource:// Uri's anymore (I poked around in the ImageView source and it only seems to read files paths and content:// Uri's) Importing resources directly to the RemoteView using setImageViewResource() which didn't work because the id retrieved from the external package obviously doesn't include a package reference. What I'm trying to avoid is hard coding all my appwidget width's and height's, or using a separate packaging scheme. Has anyone implemented appwidget skins nicely and want to share the knowledge? Alternately there might be a hole in my logic somewhere that can be pointed out. I can provide code if required though I don't have any here right now.

    Read the article

  • Post a form from asp to asp.Net

    - by Atomiton
    I have a classic asp application. I want to post a contest form from that page to an Asp.Net form. The reason is that I want to use a lot of logic i have built into an Asp.Net page for validation before entering into the database and I don't know asp very well. Not to mention asp.Net being more secure. What's the best way to accomplish this goal? My thoughts are as follows: My asp Page: <html> <body> <form action="/Contests/entry.aspx" method="post"> Name: <input type="text" name="fname" size="20" /> Last Name: <input type="text" name="lname" size="20" /> <input type="submit" value="Submit" /> </form> </body> </html> aspx page is running in a Virtual Directory and would handle anything posted to it. Is this possible, or does aspx prevent this kind of thing? I ( preferably ) don't want to create the form in aspx as my colleague wants to have control of the page and build the html himself and I don't want the hassle of constantly changing it. Are there caveats I need to consider? What roadblocks will I run into? How do I access the Posted Form Values? Request.Form?

    Read the article

  • Django DRY Feeds

    - by Mandx
    I'm using the Django Feeds Framework and it's really nice, very intuitive and easy to use. But, I think there is a problem when creating links to feeds in HTML. For example: <link rel="alternate" type="application/rss+xml" title="{{ feed_title }}" href="{{ url_of_feed }}" /> Link's HREF attribute can be easily found out, just use reverse() But, what about the TITLE attribute? Where the template engine should look for this? Even more, what if the feed is build up dinamically and the title depends on parameters (like this)? I can't come up with a solution that "seems" DRY to me... All that I can come up with is using context processors o template tags, but it gets messy when the context procesor/template tag has to find parameters to construct the Feed class, and writing this I realize I don't even know how to create a Feed instance myself within the view. If I put all this logic in the view, it would not be just one view. Also, the value for TITLE would be in the view AND in the feed.

    Read the article

  • What is the best practice for ouputting data from a collection on an ASP.net Page?

    - by bshacklett
    I've ported a page from classic ASP to ASP.net. Part of what happens in this page is that a collection of custom types is generated and then displayed via Response.Write() commands. I'd like to get the business logic separated out into a code behind file (and maybe move this all into a user control), but I can't seem to figure out how I'd actually display the collection once it's been generated. I want to specify a master page here, too, so the code can't stay inline. Here's a very stripped down version of the current code: <% Dim objs as ArrayList = New ArrayList() For i = 0 To 2 Dim obj as Obj = New Obj() obj.setProp1("ASDF") obj.setProp2("FDSA") objs.Add(obj) Next i %> <table> <thead> <tr> <th scope="col">Property 1</th> <th scope="col">Property 2</th> </tr> </thead> <tbody> <% For Each obj As Obj In objs Dim objProp1 As String = obj.getProp1 Dim objProp2 As String = obj.getProp2 %> <tr> <td><% Response.Write(objProp1)%></td> <td><% Response.Write(objProp2)%></td> </tr> <% Next %> </tbody> </table> What is the ".net" way of doing this?

    Read the article

  • Class Structure w/ LINQ, Partial Classes, and Abstract Classes

    - by Jason
    I am following the Nerd Dinner tutorial as I'm learning ASP.NET MVC, and I am currently on Step 3: Building the Model. One part of this section discusses how to integrate validation and business rule logic with the model classes. All this makes perfect sense. However, in the case of this source code, the author only validates one class: Dinner. What I am wondering is, say I have multiple classes that need validation (Dinner, Guest, etc). It doesn't seem smart to me to repeatedly write these two methods in the partial class: public bool IsValid { get { return (GetRuleViolations().Count() == 0); } } partial void OnValidate(ChangeAction action) { if (!IsValid) { throw new ApplicationException("Rule violations prevent saving."); } } What I'm wondering is, can you create an abstract class (because "GetRuleViolations" needs to be implemented separately) and extend a partial class? I'm thinking something like this (based on his example): public partial class Dinner : Validation { public IEnumerable<RuleViolation> GetRuleViolations() { yield break; } } This doesn't "feel" right, but I wanted to check with SO to get opinions of individuals smarter than me on this. I also tested it out, and it seems that the partial keyword on the OnValidate method is causing problems (understandably so). This doesn't seem possible to fix (but I could very well be wrong). Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Improving Performance of Crystal Reports using Stored Procedures

    - by mjh41
    Recently I updated a Crystal Report that was doing all of its work on the client-side (Selects, formulas, etc) and changed all of the logic to be done on the server-side through Stored Procedures using an Oracle 11g database. Now the report is only being used to display the output of the stored procedures and nothing else. Everything I have read on this subject says that utilizing stored procedures should greatly reduce the running time of the report, but it still takes roughly the same amount of time to retrieve the data from the server. Is there something wrong with the stored procedure I have written, or is the issue in the Crystal Report itself? Here is the stored procedure code along with the package that defines the necessary REF CURSOR. CREATE OR REPLACE PROCEDURE SP90_INVENTORYDATA_ALL ( invdata_cur IN OUT sftnecm.inv_data_all_pkg.inv_data_all_type, dCurrentEndDate IN vw_METADATA.CASEENTRCVDDATE%type, dCurrentStartDate IN vw_METADATA.CASEENTRCVDDATE%type ) AS BEGIN OPEN invdata_cur FOR SELECT vw_METADATA.CREATIONTIME, vw_METADATA.RESRESOLUTIONDATE, vw_METADATA.CASEENTRCVDDATE, vw_METADATA.CASESTATUS, vw_METADATA.CASENUMBER, (CASE WHEN vw_METADATA.CASEENTRCVDDATE < dCurrentStartDate AND ( (vw_METADATA.CASESTATUS is null OR vw_METADATA.CASESTATUS != 'Closed') OR TO_DATE(vw_METADATA.RESRESOLUTIONDATE, 'MM/DD/YYYY') >= dCurrentStartDate) then 1 else 0 end) InventoryBegin, (CASE WHEN (to_date(vw_METADATA.RESRESOLUTIONDATE, 'MM/DD/YYYY') BETWEEN dCurrentStartDate AND dCurrentEndDate) AND vw_METADATA.RESRESOLUTIONDATE is not null AND vw_METADATA.CASESTATUS is not null then 1 else 0 end) CaseClosed, (CASE WHEN vw_METADATA.CASEENTRCVDDATE BETWEEN dCurrentStartDate AND dCurrentEndDate then 1 else 0 end) CaseCreated FROM vw_METADATA WHERE vw_METADATA.CASEENTRCVDDATE <= dCurrentEndDate ORDER BY vw_METADATA.CREATIONTIME, vw_METADATA.CASESTATUS; END SP90_INVENTORYDATA_ALL; And the package: CREATE OR REPLACE PACKAGE inv_data_all_pkg AS TYPE inv_data_all_type IS REF CURSOR RETURN inv_data_all_temp%ROWTYPE; END inv_data_all_pkg;

    Read the article

  • Binding to WPF ViewModel properties

    - by MartinHN
    I'm just playing around with WPF and MVVM, and I have made a simple app that displays a Rectangle that changes color whenever Network availability changes. But when that happens, I get this error: Cannot use a DependencyObject that belongs to a different thread than its parent Freezable. Code XAML <Window x:Class="WpfApplication1.Window1" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" Title="Window1" Height="400" Width="600"> <DockPanel LastChildFill="True"> <Rectangle x:Name="networkStatusRectangle" Width="200" Height="200" Fill="{Binding NetworkStatusColor}" /> </DockPanel> </Window> Code-behind using System.Windows; using WpfApplication1.ViewModels; namespace WpfApplication1 { /// <summary> /// Interaction logic for Window1.xaml /// </summary> public partial class Window1 : Window { public Window1() { InitializeComponent(); DataContext = new NetworkViewModel(); } } } ViewModel using System.ComponentModel; using System.Net.NetworkInformation; using System.Windows.Media; namespace WpfApplication1.ViewModels { public class NetworkViewModel : INotifyPropertyChanged { private Brush _NetworkStatusColor; public Brush NetworkStatusColor { get { return _NetworkStatusColor; } set { _NetworkStatusColor = value; NotifyOfPropertyChange("NetworkStatusColor"); } } public NetworkViewModel() { NetworkChange.NetworkAvailabilityChanged += new NetworkAvailabilityChangedEventHandler(NetworkChange_NetworkAvailabilityChanged); } protected void NetworkChange_NetworkAvailabilityChanged(object sender, NetworkAvailabilityEventArgs e) { if (e.IsAvailable) { this.NetworkStatusColor = new SolidColorBrush(Colors.Green); } else { this.NetworkStatusColor = new SolidColorBrush(Colors.Red); } } public event PropertyChangedEventHandler PropertyChanged = delegate { }; public void NotifyOfPropertyChange(string propertyName) { PropertyChanged(this, new PropertyChangedEventArgs(propertyName)); } } } I assume that I should change the NetworkStatusColor property by invoking something?

    Read the article

  • Using IsolatedStorage on a IIS server

    - by JoeBilly
    I'am a bit confusing about the use of Isolated Storage on an IIS server. I understand the goal of Isolated Storage : provides a safe place to store data with no worry about how and where is this place. Since Isolated Storage has a by-user and by-assembly approach, I'am not to wild about using it on a IIS server where applications have almost their own identity. I haven't really seen the interest of impersonating a web application and almost never seen impersonated web applications myself but this is my point of view. Using Isolated Storage on a server mean : Using Isolated stores in \Documents and Settings\<user>\ Which mean \Documents and Settings\Default User\ when the application pool is owned by Local System or Network Services I guess Which also mean Write rights on this folder for Local System or Network Services Using of impersonation Regarding a web application (logic), these ideas are confusing me... Document and Settings ? Default User ? Enable impersonation just for storage ? No control about storage on server ? Uh ? And then I'am a front of a dilema : use System.IO.Packaging (with Isolated Storage inside) on web applications or find an alternative ? Am I wrong in my approach ? Did I miss something ? Any point of view is appreciated and an explanation about the Isolated Storage with IIS philosophy could be an anwser. Thanks !

    Read the article

  • Web service request ignores basic WSDL XML element restrictions

    - by Oliver
    Hi all, I have encountered some difficulties while trying to validate an incoming soap message to a service I have running on JBoss AS (v. 5.1.0). In my code, I have explicitly set some fields to be required, eg: public class MyClass { @XmlElement(required=true, nillable=false) private List<myOtherObjects> myList; } This requirement is also reflected in the WSDL (note the lack of minOccurs="0"): <xs:element maxOccurs="unbounded" name="myList" type="tns:myOtherObjects" /> However, when I do a test soap message that has myList set to empty or null, these restrictions are completely ignored, forcing me to validate manually within the application logic on the service. I did some searching on the Internet and found out that, on WebLogic, the validation does not seem to be enabled by default, though it can be turned on by modifying the weblogic-webservices.xml file. (http://forums.oracle.com/forums/thread.jspa?threadID=783972&tstart=115) I’m wondering if there is something similar that I have to do with JBoss AS to enable automatic validation before the soap message reaches the service. Any help would be greatly appreciated. Oliver

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 249 250 251 252 253 254 255 256 257 258 259 260  | Next Page >