Search Results

Search found 6928 results on 278 pages for 'calling'.

Page 253/278 | < Previous Page | 249 250 251 252 253 254 255 256 257 258 259 260  | Next Page >

  • How can you prevent both jumpiness, and interrupting tweens with animated Flash buttons?

    - by Kevin Suttle
    This is something I've never been able to figure out. You've got a button offscreen you want to animate in. We'll call it 'btn.' You've got a hit area that serves as the proximity sensor to trigger btn's animation. We'll call it 'hitZone' (as to not cause confusion with the hitArea property of display objects). Both btn and hitZone are MovieClips. The listeners go something like this. import com.greensock.*; import com.greensock.easing.*; import flash.events.MouseEvent; var endPoint:Number = 31; hitZone.addEventListener(MouseEvent.ROLL_OVER, onHitZoneOver); hitZone.addEventListener(MouseEvent.ROLL_OUT, onHitZoneOut); hitZone.addEventListener(MouseEvent.CLICK, onHitZoneClick); btn.addEventListener(MouseEvent.ROLL_OVER, onBtnOver); btn.addEventListener(MouseEvent.ROLL_OUT, onBtnOut); btn.addEventListener(MouseEvent.CLICK, onBtnClick); btn.mouseChildren = false; function onHitZoneOver(e:MouseEvent):void { TweenLite.to(btn, 0.75, {x:endPoint, ease:Expo.easeOut}); trace("over hitZone"); } function onHitZoneOut(e:MouseEvent):void { TweenLite.to(btn, 0.75, {x:-1, ease:Expo.easeOut}); trace("out hitZone"); } function onBtnOver(e:MouseEvent):void { hitZone.mouseEnabled = false; hitZone.removeEventListener(MouseEvent.ROLL_OVER, onHitZoneOver); hitZone.removeEventListener(MouseEvent.ROLL_OUT, onHitZoneOut); trace("over BTN"); // This line is the only thing keeping the btn animation from being fired continuously // causing jumpiness. However, calling this allows the animation to be interrupted // at any point. TweenLite.killTweensOf(btn); } function onBtnOut(e:MouseEvent):void { hitZone.mouseEnabled = true; hitZone.addEventListener(MouseEvent.ROLL_OVER, onHitZoneOver); hitZone.addEventListener(MouseEvent.ROLL_OUT, onHitZoneOut); trace("out BTN"); } function onBtnClick(e:MouseEvent):void { trace("click BTN"); } function onHitZoneClick(e:MouseEvent):void { trace("click hitZone"); } The issue is when your mouse is over both the hitZone and btn. The button continuously jumps unless you call TweenLite.killAllTweensOf(). This fixes the jumpiness, but it introduces a new problem. Now, it's very easy to interrupt the animation of the btn at any point, stopping it before it's totally visible on the stage. I've seen similar posts, but even they suffer from the same issue. Perhaps it's a problem with how Flash detects edges, because I've never once seen a workaround for this.

    Read the article

  • Nested Execution Flow Control

    - by chris
    I've read tens of answers related to callbacks, promises and other ways to control flow, but I can't still wrap my head around this task, obviously due to my lack of competence. I have a nested problem: In test_1() (and the other functions) I would like to ensure that the rows are added to the table according to the order in which the elements are in the object; I would like to execute either test_2 or test_3 (or both after each other) only after test_1 has finished completely. Actually the right sequence will only be known at runtime (there will be a switch with the possible sequences, like 1,2,3 or 1,3,2 or 1,2,1,3 or 1,3,3,2, etc...) Code: $(function () { // create table tbl = document.createElement('table'); tbl.className = "mainTbl"; $("body").append(tbl); }); function test_1() { $.each(obj, function () { var img = new Image(); img.onload = function () { // add row of data to table var row = tbl.insertRow(-1); var c1 = row.insertCell(0); c1.innerHTML = "loaded"; }; img.onerror = function () { // add row of data to table var row = tbl.insertRow(-1); var c1 = row.insertCell(0); c1.innerHTML = "not loaded"; }; img.src = this.url; }); } function test_2() { $.each(obj, function () { var img = new Image(); img.onload = function () { // add row of data to table var row = tbl.insertRow(-1); var c1 = row.insertCell(0); c1.innerHTML = "loaded"; }; img.onerror = function () { // add row of data to table var row = tbl.insertRow(-1); var c1 = row.insertCell(0); c1.innerHTML = "not loaded"; }; img.src = this.url; }); } function test_3() { $.each(obj, function () { var img = new Image(); img.onload = function () { // add row of data to table var row = tbl.insertRow(-1); var c1 = row.insertCell(0); c1.innerHTML = "loaded"; }; img.onerror = function () { // add row of data to table var row = tbl.insertRow(-1); var c1 = row.insertCell(0); c1.innerHTML = "not loaded"; }; img.src = this.url; }); } I know that calling the functions in sequence doesn't work as they don't wait for each other... I think promises are they way to go but I can't find the right combination and the documentation is way too complex for my skills. What's the best way to structure the code so that it's executed in the right order?

    Read the article

  • Re-Add tabBarController's view into window and the device is in landscape mode

    - by user285553
    Hello, I have an app that is a tabBarController based app. I have 4 tabs on it and one of these is for logging in/out in my app. The main ideea is that when I logout, I release the tabBarController (this will release the all 4 view controllers too - I have done this becuse I want to refersh all the views after logging out to look just like the first time).After this, I alloc it again and add the view controllers aagin,set the tabBarItem's titles,etc.This work ok. The problem is when I am in landscape mode;my logout view is painted to fit the landscape area,but after disconnect(now I releasse and alloc again the tabbarController) the view is painted in portrait mode but my device is in lanscape. After disconnected, I call the releaseOldTabView and the createNewTabView.After this tabBarController is in portrait insead of landscape. -(void)releaseOldTabView:(BOOL)tabViewEnabled{ if(tabViewEnabled){ [tabBarController.view removeFromSuperview]; [tabBarController release]; } } -(void)createNewTabView{ tabBarController = [[UITabBarController alloc] init]; NSMutableArray *oneArray = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; tabBarController.delegate = self; LoginViewController *login= [[LoginViewController2 alloc] initWithNibName:@"LoginViewController" bundle:nil]; SecondViewController *secondController = [[SecondViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"SecondViewController" bundle:nil]; ThirdViewController *thirdController = [[ThirdViewController alloc] init]; FourthViewController *fourthController = [[FourthViewController alloc] init]; login.tabBarItem = [[UITabBarItem alloc] initWithTitle:@"Login" image:[UIImage imageNamed:@"connect.png"] tag:0]; secondController.tabBarItem = [[UITabBarItem alloc] initWithTitle:@"TabBar2" image:[UIImage imageNamed:@"tabBar2.png"] tag:1]; thirdController.tabBarItem = [[UITabBarItem alloc] initWithTitle:@"TabBar3" image:[UIImage imageNamed:@"tabBar3.png"] tag:2]; fourthController.tabBarItem = [[UITabBarItem alloc] initWithTitle:@"TabBar4" image:[UIImage imageNamed:@"tabBar4.png"] tag:3]; [oneArray addObject:login]; [oneArray addObject:secondController]; [oneArray addObject:thirdController]; [oneArray addObject:fourthController]; [tabBarController setViewControllers:oneArray]; //[tabBarController.view convertRect:tabBarController.view.frame toView:window]; [window addSubview:tabBarController.view]; [oneArray release]; [login release]; [secondController release]; [thirdController release]; [fourthController release]; } After calling this method, the tabbar view is in portrait,but statusBar(the top bar which says the carrier name) is painted normally(landscape). I also tried the [tabBarController.view convertRect:tabBarController.view.frame toView:window]; but without any succes. Can anyone give a hand of help? Thanks in advance, Alex.

    Read the article

  • Sprite not moving when using a function from another class SFML c++

    - by user2892932
    I have a Game.cpp, and I am calling a update function in my Player class. In my player update Function I have it to check for keyboard input, and it seems to work, but whenever I try to call the .move() function, it seems to not work. I get no errors either. I am new to sfml, and decent with c++. Help is appreciated! #include "Player.h" Player::Player(void): vel(0), maxvel(100) { Load("Assets/sss.png",true); } void Player::Update(sf::Sprite& p) { if (sf::Keyboard::isKeyPressed(sf::Keyboard::A)) { moveObject(-3,0, p); } if(sf::Keyboard::isKeyPressed(sf::Keyboard::D)) { moveObject(-3,0, p); } } Player::~Player(void) { } This is the GameObject cpp #include "GameObject.h" #include <iostream> GameObject::GameObject(void) { isLoaded = false; } void GameObject::Load(std::string flname, bool isPlayer) { if(!tex.loadFromFile(flname)) { EXIT_FAILURE; } else { if(isPlayer) { if(!tex.loadFromFile(flname, sf::IntRect(0,0,33,33))) { EXIT_FAILURE; } else { std::cout << "Loading image" << "\n"; filename = flname; spr.setTexture(tex); isLoaded = true; } } else { std::cout << "Loading image" << "\n"; filename = flname; spr.setTexture(tex); isLoaded = true; } } } void GameObject::Draw(sf::RenderWindow & window) { if(isLoaded) { window.draw(spr); window.display(); std::cout << "Sprite drew" << "\n"; } } void GameObject::setPos(float x, float y) { if(isLoaded) { spr.setPosition(x,y); } } sf::Vector2f GameObject::GetObjPos() { return spr.getPosition(); } sf::Sprite& GameObject::getSprite() { return spr; } void GameObject::moveObject(float x, float y, sf::Sprite& sp) { sp.move(x, y); } GameObject::~GameObject(void) { }

    Read the article

  • linq to sql with nservicebus table lock issue

    - by IGoor
    I am building a system using NServiceBus and my DataLayer is using Linq 2 SQL. The system is made up of 2 services. Service1 receives messages from NSB. It will query Table1 in my database and inserts a record into Table1 If a certain condition is met a new NSB message is sent to the 2nd service Service2 will update records also in Table1 when it receives messages from Service1 and it does some other non database related work. Service2 is a long running process. The problem I am having is the moment Service2 updates a record in Table1, the table is locked. The lock seems to be in place until Service2 has completed all it is processing. i.e. The lock is not released after my datacontext is disposed. This causes the query in Service1 to timeout. Once Service2 completes processing, Service1 resumes processing again without problem. So for example Service1 code may look like: int x =0; using (DataContext db = new DataContext()) { x = (from dp in db.Table1 select dp).Count(); // this line will timeout while service2 is processing Table1 t = new Table1(); t.Data = "test"; db.Table1.InsertOnSubmit(t); db.SubmitChanges(); } if(x % 50 == 0) CallService2(); The code in service2 may look like: using (DataContext db = new DataContext()) { Table1 t = db.Table1.Where(t => t.id == myId); t.Data = "updated"; db.SubmitChanges(); } // I would have expected the lock to have been released at this point, but this is not the case. DoSomeLongRunningTasks(); // lock will be released once service2 exits I don't understand why the lock is not released when the datacontext is disposed in Service2. To get around the problem I have been calling: db.ExecuteCommand("SET TRANSACTION ISOLATION LEVEL READ UNCOMMITTED"); and this works, but I am not happy using it. I want to solve this problem properly. Has any one experienced this sort of problem before and does any one know how to solve it? Why is the lock not released after the datacontext has been disposed? Thanks in advance. p.s. sorry for the extremely long post.

    Read the article

  • sequence generators are getting ignored

    - by luvfort
    I'm getting the following error while saving a object. However similar configuration is working for other model objects in my projects. Any help would be greatly appreciated. @Entity @Table(name = "ENROLLMENT_GROUP_MEMBERSHIPS", schema = "LEAD_ROUTING") public class EnrollmentGroupMembership implements Serializable, Comparable,Auditable { @javax.persistence.SequenceGenerator(name = "enrollmentGroupMemID", sequenceName = "S_ENROLLMENT_GROUP_MEMBERSHIPS") @Id @GeneratedValue(strategy = GenerationType.AUTO, generator = "enrollmentGroupMemID") @Column(name = "ID") private Long id; @ManyToOne() @JoinColumn(name = "TIER_WEIGHT_OID", referencedColumnName = "OID", updatable = false, insertable = false) private TierWeight tierWeight; public EnrollmentGroupMembership() { } } Code: @Entity @Table(name = "TIER_WEIGHT", schema = "LEAD_ROUTING") public class TierWeight implements Serializable, Auditable { @SequenceGenerator(name = "tierSequence",sequenceName = "S_TIER_WEIGHT") @Column(name = "OID") @Id @GeneratedValue(strategy = GenerationType.AUTO, generator = "tierSequence") private Long id; @OneToMany @JoinColumn(name = "TIER_WEIGHT_OID", referencedColumnName = "OID") private Set<EnrollmentGroupMembership> memberships; public TierWeight() { } } The logic layer's code is @Override public void createTier(String tierName, float weight) { TierWeight tier = new TierWeight(); tier.setWeight(weight); tier.setTier(tierName); tierWeightDAO.create(tier); } Similar Many-one configuration is working through out the project. I don't know why this one instance is failing. Any help would be greatly appreciated. The following is the error that I'm getting Caused by: org.hibernate.id.IdentifierGenerationException: ids for this class must be manually assigned before calling save(): edu.apollogrp.d2ec.model.TierWeight at org.hibernate.id.Assigned.generate(Assigned.java:3 3) at org.hibernate.event.def.AbstractSaveEventListener. saveWithGeneratedId(AbstractSaveEventListener.java :99) The log file is telling that the sequence generator tierSequence is not getting created. However other sequence generators are getting created. 2010-06-03 11:24:51,834 DEBUG [org.hibernate.cfg.AnnotationBinder:] Processing annotations of edu.apollogrp.d2ec.model.TierWeight.dateCreated 2010-06-03 11:24:51,834 DEBUG [org.hibernate.cfg.AnnotationBinder:] Processing annotations of edu.apollogrp.d2ec.model.TierWeight.dateCreated 2010-06-03 11:24:51,834 DEBUG [org.hibernate.cfg.Ejb3Column:] Binding column DATE_CREATED unique false ....................................... ....................................... 2010-06-03 11:24:51,756 DEBUG [org.hibernate.cfg.AnnotationBinder:] Processing annotations of edu.apollogrp.d2ec.model.CounselorAvailability.id 2010-06-03 11:24:51,756 DEBUG [org.hibernate.cfg.Ejb3Column:] Binding column OID unique false 2010-06-03 11:24:51,756 DEBUG [org.hibernate.cfg.Ejb3Column:] Binding column OID unique false 2010-06-03 11:24:51,756 DEBUG [org.hibernate.cfg.AnnotationBinder:] id is an id 2010-06-03 11:24:51,756 DEBUG [org.hibernate.cfg.AnnotationBinder:] id is an id 2010-06-03 11:24:51,756 DEBUG [org.hibernate.cfg.AnnotationBinder:] Add sequence generator with name: counselorAvailabilityID 2010-06-03 11:24:51,756 DEBUG [org.hibernate.cfg.AnnotationBinder:] Add sequence generator with name: counselorAvailabilityID While debugging, I see that the org.hibernate.impl.SessionFactoryImpl is returning the "Assigned" identifierGenerator. This is horrible. I've specified the identifierGenerator as "Auto". Please see the above code. As a sidenote, I was trying to debug and seeing how the objects are getting retrieved from the database. Looks like the enrollmentgroupmembership records have the tierweight value populated. However if I look at the tierweight object, it doesn't have the enrollmentgroupmembership records. I'm puzzled. I think these two problems must be related. Maddy.

    Read the article

  • Why wont my while loop take new input (c++)

    - by Van
    I've written a program to get a string input from a user and parse it into tokens and move a robot according to the input. My problem is trying to issue more than one command. The code looks like: void Navigator::manualDrive() { const int bufSize = 42; char uinput[bufSize]; char delim[] = " "; char *token; while(true) { Navigator::parseInstruction(uinput); } } /* parseInstruction(char *c) -- parses cstring instructions received * and moves robot accordingly */ void Navigator::parseInstruction(char * c) { const int bufSize = 42; char uinput[bufSize]; char delim[] = " "; char *token; cout << "Enter your directions below: \n"; cin.ignore(); cin.getline (uinput, bufSize); token=strtok(uinput, delim); if(strcmp("forward", token) == 0) { int inches; token = strtok(NULL, delim); inches = atoi (token); Navigator::travel(inches); } if(strcmp("back",token) == 0) { int inches; token = strtok(NULL, delim); inches = atoi (token); double value = fabs(0.0735 * fabs(inches) - 0.0550); myRobot.backward(1/*speed*/, value/*time*/); } if(strcmp("turn",token) == 0) { int degrees; token = strtok(NULL, delim); if(strcmp("left",token) == 0) { token = strtok(uinput, delim); degrees = atoi (token); double value = fabs(0.0041 * degrees - 0.0523); myRobot.turnLeft(1/*speed*/, value/*time*/); } } if(strcmp("turn",token) == 0) { int degrees; token = strtok(NULL, delim); if(strcmp("right",token) == 0) { token = strtok(uinput, delim); degrees = atoi (token); double value = fabs(0.0041 * degrees - 0.0523); myRobot.turnRight(1/*speed*/, value/*time*/); } } if(strcmp("stop",token) == 0) { myRobot.motors(0,0); } } In the function manualDrive I have a while loop calling the function parseInstruction infinitely. The program outputs "Enter your directions below: " When I give the program instructions it executes them, and then it outputs "enter your directions below: " again and when I input my directions again it does not execute them and outputs "Enter your directions below: " instead. I'm sure this is a very simple fix I'm just very new to c++. So if you could please help me out and tell me why the program only takes the first set of directions. thanks

    Read the article

  • Best way to test for a variable's existence in PHP; isset() is clearly broken

    - by chazomaticus
    From the isset() docs: isset() will return FALSE if testing a variable that has been set to NULL. Basically, isset() doesn't check for whether the variable is set at all, but whether it's set to anything but NULL. Given that, what's the best way to actually check for the existence of a variable? I tried something like: if(isset($v) || @is_null($v)) (the @ is necessary to avoid the warning when $v is not set) but is_null() has a similar problem to isset(): it returns TRUE on unset variables! It also appears that: @($v === NULL) works exactly like @is_null($v), so that's out, too. How are we supposed to reliably check for the existence of a variable in PHP? Edit: there is clearly a difference in PHP between variables that are not set, and variables that are set to NULL: <?php $a = array('b' => NULL); var_dump($a); PHP shows that $a['b'] exists, and has a NULL value. If you add: var_dump(isset($a['b'])); var_dump(isset($a['c'])); you can see the ambiguity I'm talking about with the isset() function. Here's the output of all three of these var_dump()s: array(1) { ["b"]=> NULL } bool(false) bool(false) Further edit: two things. One, a use case. An array being turned into the data of an SQL UPDATE statement, where the array's keys are the table's columns, and the array's values are the values to be applied to each column. Any of the table's columns can hold a NULL value, signified by passing a NULL value in the array. You need a way to differentiate between an array key not existing, and an array's value being set to NULL; that's the difference between not updating the column's value and updating the column's value to NULL. Second, Zoredache's answer, array_key_exists() works correctly, for my above use case and for any global variables: <?php $a = NULL; var_dump(array_key_exists('a', $GLOBALS)); var_dump(array_key_exists('b', $GLOBALS)); outputs: bool(true) bool(false) Since that properly handles just about everywhere I can see there being any ambiguity between variables that don't exist and variables that are set to NULL, I'm calling array_key_exists() the official easiest way in PHP to truly check for the existence of a variable. (Only other case I can think of is for class properties, for which there's property_exists(), which, according to its docs, works similarly to array_key_exists() in that it properly distinguishes between not being set and being set to NULL.)

    Read the article

  • Flex 4: Getter getting before setter sets

    - by Steve
    I've created an AS class to use as a data model, shown here: package { import mx.controls.Alert; import mx.rpc.events.FaultEvent; import mx.rpc.events.ResultEvent; import mx.rpc.http.HTTPService; public class Model { private var xmlService:HTTPService; private var _xml:XML; private var xmlChanged:Boolean = false; public function Model() { } public function loadXML(url:String):void { xmlService = new HTTPService(); if (!url) xmlService.url = "DATAPOINTS.xml"; else xmlService.url = url; xmlService.resultFormat = "e4x"; xmlService.addEventListener(ResultEvent.RESULT, setXML); xmlService.addEventListener(FaultEvent.FAULT, faultXML); xmlService.send(); } private function setXML(event:ResultEvent):void { xmlChanged = true; this._xml = event.result as XML; } private function faultXML(event:FaultEvent):void { Alert.show("RAF data could not be loaded."); } public function get xml():XML { return _xml; } } } And in my main application, I'm initiating the app and calling the loadXML function to get the XML: <fx:Script> <![CDATA[ import mx.containers.Form; import mx.containers.FormItem; import mx.containers.VBox; import mx.controls.Alert; import mx.controls.Button; import mx.controls.Label; import mx.controls.Text; import mx.controls.TextInput; import spark.components.NavigatorContent; private function init():void { var model:Model = new Model(); model.loadXML(null); var xml:XML = model.xml; } ]]> </fx:Script> The trouble I'm having is that the getter function is running before loadXML has finished, so the XML varible in my main app comes up undefined in stack traces. How do I put a condition in here somewhere that tells the getter to wait until the loadXML() function has finished before running?

    Read the article

  • Is this implementation truely tail-recursive?

    - by CFP
    Hello everyone! I've come up with the following code to compute in a tail-recursive way the result of an expression such as 3 4 * 1 + cos 8 * (aka 8*cos(1+(3*4))) The code is in OCaml. I'm using a list refto emulate a stack. type token = Num of float | Fun of (float->float) | Op of (float->float->float);; let pop l = let top = (List.hd !l) in l := List.tl (!l); top;; let push x l = l := (x::!l);; let empty l = (l = []);; let pile = ref [];; let eval data = let stack = ref data in let rec _eval cont = match (pop stack) with | Num(n) -> cont n; | Fun(f) -> _eval (fun x -> cont (f x)); | Op(op) -> _eval (fun x -> cont (op x (_eval (fun y->y)))); in _eval (fun x->x) ;; eval [Fun(fun x -> x**2.); Op(fun x y -> x+.y); Num(1.); Num(3.)];; I've used continuations to ensure tail-recursion, but since my stack implements some sort of a tree, and therefore provides quite a bad interface to what should be handled as a disjoint union type, the call to my function to evaluate the left branch with an identity continuation somehow irks a little. Yet it's working perfectly, but I have the feeling than in calling the _eval (fun y->y) bit, there must be something wrong happening, since it doesn't seem that this call can replace the previous one in the stack structure... Am I misunderstanding something here? I mean, I understand that with only the first call to _eval there wouldn't be any problem optimizing the calls, but here it seems to me that evaluation the _eval (fun y->y) will require to be stacked up, and therefore will fill the stack, possibly leading to an overflow... Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Mocking methods that call other methods Still hit database.Can I avoid it?

    - by devnet247
    Hi, It has been decided to write some unit tests using moq etc..It's lots of legacy code c# (this is beyond my control so cannot answer the whys of this) Now how do you cope with a scenario when you dont want to hit the database but you indirectly still hit the database? This is something I put together it's not the real code but gives you an idea. How would you deal with this sort of scenario? Basically calling a method on a mocked interface still makes a dal call as inside that method there are other methods not part of that interface?Hope it's clear [TestFixture] public class Can_Test_this_legacy_code { [Test] public void Should_be_able_to_mock_login() { var mock = new Mock<ILoginDal>(); User user; var userName = "Jo"; var password = "password"; mock.Setup(x => x.login(It.IsAny<string>(), It.IsAny<string>(),out user)); var bizLogin = new BizLogin(mock.Object); bizLogin.Login(userName, password, out user); } } public class BizLogin { private readonly ILoginDal _login; public BizLogin(ILoginDal login) { _login = login; } public void Login(string userName, string password, out User user) { //Even if I dont want to this will call the DAL!!!!! var bizPermission = new BizPermission(); var permissionList = bizPermission.GetPermissions(userName); //Method I am actually testing _login.login(userName,password,out user); } } public class BizPermission { public List<Permission>GetPermissions(string userName) { var dal=new PermissionDal(); var permissionlist= dal.GetPermissions(userName); return permissionlist; } } public class PermissionDal { public List<Permission> GetPermissions(string userName) { //I SHOULD NOT BE GETTING HERE!!!!!! return new List<Permission>(); } } public interface ILoginDal { void login(string userName, string password,out User user); } public interface IOtherStuffDal { List<Permission> GetPermissions(); } public class Permission { public int Id { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } } Any suggestions? Am I missing the obvious? Is this Untestable code? Very very grateful for any suggestions.

    Read the article

  • cflock do not throw timeout for same url called in same browser

    - by Pritesh Patel
    I am trying lock block on page test.cfm and below is code written on page. <cfscript> writeOutput("Before lock at #now()#"); lock name="threadlock" timeout="3" type="exclusive" { writeOutput("<br/>started at #now()#"); thread action="sleep" duration="10000"; writeOutput("<br/>ended at #now()#"); } writeOutput("<br/>After lock at #now()#"); </cfscript> assuming my url for page is http://localhost.local/test.cfm and running it on browser in two different tabs. I was expecting one of the url will throw timeout error after 3 second since another url lock it atleast for 10 seconds due to thread sleep. Surprisingly I do not get any timeout error rather second page call run after 10 seconds as first call finish execution. But I am appending some url parameter (e.g. http://localhost.local/test.cfm?q=1) will throw error. Also I am calling same url in different browser then one of the call will throw timeout issue. Is lock based on session and url? Update Here is output for two different cases: Case 1: TAB1 Url: http://localhost.local/test/test.cfm Before lock at {ts '2013-10-18 09:21:35'} started at {ts '2013-10-18 09:21:35'} ended at {ts '2013-10-18 09:21:45'} After lock at {ts '2013-10-18 09:21:45'} TAB2 Url: http://localhost.local/test/test.cfm Before lock at {ts '2013-10-18 09:21:45'} started at {ts '2013-10-18 09:21:45'} ended at {ts '2013-10-18 09:21:55'} After lock at {ts '2013-10-18 09:21:55'} Case 2: TAB1 Url: http://localhost.local/test/test.cfm Before lock at {ts '2013-10-18 09:27:18'} started at {ts '2013-10-18 09:27:18'} ended at {ts '2013-10-18 09:27:28'} After lock at {ts '2013-10-18 09:27:28'} TAB2 Url: http://localhost.local/test/test.cfm? (Added ? at the end) Before lock at {ts '2013-10-18 09:27:20'} A timeout occurred while attempting to lock threadlock. The error occurred in C:/inetpub/wwwroot/test/test.cfm: line 13 11 : 12 : <cfoutput>Before lock at #now()#</cfoutput> 13 : <cflock name="threadlock" timeout="3" type="exclusive"> 14 : <cfoutput><br/>started at #now()#</cfoutput> 15 : <cfthread action="sleep" duration="10000"/> ... Result for case 2 as expected. For case 1, strange thing I just noticed is tab 2 output "Before lock at {ts '2013-10-18 09:21:45'} indicates that whole request start after 10 seconds (means after the complete execution of first tab) when I have fired it in second URL just after 2 seconds of first tabs.

    Read the article

  • iPhone: Create a single UIView from multiple clicks

    - by Cuzog
    I'm making a partial overlay modal in my app with the code from “Semi-Modal (Transparent) Dialogs on the iPhone” at ramin.firoozye.com. In doing so, the button that calls the modal is still visible and clickable. I will hide this button when the modal spawns, but I want to be sure if the user clicks very quickly twice, a new modal doesn't come up for each click. What is the best way to check that the modal doesn't already exist when calling it from the button click? You can download the test project here. For those that don't have xcode, the relevant functions are below: I call forth the modal on button click with this: - (IBAction)displayModal:(id)sender { ModalViewController *modalController = [[ModalViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"ModalViewController" bundle:nil]; modalController.view.frame = CGRectOffset(modalController.view.frame, 0, 230); [self showModal:modalController.view]; } Then use this function to animate the custom modal over the current view: - (void)showModal:(UIView*) modalView { UIWindow* mainWindow = (((TestAppDelegate*) [UIApplication sharedApplication].delegate).window); CGPoint middleCenter = modalView.center; CGSize offSize = [UIScreen mainScreen].bounds.size; CGPoint offScreenCenter = CGPointMake(offSize.width / 2.0, offSize.height * 1.5); modalView.center = offScreenCenter; // we start off-screen [mainWindow addSubview:modalView]; // Show it with a transition effect [UIView beginAnimations:nil context:nil]; [UIView setAnimationDuration:0.4]; // animation duration in seconds modalView.center = middleCenter; [UIView commitAnimations]; } Then I dismiss the modal on button click with this: - (IBAction)dismissModal:(id)sender { [self hideModal:self.view]; } And then use these functions to animate the modal offscreen and clean itself up: - (void)hideModal:(UIView*) modalView { CGSize offSize = [UIScreen mainScreen].bounds.size; CGPoint offScreenCenter = CGPointMake(offSize.width / 2.0, offSize.height * 1.5); [UIView beginAnimations:nil context:modalView]; [UIView setAnimationDuration:0.7]; [UIView setAnimationDelegate:self]; [UIView setAnimationDidStopSelector:@selector(hideModalEnded:finished:context:)]; modalView.center = offScreenCenter; [UIView commitAnimations]; } - (void)hideModalEnded:(NSString *)animationID finished:(NSNumber *)finished context:(void *)context { UIView* modalView = (UIView *)context; [modalView removeFromSuperview]; [self release]; } Any help is greatly appreciated!

    Read the article

  • Few doubts regarding Bitmaps , Images & `using` blocks

    - by imageWorker
    I caught up in this problem. http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2559826/garbage-collector-not-doing-its-job-memory-consumption-1-5gb-outofmemory-exc I feel that there is something wrong in my understanding. Please clarify these things. Destructor & IDisposable.Dispose are two methods for freeing resources that are not not under the control of .NET. Which means, everything except memory. right? using blocks are just better way of calling IDisposable.Dispose() method of an object. This is the main code I'm referring to. class someclass { static someMethod(Bitmap img) { Bitmap bmp = new Bitmap(img); //statement1 // some code here and return } } here is class I'm using for testing: class someotherClass { public static voide Main() { foreach (string imagePath in imagePathsArray) { using (Bitmap img1 = new Bitmap(imagePath)) { someclass.someMethod(img1); // does some more processing on `img1` } } } } Is there any memory leak with statement1? Question1: If each image size is say 10MB. Then does this bmp object occupy atleast 10MB? What I mean is, will it make completely new copy of entire image? or just refer to it? Question2:should I or should I not put the statement1 in using block? My Argument: We should not. Because using is not for freeing memory but for freeing the resources (file handle in this case). If I use it in using block. It closes file handle here encapsulated by this bmp object. It means we are also closing filehandle for the caller's img1 object. Which is not correct? As of the memory leak. No there is no scope of memory leak here. Because reference bmp is destroyed when this method is returned. Which leaves memory it refered without any pointer. So, its garbage collected. Am I right? Edit: class someclass { static Bitmap someMethod(Bitmap img) { Bitmap bmp = new Bitmap(img); //can I use `using` block on this enclosing `return bmp`; ??? // do some processing on bmp here return bmp; } }

    Read the article

  • Where should I initialize variables for an OO Recursive Descent Parse Tree?

    - by Vasto
    I'd like to preface this by stating that this is for a class, so please don't solve this for me. One of my labs for my cse class is creating an interpreter for a BNF that was provided. I understand most of the concepts, but I'm trying to build up my tree and I'm unsure where to initialize values. I've tried in both the constructor, and in the methods but Eclipse's debugger still only shows the left branch, even though it runs through completely. Here is my main procedure so you can get an idea of how I'm calling the methods. public class Parser { public static void main(String[] args) throws IOException { FileTokenizer instance = FileTokenizer.Instance(); FileTokenizer.main(args); Prog prog = new Prog(); prog.ParseProg(); prog.PrintProg(); prog.ExecProg(); } Now here is My Prog class: public class Prog { private DeclSeq ds; private StmtSeq ss; Prog() { ds = new DeclSeq(); ss = new StmtSeq(); } public void ParseProg() { FileTokenizer instance = FileTokenizer.Instance(); instance.skipToken(); //Skips program (1) // ds = new DeclSeq(); ds.ParseDS(); instance.skipToken(); //Skips begin (2) // ss = new StmtSeq(); ss.ParseSS(); instance.skipToken(); } I've tried having Prog() { ds = null; ss = null; } public void ParseProg() { FileTokenizer instance = FileTokenizer.Instance(); instance.skipToken(); //Skips program (1) ds = new DeclSeq(); ds.ParseDS(); ... But it gave me the same error. I need the parse tree built up so I can do a pretty print and an execute command, but like I said, I only get the left branch. Any help would be appreciated. Explanations why are even more so appreciated. Thank you, Vasto

    Read the article

  • Paypal IPN: how get the POSTs from this class?

    - by sineverba
    I'm using this Class <?php class paypalIPN { //sandbox: private $paypal_url = 'https://www.sandbox.paypal.com/cgi-bin/webscr'; //live site: //private $paypal_url = 'https://www.paypal.com/cgi-bin/webscr'; private $data = null; public function __construct() { $this->data = new stdClass; } public function isa_dispute() { //is it some sort of dispute. return $this->data->txn_type == "new_case"; } public function validate() { // parse the paypal URL $response = ""; $url_parsed = parse_url($this->paypal_url); // generate the post string from the _POST vars aswell as load the // _POST vars into an arry so we can play with them from the calling // script. $post_string = ''; foreach ($_POST as $field=>$value) { $this->data->$field = $value; $post_string .= $field.'='.urlencode(stripslashes($value)).'&'; } $post_string.="cmd=_notify-validate"; // append ipn command $ch = curl_init(); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_URL, $this->paypal_url); //curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_VERBOSE, 1); //keep the peer and server verification on, recommended //(can switch off if getting errors, turn to false) curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_SSL_VERIFYPEER, FALSE); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_SSL_VERIFYHOST, FALSE); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_RETURNTRANSFER,1); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_POST, 1); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_POSTFIELDS, $post_string); $response = curl_exec($ch); if (curl_errno($ch)) { die("Curl Error: " . curl_errno($ch) . ": " . curl_error($ch)); } curl_close($ch); return $response; if (preg_match("/VERIFIED/", $response)) { // Valid IPN transaction. return $this->data; } else { return false; } } } ANd i recall in this mode: public function get_ipn() { $ipn = new paypalIPN(); $result = $ipn->validate(); $logger = new Log('/error.log'); $logger->write(print_r($result)); } But I obtain only "VERIFIED" or "1" (whitout or with the print_r function). I just tried also to return directly the raw curl response with return $response; or return $this->response; or also return $this->parse_string; but everytime I receive only "1" or "VERIFIED"....... Thank you very much

    Read the article

  • Need Google Map InfoWindow Hyperlink to Open Content in Overlay (Fusion Table Usage)

    - by McKev
    I have the following code established to render the map in my site. When the map is clicked, the info window pops up with a bunch of content including a hyperlink to open up a website with a form in it. I would like to utilize a function like fancybox to open up this link "form" in an overlay. I have read that fancybox doesn't support calling the function from within an iframe, and was wondering if there was a way to pass the link data to the DOM and trigger the fancybox (or another overlay option) in another way? Maybe a callback trick - any tips would be much appreciated! <style> #map-canvas { width:850px; height:600px; } </style> <script type="text/javascript" src="http://maps.google.com/maps/api/js?sensor=true"></script> <script src="http://gmaps-utility-gis.googlecode.com/svn/trunk/fusiontips/src/fusiontips.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> var map; var tableid = "1nDFsxuYxr54viD_fuH7fGm1QRZRdcxFKbSwwRjk"; var layer; var initialLocation; var browserSupportFlag = new Boolean(); var uscenter = new google.maps.LatLng(37.6970, -91.8096); function initialize() { map = new google.maps.Map(document.getElementById('map-canvas'), { zoom: 4, mapTypeId: google.maps.MapTypeId.ROADMAP }); layer = new google.maps.FusionTablesLayer({ query: { select: "'Geometry'", from: tableid }, map: map }); //http://gmaps-utility-gis.googlecode.com/svn/trunk/fusiontips/docs/reference.html layer.enableMapTips({ select: "'Contact Name','Contact Title','Contact Location','Contact Phone'", from: tableid, geometryColumn: 'Geometry', suppressMapTips: false, delay: 500, tolerance: 8 }); ; // Try W3C Geolocation (Preferred) if(navigator.geolocation) { browserSupportFlag = true; navigator.geolocation.getCurrentPosition(function(position) { initialLocation = new google.maps.LatLng(position.coords.latitude,position.coords.longitude); map.setCenter(initialLocation); //Custom Marker var pinColor = "A83C0A"; var pinImage = new google.maps.MarkerImage("http://chart.apis.google.com/chart?chst=d_map_pin_letter&chld=%E2%80%A2|" + pinColor, new google.maps.Size(21, 34), new google.maps.Point(0,0), new google.maps.Point(10, 34)); var pinShadow = new google.maps.MarkerImage("http://chart.apis.google.com/chart?chst=d_map_pin_shadow", new google.maps.Size(40, 37), new google.maps.Point(0, 0), new google.maps.Point(12, 35)); new google.maps.Marker({ position: initialLocation, map: map, icon: pinImage, shadow: pinShadow }); }, function() { handleNoGeolocation(browserSupportFlag); }); } // Browser doesn't support Geolocation else { browserSupportFlag = false; handleNoGeolocation(browserSupportFlag); } function handleNoGeolocation(errorFlag) { if (errorFlag == true) { //Geolocation service failed initialLocation = uscenter; } else { //Browser doesn't support geolocation initialLocation = uscenter; } map.setCenter(initialLocation); } } google.maps.event.addDomListener(window, 'load', initialize); </script>

    Read the article

  • Slow MySQL query....only sometimes

    - by Shane N
    I have a query that's used in a reporting system of ours that sometimes runs quicker than a second, and other times takes 1 to 10 minutes to run. Here's the entry from the slow query log: # Query_time: 543 Lock_time: 0 Rows_sent: 0 Rows_examined: 124948974 use statsdb; SELECT count(distinct Visits.visitorid) as 'uniques' FROM Visits,Visitors WHERE Visits.visitorid=Visitors.visitorid and candidateid in (32) and visittime>=1275721200 and visittime<=1275807599 and (omit=0 or omit>=1275807599) AND Visitors.segmentid=9 AND Visits.visitorid NOT IN (SELECT Visits.visitorid FROM Visits,Visitors WHERE Visits.visitorid=Visitors.visitorid and candidateid in (32) and visittime<1275721200 and (omit=0 or omit>=1275807599) AND Visitors.segmentid=9); It's basically counting unique visitors, and it's doing that by counting the visitors for today and then substracting those that have been here before. If you know of a better way to do this, let me know. I just don't understand why sometimes it can be so quick, and other times takes so long - even with the same exact query under the same server load. Here's the EXPLAIN on this query. As you can see it's using the indexes I've set up: id select_type table type possible_keys key key_len ref rows Extra 1 PRIMARY Visits range visittime_visitorid,visitorid visittime_visitorid 4 NULL 82500 Using where; Using index 1 PRIMARY Visitors eq_ref PRIMARY,cand_visitor_omit PRIMARY 8 statsdb.Visits.visitorid 1 Using where 2 DEPENDENT SUBQUERY Visits ref visittime_visitorid,visitorid visitorid 8 func 1 Using where 2 DEPENDENT SUBQUERY Visitors eq_ref PRIMARY,cand_visitor_omit PRIMARY 8 statsdb.Visits.visitorid 1 Using where I tried to optimize the query a few weeks ago and came up with a variation that consistently took about 2 seconds, but in practice it ended up taking more time since 90% of the time the old query returned much quicker. Two seconds per query is too long because we are calling the query up to 50 times per page load, with different time periods. Could the quick behavior be due to the query being saved in the query cache? I tried running 'RESET QUERY CACHE' and 'FLUSH TABLES' between my benchmark tests and I was still getting quick results most of the time. Note: last night while running the query I got an error: Unable to save result set. My initial research shows that may be due to a corrupt table that needs repair. Could this be the reason for the behavior I'm seeing? In case you want server info: Accessing via PHP 4.4.4 MySQL 4.1.22 All tables are InnoDB We run optimize table on all tables weekly The sum of both the tables used in the query is 500 MB MySQL config: key_buffer = 350M max_allowed_packet = 16M thread_stack = 128K sort_buffer = 14M read_buffer = 1M bulk_insert_buffer_size = 400M set-variable = max_connections=150 query_cache_limit = 1048576 query_cache_size = 50777216 query_cache_type = 1 tmp_table_size = 203554432 table_cache = 120 thread_cache_size = 4 wait_timeout = 28800 skip-external-locking innodb_file_per_table innodb_buffer_pool_size = 3512M innodb_log_file_size=100M innodb_log_buffer_size=4M

    Read the article

  • How to salvage SQL server 2008 query from KILLED/ROLLBACK state without waiting half a day?

    - by littlegreen
    I have a stored procedure that inserts batches of millions of rows, emerging from a certain query, into an SQL database. It has one parameter selecting the batch; when this parameter is omitted, it will gather a list of batches and recursively call itself, in order to iterate over batches. In (pseudo-)code, it looks something like this: CREATE PROCEDURE spProcedure AS BEGIN IF @code = 0 BEGIN ... WHILE @@Fetch_Status=0 BEGIN EXEC spProcedure @code FETCH NEXT ... INTO @code END END ELSE BEGIN -- Disable indexes ... INSERT INTO table SELECT (...) -- Enable indexes ... Now it can happen that this procedure is slow, for whatever reason: it can't get a lock, one of the indexes it uses is misdefined or disabled. In that case, I want to be able kill the procedure, truncate and recreate the resulting table, and try again. However, when I try and kill the procedure, the process frequently oozes into a KILLED/ROLLBACK state from which there seems to be no return. From Google I have learned to do an sp_lock, find the spid, and then kill it with KILL <spid>. But when I try to kill it, it tells me SPID 75: transaction rollback in progress. Estimated rollback completion: 0%. Estimated time remaining: 554 seconds. I did find a forum message hinting that another spid should be killed before the other one can start a rollback. But that didn't work for me either, plus I do not understand, why that would be the case... could it be because I am recursively calling my own stored procedure? (But it should be having the same spid, right?) In any case, my process is just sitting there, being dead, not responding to kills, and locking the table. This is very frustrating, as I want to go on developing my queries, not waiting hours on my server sitting dead while pretending to be finishing a supposed rollback. Is there some way in which I can tell the server not to store any rollback information for my query? Or not to allow any other queries to interfere with the rollback, so that it will not take so long? Or how to rewrite my query in a better way, or how kill the process successfully without restarting the server?

    Read the article

  • C#: My callback function gets called twice for every Sent Request

    - by Madi D.
    I've Got a program that uploads/downloads files into an online server,Has a callback to report progress and log it into a textfile, The program is built with the following structure: public void Upload(string source, string destination) { //Object containing Source and destination to pass to the threaded function KeyValuePair<string, string> file = new KeyValuePair<string, string>(source, destination); //Threading to make sure no blocking happens after calling upload Function Thread t = new Thread(new ParameterizedThreadStart(amazonHandler.TUpload)); t.Start(file); } private void TUpload(object fileInfo) { KeyValuePair<string, string> file = (KeyValuePair<string, string>)fileInfo; /* Some Magic goes here,Checking The file and Authorizing Upload */ var ftiObject = new FtiObject () { FileNameOnHDD = file.Key, DestinationPath = file.Value, //Has more data used for calculations. }; //Threading to make sure progress gets callback gets called. Thread t = new Thread(new ParameterizedThreadStart(amazonHandler.UploadOP)); t.Start(ftiObject); //Signal used to stop progress untill uploadCompleted is called. uploadChunkDoneSignal.WaitOne(); /* Some Extra Code */ } private void UploadOP(object ftiSentObject) { FtiObject ftiObject = (FtiObject)ftiSentObject; /* Some useless code to create the uri and prepare the ftiObject. */ // webClient.UploadFileAsync will open a thread that // will upload the file and report // progress/complete using registered callback functions. webClient.UploadFileAsync(uri, "PUT", ftiObject.FileNameOnHDD, ftiObject); } I got a callback that is registered to the Webclient's UploadProgressChanged event , however it is getting called twice per sent request. void UploadProgressCallback(object sender, UploadProgressChangedEventArgs e) { FtiObject ftiObject = (FtiObject )e.UserState; Logger.log(ftiObject.FileNameOnHDD, (double)e.BytesSent ,e.TotalBytesToSend); } Log Output: Filename: C:\Text1.txt Uploaded:1024 TotalFileSize: 665241 Filename: C:\Text1.txt Uploaded:1024 TotalFileSize: 665241 Filename: C:\Text1.txt Uploaded:2048 TotalFileSize: 665241 Filename: C:\Text1.txt Uploaded:2048 TotalFileSize: 665241 Filename: C:\Text1.txt Uploaded:3072 TotalFileSize: 665241 Filename: C:\Text1.txt Uploaded:3072 TotalFileSize: 665241 Etc... I am watching the Network Traffic using a watcher, and only 1 request is being sent. Some how i cant Figure out why the callback is being called twice, my doubt was that the callback is getting fired by each thread opened(the main Upload , and TUpload), however i dont know how to test if thats the cause. Note: The reason behind the many /**/ Comments is to indicate that the functions do more than just opening threads, and threading is being used to make sure no blocking occurs (there a couple of "Signal.WaitOne()" around the code for synchronization)

    Read the article

  • Changing Data in ListView

    - by legr3c
    Hi In my app I use a ListView to display data from the database. The data changes sometimes, for example when the user applies new filters or changes the sorting method. I use AsyncTask to get the databsase cursor that points to the new data set because sometimes data needs to be loaded from the net which can take some time. What I do now looks something like this: private class updateTask extends AsyncTask<Void, Void, Void> { /* * runs on the UI thread before doInBackground */ @Override protected void onPreExecute(){ // prepare some stuff... } /* * runs in a separate thread * used for time-consuming loading operation */ @Override protected Void doInBackground() { //get new database cursor mCursor = mDbAdapter.getCursor(); return null; } /* * runs on the UI thread after doInBackground */ @Override protected void onPostExecute(Void result){ if(mCursor!=null){ MyActivity.this.startManagingCursor(mCursor); mCursorAdapter = new MyCustomCursorAdapter(MyActivity.this, mCursor); mListView.setAdapter(mCursorAdapter); } } } This works so far but I realize that creating a new CursorAdapter and calling setAdapter on my ListView each time isn't the correct way to do it. Also, after setAdapter the scroll position of the list is set back to the top. I found this post which describes how to do it properly. So now I want to do something like this: onCreate(){ // ... // create the CursorAdapter using null as the initial cursor MyCustomCursorAdapter cursorAdapter = new MyCustomCursorAdapter(this, null); mListView.setAdapter(cursorAdapter); // ... } private class updateTask extends AsyncTask<Void, Void, Void> { /* * runs on the UI thread before doInBackground */ @Override protected void onPreExecute(){ // prepare some stuff... } /* * runs in a separate thread * used for time-consuming loading operation */ @Override protected Void doInBackground() { //get new database cursor mCursor = mDbAdapter.getCursor(); return null; } /* * runs on the UI thread after doInBackground */ @Override protected void onPostExecute(Void result){ // this returns null! MyCustomCursorAdapter cursorAdapter = (MyCustomCursorAdapter)mListView.getAdapter(); Cursor oldCursor = cursorAdapter.getCursor(); if(oldCursor!=null){ MyActivity.this.stopManagingCursor(oldCursor); oldCursor.close(); } if(mCursor!=null){ MyActivity.this.startManagingCursor(mCursor); cursorAdapter.changeCursor(mCursor); } } } This however doesn't work for me because (MyCustomCursorAdapter)mListView.getAdapter(); always returns null. Why does this happen? What am I doing wrong? Edit: Some additional information: my adapter implements SectionIndexer. I don't really think that this has anything to do with my problem but it has caused me some troubles before so I thought I'd mention it.

    Read the article

  • Debugging a basic OpenGL texture fail? (iphone)

    - by Ben
    Hey all, I have a very basic texture map problem in GL on iPhone, and I'm wondering what strategies there are for debugging this kind of thing. (Frankly, just staring at state machine calls and wondering if any of them is wrong or misordered is no way to live-- are there tools for this?) I have a 512x512 PNG file that I'm loading up from disk (not specially packed), creating a CGBitmapContext, then calling CGContextDrawImage to get bytes out of it. (This code is essentially stolen from an Apple sample.) I'm trying to map the texture to a "quad", with code that looks essentially like this-- all flat 2D stuff, nothing fancy: glEnable(GL_TEXTURE_2D); glTexEnvf(GL_TEXTURE_ENV, GL_TEXTURE_ENV_MODE, GL_MODULATE); glTexParameteri(GL_TEXTURE_2D, GL_TEXTURE_WRAP_S, GL_REPEAT); glTexParameteri(GL_TEXTURE_2D, GL_TEXTURE_WRAP_T, GL_REPEAT); glTexParameteri(GL_TEXTURE_2D, GL_TEXTURE_MAG_FILTER, GL_LINEAR); glTexParameteri(GL_TEXTURE_2D, GL_TEXTURE_MIN_FILTER, GL_LINEAR); glEnableClientState(GL_TEXTURE_COORD_ARRAY); GLfloat vertices[8] = { viewRect.origin.x, viewRect.size.height, viewRect.origin.x, viewRect.origin.y, viewRect.size.width, viewRect.origin.y, viewRect.size.width, viewRect.size.height }; GLfloat texCoords[8] = { 0, 1.0, 0, 0, 1.0, 0, 1.0, 1.0 }; glBindTexture(GL_TEXTURE_2D, myTextureRef); // This was previously bound to glVertexPointer(2, GL_FLOAT , 0, vertices); glTexCoordPointer(2, GL_FLOAT, 0, texCoords); glDrawArrays(GL_TRIANGLE_FAN, 0, 4); glDisableClientState(GL_TEXTURE_COORD_ARRAY); glDisable(GL_TEXTURE_2D); My supposedly textured area comes out just black. I see no debug output from the CG calls to set up the texture. glGetError reports nothing. If I simplify this code block to just draw the verts, but set up a pure color, the quad area lights up exactly as expected. If I clear the whole context immediately beforehand to red, I don't see the red-- which means something is being rendered there, but not the contents of my PNG. What could I be doing wrong? And more importantly, what are the right tools and techniques for debugging this sort of thing, because running into this kind of problem and not being able to "step through it" in a debugger in any meaningful way is a bummer. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Serialize problem with cookie

    - by cagin
    Hi there, I want use cookie in my web project. I must serialize my classes. Although my code can seralize an int or string value, it cant seralize my classes. This is my seralize and cookie code : public static bool f_SetCookie(string _sCookieName, object _oCookieValue, DateTime _dtimeExpirationDate) { bool retval = true; try { if (HttpContext.Current.Request[_sCookieName] != null) { HttpContext.Current.Request.Cookies.Remove(_sCookieName); } BinaryFormatter bf = new BinaryFormatter(); MemoryStream ms = new MemoryStream(); bf.Serialize(ms, _oCookieValue); byte[] bArr = ms.ToArray(); MemoryStream objStream = new MemoryStream(); DeflateStream objZS = new DeflateStream(objStream, CompressionMode.Compress); objZS.Write(bArr, 0, bArr.Length); objZS.Flush(); objZS.Close(); byte[] bytes = objStream.ToArray(); string sCookieVal = Convert.ToBase64String(bytes); HttpCookie cook = new HttpCookie(_sCookieName); cook.Value = sCookieVal; cook.Expires = _dtimeExpirationDate; HttpContext.Current.Response.Cookies.Add(cook); } catch { retval = false; } return retval; } And here is one of my classes: [Serializable] public class Tahlil { #region Props & Fields public string M_KlinikKodu{ get; set; } public DateTime M_AlinmaTarihi { get; set; } private List<Test> m_Tesler; public List<Test> M_Tesler { get { return m_Tesler; } set { m_Tesler = value; } } #endregion public Tahlil() {} Tahlil(DataRow _rwTahlil){} } I m calling my Set Cookie method: Tahlil t = new Tahlil(); t.M_AlinmaTarihi = DateTime.Now; t.M_KlinikKodu = "2"; t.M_Tesler = new List<Test>(); f_SetCookie("Tahlil", t, DateTime.Now.AddDays(1)); I cant see cookie in Cookie folder and Temporary Internet Files but if i will call method like that: f_SetCookie("TRY", 5, DateTime.Now.AddDays(1)); I can see cookie. What is the problem? I dont understand. Thank you for your helps.

    Read the article

  • Why does WebSharingAppDemo-CEProviderEndToEnd sample still need a client db connection after scope c

    - by Don
    I'm researching a way to build an n-tierd sync solution. From the WebSharingAppDemo-CEProviderEndToEnd sample it seems almost feasable however for some reason, the app will only sync if the client has a live SQL db connection. Can some one explain what I'm missing and how to sync without exposing SQL to the internet? The problem I'm experiencing is that when I provide a Relational sync provider that has an open SQL connection from the client, then it works fine but when I provide a Relational sync provider that has a closed but configured connection string, as in the example, I get an error from the WCF stating that the server did not receive the batch file. So what am I doing wrong? SqlConnectionStringBuilder builder = new SqlConnectionStringBuilder(); builder.DataSource = hostName; builder.IntegratedSecurity = true; builder.InitialCatalog = "mydbname"; builder.ConnectTimeout = 1; provider.Connection = new SqlConnection(builder.ToString()); // provider.Connection.Open(); **** un-commenting this causes the code to work** //create anew scope description and add the appropriate tables to this scope DbSyncScopeDescription scopeDesc = new DbSyncScopeDescription(SyncUtils.ScopeName); //class to be used to provision the scope defined above SqlSyncScopeProvisioning serverConfig = new SqlSyncScopeProvisioning(); .... The error I get occurs in this part of the WCF code: public SyncSessionStatistics ApplyChanges(ConflictResolutionPolicy resolutionPolicy, ChangeBatch sourceChanges, object changeData) { Log("ProcessChangeBatch: {0}", this.peerProvider.Connection.ConnectionString); DbSyncContext dataRetriever = changeData as DbSyncContext; if (dataRetriever != null && dataRetriever.IsDataBatched) { string remotePeerId = dataRetriever.MadeWithKnowledge.ReplicaId.ToString(); //Data is batched. The client should have uploaded this file to us prior to calling ApplyChanges. //So look for it. //The Id would be the DbSyncContext.BatchFileName which is just the batch file name without the complete path string localBatchFileName = null; if (!this.batchIdToFileMapper.TryGetValue(dataRetriever.BatchFileName, out localBatchFileName)) { //Service has not received this file. Throw exception throw new FaultException<WebSyncFaultException>(new WebSyncFaultException("No batch file uploaded for id " + dataRetriever.BatchFileName, null)); } dataRetriever.BatchFileName = localBatchFileName; } Any ideas?

    Read the article

  • What are the pros and cons of using manual list iteration vs recursion through fail

    - by magus
    I come up against this all the time, and I'm never sure which way to attack it. Below are two methods for processing some season facts. What I'm trying to work out is whether to use method 1 or 2, and what are the pros and cons of each, especially large amounts of facts. methodone seems wasteful since the facts are available, why bother building a list of them (especially a large list). This must have memory implications too if the list is large enough ? And it doesn't take advantage of Prolog's natural backtracking feature. methodtwo takes advantage of backtracking to do the recursion for me, and I would guess would be much more memory efficient, but is it good programming practice generally to do this? It's arguably uglier to follow, and might there be any other side effects? One problem I can see is that each time fail is called, we lose the ability to pass anything back to the calling predicate, eg. if it was methodtwo(SeasonResults), since we continually fail the predicate on purpose. So methodtwo would need to assert facts to store state. Presumably(?) method 2 would be faster as it has no (large) list processing to do? I could imagine that if I had a list, then methodone would be the way to go.. or is that always true? Might it make sense in any conditions to assert the list to facts using methodone then process them using method two? Complete madness? But then again, I read that asserting facts is a very 'expensive' business, so list handling might be the way to go, even for large lists? Any thoughts? Or is it sometimes better to use one and not the other, depending on (what) situation? eg. for memory optimisation, use method 2, including asserting facts and, for speed use method 1? season(spring). season(summer). season(autumn). season(winter). % Season handling showseason(Season) :- atom_length(Season, LenSeason), write('Season Length is '), write(LenSeason), nl. % ------------------------------------------------------------- % Method 1 - Findall facts/iterate through the list and process each %-------------------------------------------------------------- % Iterate manually through a season list lenseason([]). lenseason([Season|MoreSeasons]) :- showseason(Season), lenseason(MoreSeasons). % Findall to build a list then iterate until all done methodone :- findall(Season, season(Season), AllSeasons), lenseason(AllSeasons), write('Done'). % ------------------------------------------------------------- % Method 2 - Use fail to force recursion %-------------------------------------------------------------- methodtwo :- % Get one season and show it season(Season), showseason(Season), % Force prolog to backtrack to find another season fail. % No more seasons, we have finished methodtwo :- write('Done').

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 249 250 251 252 253 254 255 256 257 258 259 260  | Next Page >