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  • Using complex where clause in NHibernate mapping layer

    - by JLevett
    I've used where clauses previously in the mapping layer to prevent certain records from ever getting into my application at the lowest level possible. (Mainly to prevent having to re-write lots of lines of code to filter out the unwanted records) These have been simple, one column queries, like so this.Where("Invisible = 0"); However a scenario has appeared which requires the use of an exists sql query. exists (select ep_.Id from [Warehouse].[dbo].EventPart ep_ where Id = ep_.EventId and ep_.DataType = 4 In the above case I would usually reference the parent table Event with a short name, i.e. event_.Id however as Nhibernate generates these short names dynamically it's impossible to know what it's going to be. So instead I tried using just Id, from above ep_ where Id = ep_.EventId When the code is run, because of the dynamic short names the EventPart table short name ep_ is has another short name prefixed to it, event0_.ep_ where event0_ refers to the parent table. This causes an SQL error because of the . in between event0_ and ep_ So in my EventMap I have the following this.Where("(exists (select ep_.Id from [isnapshot.Warehouse].[dbo].EventPart ep_ where Id = ep_.EventId and ep_.DataType = 4)"); but when it's generated it creates this select cast(count(*) as INT) as col_0_0_ from [isnapshot.Warehouse].[dbo].Event event0_ where (exists (select ep_.Id from [isnapshot.Warehouse].[dbo].EventPart event0_.ep_ where event0_.Id = ep_.EventId and ep_.DataType = 4) It has correctly added the event0_ to the Id Was the mapping layer where clause built to handle this and if so where am I going wrong?

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  • What does it mean to say "Instance variables are not over-rided" in java?

    - by Ankit
    I am aware of the concept called field hiding in java. But still I am having a confusion in relation to instance variable being not over-ridden. According to my present knowledge, overriding a method of super-class means that the JVM will call the sub-class's over-ridden method though the super-class's method is available to the sub-class. And I read the similar thing for field hiding via the link:- Hiding Fields So, in any case we are over-ridding the instance if we change the values of the inherited instance variable in the sub-class. I am confused please help. I am using the following super-class:- public class Animal{ File picture; String food; int hunger; int width, height; int xcoord, ycoord; public void makeNoise(){ ......... } public void eat(){ ............. } public void sleep(){ .......... } public void roam(){ ............. } } It has sub-classes like Tiger, cat, dog,hippo etc. The sub-classes over-ride the makeNoise(), eat and roam() method. But each sub-class also uses a different set of values for instance variables. So as per my confusion, I am kind-of overriding all the instance variables and 3 methods of the super-class Animal; and I still have the super-class instance variables available to the sub-class with the use of the super keyword.

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  • Using Parameter Values In SQL Statement

    - by Dangerous
    I am trying to write a database script (SQL SERVER 2008) which will copy information from database tables on one server to corresponding tables in another database on a different server. I have read that the correct way to do this is to use a sql statement in a format similar to the following: INSERT INTO <linked_server>.<database>.<owner>.<table_name> SELECT * FROM <linked_server>.<database>.<owner>.<table_name> As there will be several tables being copied, I would like to declare variables at the top of the script to allow the user to specify the names of each server and database that are to be used. These could then be used throughout the script. However, I am not sure how to use the variable values in the actual SQL statements. What I want to achieve is something like the following: DECLARE @SERVER_FROM AS NVARCHAR(50) = 'ServerFrom' DECLARE @DATABASE_FROM AS NVARCHAR(50) = 'DatabaseTo' DECLARE @SERVER_TO AS NVARCHAR(50) = 'ServerTo' DECLARE @DATABASE_TO AS NVARCHAR(50) = 'DatabaseTo' INSERT INTO @SERVER_TO.@DATABASE_TO.dbo.TableName SELECT * FROM @SERVER_FROM.@DATABASE_FROM.dbo.TableName ... How should I use the @ variables in this code in order for it to work correctly? Additionally, do you think my method above is correct for what I am trying to achieve and should I be using NVARCHAR(50) as my variable type or something else? Thanks

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  • PHP: passing a function with parameters as parameter

    - by Oden
    Hey, I'm not sure that silly question, but I ask: So, if there is an anonymous function I can give it as another anonymous functions parameter, if it has been already stored a variable. But, whats in that case, if I have stored only one function in a variable, and add the second directly as a parameter into it? Can I add parameters to the non-stored function? Fist example (thats what i understand :) ): $func = function($str){ return $str; }; $func2 = function($str){ return $str; }; $var = $func($func2('asd')); var_dump($var); // prints out string(3) "asd" That makes sense for me, but what is with the following one? $func = function($str){ return $str; }; $var = $func(function($str = "asd"){ return $str; }); var_dump($var); /** This prints out: object(Closure)#1 (1) { ["parameter"]=> array(1) { ["$str"]=> string(10) "" } } But why? */ And at the end, can someone recommend me a book or an article, from what i can learn this lambda coding feature of php? Thank you in advance for your answers :)

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  • capturing CMD batch file parameter list; write to file for later processing

    - by BobB
    I have written a batch file that is launched as a post processing utility by a program. The batch file reads ~24 parameters supplied by the calling program, stores them into variables, and then writes them to various text files. Since the max input variable in CMD is %9, it's necessary to use the 'shift' command to repeatedly read and store these individually to named variables. Because the program outputs several similar batch files, the result is opening several CMD windows sequentially, assigning variables and writing data files. This ties up the calling program for too long. It occurs to me that I could free up the calling program much faster if maybe there's a way to write a very simple batch file that can write all the command parameters to a text file, where I can process them later. Basically, just grab the parameter list, write it and done. Q: Is there some way to treat an entire series of parameter data as one big text string and write it to one big variable... and then echo the whole big thing to one text file? Then later read the string into %n variables when there's no program waiting to resume? Parameter list is something like 25 - 30 words, less than 200 characters. Sample parameter list: "First Name" "Lastname" "123 Steet Name Way" "Cityname" ST 12345 1004968 06/01/2010 "Firstname+Lastname" 101738 "On Account" 20.67 xy-1z 1 8.95 3.00 1.39 0 0 239 8.95 Items in quotes are processed as string variables. List is space delimited. Any suggestions?

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  • What is the purpose of the s==NULL case for mbrtowc?

    - by R..
    mbrtowc is specified to handle a NULL pointer for the s (multibyte character pointer) argument as follows: If s is a null pointer, the mbrtowc() function shall be equivalent to the call: mbrtowc(NULL, "", 1, ps) In this case, the values of the arguments pwc and n are ignored. As far as I can tell, this usage is largely useless. If ps is not storing any partially-converted character, the call will simply return 0 with no side effects. If ps is storing a partially-converted character, then since '\0' is not valid as the next byte in a multibyte sequence ('\0' can only be a string terminator), the call will return (size_t)-1 with errno==EILSEQ. and leave ps in an undefined state. The intended usage seems to have been to reset the state variable, particularly when NULL is passed for ps and the internal state has been used, analogous to mbtowc's behavior with stateful encodings, but this is not specified anywhere as far as I can tell, and it conflicts with the semantics for mbrtowc's storage of partially-converted characters (if mbrtowc were to reset state when encountering a 0 byte after a potentially-valid initial subsequence, it would be unable to detect this dangerous invalid sequence). If mbrtowc were specified to reset the state variable only when s is NULL, but not when it points to a 0 byte, a desirable state-reset behavior would be possible, but such behavior would violate the standard as written. Is this a defect in the standard? As far as I can tell, there is absolutely no way to reset the internal state (used when ps is NULL) once an illegal sequence has been encountered, and thus no correct program can use mbrtowc with ps==NULL.

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  • How to use google maps API with multiple markers on the same map

    - by Maen
    So, i have the following script to use the google maps API, its all fine, but i need to create a map that has more than one Marker (the balloon shaped icon pointing to something) and i need each of those markers to point on a different area of the map (i.e. different coordinates), how can i do it? <script type="text/javascript"> function load() { var map = new GMap2(document.getElementById("map")); var marker = new GMarker(new GLatLng(<%=coordinates%>)); var html="<img src='simplemap_logo.jpg' width='20' height='20'/> " + "<%=maptitle%><br/>" + "<%=text%>"; map.setCenter(new GLatLng(<%=coordinates%>), <%=zoom%>) map.setMapType(G_HYBRID_MAP); map.addOverlay(marker); map.addControl(new GLargeMapControl()); map.addControl(new GScaleControl()); map.addControl(new GMapTypeControl()); marker.openInfoWindowHtml(html); } //]]> </script> One more question, if i pass the Script text as a variable, lets say something like: <script type="text/javascript"> <%=ScriptText%> </script> and my <%=ScriptText% will be a string which i will build and assign its value to a Friend or Public variable called ScriptText, will it still run and work properly? (i am doing this to make my script dynamic and different based on how i build it as a STRING, due to my illiteracy in javascripting ;P)

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  • Giving another object a NSManagedObject

    - by Wayfarer
    Alright, so I'm running into an issue with my code. What I have done is subclassed UIButton so I can give it some more infomormation that pertain to my code. I have been able to create the buttons and they work great. Capiche. However, one of the things I want my subclass to hold is a reference to a NSMangedObject. I have this code in my header file: @interface ButtonSubclass : UIButton { NSManagedObjectContext *context; NSManagedObject *player; } @property (nonatomic, retain) NSManagedObject *player; @property (nonatomic, retain) NSManagedObjectContext *context; - (id)initWithFrame:(CGRect)frame andTitle:(NSString*)title; //- (void)setPlayer:(NSManagedObject *)aPlayer; @end As you can see, it has a instance variable to the NSMangedobject I want it to hold (as well as the Context). But for the life of me, I can't get it to hold that NSManagedObject. I run both the @synthesize methods in the Implementation file. @synthesize context; @synthesize player; So I'm not sure what I'm doing wrong. This is how I create my button: ButtonSubclass *playerButton = [[ButtonSubclass alloc] initWithFrame:frame andTitle:@"20"]; //works playerButton.context = self.context; //works playerButton.player = [players objectAtIndex:i]; //FAILS And I have initilaized the players array earlier, where I get the objects. Another weird thing is that when it gets to this spot in the code, the app crashes (woot) and the the console output stops. It doesn't give me any error, and notification at all that the app has crashed. It just... stops. So I don't even know what the error is that is crashing the code, besides it has to do with that line up there setting the "player" variable. Thoughts and ideas? I'd love your wisdom!

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  • C# ref Confusion

    - by Rahat
    I have a confusion that when i pass a variable by refrence in the constructor of another class and after passing that object by refrence i recreate the refrence object with the new keyword. Now the class in which i have passed the refrenced object dosen't reflect the updated data. An exabple of the above problem is shown below: Object to be passed by Refrence: public class DummyObject { public string Name = "My Name"; public DummyObject() { } } Class which is passing the Refrence: public partial class Form1 : Form { // Object to be passed as refrence DummyObject dummyObject = new DummyObject(); public Form1() { InitializeComponent(); } private void button1_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { // assigning value dummyObject.Name = "I am Dummy"; // Passing object Form2 frm = new Form2(ref dummyObject); frm.Show(); } private void button2_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { // Displaying Name MessageBox.Show(this.dummyObject.Name); } private void button3_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { // Assigning new object this.dummyObject = new DummyObject(); // Changing Name Variable this.dummyObject.Name = "I am Rechanged"; // Displaying Name MessageBox.Show(this.dummyObject.Name); } } Class to which Object is passed by Reference: public partial class Form2 : Form { private DummyObject dummyObject = null; public Form2(ref DummyObject DummyObject) { InitializeComponent(); this.dummyObject = DummyObject; this.dummyObject.Name = "I am Changed"; } private void button2_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { MessageBox.Show(this.dummyObject.Name); } } whn i reaasign the object in Form 1 and cdisplay its value in form 2 it still displays "I am Changed" instead of "I am Rechanged". How to keep the data synchronized?

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  • PHP Object References in Frameworks

    - by bigstylee
    Before I dive into the disscusion part a quick question; Is there a method to determine if a variable is a reference to another variable/object? For example $foo = 'Hello World'; $bar = &$foo; echo (is_reference($bar) ? 'Is reference' : 'Is orginal'; I have been using PHP5 for a few years now (personal use only) and I would say I am moderately reversed on the topic of Object Orientated implementation. However the concept of Model View Controller Framework is fairly new to me. I have looked a number of tutorials and looked at some of the open source frameworks (mainly CodeIgnitor) to get a better understanding how everything fits together. I am starting to appreciate the real benefits of using this type of structure. I am used to implementing object referencing in the following technique. class Foo{ public $var = 'Hello World!'; } class Bar{ public function __construct(){ global $Foo; echo $Foo->var; } } $Foo = new Foo; $Bar = new Bar; I was surprised to see that CodeIgnitor and Yii pass referencs of objects and can be accessed via the following method: $this->load->view('argument') The immediate advantage I can see is a lot less code and more user friendly. But I do wonder if it is more efficient as these frameworks are presumably optimised? Or simply to make the code more user friendly? This was an interesting article Do not use PHP references.

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  • Good PHP / MYSQL hashing solution for large number of text values

    - by Dave
    Short descriptio: Need hashing algorithm solution in php for large number of text values. Long description. PRODUCT_OWNER_TABLE serial_number (auto_inc), product_name, owner_id OWNER_TABLE owner_id (auto_inc), owener_name I need to maintain a database of 200000 unique products and their owners (AND all subsequent changes to ownership). Each product has one owner, but an owner may have MANY different products. Owner names are "Adam Smith", "John Reeves", etc, just text values (quite likely to be unicode as well). I want to optimize the database design, so what i was thinking was, every week when i run this script, it fetchs the owner of a proudct, then checks against a table i suppose similar to PRODUCT_OWNER_TABLE, fetching the owner_id. It then looks up owner_id in OWNER_TABLE. If it matches, then its the same, so it moves on. The problem is when its different... To optimize the database, i think i should be checking against the other "owner_name" entries in OWNER_TABLE to see if that value exists there. If it does, then i should use that owner_id. If it doesnt, then i should add another entry. Note that there is nothing special about the "name". as long as i maintain the correct linkagaes AND make the OWNER_TABLE "read-only, append-new" type table - I should be able create a historical archive of ownership. I need to do this check for 200000 entries, with i dont know how many unique owner names (~50000?). I think i need a hashing solution - the OWNER_TABLE wont be sorted, so search algos wont be optimal. programming language is PHP. database is MYSQL.

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  • URL development and mod_rewrite

    - by iRector
    My site is made-up of the main page, and multiple sub-directories, all under the same domain. My URLS are currently like .................| Ideal clean version: mysite.com mysite.com/?content=content1 ......................| mysite.com/content1/ mysite.com/?content=content2&page=4 ........| mysite.com/content2/4/ mysite.com/?content=content3 ......................| mysite.com/content3/ mysite.com/?content=content4 ......................| mysite.com/content4/ mysite.com/?content=article&id=34 ............| mysite.com/article/34/ Then the sub-directories are essentially the same: mysite.com/subdir, mysite.com/subdir2, mysite.com/subdir3, etc mysite.com/subdir/?content=content1 ...................| mysite.com/subdir/content1/ mysite.com/subdir/?content=content2&page=4 .....| mysite.com/subdir/content2/4/ mysite.com/subdir/?content=content3 ...................| mysite.com/subdir/content3/ mysite.com/subdir/?content=content4 ...................| mysite.com/subdir/content4/ mysite.com/subdir/?content=article&id=34 .........| mysite.com/subdir/article/34/ I've used mod_rewrite briefly, but I'm not sure how to approach these multiple variables. Also, how would I differentiate between the actually subfolders, and the content variable. As so to prevent 'subdir' or 'subdir2' from being plugged in as the content variable for the root site. I've played around with plenty of code snippets, but I've wiped my .htaccess slate clean, and approach you all in an attempt to help me repopulate it. Your input would thoroughly be appreciated. Note: The only time the page query string will be needed is when 'content' == 'content2' ?content=content2&page=4 **Same rule is shared by the article/id relationship, all other 'content' values are expected to be dynamic.

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  • JQuery methods and DOM properties

    - by Bob Smith
    I am confused as to when I can use the DOM properties and when I could use the Jquery methods on a Jquery object. Say, I use a selector var $elemSel = $('#myDiv').find('[id *= \'select\']') At this point, $elemSel is a jquery object which I understand to be a wrapper around the array of DOM elements. I could get a reference to the DOM elements by iterating through the $elemSel object/array (Correct?) My questions: 1. Is there a way to convert this $elemSel into a non JQuery regular array of DOM elements? 2. Can I combine DOM properties and JQuery methods at the same time (something like this) $elemSel.children('td').nodeName (nodeName is DOM related, children is JQuery related) EDIT: What's wrong with this? $elemSel.get(0).is(':checked') EDIT 2: Thanks for the responses. I understand now that I can use the get(0) to get a DOM element. Additional questions: How would I convert a DOM element to a JQuery object? If I assign "this" to a variable, is that new var DOM or JQuery? If it's JQuery, how can I convert this to a DOM element? (Since I can't use get(0)) var $elemTd = $(this); When I do a assignment like the one above, I have seen some code samples not include the $ sign for the variable name. Why? And as for my original question, can I combine the DOM properties and JQuery functions at the same time on a JQuery object? $elemSel.children('td').nodeName

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  • Query to MySQL from c# returns System.Byte[]

    - by karthik
    I am using the below SP to return the value of Generated Insert statement and it works fine when executed in Query browser. When i try to get the value from C#, it give's me "System.Byte[]" as return value. When i try to get the value from MySql query browser, it give's me return value as : 'insert into admindb.accounts values("54321","2","karthik2","karthik2","1");' I guess the problem is with the single quotes of the returned value. Is it so ? DELIMITER $$ DROP PROCEDURE IF EXISTS `admindb`.`InsGen` $$ CREATE DEFINER=`root`@`localhost` PROCEDURE `InsGen`( in_db varchar(20), in_table varchar(20), in_ColumnName varchar(20), in_ColumnValue varchar(20) ) BEGIN declare Whrs varchar(500); declare Sels varchar(500); declare Inserts varchar(2000); declare tablename varchar(20); declare ColName varchar(20); set tablename=in_table; # Comma separated column names - used for Select select group_concat(concat('concat(\'"\',','ifnull(',column_name,','''')',',\'"\')')) INTO @Sels from information_schema.columns where table_schema=in_db and table_name=tablename; # Comma separated column names - used for Group By select group_concat('`',column_name,'`') INTO @Whrs from information_schema.columns where table_schema=in_db and table_name=tablename; #Main Select Statement for fetching comma separated table values set @Inserts=concat("select concat('insert into ", in_db,".",tablename," values(',concat_ws(',',",@Sels,"),');') as MyColumn from ", in_db,".",tablename, " where ", in_ColumnName, " = " , in_ColumnValue, " group by ",@Whrs, ";"); PREPARE Inserts FROM @Inserts; EXECUTE Inserts; END $$ DELIMITER ;

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  • xsl transform: problem with Ampersand URL parameters

    - by Rac123
    I'm having issues with transforming XSL with parameters in a URL. I'm at a point that I can't change the C# code anymore, only can make changes to xsl file. C# code: string xml = "<APPLDATA><APPID>1052391</APPID></APPLDATA>"; XmlDocument oXml = new XmlDocument(); oXml.LoadXml(xml); XslTransform oXslTransform = new XslTransform(); oXslTransform.Load(@"C:\Projects\Win\ConsoleApps\XslTransformTest\S15033.xsl"); StringWriter oOutput = new StringWriter(); oXslTransform.Transform(oXml, null, oOutput) XSL Code: <body> <xsl:variable name="app"> <xsl:value-of select="normalize-space(APPLDATA/APPID)" /> </xsl:variable> <div id="homeImage" > <xsl:attribute name="style"> background-image:url("https://server/image.gif?a=10&amp;Id='<xsl:value-of disable-output-escaping="yes" select="$app" />'") </xsl:attribute> </div> </body> </html> URL transformed: https://server/image.gif?a=10&Id='1052391' URL Expected: https://server/image.gif?a=10&Id='1052391' How do I fix this? The output (oOutput.ToString()) is being used in an email template so it's taking the URL transformed literally. When you click on this request (with the correct server name of course), the 403 (Access forbidden) error is being thrown.

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  • VB .NET error handling, pass error to caller

    - by user1375452
    this is my very first project on vb.net and i am now struggling to migrate a vba working add in to a vb.net COM Add-in. I think i'm sort of getting the hang, but error handling has me stymied. This is a test i've been using to understand the try-catch and how to pass exception to caller Public Sub test() Dim ActWkSh As Excel.Worksheet Dim ActRng As Excel.Range Dim ActCll As Excel.Range Dim sVar01 As String Dim iVar01 As Integer Dim sVar02 As String Dim iVar02 As Integer Dim objVar01 As Object ActWkSh = Me.Application.ActiveSheet ActRng = Me.Application.Selection ActCll = Me.Application.ActiveCell iVar01 = iVar02 = 1 sVar01 = CStr(ActCll.Value) sVar02 = CStr(ActCll.Offset(1, 0).Value) Try objVar01 = GetValuesV(sVar01, sVar02) 'DO SOMETHING HERE Catch ex As Exception MsgBox("ERRORE: " + ex.Message) 'LOG ERROR SOMEWHERE Finally MsgBox("DONE!") End Try End Sub Private Function GetValuesV(ByVal QryStr As Object, ByVal qryConn As String) As Object Dim cnn As Object Dim rs As Object Try cnn = CreateObject("ADODB.Connection") cnn.Open(qryConn) rs = CreateObject("ADODB.recordset") rs = cnn.Execute(QryStr) If rs.EOF = False Then GetValuesV = rs.GetRows Else Throw New System.Exception("Query Return Empty Set") End If Catch ex As Exception Throw ex Finally rs.Close() cnn.Close() End Try End Function i'd like to have the error message up to test, but MsgBox("ERRORE: " + ex.Message) pops out something unexpected (Object variable or With block variable not set) What am i doing wrong here?? Thanks D

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  • Partially constructed object / Multi threading

    - by reto
    Heya! I'm using joda due to it's good reputation regarding multi threading. It goes great distances to make multi threaded date handling efficient, for example by making all Date/Time/DateTime objects immutable. But here's a situation where I'm not sure if Joda is really doing the right thing. It probably is correct, but I'd be very interested to see the explanation for it. When a toString() of a DateTime is being called Joda does the following: /* org.joda.time.base.AbstractInstant */ public String toString() { return ISODateTimeFormat.dateTime().print(this); } All formatters are thread safe, as they are as well ready-only. But what's about the formatter-factory: private static DateTimeFormatter dt; /* org.joda.time.format.ISODateTimeFormat */ public static DateTimeFormatter dateTime() { if (dt == null) { dt = new DateTimeFormatterBuilder() .append(date()) .append(tTime()) .toFormatter(); } return dt; } This is a common pattern in single threaded applications. I see the following dangers: Race condition during null check -- worst case: two objects get created. No Problem, as this is solely a helper object (unlike a normal singleton pattern situation), one gets saved in dt, the other is lost and will be garbage collected sooner or later. the static variable might point to a partially constructed object before the objec has been finished initialization (before calling me crazy, read about a similar situation in this Wikipedia article. So how does Joda ensure that not partially created formatter gets published in this static variable? Thanks for your explanations! Reto

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  • php funciton problem

    - by Holian
    Hello, i have this little script, which should ping the IPs in the host_to_ping array. This php is called with JS in the index.html. But somethin' wrong, 'coz the $rval is always 1 (which mean the host is unreachable). But i know that the first two host is alive. So i print the $res variable, and i see the message: Need to give the IP. I dont understand why dont replace the $host variable to the actual IP address in the function. <?php function ping($host) { exec(sprintf('ping -n 4', escapeshellarg($host)), $res, $rval); print_r($res); return $rval === 0; } $hosts_to_ping = array('10.54.23.254', '10.22.23.254', '10.23.66.134'); ?> <ul> <?php foreach ($hosts_to_ping as $host): ?> <li> <?php echo $host; ?> <?php $up = ping($host); ?> (<img src="<?php echo $up ? 'on' : 'off'; ?>" alt="<?php echo $up ? 'up' : 'down'; ?>">) </li> <?php endforeach; ?> </ul>

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  • Returning object from function

    - by brainydexter
    I am really confused now on how and which method to use to return object from a function. I want some feedback on the solutions for the given requirements. Scenario A: The returned object is to be stored in a variable which need not be modified during its lifetime. Thus, const Foo SomeClass::GetFoo() { return Foo(); } invoked as: someMethod() { const Foo& l_Foo = someClassPInstance->GetFoo(); //... } Scneraio B: The returned object is to be stored in a variable which will be modified during its lifetime. Thus, void SomeClass::GetFoo(Foo& a_Foo_ref) { a_Foo_ref = Foo(); } invoked as: someMethod() { Foo l_Foo; someClassPInstance-GetFoo(l_Foo); //... } I have one question here: Lets say that Foo cannot have a default constructor. Then how would you deal with that in this situation, since we cant write this anymore: Foo l_Foo Scenario C: Foo SomeClass::GetFoo() { return Foo(); } invoked as: someMethod() { Foo l_Foo = someClassPInstance->GetFoo(); //... } I think this is not the recommended approach since it would incur constructing extra temporaries. What do you think ? Also, do you recommend a better way to handle this instead ?

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  • pass a number value to a Timer, XML and AS3

    - by VideoDnd
    I want to pass a number value to a Timer. How do I do this? My number and integer values for other variables work fine. Error I get null object reference and coercion of value, because I'm not passing to 'timer' properly. I don't want to say my variable's a number, I want to say it has a number value. Variable //what I have now var timer:Timer; timer = new Timer(100); Path myXML.COUNT.text(); XML <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <SESSION> <TIMER TITLE="speed">100</TIMER> </SESSION> Parse and Load //LOAD XML var myXML:XML; var myLoader:URLLoader = new URLLoader(); myLoader.load(new URLRequest("time.xml")); myLoader.addEventListener(Event.COMPLETE, processXML); //PARSE XML function processXML(e:Event):void { myXML = new XML(e.target.data);

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  • R: manipulating data.frames containing strings and booleans.

    - by Mike Dewar
    Hello. I have a data.frame in R; it's called p. Each element in the data.frame is either True or False. My variable p has, say, m rows and n columns. For every row there is strictly only one TRUE element. It also has column names, which are strings. What I would like to do is the following: For every row in p I see a TRUE I would like to replace with the name of the corresponding column I would then like to collapse the data.frame, which now contains FALSEs and column names, to a single vector, which will have m elements. I would like to do this in an R-thonic manner, so as to continue my enlightenment in R and contribute to a world without for-loops. I can do step 1 using the following for loop: for (i in seq(length(colnames(p)))) { p[p[,i]==TRUE,i]=colnames(p)[i] } but theres's no beauty here and I have totally subscribed to this for-loops-in-R-are-probably-wrong mentality. Maybe wrong is too strong but they're certainly not great. I don't really know how to do step 2. I kind of hoped that the sum of a string and FALSE would return the string but it doesn't. I kind of hoped I could use an OR operator of some kind but can't quite figure that out (Python responds to False or 'bob' with 'bob'). Hence, yet again, I appeal to you beautiful Rstats people for help!

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  • Optimize LINQ Query for use with jQuery Autocomplete

    - by rockinthesixstring
    I'm working on building an HTTPHandler that will serve up plain text for use with jQuery Autocomplete. I have it working now except for when I insert the first bit of text it does not take me to the right portion of the alphabet. Example: If I enter Ne my drop down returns Nlabama Arkansas Notice the "N" from Ne and the "labama" from "Alabama" As I type the third character New, then the jQuery returns the "N" section of the results. My current code looks like this Public Sub ProcessRequest(ByVal context As System.Web.HttpContext) Implements System.Web.IHttpHandler.ProcessRequest ' the page contenttype is plain text' HttpContext.Current.Response.ContentType = "text/plain" ' store the querystring as a variable' Dim qs As Nullable(Of Integer) = Integer.TryParse(HttpContext.Current.Request.QueryString("ID"), Nothing) ' use the RegionsDataContext' Using RegionDC As New DAL.RegionsDataContext 'create a (q)uery variable' Dim q As Object ' if the querystring PID is not blank' ' then we want to return results based on the PID' If Not qs Is Nothing Then ' that fit within the Parent ID' q = (From r In RegionDC.bt_Regions _ Where r.PID = qs _ Select r.Region).ToArray ' now we loop through the array' ' and write out the ressults' For Each item In q HttpContext.Current.Response.Write(item & vbCrLf) Next End If End Using End Sub So where I'm at now is the fact that I stumbled on the "Part" portion of the Autocomplete method whereby I should only return information that is contained within the Part. My question is, how would I implement this concept into my HTTPHandler without doing a fresh SQLQuery on every character change? IE: I do the SQL Query on the QueryString("ID"), and then on every subsequent load of the same ID, we just filter down the "Part". http://www.example.com/ReturnRegions.axd?ID=[someID]&Part=[string]

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  • What's the best way to format this simple HTML form using CSS?

    - by GregH
    I have have a simple HTML form with say four input widgets (see below)...two lines with two widgets on each line. However, when this renders it is pretty ugly. I want the whole form to be indented from the edge of the left page say 40px and I want the left edge of the widgets to line up with each other and the right edge of the labels to line up. I also want to be able to specify a minimum distance between the right edge of the first widget and the label of the widget next to it. How would I do this using CSS? Basically so it looks something like: Name: _____________ Common Names: _____________ Version: ____________ Status: ____________ See current un-formatted HTML below: <form name="detailData"> <div id="dataEntryForm"> <label> Name: <input type="text" class="input_text" name="ddName"/> Common Names: <input type="text" class="input_text" name="ddCommonNames"><P> Version: <input type="text" class="input_text" name="ddVer"/> Status: <select name="ddStatus"><option value="A" selected="selected">Active</option><option value="P">Planned</option><option value="D">Deprecated</option> </label> </div> </form>

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  • Php JSON Response Array

    - by Nick Kl
    I have this php code. As you can see i query a mysql database through a function showallevents. I return a the $result to the $event variable. I try to return all rows of the data that i take with the msql_fetch_assoc. I don't get response even when i encode the $response variable. It returns null to all fields. Can anyone help me on what i am doing wrong. I had a valid code but it was returning only 1 row of data so i tried to make an associative array but seems i am failing. if ($tag == 'showallevents') { // Request type is show all events // show all events $event = $db->showallevents(); if ($event != false) { $data = array(); while($row = mysql_fetch_assoc($event)) { $data[] = array( $response["success"] = 1, $response["uid"] = $event["uid"], $response["event"]["date"] = $event["date"], $response["event"]["hours"] = $event["hours"], $response["event"]["store_name"] = $event["store_name"], $response["event"]["event_information"] = $event["event_information"], $response["event"]["event_type"] = $event["event_type"], $response["event"]["Phone"] = $event["Phone"], $response["event"]["address"] = $event["address"], $response["event"]["created_at"] = $event["created_at"], $response["event"]["updated_at"] = $event["updated_at"]); } echo json_encode($data); } else { // event not found // echo json with error = 1 $response["error"] = 1; $response["error_msg"] = "Events not found"; echo json_encode($response); } } else { echo "Access Denied"; } } ?>

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  • formtastic weird month name display

    - by Alexey Poimtsev
    Hi, i'm using formtastic, all is ok, but strange thing - on = form.input :birthdate, :as => :date it renders to something like <li><label for="profile_birthdate_2i">Month</label><select id="profile_birthdate_2i" name="profile[birthdate(2i)]"> <option value="1">114</option> <option value="2">97</option> <option value="3">110</option> <option value="4">115</option> <option value="5">108</option> <option value="6">97</option> <option value="7">116</option> <option value="8">105</option> <option value="9">111</option> <option value="10">110</option> <option value="11">32</option> <option value="12">109</option> </select> but if i'm using in semantic_form something like = form.datetime_select :birthdate it renders correctly. I've found information, that it may be caused by locale file with no translations for month names, but its so strange - why rails helpers renders month names ok, but formtastic - not :( any ideas?

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