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  • Internet Explorer 8 + Deflate

    - by Andreas Bonini
    I have a very weird problem.. I really do hope someone has an answer because I wouldn't know where else to ask. I am writing a cgi application in C++ which is executed by Apache and outputs HTML code. I am compressing the HTML output myself - from within my C++ application - since my web host doesn't support mod_deflate for some reason. I tested this with Firefox 2, Firefox 3, Opera 9, Opera 10, Google Chrome, Safari, IE6, IE7, IE8, even wget.. It works with ANYTHING except IE8. IE8 just says "Internet Explorer cannot display the webpage", with no information whatsoever. I know it's because of the compression only because it works if I disable it. Do you know what I'm doing wrong? I use zlib to compress it, and the exact code is: /* Compress it */ int compressed_output_size = content.length() + (content.length() * 0.2) + 16; char *compressed_output = (char *)Alloc(compressed_output_size); int compressed_output_length; Compress(compressed_output, compressed_output_size, (void *)content.c_str(), content.length(), &compressed_output_length); /* Send the compressed header */ cout << "Content-Encoding: deflate\r\n"; cout << boost::format("Content-Length: %d\r\n") % compressed_output_length; cgiHeaderContentType("text/html"); cout.write(compressed_output, compressed_output_length); static void Compress(void *to, size_t to_size, void *from, size_t from_size, int *final_size) { int ret; z_stream stream; stream.zalloc = Z_NULL; stream.zfree = Z_NULL; stream.opaque = Z_NULL; if ((ret = deflateInit(&stream, CompressionSpeed)) != Z_OK) COMPRESSION_ERROR("deflateInit() failed: %d", ret); stream.next_out = (Bytef *)to; stream.avail_out = (uInt)to_size; stream.next_in = (Bytef *)from; stream.avail_in = (uInt)from_size; if ((ret = deflate(&stream, Z_NO_FLUSH)) != Z_OK) COMPRESSION_ERROR("deflate() failed: %d", ret); if (stream.avail_in != 0) COMPRESSION_ERROR("stream.avail_in is not 0 (it's %d)", stream.avail_in); if ((ret = deflate(&stream, Z_FINISH)) != Z_STREAM_END) COMPRESSION_ERROR("deflate() failed: %d", ret); if ((ret = deflateEnd(&stream)) != Z_OK) COMPRESSION_ERROR("deflateEnd() failed: %d", ret); if (final_size) *final_size = stream.total_out; return; }

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  • remove data layer and put into it's own domain

    - by user334768
    I have a SL4 application that uses EF4 & RIA Services. DB is SQL 2008. All is working well. Now I want to put the Database and web services on one domain (A.com) with the web service exposing the same methods available in my working project. (one listed at top of message) Then put a Silverlight application (same one as above) on domain(B.com) and call the web services on A.com. I thought I had a fair understanding of RIA Services. Enough to get the above application working. Now when I say "working" I do mean on my local dev machine. I have yet to deployed as SL4 & .NET 4 application to my hosting site. But I don't think I understand it well enough. I normally create a new business app, add EF then create the RIA DomainService. Add any [Includes] I need, modify my linq queries and run application. And it works. Now I need to break off my data layer and put it on another hosting site (A.com) And put my UI and business logic on another hosting site (B.com) I think I need to do the following : On the Database & web service site: domain(A.com) create application, create EF4, create RIA Services and deploy. At this time, are the methods exposed available as a "WEB SERVICE" to other applications calling by http:// a.com/serviceName.svc address? I think I need to do the following : On the application site : domain(B.com) create a business application (later will need authentication and navigation). How can I create an EF when I don't have access to the database? (I know I do have access but I want know what happens here when I do not have access to the database, but only data provided by a web service) If I can not create an EF how do I create my RIA Service? I hope any one who takes time to help me understands what I'm asking. Sorry so long.

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  • R: Plotting a graph with different colors of points based on advanced criteria

    - by balconydoor
    What I would like to do is a plot (using ggplot), where the x axis represent years which have a different colour for the last three years in the plot than the rest. The last three years should also meet a certain criteria and based on this the last three years can either be red or green. The criteria is that the mean of the last three years should be less (making it green) or more (making it red) than the 66%-percentile of the remaining years. So far I have made two different functions calculating the last three year mean: LYM3 <- function (x) { LYM3 <- tail(x,3) mean(LYM3$Data,na.rm=T) } And the 66%-percentile for the remaining: perc66 <- function(x) { percentile <- head(x,-3) quantile(percentile$Data, .66, names=F,na.rm=T) } Here are two sets of data that can be used in the calculations (plots), the first which is an example from my real data where LYM3(df1) < perc66(df1) and the second is just made up data where LYM3 perc66. df1<- data.frame(Year=c(1979:2010), Data=c(347261.87, 145071.29, 110181.93, 183016.71, 210995.67, 205207.33, 103291.78, 247182.10, 152894.45, 170771.50, 206534.55, 287770.86, 223832.43, 297542.86, 267343.54, 475485.47, 224575.08, 147607.81, 171732.38, 126818.10, 165801.08, 136921.58, 136947.63, 83428.05, 144295.87, 68566.23, 59943.05, 49909.08, 52149.11, 117627.75, 132127.79, 130463.80)) df2 <- data.frame(Year=c(1979:2010), Data=c(sample(50,29,replace=T),75,75,75)) Here’s my code for my plot so far: plot <- ggplot(df1, aes(x=Year, y=Data)) + theme_bw() + geom_point(size=3, aes(colour=ifelse(df1$Year<2008, "black",ifelse(LYM3(df1) < perc66(df1),"green","red")))) + geom_line() + scale_x_continuous(breaks=c(1980,1985,1990,1995,2000,2005,2010), limits=c(1978,2011)) plot As you notice it doesn’t really do what I want it to do. The only thing it does seem to do is that it turns the years before 2008 into one level and those after into another one and base the point colour off these two levels. Since I don’t want this year to be stationary either, I made another tiny function: fun3 <- function(x) { df <- subset(x, Year==(max(Year)-2)) df$Year } So the previous code would have the same effect as: geom_point(size=3, aes(colour=ifelse(df1$Year<fun3(df1), "black","red"))) But it still does not care about my colours. Why does it make the years into levels? And how come an ifelse function doesn’t work within another one in this case? How would it be possible to the arguments to do what I like? I realise this might be a bit messy, asking for a lot at the same time, but I hope my description is pretty clear. It would be helpful if someone could at least point me in the right direction. I tried to put the code for the plot into a function as well so I wouldn’t have to change the data frame at all functions within the plot, but I can’t get it to work. Thank you!

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  • sed - trying to replace first occurrence after a match

    - by wakkaluba
    I am facing a situation that drives me nuts. I am setting up an update server which uses a json file. Don't ask why or how, it sucks and is my only possibility to achieve it. I have been trying and researching for HOURS (many) because I went ballistic and wanted to crack this on my own. But I have to realize I got stuck and need help. So sorry for this chunk but I think it is somewhat important to see... The file is a one liner and repeating the following sequence with changing values (of course). "plugin_name_foo_bar": {"buildDate": "bla", "dependencies": [{"name": "bla", "optional": true, "version": "1.00"}], "developers": [{"developerId": "bla", "email": "[email protected]", "name": "Bla bla2nd"}], "excerpt": "some text {excerpt} !bla.png|thumbnail,border=1! ", "gav": "bla", "labels": ["report", "scm-related"], "name": "plugin_name_foo_bar", "previousTimestamp": "bla", "previousVersion": "1.0", "releaseTimestamp": "bla", "requiredCore": "1", "scm": "github.com", "sha1": "ynnBM2jWo25ZLDdP3ybBOnV/Pio=", "title": "bla", "url": "http://bla.org", "version": "1.0", "wiki": "https://bla.org"}, "Exclusion": {"buildDate": "bla", "dependencies": [], and the next plugin block is glued straight afterwards. What I now want to do is to search for "plugin_foo_bar": {" as this is the unique identifier for a new plugin description block. I want to replace the first sha1 value occuring afterwards. That's where I keep failing. I always grab the first,last or any occurrence in the entire file and not the block :( "title" is the unique identifier after the sha1 value. So I tried to make the .* less greedy but it ain't working out. last attempt was heading towards: sed -i 's/("name": "plugin_name_foo_bar.*sha1": ")([a-zA-Z0-9!@#\$%^&*()\[\]]*)(", "title"\)/\1blablabla\2/1' default.json to find the sha1 value of that plugin but still no joy. I hope someone knows - preferably a simpler approach - before I now continue with trial and error until I have to puke and freakout. I am working with SED on Windows, so Unix approach might help me to figure out how to achieve this in batch but please make it as one-liner if possible. Scripts are a real pain to convert. And I just need SED and no other solution with other tools like AWK. That is absolutely out of discussion. Any help is appreciated :) Cheers Jan

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  • How do you unit test the real world?

    - by Kim Sun-wu
    I'm primarily a C++ coder, and thus far, have managed without really writing tests for all of my code. I've decided this is a Bad Idea(tm), after adding new features that subtly broke old features, or, depending on how you wish to look at it, introduced some new "features" of their own. But, unit testing seems to be an extremely brittle mechanism. You can test for something in "perfect" conditions, but you don't get to see how your code performs when stuff breaks. A for instance is a crawler, let's say it crawls a few specific sites, for data X. Do you simply save sample pages, test against those, and hope that the sites never change? This would work fine as regression tests, but, what sort of tests would you write to constantly check those sites live and let you know when the application isn't doing it's job because the site changed something, that now causes your application to crash? Wouldn't you want your test suite to monitor the intent of the code? The above example is a bit contrived, and something I haven't run into (in case you haven't guessed). Let me pick something I have, though. How do you test an application will do its job in the face of a degraded network stack? That is, say you have a moderate amount of packet loss, for one reason or the other, and you have a function DoSomethingOverTheNetwork() which is supposed to degrade gracefully when the stack isn't performing as it's supposed to; but does it? The developer tests it personally by purposely setting up a gateway that drops packets to simulate a bad network when he first writes it. A few months later, someone checks in some code that modifies something subtly, so the degradation isn't detected in time, or, the application doesn't even recognize the degradation, this is never caught, because you can't run real world tests like this using unit tests, can you? Further, how about file corruption? Let's say you're storing a list of servers in a file, and the checksum looks okay, but the data isn't really. You want the code to handle that, you write some code that you think does that. How do you test that it does exactly that for the life of the application? Can you? Hence, brittleness. Unit tests seem to test the code only in perfect conditions(and this is promoted, with mock objects and such), not what they'll face in the wild. Don't get me wrong, I think unit tests are great, but a test suite composed only of them seems to be a smart way to introduce subtle bugs in your code while feeling overconfident about it's reliability. How do I address the above situations? If unit tests aren't the answer, what is? Thanks!

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  • Sliding panel in the middle of the page. Z-index given not working

    - by Nehal Rupani
    Hi all, I am implementing sliding panel element but problem is when i slide out other div element is floating down. I guess and tried to give z-index to element which i am sliding but it doesn't seems to work. Let me put code for both div. <div class="vrcontrol"> <div class="slide-out-div"> <a class="handle" href="http://link-for-non-js-users.html">Content</a> <h3>Contact me</h3> <p>Thanks for checking out my jQuery plugin, I hope you find this useful. </p> <p>This can be a form to submit feedback, or contact info</p> </div> This is div which i am sliding in and out and beneath is code of effective div. <div class="askform"> <p class="titletext">Ask an Expert Trade Forum</p> <p class="detailtext">WD-40’s leading source for DIY tips and tricks.</p> <span> <form id="askform" name="askform" action="" method="post"> <span class="left"><input name="input" type="text" class="askinputbox"/></span><span class="marginleft"><input type="image" src="images/search_icon.gif" /></span> </form> </span> <div class="followus"> <span class="followtext">Follow us on</span><span class="right"><img src="images/bookmark.jpg" width="121" height="45" alt="Bookmark" /></span> </div> </div> Sliding div is in left portion of the page and effective div is in right portion of the page. I guess something with z-index, positioning element and overflow properties will do something.

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  • mod_rewrite not working for a specific directory

    - by punkish
    This has got me completely foxed for a couple of days now, and I am convinced that I will look stupid once I solve it, but will be even stupider if I don't ask for help now. I have mod_rewrite working successfully on my localhost (no vhosts involved; this is my laptop, my development machine), and I use .htaccess in various directories to help rewrite crufty URLs to clean ones. EXCEPT... it doesn't work in one directory. Since it is impossible to reproduce my entire laptop in this question, I provide the following details. In my httpd.conf, I have mod_rewrite.so loaded. LoadModule rewrite_module modules/mod_rewrite.so In my httpd.conf, I have included another conf file like so Include /usr/local/apache2/conf/other/punkish.conf In my punkish.conf, I have directories defined like so DocumentRoot "/Users/punkish/Sites" <Directory "/Users/punkish/Sites"> Options ExecCGI AllowOverride None Order allow,deny Allow from all </Directory> <Directory "/Users/punkish/Sites/one"> Options FollowSymLinks AllowOverride All Order allow,deny Allow from all </Directory> <Directory "/Users/punkish/Sites/two"> Options FollowSymLinks AllowOverride All Order allow,deny Allow from all </Directory> In ~/Sites/one I have the following .htaccess file RewriteEngine On RewriteBase /one/ # If an actual file or directory is requested, serve directly RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d # Otherwise, pass everything through to the dispatcher RewriteRule ^(.*)$ index.cgi/$1 [L,QSA] and, everything works just fine. However, in my directory ~/Sites/two I have the following .htaccess file RewriteEngine On RewriteBase /two/ # If an actual file or directory is requested, serve directly RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d # Otherwise, pass everything through to the dispatcher RewriteRule ^(.*)$ index.cgi/$1 [L,QSA] and, nothing works. Nada. Zip. Zilch. I just get a 404. I have determined that mod_rewrite is not even looking at my ~/Sites/two/.htaccess by putting spurious commands in it and not getting any error other than 404. Another confounding issue -- I have turned on RewriteLog in my httpd.conf with RewriteLogLevel 3, but my rewrite_log is completely empty. I know this is hard to trouble shoot unless sitting physically at the computer in question, but I hope someone can give me some indication as to what is going on. **Update: ** There are no aliases involved anywhere. This is my laptop, and everything is under the above stated Document Root, so I just access each directory as http://localhost/. Yes, typos are a big possibility (I did say that I will look stupid once I solve it, however, for now, I have not discovered a single typo anywhere, and yes, I have restarted Apache about a dozen times now. I even thought that perhaps I had two different Apaches running, but no, I have only one, the one under /usr/local/apache2, and I installed it myself a while back.

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  • calling startActivity() inside of a instance method - causing a NullPointerException

    - by Cole
    Heya - I'm trying to call startActivity() from a class that extends AsyncTask in the onPostExecute(). Here's the flow: Class that extends AsyncTask: protected void onPostExecute() { Login login = new Login(); login.pushCreateNewOrChooseExistingFormActivity(); } Class that extends Activity: public void pushCreateNewOrChooseExistingFormActivity() { // start the CreateNewOrChooseExistingForm Activity Intent intent = new Intent(Intent.ACTION_VIEW); **ERROR_HERE*** intent.setClassName(this, CreateNewOrChooseExistingForm.class.getName()); startActivity(intent); } And I get this error… every time: 03-17 16:04:29.579: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(1503): FATAL EXCEPTION: main 03-17 16:04:29.579: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(1503): java.lang.NullPointerException 03-17 16:04:29.579: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(1503): at android.content.ContextWrapper.getPackageName(ContextWrapper.java:120) 03-17 16:04:29.579: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(1503): at android.content.ComponentName.(ComponentName.java:62) 03-17 16:04:29.579: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(1503): at android.content.Intent.setClassName(Intent.java:4850) 03-17 16:04:29.579: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(1503): at com.att.AppName.Login.pushCreateNewOrChooseExistingFormActivity(Login.java:47) For iOS developers - I'm just trying to push a new view controller on to a navigational controller's stack a la pushViewController:animated:. Which apparently - is hard to do on this platform. Any ideas? Thanks in advance! UPDATE - FIXED: per @Falmarri advice, i managed to resolve this issue. first of all, i'm no longer calling Login login = new Login(); to create a new login object. bad. bad. bad. no cookie. instead, when preparing to call .execute(), this tutorial suggests passing the applicationContext to the class the executes the AsyncTask, for my purposes, as shown below: CallWebServiceTask task = new CallWebServiceTask(); // pass the login object to the task task.applicationContext = login; // execute the task in the background, passing the required params task.execute(login); now, in onPostExecute(), i can get to my Login objects methods like so: ((Login) applicationContext).pushCreateNewOrChooseExistingFormActivity(); ((Login) applicationContext).showLoginFailedAlert(result.get("httpResponseCode").toString()); ... hope this helps someone else out there! especially iOS developers transistioning over to Android...

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  • What is GC holes?

    - by tianyi
    I wrote a long TCP connection socket server in C#. Spike in memory in my server happens. I used dotNet Memory Profiler(a tool) to detect where the memory leaks. Memory Profiler indicates the private heap is huge, and the memory is something like below(the number is not real,what I want to show is the GC0 and GC2's Holes are very very huge, the data size is normal): Managed heaps - 1,500,000KB Normal heap - 1400,000KB Generation #0 - 600,000KB Data - 100,000KB "Holes" - 500,000KB Generation #1 - xxKB Data - 0KB "Holes" - xKB Generation #2 - xxxxxxxxxxxxxKB Data - 100,000KB "Holes" - 700,000KB Large heap - 131072KB Large heap - 83KB Overhead/unused - 130989KB Overhead - 0KB Howerver, what is GC hole? I read an article about the hole: http://kaushalp.blogspot.com/2007/04/what-is-gc-hole-and-how-to-create-gc.html The author said : The code snippet below is the simplest way to introduce a GC hole into the system. //OBJECTREF is a typedef for Object*. { PointerTable *pTBL = o_pObjectClass->GetPointerTable(); OBJECTREF aObj = AllocateObjectMemory(pTBL); OBJECTREF bObj = AllocateObjectMemory(pTBL); //WRONG!!! “aObj” may point to garbage if the second //“AllocateObjectMemory” triggered a GC. DoSomething (aOb, bObj); } All it does is allocate two managed objects, and then does something with them both. This code compiles fine, and if you run simple pre-checkin tests, it will probably “work.” But this code will crash eventually. Why? If the second call to “AllocateObjectMemory” triggers a GC, that GC discards the object instance you just assigned to “aObj”. This code, like all C++ code inside the CLR, is compiled by a non-managed compiler and the GC cannot know that “aObj” holds a root reference to an object you want kept live. ======================================================================== I can't understand what he explained. Does the sample mean aObj becomes a wild pointer after GC? Is it mean { aObj = (*aObj)malloc(sizeof(object)); free(aObj); function(aObj);? } ? I hope somebody can explain it.

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  • MATLAB query about for loop, reading in data and plotting

    - by mp7
    Hi there, I am a complete novice at using matlab and am trying to work out if there is a way of optimising my code. Essentially I have data from model outputs and I need to plot them using matlab. In addition I have reference data (with 95% confidence intervals) which I plot on the same graph to get a visual idea on how close the model outputs and reference data is. In terms of the model outputs I have several thousand files (number sequentially) which I open in a loop and plot. The problem/question I have is whether I can preprocess the data and then plot later - to save time. The issue I seem to be having when I try this is that I have a legend which either does not appear or is inaccurate. My code (apolgies if it not elegant): fn= xlsread(['tbobserved' '.xls']); time= fn(:,1); totalreference=fn(:,4); totalreferencelowerci=fn(:,6); totalreferenceupperci=fn(:,7); figure plot(time,totalrefrence,'-', time, totalreferencelowerci,'--', time, totalreferenceupperci,'--'); xlabel('Year'); ylabel('Reference incidence per 100,000 population'); title ('Total'); clickableLegend('Observed reference data', 'Totalreferencelowerci', 'Totalreferenceupperci','Location','BestOutside'); xlim([1910 1970]); hold on start_sim=10000; end_sim=10005; h = zeros (1,1000); for i=start_sim:end_sim %is there any way of doing this earlier to save time? a=int2str(i); incidenceFile =strcat('result_', 'Sim', '_', a, 'I_byCal_total.xls'); est_tot=importdata(incidenceFile, '\t', 1); cal_tot=est_tot.data; magnitude=1; t1=cal_tot(:,1)+1750; totalmodel=cal_tot(:,3)+cal_tot(:,5); h(a)=plot(t1,totalmodel); xlim([1910 1970]); ylim([0 500]); hold all clickableLegend(h(a),a,'Location','BestOutside') end Essentially I was hoping to have a way of reading in the data and then plot later - ie. optimise the code. I hope you might be able to help. Thanks. mp

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  • PHP echo query result in Class??

    - by Jerry
    Hi all I have a question about PHP Class. I am trying to get the result from Mysql via PHP. I would like to know if the best practice is to display the result inside the Class or store the result and handle it in html. For example, display result inside the Class class Schedule { public $currentWeek; function teamQuery($currentWeek){ $this->currentWeek=$currentWeek; } function getSchedule(){ $connection = mysql_connect(DB_SERVER,DB_USER,DB_PASS); if (!$connection) { die("Database connection failed: " . mysql_error()); } $db_select = mysql_select_db(DB_NAME,$connection); if (!$db_select) { die("Database selection failed: " . mysql_error()); } $scheduleQuery=mysql_query("SELECT guest, home, time, winner, pickEnable FROM $this->currentWeek ORDER BY time", $connection); if (!$scheduleQuery){ die("database has errors: ".mysql_error()); } while($row=mysql_fetch_array($scheduleQuery, MYSQL_NUMS)){ //display the result..ex: echo $row['winner']; } mysql_close($scheduleQuery); //no returns } } Or return the query result as a variable and handle in php class Schedule { public $currentWeek; function teamQuery($currentWeek){ $this->currentWeek=$currentWeek; } function getSchedule(){ $connection = mysql_connect(DB_SERVER,DB_USER,DB_PASS); if (!$connection) { die("Database connection failed: " . mysql_error()); } $db_select = mysql_select_db(DB_NAME,$connection); if (!$db_select) { die("Database selection failed: " . mysql_error()); } $scheduleQuery=mysql_query("SELECT guest, home, time, winner, pickEnable FROM $this->currentWeek ORDER BY time", $connection); if (!$scheduleQuery){ die("database has errors: ".mysql_error()); // create an array } $ret = array(); while($row=mysql_fetch_array($scheduleQuery, MYSQL_NUMS)){ $ret[]=$row; } mysql_close($scheduleQuery); return $ret; // and handle the return value in php } } Two things here: I found that returned variable in php is a little bit complex to play with since it is two dimension array. I am not sure what the best practice is and would like to ask you experts opinions. Every time I create a new method, I have to recreate the $connection variable: see below $connection = mysql_connect(DB_SERVER,DB_USER,DB_PASS); if (!$connection) { die("Database connection failed: " . mysql_error()); } $db_select = mysql_select_db(DB_NAME,$connection); if (!$db_select) { die("Database selection failed: " . mysql_error()); } It seems like redundant to me. Can I only do it once instead of calling it anytime I need a query? I am new to php class. hope you guys can help me. thanks.

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  • Casting to derived type problem in C++

    - by GONeale
    Hey there everyone, I am quite new to C++, but have worked with C# for years, however it is not helping me here! :) My problem: I have an Actor class which Ball and Peg both derive from on an objective-c iphone game I am working on. As I am testing for collision, I wish to set an instance of Ball and Peg appropriately depending on the actual runtime type of actorA or actorB. My code that tests this as follows: // Actors that collided Actor *actorA = (Actor*) bodyA->GetUserData(); Actor *actorB = (Actor*) bodyB->GetUserData(); Ball* ball; Peg* peg; if (static_cast<Ball*> (actorA)) { // true ball = static_cast<Ball*> (actorA); } else if (static_cast<Ball*> (actorB)) { ball = static_cast<Ball*> (actorB); } if (static_cast<Peg*> (actorA)) { // also true?! peg = static_cast<Peg*> (actorA); } else if (static_cast<Peg*> (actorB)) { peg = static_cast<Peg*> (actorB); } if (peg != NULL) { [peg hitByBall]; } Once ball and peg are set, I then proceed to run the hitByBall method (objective c). Where my problem really lies is in the casting procedurel Ball casts fine from actorA; the first if (static_cast<>) statement steps in and sets the ball pointer appropriately. The second step is to assign the appropriate type to peg. I know peg should be a Peg type and I previously know it will be actorB, however at runtime, detecting the types, I was surprised to find actually the third if (static_cast<>) statement stepped in and set this, this if statement was to check if actorA was a Peg, which we already know actorA is a Ball! Why would it have stepped here and not in the fourth if statement? The only thing I can assume is how casting works differently from c# and that is it finds that actorA which is actually of type Ball derives from Actor and then it found when static_cast<Peg*> (actorA) is performed it found Peg derives from Actor too, so this is a valid test? This could all come down to how I have misunderstood the use of static_cast. How can I achieve what I need? :) I'm really uneasy about what feels to me like a long winded brute-casting attempt here with a ton of ridiculous if statements. I'm sure there is a more elegant way to achieve a simple cast to Peg and cast to Ball dependent on actual type held in actorA and actorB. Hope someone out there can help! :) Thanks a lot.

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  • Creating a binary file from an IntelHex in C#

    - by Allek
    I'm trying to create a binary file from a intelHex file. Iside the intelHex file I have data and address to which I should write the data inside the binary file. IntelHex file looks like that :10010000214601360121470136007EFE09D2190140 :100110002146017EB7C20001FF5F16002148011988 :10012000194E79234623965778239EDA3F01B2CAA7 :100130003F0156702B5E712B722B732146013421C7 :00000001FF So I have 4 lines here with data since the last one tells us thats the end of file. Here is what I'm doing to create the file while (!streamReader.EndOfStream) { string temp = String.Empty; int address = 0; line = streamReader.ReadLine(); // Get address for each data address = Convert.ToInt32(line.Substring(3, 4), 16); // Get data from each line temp = line.Substring(7, 2); if (temp == "01") break; else { temp = line.Substring(9, line.Length - 11); string[] array = new string[(temp.Length / 2)]; int j = 0; for (int i = 0; i < array.Length; ++i) { array[i] = temp[j].ToString() + temp[j + 1].ToString(); j = j + 2; } temp = String.Empty; for (int i = 0; i < array.Length; ++i) { temp = temp + Convert.ToChar(Convert.ToInt32(array[i], 16)); } } binaryWriter.Seek(address, SeekOrigin.Begin); binaryWriter.Write(temp); binaryWriter.Flush(); } Console.WriteLine("Done...\nPress any key to exit..."); The problem here is, that data in binary file in some places is not equal to data from the intelHex file. Looks like there is some random data added to the file and I do not know from where. First time I saw that there is an additional data before the data from the intelHex file. For instance first data line starts with 21, but in binary file I have a number 12 before the 21. I do not know what is wrong here. Hope someone can help me or guide me where I can find some usefull informations about creating binary files in C#

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  • Unit testing class in a web service in .net

    - by Dan Bailiff
    After some digging here, I took the advice in this thread: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/371961/how-to-unit-test-c-web-service-with-visual-studio-2008 I've created a separate class and my web service class is just a wrapper for that one. The problem is that when I try to create a unit test project in VS2008, it insists on creating a unit test that acts like I'm testing the web service calls instead of the class I specified. I can't get to the class I'm trying to test. I have a web service "subscription_api.asmx". The code behind is "subscription_api.cs" which contains the web method wrapper calls to the real code at "subscription.cs". I would expect to be able to do the following: [TestMethod()] public void GetSystemStatusTest() { subscription sub = new subscription(); XmlNode node = sub.GetSystemStatusTest(); Assert.IsNotNull(node); } But instead I get this mess which is autogenerated from VS'08: /// <summary> ///A test for GetSystemStatus ///</summary> // TODO: Ensure that the UrlToTest attribute specifies a URL to an ASP.NET page (for example, // http://.../Default.aspx). This is necessary for the unit test to be executed on the web server, // whether you are testing a page, web service, or a WCF service. [TestMethod()] [HostType("ASP.NET")] [AspNetDevelopmentServerHost("C:\\CVSROOT\\rnr\\pro\\product\\wms\\ss\\subscription_api", "/subscription_api")] [UrlToTest("http://localhost/subscription_api")] public void GetSystemStatusTest() { subscription_Accessor target = new subscription_Accessor(); // TODO: Initialize to an appropriate value XmlNode expected = null; // TODO: Initialize to an appropriate value XmlNode actual; actual = target.GetSystemStatus(); Assert.AreEqual(expected, actual); Assert.Inconclusive("Verify the correctness of this test method."); } Additionally, there is a "subscription_api.accessor" in the Test References folder. When I try this: [TestMethod()] public void GetSystemStatusTest2() { subscription_Accessor sub = new subscription_Accessor(); XmlNode node = sub.GetSystemStatus(); Assert.IsNotNull(node); } I get an error: Test method subscription_api.Test.subscriptionTest.GetSystemStatusTest2 threw exception: System.TypeInitializationException: The type initializer for 'subscription_Accessor' threw an exception. ---> System.ArgumentNullException: Value cannot be null. I'm really new to unit testing and feel lost. How can I create a unit test just for my subscription class in "subscription.cs" without testing the web service? Am I limited to testing within the same project (I hope not)? Do I have to put the target class in its own project outside of the web service project?

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  • PHP, MySQL: Display only required parts of my website in sister website

    - by Devner
    Hi all, Now I have my website built on PHP & Mysql. Consider this like a forum. Now when a user posts a reply in my website 1 (ex. www.website1.com), I want to be able to show the starting thread and it's related replies in a sister website of mine. I want to do this in a way that it does not show the rest of the page & other page contents (like logo etc.). I don't think iframe would be a solution because an iframe would embed the whole page and the users visiting my sister website (totally different domain i.e. www.website2.com) would be able to see all the page contents, like logo etc. I want to avoid that. I want to make them see only limited information from website 1 and only the info. that I intend. I hope that makes sense. In a way, you could say that I am trying to replicate my 1 website, and show only a limited part of it. Users browsing 2nd website can post a reply in the 2nd website and it should automatically be posted & visible to the visitors of the website 1. Users of website 1 should not know that a user of website 2 has posted it. They would feel that some user from website 1 has posted it. Do I have to use 2 separate mysql DB or just 1? I think it would be problematic if I am trying to use different DB. I also feel I might have to face DB connectivity issues as I can connect to only 1 DB at a time. It's basically like users of website1.com should feel that they are replying to users of website1.com & users of website2.com should feel that they are replying to users of website2.com. (I need it this way to bridge the gap between them). At the same time I want to make the front end of the websites different so that they don't feel that they are replying to some other users outside the domain. These websites would be under my control and I will have access to the source code at any time. If I need to change the source code, these changes are welcome. Is this really possible? Thank you in advance.

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  • C++: Trouble with Pointers, loop variables, and structs

    - by Rosarch
    Consider the following example: #include <iostream> #include <sstream> #include <vector> #include <wchar.h> #include <stdlib.h> using namespace std; struct odp { int f; wchar_t* pstr; }; int main() { vector<odp> vec; ostringstream ss; wchar_t base[5]; wcscpy_s(base, L"1234"); for (int i = 0; i < 4; i++) { odp foo; foo.f = i; wchar_t loopStr[1]; foo.pstr = loopStr; // wchar_t* = wchar_t ? Why does this work? foo.pstr[0] = base[i]; vec.push_back(foo); } for (vector<odp>::iterator iter = vec.begin(); iter != vec.end(); iter++) { cout << "Vec contains: " << iter->f << ", " << *(iter->pstr) << endl; } } This produces: Vec contains: 0, 52 Vec contains: 1, 52 Vec contains: 2, 52 Vec contains: 3, 52 I would hope that each time, iter->f and iter->pstr would yield a different result. Unfortunately, iter->pstr is always the same. My suspicion is that each time through the loop, a new loopStr is created. Instead of copying it into the struct, I'm only copying a pointer. The location that the pointer writes to is getting overwritten. How can I avoid this? Is it possible to solve this problem without allocating memory on the heap?

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  • ACL implementation

    - by Kirzilla
    First question Please, could you explain me how simpliest ACL could be implemented in MVC. Here is the first approach of using Acl in Controller... <?php class MyController extends Controller { public function myMethod() { //It is just abstract code $acl = new Acl(); $acl->setController('MyController'); $acl->setMethod('myMethod'); $acl->getRole(); if (!$acl->allowed()) die("You're not allowed to do it!"); ... } } ?> It is very bad approach, and it's minus is that we have to add Acl piece of code into each controller's method, but we don't need any additional dependencies! Next approach is to make all controller's methods private and add ACL code into controller's __call method. <?php class MyController extends Controller { private function myMethod() { ... } public function __call($name, $params) { //It is just abstract code $acl = new Acl(); $acl->setController(__CLASS__); $acl->setMethod($name); $acl->getRole(); if (!$acl->allowed()) die("You're not allowed to do it!"); ... } } ?> It is better than previous code, but main minuses are... All controller's methods should be private We have to add ACL code into each controller's __call method. The next approach is to put Acl code into parent Controller, but we still need to keep all child controller's methods private. What is the solution? And what is the best practice? Where should I call Acl functions to decide allow or disallow method to be executed. Second question Second question is about getting role using Acl. Let's imagine that we have guests, users and user's friends. User have restricted access to viewing his profile that only friends can view it. All guests can't view this user's profile. So, here is the logic.. we have to ensure that method being called is profile we have to detect owner of this profile we have to detect is viewer is owner of this profile or no we have to read restriction rules about this profile we have to decide execute or not execute profile method The main question is about detecting owner of profile. We can detect who is owner of profile only executing model's method $model-getOwner(), but Acl do not have access to model. How can we implement this? I hope that my thoughts are clear. Sorry for my English. Thank you.

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  • How can I fix this touch event / draw loop "deadlock"?

    - by Josh
    Just want to start out by saying this seems like a great site, hope you guys can help! I'm trying to use the structure laid out in LunarLander to create a simple game in which the user can drag some bitmaps around on the screen (the actual game is more complex, but that's not important). I ripped out the irrelevant parts of LanderLander, and set up my own bitmap drawing, something like BoardThread (an inner class of BoardView): run() { while(mRun) { canvas = lockSurfaceHolder... syncronized(mSurfaceHolder) { /* drawStuff using member position fields in BoardView */ } unlockSurfaceHolder } } My drawStuff simply walks through some arrays and throws bitmaps onto the canvas. All that works fine. Then I wanted to start handling touch events so that when the user presses a bitmap, it is selected, when the user unpresses a bitmap, it is deselected, and if a bitmap is selected during a touch move event, the bitmap is dragged. I did this stuff by listening for touch events in the BoardView's parent, BoardActivity, and passing them down into the BoardView. Something like In BoardView handleTouchEvent(MotionEvent e) { synchronized(mSurfaceHolder) { /* Modify shared member fields in BoardView so BoardThread can render the bitmaps */ } } This ALSO works fine. I can drag my tiles around the screen no problem. However, every once in a while, when the app first starts up and I trigger my first touch event, the handleTouchEvent stops executing at the synchronized line (as viewed in DDMS). The drawing loop is active during this time (I can tell because a timer changes onscreen), and it usually takes several seconds or more before a bunch of touch events come through the pipeline and everything is fine again. This doesn't seem like deadlock to me, since the draw loop is constantly going in and out of its syncronized block. Shouldn't this allow the event handling thread to grab a lock on mSurfaceHolder? What's going on here? Anyone have suggestions for improving how I've structured this? Some other info. This "hang" only ever occurs on first touch event after activity start. This includes on orientation change after restoreState has been called. Also, I can remove EVERYTHING within the syncronized block in the event handler, and it will still get hung up at the syncronized call. Thanks!

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  • OpenGL ES Polygon with Normals rendering (Note the 'ES!')

    - by MarqueIV
    Ok... imagine I have a relatively simple solid that has six distinct normals but actually has close to 48 faces (8 faces per direction) and there are a LOT of shared vertices between faces. What's the most efficient way to render that in OpenGL? I know I can place the vertices in an array, then use an index array to render them, but I have to keep breaking my rendering steps down to change the normals (i.e. set normal 1... render 8 faces... set normal 2... render 8 faces, etc.) Because of that I have to maintain an array of index arrays... one for each normal! Not good! The other way I can do it is to use separate normal and vertex arrays (or even interleave them) but that means I need to have a one-to-one ratio for normals to vertices and that means the normals would be duplicated 8 times more than they need to be! On something with a spherical or even curved surface, every normal most likely is different, but for this, it really seems like a waste of memory. In a perfect world I'd like to have my vertex and normal arrays have different lengths, then when I go to draw my triangles or quads To specify the index to each array for that vertex. Now the OBJ file format lets you specify exactly that... a vertex array and a normal array of different lengths, then when you specify the face you are rendering, you specify a vertex and a normal index (as well as a UV coord if you are using textures too) which seems like the perfect solution! 48 vertices but only 8 normals, then pairs of indexes defining the shapes' faces. But I'm not sure how to render that in OpenGL ES (again, note the 'ES'.) Currently I have to 'denormalize' (sorry for the SQL pun there) the normals back to a 1-to-1 with the vertex array, then render. Just wastes memory to me. Anyone help? I hope I'm missing something very simple here. Mark

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  • Remove specific definitions from a variable in PHP

    - by Amit
    Hi everyone, I have a PHP mail script that validates name, email address, and phone number before sending the mail. This then means that the Name, Email address, and Phone fields are Required Fields. I want to have it so that the Name and EITHER Email or Phone are required. Such that if a name and phone are inputted, it sends the mail, or if a name and an email are inputted, it also sends the email. The way the script works right now is it has several IF statements that check for (1) name, (2) email and (3) phone. Here's an example of an if statement of the code: if ( ($email == "") ) { $errors .= $emailError; // no email address entered $email_error = true; } if ( !(preg_match($match,$email)) ) { $errors .= $invalidEmailError; // checks validity of email $email_error = true; } And here's how it sends the mail: if ( !($errors) ) { mail ($to, $subject, $message, $headers); echo "<p id='correct'>"; echo "?????? ????? ??????!"; echo "</p>"; } else { if (($email_error == true)) { $errors != $phoneError; /*echo "<p id='errors'>"; echo $errors; echo "</p>";*/ } if (($phone_error == true)) { $errors != $emailError; $errors != $invalidEmailError; /*echo "<p id='errors'>"; echo $errors; echo "</p>";*/ } echo "<p id='errors'>"; echo $errors; echo "</p>"; } This doesn't work though. Basically this is what I want to do: If no email address was entered or if it was entered incorrectly, set a variable called $email_error to be true. Then check for that variable, and if it's true, then remove the $phoneError part of the $errors variable. Man I hope I'm making some sense here. Does anyone know why this doesn't work? It reports all errors if all fields are left empty :( Thanks! Amit

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  • A two player game over the intranet..

    - by Santwana
    Hi everybody.. I am a student of 3rd year engineering and only a novice in my programming skills. I need some help with my project.. I wish to develop a two player game to be played over the network (Intranet). I want to develop a simple website with a few html pages for this.My ideas for the project run as follows: 1.People can log in from different systems and check who ever is online on the network currently. the page also shows who is playing with whom. 2.If a person is interested in playing with a player who is currently online, he sends a request of which the other player is somehow notified( using a message or an alert on his profile page..) 3.If the player accepts the request, a game is started. This is exactly where I am clueless.. How can I make them play the game? I need to develop a turn based game with two players, eg chessboard.. how can I do this? The game has to be played live.. and it is time tracked. i need your help with coding the above.. the other features i wish to include are: 4.The game could not be abruptly terminated by any one if the users.The request to terminate the game should be sent to the other player first and only if he accepts can the game be terminated. Whoever wins the game would get a plus 10 on their credit and if he terminated he gets a minus 10. The credits remains constant even if he loses but the success percentage is reduced. 6.The player with highest winning percentage is projected as the player of the week on the home page and he can post a challenge to all others.. I only have an intermediate knowledge of core java and know the basics of Swing and Awt. I am not at all familiar with networking in java right now. I have 5 to 6 weeks of time for developing the project but I hope to learn the things before I start my project. i would prefer to use a lan to illustrate the project and I know only java,jsp,oracle,html and bit of xml to develop my proj. Also I wish to know if I can code this within 6 weeks, would it be too difficult or complicated? Please spare some time to tell me. Please.. please.. I need your suggestions and help.. thank you so much..

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  • How can a button click method find out which item is selected in a ListView?

    - by Ian Bayley
    I have a single screen with a bank of buttons below a ListView. Entries on the ListView light up in orange when I scroll so I assume that are selected. When I then press the "Delete" button I want the onClickListener to remove the currently selected entry. But getSelectedItemPosition() always gives me -1. If I can't hope to use the GUI controls in this way, please give me another way of getting the same result. I have even tried setting the onClickListener of the List View to store the index before the button is pressed (in case pressing the button unselects the entry) but even that is always -1 it seems. Here's the code (without the modification which didn't work) package com.bayley; import android.app.Activity; import android.os.Bundle; import android.view.View; import android.widget.ArrayAdapter; import android.widget.Button; import android.widget.EditText; import android.widget.ListView; import java.util.ArrayList; /** * * @author p0074564 */ public class September extends Activity { /** Called when the activity is first created. */ @Override public void onCreate(Bundle icicle) { super.onCreate(icicle); setContentView(R.layout.main); final ListView myListView = (ListView) findViewById(R.id.myListView); Button addButton = (Button) findViewById(R.id.AddButton); Button deleteButton = (Button) findViewById(R.id.DeleteButton); final EditText editText = (EditText) findViewById(R.id.myEditText); final ArrayList<String> todoItems = new ArrayList<String>(); todoItems.add("Monday"); todoItems.add("Tuesday"); todoItems.add("Wednesday"); final ArrayAdapter<String> aa = new ArrayAdapter<String>(this, android.R.layout.simple_list_item_1, todoItems); myListView.setAdapter(aa); addButton.setOnClickListener(new Button.OnClickListener() { public void onClick(View v) { todoItems.add(editText.getText().toString()); aa.notifyDataSetChanged(); } }); deleteButton.setOnClickListener(new Button.OnClickListener() { public void onClick(View v) { // always returns -1 unfortunately ie nothing is ever selected int index = myListView.getSelectedItemPosition(); if (index >= 0) { todoItems.remove(index); } aa.notifyDataSetChanged(); } }); } }

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  • Are there compelling reasons not to use Groovy?

    - by Leonard H Martin
    I'm developing a LoB application in Java after a long absence from the platform (having spent the last 8 years or so entrenched in Fortran, C, a smidgin of C++ and latterly .Net). Java, the language, is not much changed from how I remember it. I like it's strengths and I can work around its weaknesses - the platform has grown and deciding upon the myriad of different frameworks which appear to do much the same thing as one another is a different story; but that can wait for another day - all-in-all I'm comfortable with Java. However, over the last couple of weeks I've become enamoured with Groovy, and purely from a selfish point of view: but not just because it makes development against the JVM a more succinct and entertaining (and, well, "groovy") proposition than Java (the language). What strikes me most about Groovy is its inherent maintainability. We all (I hope!) strive to write well documented, easy to understand code. However, sometimes the languages we use themselves defeat us. An example: in 2001 I wrote a library in C to translate EDIFACT EDI messages into ANSI X12 messages. This is not a particularly complicated process, if slightly involved, and I thought at the time I had documented the code properly - and I probably had - but some six years later when I revisited the project (and after becoming acclimatised to C#) I found myself lost in so much C boilerplate (mallocs, pointers, etc. etc.) that it took three days of thoughtful analysis before I finally understood what I'd been doing six years previously. This evening I've written about 2000 lines of Java (it is the day of rest, after all!). I've documented as best as I know how, but, but, of those 2000 lines of Java a significant proportion is Java boiler plate. This is where I see Groovy and other dynamic languages winning through - maintainability and later comprehension. Groovy lets you concentrate on your intent without getting bogged down on the platform specific implementation; it's almost, but not quite, self documenting. I see this as being a huge boon to me when I revisit my current project (which I'll port to Groovy asap) in several years time and to my successors who will inherit it and carry on the good work. So, are there any reasons not to use Groovy?

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  • Objective-C memory management issue

    - by Toby Wilson
    I've created a graphing application that calls a web service. The user can zoom & move around the graph, and the program occasionally makes a decision to call the web service for more data accordingly. This is achieved by the following process: The graph has a render loop which constantly renders the graph, and some decision logic which adds web service call information to a stack. A seperate thread takes the most recent web service call information from the stack, and uses it to make the web service call. The other objects on the stack get binned. The idea of this is to reduce the number of web service calls to only those appropriate, and only one at a time. Right, with the long story out of the way (for which I apologise), here is my memory management problem: The graph has persistant (and suitably locked) NSDate* objects for the currently displayed start & end times of the graph. These are passed into the initialisers for my web service request objects. The web service call objects then retain the dates. After the web service calls have been made (or binned if they were out of date), they release the NSDate*. The graph itself releases and reallocates new NSDates* on the 'touches ended' event. If there is only one web service call object on the stack when removeAllObjects is called, EXC_BAD_ACCESS occurs in the web service call object's deallocation method when it attempts to release the date objects (even though they appear to exist and are in scope in the debugger). If, however, I comment out the release messages from the destructor, no memory leak occurs for one object on the stack being released, but memory leaks occur if there are more than one object on the stack. I have absolutely no idea what is going wrong. It doesn't make a difference what storage symantics I use for the web service call objects dates as they are assigned in the initialiser and then only read (so for correctness' sake are set to readonly). It also doesn't seem to make a difference if I retain or copy the dates in the initialiser (though anything else obviously falls out of scope or is unwantedly released elsewhere and causes a crash). I'm sorry this explanation is long winded, I hope it's sufficiently clear but I'm not gambling on that either I'm afraid. Major big thanks to anyone that can help, even suggest anything I may have missed?

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  • jQuery nextUntill id < num or alternative

    - by Volmar
    Hi, i'm using jQuery to show/hide different LI-elements based on their classes. Look at this example. <li id="1" class="fp de1"></li> <li id="2" class="fp de1"><button onclick="hide(2,2);"></li> <li id="3" class="fp de2"><button onclick="hide(3,3);"></li> <li id="4" class="fp de3"><button onclick="hide(4,4);"></li> <li id="5" class="fp de4"></li> <li id="6" class="fp de3"></li> <li id="7" class="fp de3"></li> <li id="8" class="fp de1"><button onclick="hide(8,2);"></li> <li id="9" class="fp de2"><button onclick="hide(9,3);"></li> <li id="10" class="fp de3"><button onclick="hide(10,4);"></li> <li id="11" class="fp de4"></li> You se that some of these have a button with a hide funcion. what i want is that when you press the hide button The following elements the have a highernumber in the .de# class should be hidden untill it reaches a LI with the same .de#-class. so if you press the hide(), i want LIs with ids 3,4,5,6,7 to be hiden. if i press the next on i want 4,5,6,7, and the thirs i want id 5 to be hidden. so this is the Javascript i made for it: function hide(id,de){ var de2 = de-1; $('#'+id).nextUntil('li.de'+de2).hide(); } The problem is that this function is not working exactly as i want. it would work correctly in the first hide()-function and the thirs but not in hide()function number two. here it will hide IDs: 4-8. so i want to do something. so i want the nextuntill() to hide elements untill it reaches a LI-element with the same .de# or a lower .de#. i hope i didn't complicate it to much in my description of the problem. if you have better idea than using nextUntill i'm all ears.

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