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  • PHP class to C# class?

    - by LordSauron
    I work for a company that makes application's in C#. recently we got a customer asking us to look in to rebuilding an application written in PHP. This application receives GPS data from car mounted boxes and processes that into workable information. The manufacturer for the GPS device has a PHP class that parses the received information and extracts coordinates. We were looking in to rewriting the PHP class to a C# class so we can use it and adapt it. And here it comes, on the manufacturers website there is a singel line of text that got my skin krawling: "The encoding format and contents of the transmitted data are subject to constant changes. This is caused by implementations of additional features by new module firmware versions which makes it virtually impossible to document it and for you to properly decode it yourself." So i am now looking for a option to use the "constantly changing" PHP class and access it in C#. Some thing link a shell only exposing some function's i need. Except i have no idea how i can do this. Can any one help me find a solution for this.

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  • Why does Python's 'for ... in' work differently on a list of values vs. a list of dictionaries?

    - by Code Duck
    I'm wondering about some details of how for ... in works in Python. My understanding is for var in iterable on each iteration creates a variable, var, bound to the current value of iterable. So, if you do for c in cows; c = cows[whatever], but changing c within the loop does not affect the original value. However, it seems to work differently if you're assigning a value to a dictionary key. cows=[0,1,2,3,4,5] for c in cows: c+=2 #cows is now the same - [0,1,2,3,4,5] cows=[{'cow':0},{'cow':1},{'cow':2},{'cow':3},{'cow':4},{'cow':5}] for c in cows: c['cow']+=2 # cows is now [{'cow': 2}, {'cow': 3}, {'cow': 4}, {'cow': 5}, {'cow': 6}, {'cow': 7} #so, it's changed the original, unlike the previous example I see one can use enumerate to make the first example work, too, but that's a different story, I guess. cows=[0,1,2,3,4,5] for i,c in enumerate(cows): cows[i]+=1 # cows is now [1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6] Why does it affect the original list values in the second example but not the first?

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  • Benefits of "Don't Fragment" on TCP Packets?

    - by taspeotis
    One of our customers is having trouble submitting data from our application (on their PC) to a server (different geographical location). When sending packets under 1100 bytes everything works fine, but above this we see TCP retransmitting the packet every few seconds and getting no response. The packets we are using for testing are about 1400 bytes (but less than 1472). I can send an ICMP ping to www.google.com that is 1472 bytes and get a response (so it's not their router/first few hops). I found that our application sets the DF flag for these packets, and I believe a router along the way to the server has an MTU less than/equal to 1100 and dropping the packet. This affects 1 client in 5000, but since everybody's routes will be different this is expected. The data is a SOAP envelope and we expect a SOAP response back. I can't justify WHY we do it, the code to do this was written by a previous developer. So... Are there are benefits OR justification to setting the DF flag on TCP packets for application data? I can think of reasons it is needed for network diagnostics applications but not in our situation (we want the data to get to the endpoint, fragmented or not). One of our sysadmins said that it might have something to do with us using SSL, but as far as I know SSL is like a stream and regardless of fragmentation, as long as the stream is rebuilt at the end, there's no problem. If there's no good justification I will be changing the behaviour of our application. Thanks in advance.

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  • Visual Studio 2008 having problems with namespaces when used as type in Generic coolection

    - by patrick
    I just upgraded last week from Visual Studio 2005 to 2008. I am having an issue with compiler resolving namespaces when I use a class as a type in a Generic collection. Intellisense recognizes the class and the compiler generates no errors when I use the class except when it is a type in a Generic collection declaration either as return type for a Property or as a parameter to a method. This is happening in my only project that is targeting the 3.5 framework, but changing the project containing the class to use the 3.5 framework doesn't fix the problem. Examples Compile fine MyClass myClass = new MyClass(); SortedList <DateTime,MyClass> listOfClasses = new SortedList<DateTime,MyClass> Compile error - Namespace could not be found public SortedList<DateTime,MyClass> ClassList { get; set; } private void DoSomethingToLists(SortedList<DateTime,MyClass> classList) Intellisense has no problem resolving the namespace, only the compiler. Is this a known bug or am I missing something obvious? Will SP1 fix it? I was able to create a new library containing just this class targeting 3.5 and am now able to successfully use this in both 3.5 and 2.0 projects. My guess is that even though I tried to change the target of my original library, since it was still referencing 2.0 projects there was some conflict.

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  • How do I put my return data from an asmx into JSON?

    - by jphenow
    I want to return an array of javascript objects from my asp.net asmx file. ie. variable = [ { *value1*: 'value1', *value2*: 'value2', ..., }, { . . } ]; I seem have been having trouble reaching this. I'd put this into code but I've been hacking away at it so much it'd probably do more harm than good in having this answered. Basically I am using a web service to find names as people type the name. I'd use a regular text file or something but its a huge database that's always changing - and don't worry I've indexed the names so searching can be a little snappier - but I would really prefer to stick with this method and just figure out how to get usable JSON back to javascript. I've seen a few that sort of attempt to describe how one would approach this but I honestly think microsofts articles are damn near unreadable. Thanks in advance for assistance. EDIT: I'm using the $.ajax() function from jQuery - I've had it working but it seems like I was doing it in bad practice not returning and using actual JSON. Previously I'd take a string back and insert it into html to use the variable it set - very roundabout.

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  • jQuery remove SELECT options based on another SELECT selected on change and on load

    - by John Sieber
    I'm using the following jQuery code to remove options from a select and it is working well. But instead of it only executing when the theOption2 select is changed I would also like it to work when the page is loaded depending on the selected item that is selected. I tried using the a copy of the script and changing the .change to .load and also tried using (window).load without the desired results. Essentially, I need the script to execute on change of the Options1 and on the loading of the page. Any help with this would be greatly appreciated. <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { //copy the second select, so we can easily reset it var selectClone = $('#theOptions2').clone(); $('#theOptions1').change(function() { var val = parseInt($(this).val()); //reset the second select on each change $('#theOptions2').html(selectClone.html()) switch(val) { //if 2 is selected remove C case 2 : $('#theOptions2').find('option:contains(c)').remove();break; //if 3 is selected remove A case 3 : $('#theOptions2').find('option:contains(a)').remove();break; } }); }); </script> <select id="theOptions1"> <option value="1">1</option> <option value="2" selected="selected">2</option> <option value="3">3</option> </select> <br /> <select id="theOptions2"> <option>a</option> <option>b</option> <option>c</option> </select>

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  • Java Detect Variable Change Using PropertyChangeSupport and PropertyChangeListener

    - by Sam
    I'm trying to print out debug statements when some third party code changes a variable. For example, consider the following: public final class MysteryClass { private int secretCounter; public synchronized int getCounter() { return secretCounter; } public synchronized void incrementCounter() { secretCounter++; } } public class MyClass { public static void main(String[] args) { MysteryClass mysteryClass = new MysteryClass(); // add code here to detect calls to incrementCounter and print a debug message } I don't have the ability to change the 3rd party MysteryClass, so I thought that I could use PropertyChangeSupport and PropertyChangeListener to detect changes to the secretCounter: public class MyClass implements PropertyChangeListener { private PropertyChangeSupport propertySupport = new PropertyChangeSupport(this); public MyClass() { propertySupport.addPropertyChangeListener(this); } public void propertyChange(PropertyChangeEvent evt) { System.out.println("property changing: " + evt.getPropertyName()); } public static void main(String[] args) { MysteryClass mysteryClass = new MysteryClass(); // do logic which involves increment and getting the value of MysteryClass } } Unfortunately, this did not work and I have no debug messages printed out. Does anyone see what is wrong with my implementation of the PropertyChangeSupport and Listener interfaces? I want to print a debug statement whenever incrementCounter is called or the value of secretCounter changes.

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  • What are the interets of synthetic methods?

    - by romaintaz
    Problem One friend suggested an interesting problem. Given the following code: public class OuterClass { private String message = "Hello World"; private class InnerClass { private String getMessage() { return message; } } } From an external class, how may I print the message variable content? Of course, changing the accessibility of methods or fields is not allowed. (the source here, but it is a french blog) Solution The code to solve this problem is the following: try { Method m = OuterClass.class.getDeclaredMethod("access$000", OuterClass.class); OuterClass outerClass = new OuterClass(); System.out.println(m.invoke(outerClass, outerClass)); } catch (Exception e) { e.printStackTrace(); } Note that the access$000 method name is not really standard (even if this format is the one that is strongly recommanded), and some JVM will name this method access$0. Thus, a better solution is to check for synthetic methods: Method method = null; int i = 0; while ((method == null) && (i < OuterClass.class.getDeclaredMethods().length)) { if (OuterClass.class.getDeclaredMethods()[i].isSynthetic()) { method = OuterClass.class.getDeclaredMethods()[i]; } i++; } if (method != null) { try { System.out.println(method.invoke(null, new OuterClass())); } catch (Exception e) { e.printStackTrace(); } } So the interesting point in this problem is to highlight the use of synthetic methods. With these methods, I can access a private field as it was done in the solution. Of course, I need to use reflection, and I think that the use of this kind of thing can be quite dangerous... Question What is the interest - for me, as a developer - of a synthetic method? What can be a good situation where using the synthetic can be useful?

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  • Google Doclist API : bug in revision history?

    - by Jerbome
    I'm trying to manage revisions of files (not documents) stored in google docs programatically using gdata document list java library v3. I can create files and revisions using this tool : I can see them in the web UI. The thing is : the content of my revisions seems wrong. Here is my test protocol : I create a plain text file with "Hello World" in it. I upload it to gdocs without converting it. I create a revision of this file, its content changing to "Content of the second version" I create another revision, its content is now "Content of the third version" At each step, I check the content of each revision, using my app AND using the web UI. Here is what I get : First step : no problem i see one version containing the "Hello world" text Second step : no problem either, i see 2 versions, containing Hello World for the first one and Content of the second version for the second. Third step : here the problems comes. I see my 3 versions, but only the third and last seems to be correct. when i download the second version, the content is "Content of the second versio" (not a typo, it misses the 'n'). And i cannot even download the initial version, it seems to timeout. Important thing : I did not have this problem three weeks ago, my revision management worked well. I have no idea of what happens there, except it seems to be server-related, as the problem is seen either with my app or the google native webapp. Last thing : I tried using the google drive API as gdocs had been merged with drive. When i request revisions of my file, the API returns me an error saying that revisions are not supported for files, even if i can see them in the UI. I tried on converted documents, it worked. I'm looking for a workaround for this problem. Has anyone ever encountered such a problem ? Thanks in advance, Jérôme

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  • How to use javascript to get information from the content of another page (same domain)?

    - by hlovdal
    Let's say I have a web page (/index.html) that contains the following <li> <div>item1</div> <a href="/details/item1.html">details</a> </li> and I would like to have some javascript on /index.html to load that /details/item1.html page and extract some information from that page. The page /details/item1.html might contain things like <div id="some_id"> <a href="/images/item1_picture.png">picture</a> <a href="/images/item1_map.png">map</a> </div> My task is to write a greasemonkey script, so changing anything serverside is not an option. To summarize, javascript is running on /index.html and I would like to have the javascript code to add some information on /index.html extracted from both /index.html and /details/item1.html. My question is how to fetch information from /details/item1.html. I currently have written code to extract the link (e.g. /details/item1.html) and pass this on to a method that should extract the wanted information (at first just .innerHTML from the some_id div is ok, I can process futher later). The following is my current attempt, but it does not work. Any suggestions? function get_information(link) { var obj = document.createElement('object'); obj.data = link; document.getElementsByTagName('body')[0].appendChild(obj) var some_id = document.getElementById('some_id'); if (! some_id) { alert("some_id == NULL"); return ""; } return some_id.innerHTML; }

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  • Once an HTML document has a manifest (cache.manifest), how can you remove it?

    - by Michael F
    It seems that once you have a manifest entry, a la: <html manifest="cache.manifest"> Then that page (the master entry in the cache) will always be cached (at least by Safari) until the user does something to remove the cache, even if you later remove the manifest attribute from the html tag and update the manifest (by changing something within it), forcing the master entry to be reloaded along with everything else. In other words, if you have: index.html (with manifest defined) file1.js (referenced in manifest) file2.js (referenced in manifest) cache.manifest (lists the two js files) -- removing the manifest entry from index.html and modifying the manifest (so it gets expired by the browser and all content reloaded) will not stop this page from behaving as if it's still fully cached. If you view source on index.html you won't see the manifest listed anymore, but the browser will still request only the cache.manifest file, and unless that file's content is changed, no other changes to any files will be shown to the user. It seems like a pretty glaring bug, and it's present on iOS as well as Mac versions of Safari. Has anyone found a way of resetting the page and getting rid of the cache without requiring user intervention?

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  • 3 websites 1 Project

    - by godz-gift05
    Hey Guys, OK. we are currently on a plan to develop a website for 3 same company. The main difference would be just the look and maybe a couple of extra question for one or two company. Currently each company have their own website and when they required a new function we have to re-code all three website or when one wants a new function just one website update. What we wanna accomplish is to create ONE website that could house all these 3 website. Most of these website function are the same like 90% function is the same I figure out the different look which can be done changing the website style-theme.. But we have problem tackling the functionality of if one company wanted to add something. So if we wanted to update a function we just wanna do a change in one function and that should apply for all.. And if one function is required for one company then just add the new fucntion and assign it to 1 company... How do u structure something like this.. We wanna be able to control what being displayed based on the company and also the fucntions available. THANK YOU. I just need some direction on how to do this, Right now Inheritance is on my head to solve all this problem.

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  • C++: inheritance problem

    - by Helltone
    It's quite hard to explain what I'm trying to do, I'll try: Imagine a base class A which contains some variables, and a set of classes deriving from A which all implement some method bool test() that operates on the variables inherited from A. class A { protected: int somevar; // ... }; class B : public A { public: bool test() { return (somevar == 42); } }; class C : public A { public: bool test() { return (somevar > 23); } }; // ... more classes deriving from A Now I have an instance of class A and I have set the value of somevar. int main(int, char* []) { A a; a.somevar = 42; Now, I need some kind of container that allows me to iterate over the elements i of this container, calling i::test() in the context of a... that is: std::vector<...> vec; // push B and C into vec, this is pseudo-code vec.push_back(&B); vec.push_back(&C); bool ret = true; for(i = vec.begin(); i != vec.end(); ++i) { // call B::test(), C::test(), setting *this to a ret &= ( a .* (&(*i)::test) )(); } return ret; } How can I do this? I've tried two methods: forcing a cast from B::* to A::*, adapting a pointer to call a method of a type on an object of a different type (works, but seems to be bad); using std::bind + the solution above, ugly hack; changing the signature of bool test() so that it takes an argument of type const A& instead of inheriting from A, I don't really like this solution because somevar must be public.

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  • What prevents a user from adding controls to an ASP.NET page client side?

    - by Curtis White
    This goes back to my other question which I thought was sufficiently answers but upon reflect am not sure that it was (sorry). Backgrounder: I am generating a form dynamically. I am pulling from the database the controls. I must associate each control with a database ID which is not the user's session id. I do this currently by storing my ID in the ID for the web control with some other stuff to make it unique/clear what I am doing. On the post back, I iterate through all the controls on my web page checking for my special identifier, ie, MyGeneratedTextBox_ID_Unique. This process enables for 2 important steps, identifying the control was one I generated and also getting the ID for this input field. And, all of this works but I'm still concerned about the security of it. I do not see a security issue with showing the actual database ID's in this case, although agree it is not desirable. However, I am concerned of the following possibilities: If a user could add a nefarious control to my collection and use that for a SQL injection attack. More academic, but if a user could somehow store data for fields they do not have access too by changing the id's. I agree this is a "hack" of a way to do it. But my question is, is it a security risk and is there an 'easy' way to do it in a less hack way? I assume that only the controls that are created/instantiated on the page are added to the controls list.. thus all controls must be created server side and thus the security issue is address but just wanted to validate. Thanks again. PS: I could see adding a property for each control and encrypting the viewstate would be a little more secure.

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  • How can I join 3 tables with mysql & php?

    - by steven
    check out the page [url]http://www.mujak.com/test/test3.php[/url] It pulls the users Post,username,xbc/xlk tags etc which is perfect... BUT since I am pulling information from a MyBB bulletin board system, its quite different. When replying, people are are allowed to change the "Thread Subject" by simplying replying and changing it. I dont want it to SHOW the changed subject title, just the original title of all posts in that thread. By default it repies with "RE:thread title". They can easily edit this and it will show up in the "Subject" cell & people wont know which thread it was posted in because they changed their thread to when replying to the post. So I just want to keep the orginial thread title when they are replying. Make sense~?? Tables:mybb_users Fields:uid,username Tables:mybb_userfields Fields:ufid Tables:mybb_posts Fields:pid,tid,replyto,subject,ufid,username,uid,message Tables:mybb_threads Fields:tid,fid,subject,uid,username,lastpost,lastposter,lastposteruid I haev tried multiple queries with no success: $result = mysql_query(" SELECT * FROM mybb_users LEFT JOIN (mybb_posts, mybb_userfields, mybb_threads) ON ( mybb_userfields.ufid=mybb_posts.uid AND mybb_threads.tid=mybb_posts.tid AND mybb_users.uid=mybb_userfields.ufid ) WHERE mybb_posts.fid=42"); $result = mysql_query(" SELECT * FROM mybb_users LEFT JOIN (mybb_posts, mybb_userfields, mybb_threads) ON ( mybb_userfields.ufid=mybb_posts.uid AND mybb_threads.tid=mybb_posts.tid AND mybb_users.uid=mybb_posts.uid ) WHERE mybb_threads.fid=42"); $result = mysql_query(" SELECT * FROM mybb_posts LEFT JOIN (mybb_userfields, mybb_threads) ON ( mybb_userfields.ufid=mybb_posts.uid AND mybb_threads.tid=mybb_posts.tid ) WHERE mybb_posts.fid=42");

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  • i want to move div back left

    - by user1280074
    i have my BG image set to center & i wanna move my main content's div back to the left a little on that BG image. changing the width of the div wont do it. that just allows me to scroll more to the right. but i need it to move back left a little. but i still need that image center. how do i code this? bada-bing <style> body { background-image:url; background-repeat:no-repeat; background-position:center top; } </style> bada-boom <center> <div style="position: relative; left: 0px; top: 0px; width: 1200px; height: 1511px;"> <img src=""position: relative; top: 100px; left: -350px;"/> </div> </center> help me please

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  • How to get notified about changes of the history via history.pushState?

    - by Felix Kling
    So now that HTML5 introduces history.pushState to change the browsers history, websites start using this in combination with Ajax instead of changing the fragment identifier of the URL. Sadly that means that those calls cannot be detect anymore by onhashchange. My question is: Is there a reliable way (hack? ;)) to detect when a website uses history.pushState? The specification does not state anything about events that are raised (at least I couldn't find anything). I tried to create a facade and replaced window.history with my own JavaScript object, but it didn't have any effect at all. Further explanation: I'm developing a Firefox add-on that needs to detect these changes and act accordingly. I know there was a similar question a few days ago that asked whether listening to some DOM events would be efficient but I would rather not rely on that because these events can be generated for a lot of different reasons. Update: Here is a jsfiddle (use Firefox 4 or Chrome 8) that shows that onpopstate is not triggered when pushState is called (or am I doing something wrong? Feel free to improve it!). Update 2: Another (side) problem is that window.location is not updated when using pushState (but I read about this already here on SO I think).

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  • Error 1009 after gotoAndStop - stage instance never gets added

    - by ELambda
    I've been through the forums for hours (days?) searching on 1009 errors, but I remain stumped on this. It seems very mysterious and I would LOVE some help if you have any ideas. I have a single .swf that is 7 frames long - each frame represents a different "page" and you can switch pages through a menu widget in the top right corner. The menu widget calls gotoAndPlay( "frame" ). Everything works fine except when I switch from one particular frame to another. Then, during initialization of the new frame (setting some visible properties on various items, in actionscript), I get the dreaded 1009 error on a specific stage instance, a dynamic text instance i_word. Here's what I've tried so far: made sure the actionscript for the new frame starts with a stop() statement before starting initialization - no dice tried changing i_word into a movie_clip instead of dynamic text, made sure it was exported for actionscript - no difference. (I also have 2 other dynamic text instances on the same page that don't seem to cause a problem) added an ENTER_FRAME listener when the new frame is loaded, in case the problem was a timing issue. Put in a big if statement checking if i_word and other instances are not null before proceeding to initialization. It never enters the if, because i_word NEVER gets added. I added trace statements for all instances that are null, and it is the only one. If I remove all references to i_word in my actionscript, everything else is not null, and things go forward. The text for i_word even shows up on the screen in that case. tried renaming i_word - no dice tried deleting the layer i_word was on and adding a new layer - no dice It feels like there is a serious Gremlin in my flash file somewhere. Or maybe I'm missing something obvious. Let me know if you have any ideas...I'd be so grateful. Thank you! Elambda

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  • Warning: mysql_fetch_array() expects parameter 1 to be resource, boolean given in

    - by user1493540
    <html> <title>Title</title> <body> <link type="text/css" rel="stylesheet" href="css/bootstrap.css"/> </body> <center> <? mysql_connect ("localhost", "root","") or die (mysql_error()); mysql_select_db ("dbname"); $term = $_POST['term']; $sql = mysql_query("select * from items where name like '%$term%'"); while ($row = mysql_fetch_array($sql)){ echo '<table class="table - striped"> <theader> <tr> <th>ID</th> <th></br> Name</th></tr>'; echo ' <tbody><td>'.$row['id']; echo'</td>'; echo '<td>'; echo '</theader>' .$row['name']; echo '</td>'; echo ''; } ?> </center> <script src="js/bootsrap.js"> </script> </html> I'm, getting this error: Warning: mysql_fetch_array() expects parameter 1 to be resource, boolean given in /home/runedev1/public_html/itemdb/search.php on line 19 When I run the code on localhost using Xampp, it works fine, when I upload it to the web-host, the error appears. Yes, I am changing the database name, user and password when putting it on the webhost.

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  • Deal with update location for click-once.

    - by Assimilater
    I'm not sure how many people here are experts with visual studios, but I'd imagine a handful (not to raise expectations but to appeal to your egos :P). I'm working primarily in visual basic for now (though I hope to switch to c# in the near future and maybe a java or web app). Basically I'm trying to create an update feature that will work similarly to how common programs such as firefox or itunes update automatically. There is supposed to be provided functionality for this in what is called click once. I carry out the following procedures and get the following errors when trying to change the update url of my program to a password-protected ftp location. Go to project properties Go to publish click updates click browse click FTP Site Under Server put: web###.opentransfer.com Under Port: 21 Under Directory put: CMSOFT Passive mode is selected (which is what filezilla tells me the server is accessed with) Anonymous User is unselected and a username and password are typed in Push Ok Under Update location it shows: ftp://web###.opentransfer.com/CMSOFT I push Ok I see a message box titled Microsoft Visual Basic 2010 Express with an x icon Publish.UpdateUrl: The string must be a fully qualified URL or UNC path, for example "http://www.microsoft.com/myapplication" or "\server\myapplication". I've tried changing the directory to "CMSOFT/PQCM.exe" and the results are the same...hope this was descriptive enough.

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  • Stepping through ASP.NET MVC in Action (2009) - and stuck on nunit issue

    - by Jen
    I seem to have missed something - in this step through it talks through downloading nunit and changing the original MSTest reference to NUnit. Which seems fine until it talks about running the test with UnitRun from JetBrains. I would have thought I could run nUnit to be able to run the test - but I load my project in the nUnit gui and I get "This assembly was not built with any known testing framework". This after running the Nunit-2.5.3.9346.msi. Or am I supposed to be able to run tests from within visual studio 2008? After some research I find this: http://www.jetbrains.com/unitrun/ (ie. it seems to be saying this is no longer supported and I'm thinking JetBrains Resharper may cost money?). I'm a little rusty on my NUnit experience. So how do I go ahead and run my test? Is the error message I'm getting considered abnormal? I've added a reference in my MvcApplication.Tests project to the nunit.framework. Is this the wrong reference to add? Thanks :)

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  • How to re-enable the idle timer in ios once it has been disabled (to allow the display to sleep again)?

    - by lindon fox
    I have figured out how to stop an iOS device from going to sleep (see below), but I am having troubles undoing that setting. According to the Apple Documentation, it should just be changing the value of the idleTimerDisabled property. But when I test this, it does not work. This is how I am initially stopping the device from going to sleep: //need to switch off and on for it to work initially [UIApplication sharedApplication].idleTimerDisabled = NO; [UIApplication sharedApplication].idleTimerDisabled = YES; I would have thought that the following would do the trick: [UIApplication sharedApplication].idleTimerDisabled = NO; From the Apple Documentation: The default value of this property is NO. When most applications have no touches as user input for a short period, the system puts the device into a "sleep” state where the screen dims. This is done for the purposes of conserving power. However, applications that don't have user input except for the accelerometer—games, for instance—can, by setting this property to YES, disable the “idle timer” to avert system sleep. Important: You should set this property only if necessary and should be sure to reset it to NO when the need no longer exists. Most applications should let the system turn off the screen when the idle timer elapses. This includes audio applications. With appropriate use of Audio Session Services, playback and recording proceed uninterrupted when the screen turns off. The only applications that should disable the idle timer are mapping applications, games, or similar programs with sporadic user interaction. Has anyone come across this problem? I am testing on iOS6 and iOS5. Thanks in advance.

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  • CMD For Loop does not hold set /a value

    - by Bob Hope
    Didn't know how to explain this well, so here is the code @echo off set test=0 for /f %%a in (textfile.txt) do ( rem loops five times(5 lines in textfile.txt) set /a test=test+1 rem Adds 1 to Test echo %%a rem Echo's correct line in file echo %test% rem Echo's whatever X was before the loop ) echo %test% rem Displays the correct value of X pause this is just an example of where I am finding the problem, txtfile.txt has 5 lines, so the for loop goes 5 times, each time, test gets +1 to it, and the /a displays the correct value of X, but the last echo on the for loop displays 0, which is what test is set to before the loop. The value of test is not changing until the loop is finished... is there any way to fix this? Here is what I want to accomplish, as there may be an easier way: I want to run a for loop that findstr's all rtf's in a series of sub folders, and copies them all to a all directory with a new name, 1.rtf,2.rtf,3.rtf, etc. The reason I need to rename them on the transfer is they all have the same name.

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  • Using Read-Only Fields in a C# WebBrowser

    - by TheDramaLlama
    I'm currently using a WebBrowser control in a C# WinForms application, and attempting to control some variability presented with this control. Basically, my users log in to a separate UI provided by my application, which then displays the WebBrowser control, navigates to a predetermined log-in URL, and then auto-fills the username and password fields on that page. However, in order to prevent unpredictable behavior in this WebBrowser control, I want to make these username and password text boxes read-only after they are auto-populated. Essentially, I want the user to see a browser page that has been filled out for them, and that cannot be edited. (This is so that any authentication errors can be handled by my application as opposed to the browser.) The code I'm currently using to populate the text fields and make them read only is as follows: webBrowser1.Document.GetElementById("username").InnerText = username; webBrowser1.Document.GetElementById("password").InnerText = password; webBrowser1.Document.GetElementById("username").Enabled = false; webBrowser1.Document.GetElementById("password").Enabled = false; Unfortunately, when I try to make the fields read-only, the authentication server acts like the password field was not filled out, and prompts the user to fill it out again after the "Submit" button is clicked. Is this expected behavior, and if so, what other methods can I try to prevent users from changing the credentials that the browser was auto-populated with?

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  • StructureMap Configuration Per Thread/Request for the Full Dependency Chain

    - by Phil Sandler
    I've been using Structuremap for a few months now, and it has worked great on some smaller (green field) projects. Most of the configurations I have had to set up involve a single implementation per interface. In the cases where I needed to choose a specific implementation at runtime, I created a factory class that used ObjectFactory.GetNamedInstance<(). In the smaller projects, there were few enough of these cases where I was comfortable with the references to ObjectFactory. My understanding is that you want to limit these references as much as possible, and ideally only reference the ObjectFactory once. I am working to refactor a larger codebase to use IOC/StructureMap, and am finding that I may need many of these factory classes with ObjectFactory references to get what I need. Essentially, I am creating a "root service" with the ObjectFactory, so that everything in the dependency chain is managed by the container. The root service is created by name (i.e. "BuildCar", "BuildTruck"), and the services needed deeper in the dependency chain could also be constructed using the same name--so the "IAttachWheels" service could vary based on whether a car or truck is being built. Since the class that depends on IAttachWheels is the same in both configurations, I don't think I can use ConstructedBy in the registry to choose the implementation. Also, to be clear, the IAttachWheels implementations need to be managed by the container as well, because the dependency chain runs fairly deep. I looked briefly at Profiles as an option, but read (here on StackOverflow) that changing profiles essentially changes implementations for all threads. Is there a feature that is similar to profiles that is thread/request specific? Is the factory class that references ObjectFactory approach the right way to go? Any thoughts would be appreciated.

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