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  • jQuery Mobile: How to run a callback-function before $.mobile.changePage?

    - by Jugi84
    I'm setting up a mobile app with jQuery Mobile and PhoneGap. What I want to do is that when I click link with id "news_link" I want jQuery to fetch data from database and put it to jQm's collapsible set. In my solution, I've wanted to use $.mobile.changePage inside callback functions because I want to wait until the data has been fetched and put inside the container before the code changes page. Here's the code: $(function() { $('#news_link').click(function(){ loadNewsFromDB(function(){ $.mobile.changePage( $("#news"), { transition: "slideup"} ); }); }); loadNewsFromDB is PhoneGap's SQLite database function which would fetch the data with more callback functions from database. The contents would be put to desired container with .html-function function loadNewsFromDB(){ //some code here theDB.transaction(function(tx) { tx.executeSql(sqlStr, [], onLoadNewsSuccess, onLoadNewsError); },onTxError, onTxSuccess); function onLoadNewsSuccess(tx, results){ //some code here $("#newsSet").html(htmlCodeAndContentToPut); Html is jQm's basic ui-modules: <!-- some html code here --!> <div data-role="page" id="news"> <div data-role="content"> <div id="newsSet" data-role="collapsible-set" data-mini="true"> With debugging I know that the code work up until it works very well unti it arrives to $.mobile.changePage-function. Somehow it doesn't change the page. I've checked the function it works well in other occasions, but not inside callback-functions. I would be very grateful if someone would give me a hand am I not seeing something obviously wrong or is something more specific? What other workarounds there is for fetching the data from SQLite, waiting for data to be fetched, putting the data to container and then changing the pages?

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  • C# generics with MVVM, pulling the T out of <T>

    - by bufferz
    My Model is a generic class that contains a (for example) Value property which can be int, float, string, bool, etc. So naturally this class is represented something like Model<T>. For the sake of collections Model<T> implements the interface IModel, although IModel is itself empty of any content. My ViewModel contains and instance of Model<T> and it is passed in through ViewModel's constructor. I still want to know what T is in ViewModel, so when I expose Model to the View I know the datatype of Model's buried Value property. The class for ViewModel ends up looking like the following: class ViewModel<T> { private Model<T> _model; public ViewModel(Model<T> model) { ....blah.... } public T ModelsValue {get; set; } } This works fine, but is limited. So now I need to expose a collection of IModels with varying Ts to my View, so I'm trying to set up an ObservableCollection of new ViewModel<T>s to a changing list of IModels. The problem is, I can't figure out how to get T from Model<T> from IModel to construct ViewModel<T>(Model<T>) at runtime. In the VS2010 debugger I can mouseover any IModel object and see its full Model<int> for example at runtime so I know the data is in there. Any ideas?

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  • Alternate colors on click with jQuery

    - by Jace Cotton
    I'm sure there is a simple solution to this, and I'm sure this is a duplicate question, though I have been unable to solve my solution particularly because I don't really know how to phrase it in order to search for other questions/solutions, so I'm coming here hoping for some help. Basically, I have spans with classes that assigns a background-color property, and inside those spans are words. I have three of these spans, and each time a user clicks on a span I want the class to change (thus changing the background color and inner text). HTML: <span class="alternate"> <span class="blue showing">Lorem</span> <span class="green">Ipsum</span> <span class="red">Dolor</span> </span> CSS: .alternate span { display : none } .alternate .showing { display : inline } .blue { background : blue } .green { background : green } .red { background : red } jQuery: $(".alternate span").each(function() { $(this).on("click", function() { $(this).removeClass("showing"); $(this).next().addClass("showing"); }); }); This solution works great using $.next until I get to the third click, whereafter .showing is removed, and is not added since there are no more $.next options. How do I, after getting to the last-child, add .showing to the first-child and then start over? I have tried various options including if($(".alternate span:last-child").hasClass("showing")) { etc. etc. }, and I attempted to use an array and for loop though I failed to make it work. Newb question, I know, but I can't seem to solve this so as a last resort I'm coming here.

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  • eliminating duplicate Enum code

    - by Don
    Hi, I have a large number of Enums that implement this interface: /** * Interface for an enumeration, each element of which can be uniquely identified by it's code */ public interface CodableEnum { /** * Get the element with a particular code * @param code * @return */ public CodableEnum getByCode(String code); /** * Get the code that identifies an element of the enum * @return */ public String getCode(); } A typical example is: public enum IMType implements CodableEnum { MSN_MESSENGER("msn_messenger"), GOOGLE_TALK("google_talk"), SKYPE("skype"), YAHOO_MESSENGER("yahoo_messenger"); private final String code; IMType (String code) { this.code = code; } public String getCode() { return code; } public IMType getByCode(String code) { for (IMType e : IMType.values()) { if (e.getCode().equalsIgnoreCase(code)) { return e; } } } } As you can imagine these methods are virtually identical in all implementations of CodableEnum. I would like to eliminate this duplication, but frankly don't know how. I tried using a class such as the following: public abstract class DefaultCodableEnum implements CodableEnum { private final String code; DefaultCodableEnum(String code) { this.code = code; } public String getCode() { return this.code; } public abstract CodableEnum getByCode(String code); } But this turns out to be fairly useless because: An enum cannot extend a class Elements of an enum (SKYPE, GOOGLE_TALK, etc.) cannot extend a class I cannot provide a default implementation of getByCode(), because DefaultCodableEnum is not itself an Enum. I tried changing DefaultCodableEnum to extend java.lang.Enum, but this doesn't appear to be allowed. Any suggestions that do not rely on reflection? Thanks, Don

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  • is there a signal emiter/consumer engine (like in Django) for .NET (C#)

    - by user118657
    Has .NET (C#) anything like Django's Signals engine? Our business logic become really complicated over few years of adding new features. I'm going to re-architecture it. Currently all features are very coupled that makes regression errors while changing something one one place - some other place may be broken. I really like Django's apps idea where separate applications introduce new functionality and are absolutely separate. Communication between apps is implemented though signals. I wounder if there is something in .NET that allows to divide project business to many separated "apps" (plug-ins, zones, modules, you name it) and make communication using some kind of "signals". For example we have simple order flow. We can add "coupon app" that if exists in the project adds abilities to use discount coupon. We can add "cross sale" module that if exists adds abilities to offer cross-sale products Email notification module that if exists adds abilities to send order email notifications. But in the same time all this modules are "self-contained" means that communication between them is done using emitting signals (ORDER_PROCCESS_START, ORDER_SUCCESS, etcs) and other modules can subscribe to this signals and process them in required way. This architecture is not related to web, all business logic is processed on the server side like without working with HTTP directly. I wonder if it's good architecture from code maintaining and testing point of few, is it possible to do this in .NET? Any drawbacks that I don't realize now?

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  • Permission Denied error in IE when closing popups

    - by Kenia
    Hi everyone! I have a simple web testing application which is supposed to open and close several popups by itself (without user interaction). For this purpose i have a javascript function to access the variable where the popup reference is stored and close it if it´s not null, fairly simple. However I get random errors in IE (in FF it works as expected, all popups are closed correctly) like Message: No such interface supported Line: 86 Char: 3 Code: 0 URI: http://10.10.0.61:10000/savmailer/adm/tests/common_tests_code.js and Message: Permission denied Line: 86 Char: 3 Code: 0 URI: http://10.10.0.61:10000/savmailer/adm/tests/common_tests_code.js The line 86 references exactly the point at which I do popup.close(); in the following function function closePopupWindow(popup){ if (popup != null) { popup.close(); popup = null; } } I have googled and it seems this permission denied error is quite common to come through among IE developers, however there´s no clear solution for it, it´s just a matter of changing the code slightly "to please" IE, so to speak. However i have no idea how to change mine since it´s just 3 lines! Tried also to change the security browser settings by adding my domain to the trusted zone, but nothing, doesn't help either. If anyone has any helpful idea or notices something i might be forgetting, please, reply to this! Thanks in advance, Kenia

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  • Font for tabs looks a little too big

    - by cf_PhillipSenn
    I'm using the default for jQueryUI, but it looks like the font is a little big. I know that one solution would be "WELL! JUST MAKE IT SMALLER!", but I'm just wondering if I've messed something up or I don't have a value set correctly before I charge in and start changing things. <!DOCTYPE HTML> <html> <head> <script src="http://www.google.com/jsapi"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> google.load("jquery", "1"); </script> <link rel="stylesheet" href="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jqueryui/1/themes/smoothness/jquery-ui.css" type="text/css" media="all" /> <script type="text/javascript"> google.load("jqueryui", "1"); function OnLoadCallbackUI(){ $('#tabs').tabs(); } google.setOnLoadCallback(OnLoadCallbackUI); </script> </head> <body> <div id="tabs"> <ul> <li><a href="#tabs-1">tab1</a></li> <li><a href="#tabs-2">tab2</a></li> </ul> <div id="tabs-1"> tabs-1 </div> <div id="tabs-2"> tabs-2 </div> </div> </body> </html>

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  • Image does not update when file name remains the same in XCode 3.1.2

    - by vman049
    Hi Everyone, I'm using XCode version 3.1.2 and am developing for iPhone using the Simulator with iOS 2.2.1 on Leopard. I had an image file named "img.jpg" in my project which I decided to switch for a different file. After adding the new file into the XCode Resources folder, I removed the first file and renamed the new file to the same name as the previous one, "img.jpg." When I run my program, however, the Simulator loads the old image instead of the new one, even though the old one has been deleted from disk (not just the reference). I tried changing the name of the file to "img2.jpg," and it worked like it should - loading the new image, but I want to keep the name "img.jpg." I ran a search with Spotlight for "img.jpg" to see if there was another copy stored somewhere that XCode was using, but it only returned my new image file. I have tried uninstalling the app from the Simulator and running the application again, but that also does not fix the problem. What must I do for XCode to recognize that I want to use the new image file and not the old one? Thanks for your help!!

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  • JavaScript: Is there a better way to retain your array but efficiently concat or replace items?

    - by Michael Mikowski
    I am looking for the best way to replace or add to elements of an array without deleting the original reference. Here is the set up: var a = [], b = [], c, i, obj; for ( i = 0; i < 100000; i++ ) { a[ i ] = i; b[ i ] = 10000 - i; } obj.data_list = a; Now we want to concatenate b INTO a without changing the reference to a, since it is used in obj.data_list. Here is one method: for ( i = 0; i < b.length; i++ ) { a.push( b[ i ] ); } This seems to be a somewhat terser and 8x (on V8) faster method: a.splice.apply( a, [ a.length, 0 ].concat( b ) ); I have found this useful when iterating over an "in-place" array and don't want to touch the elements as I go (a good practice). I start a new array (let's call it keep_list) with the initial arguments and then add the elements I wish to retain. Finally I use this apply method to quickly replace the truncated array: var keep_list = [ 0, 0 ]; for ( i = 0; i < a.length; i++ ){ if ( some_condition ){ keep_list.push( a[ i ] ); } // truncate array a.length = 0; // And replace contents a.splice.apply( a, keep_list ); There are a few problems with this solution: there is a max call stack size limit of around 50k on V8 I have not tested on other JS engines yet. This solution is a bit cryptic Has anyone found a better way?

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  • Regex preg_match issue with commas

    - by Serge Sf
    This is my code to pre_match when an amount looks like this: $ 99.00 and it works if (preg_match_all('/[$]\s\d+(\.\d+)?/', $tout, $matches)) { $tot2 = $matches[0]; $tot2 = preg_replace("/\\\$/", '', $tot2);} I need to do the same thing for a amount that looks like this (with a comma): $ 99,00 Thank you for your help (changing dot for comma do not help, there is an "escape" thing I do not understand... Idealy I need to preg_match any number that looks like an amount with dot or commas and with or without dollar sign before or after (I know, it's a lot to ask :) since on the result form I want to scan there are phone and street numbers... UPDATE (For some reason I cannot comment on replies) : To test properly, I need to preg_replace the comma by a dot (since we are dealings with sums, I don't think calculations can be done on numbers with commas in it). So to clarify my question, I should say : I need to transform, let's say "$ 200,24" to "200.24". (could be amounts bettween 0.10 to 1000.99) : $tot2 = preg_replace("/\\\$/", '', $tot2);} (this code just deals with the $ (it works), I need adaptation to deal also with the change of (,) for (.))

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  • getting windows username with javascript

    - by jbkkd
    I have a site which is built in ASP.net and C#. Let's call it webapp. it uses a Form system to log on into it, and cannot be changed easliy. I got a request to change the log in to some kind of windows authentication. I'll explain. Our windows login uses active directory for users to log into their windows account. their login name is sXXXXXXX. X are numbers. in my webapp, I want to take the users numbers from their active directory login, and check if those exist in the webapp database. if it exists, they will automatically log in. If it doesn't, they will be referred to the regular login page for the webapp system which is currently in use. I tried changing my IIS to disable anonymous login and enabling windows authentication, therefore making the user browser to send it's current logged in user name to my webapp. I changed the web config as well from "Forms" to "Windows", which made my whole webapp obsolete as the whole forms system did not work. My question is this - is there a different way for the browser only to send the username to my webapp? I thought maybe javascript, I just don't know how to implement that, if it's even possible. I know it's not very secure, but all this platform and system is built outside the internet, it's on a private network.

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  • Enabling all buttons in a repeater except for the clicked one

    - by NewAmbition
    I have a Repeater Control with various buttons in it. When the button gets clicked, it needs to disable itself so it cant be clicked again. Working. However, when I click that button, it needs to enable any other button but it. So, When I click on it, it needs to disable. When I click on another one, the previous button must enable, and that one must disable. So for I've tried: Button btnLoad = (Button)e.Item.FindControl("btnLoad"); foreach (Button b in e.Item.Controls.OfType<Button>().Select(c => c).Where(b => b != btnLoad)) { b.Enabled = true; } btnLoad.Text = "Currently Viewing"; btnLoad.Enabled = false; But it isnt working. Depending on where I put it, its either leaving all the buttons enabled (But still changing its text), or not doing anything at all. What do I need to do to make this work?

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  • Java giving incorrect year values

    - by whistler
    Something very, very strange is occurring in my program, and I'm wondering if anyone out there has seen this occur before. And, if so, how to fix it. Basically, I am parsing an csv file...no problem there. One column contains a date and I am taking it in as a String and changing to a Date object. Again, no problem there. The code is as follows: SimpleDateFormat dateFormat = new SimpleDateFormat("MM/dd/yy hh:mm"); Date initialDate = new Date(); try { initialDate = dateFormat.parse(rows.get(0)[8]); System.out.println(initialDate); } catch (ParseException e) { // TODO Auto-generated catch block e.printStackTrace(); } Of course, I'm parsing other columns as well (and those are working fine). So, when I run my program for a small csv file (2.8 MB), the dates come out (i.e. are parsed) perfectly. However, when I run the program for a large csv file (25 MB), the dates are a hot mess. For example, take a look at the year values I am getting (the following is just a tiny portion of the println output from the code above): 1000264 at Sun Nov 05 15:30:00 EST 2186 1000320 at Sat Mar 04 17:30:00 EST 2169 1000347 at Sat Apr 01 09:45:00 EDT 2169 1000413 at Tue Jul 09 13:00:00 EDT 2182 1000638 at Fri Dec 11 13:45:00 EST 2167 1000667 at Wed Dec 10 10:00:00 EST 2188 1000690 at Mon Jan 02 13:00:00 EST 2169 1000843 at Thu Feb 11 13:30:00 EST 2196 In actuality, the years are in the realm of 1990-2006 or so. Again, this does not happen with the small csv file. Does anyone know what's going on here and how I can fix it? I need to process the large csv file (the small one was just for testing purposes). By request, here are the actual dates in the csv file and after that the value given by the code above: 5/20/03 15:30 5/20/03 15:30 8/30/04 9:00 8/30/04 9:00 12/20/04 10:30 12/20/04 10:30 Sun Nov 05 15:30:00 EST 2186 Sun Nov 05 15:30:00 EST 2186 Sun Nov 05 15:30:00 EST 2186 Thu Dec 08 09:00:00 EST 2196 Tue Dec 12 10:30:00 EST 2186 Tue Dec 12 10:30:00 EST 2186

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  • Can't access form elements

    - by linkcool
    Hi, my problem is that my variables are not working in javascript. all variables need names without some character at the beginning, this is the stupid thing...Anyways, im trying to make a funtion that makes "select all checkboxes". It is not working so i looked at the page source/info and found out that the variables were not changing. this is my input: echo "<input onclick='checkAll(1);' type='checkbox' name='master'/><br/>"; My function: function checkAll(i) { for(var i=1; i < <?php echo $num; ?>; i++) { if(document.demo.master[i].checked == true) { document.demo.message[i].checked = true; } else { document.demo.message[i].checked = false; } } } so yes that's it. I can tell you that i also tried without the <i> in: checkAll("i") Thanks for the help. EDIT: each checkbox for each messsage has this code:echo "<input style='margin-left:-15px;margin-top:20px;' type='checkbox' name='message' value='$rid' /><br/>";

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  • C++, inject additional data in a method

    - by justik
    I am adding the new modul in some large library. All methods here are implemented as static. Let mi briefly describe the simplified model: typedef std::vector<double> TData; double test ( const TData &arg ) { return arg ( 0 ) * sin ( arg ( 1 ) + ...;} double ( * p_test ) ( const TData> &arg) = &test; class A { public: static T f1 (TData &input) { .... //some computations B::f2 (p_test); } }; Inside f1() some computations are perfomed and a static method B::f2 is called. The f2 method is implemented by another author and represents some simulation algorithm (example here is siplified). class B { public: static double f2 (double ( * p_test ) ( const TData &arg ) ) { //difficult algorithm working p_test many times double res = p_test(arg); } }; The f2 method has a pointer to some weight function (here p_test). But in my case some additional parameters computed in f1 for test() methods are required double test ( const TData &arg, const TData &arg2, char *arg3.... ) { } How to inject these parameters into test() (and so to f2) to avoid changing the source code of the f2 methods (that is not trivial), redesign of the library and without dirty hacks :-) ? The most simple step is to override f2 static double f2 (double ( * p_test ) ( const TData &arg ), const TData &arg2, char *arg3.... ) But what to do later? Consider, that methods are static, so there will be problems with objects. Thanks for your help.

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  • Should I put actors in the Domain-Model/Class-Diagram?

    - by devoured elysium
    When designing both the domain-model and class-diagrams I am having some trouble understanding what to put in them. I'll give an example of what I mean: I am doing a vacations scheduler program, that has an Administrator and End-Users. The Administrator does a couple of things like registering End-Users in the program, changing their previleges, etc. The End-User can choose his vacations days, etc. I initially defined an Administrator and End-User as concepts in the domain-model, and later as classes in the class-diagram. In the class-diagram, both classes ended up having a couple of methods like Administrator.RegisterNewUser(); Administrator.UnregisterUser(int id); etc. Only after some time I realised that actually both Administrator and End-User are actors, and maybe I got this design totally wrong. Instead of filling Administrator and End-User classes with methods to do what my Use-Cases request, I could define other classes from the domain to do them, and have controllers handle the Use-Cases(actually, I decided to do one for each Use-Case). I could have a UserDatabase.RegisterNewUser() and UserDatabase.UnregisterUser(int id);, for example, instead of having those methods on the Administrator class. The idea would be to try to think of the whole vacation-scheduler as a "closed-program" that has a set of features and doesn't bother with things such as authentication, that should be internal/protected, being that the only public things I'd let the outside world see would be its controllers. Is this the right approach? Or am I getting this totally wrong? Is it generally bad idea to put Actors in the domain-model/class-diagrams? What are good rules of thumb for this? My lecturer is following Applying UML and Patterns, which I find awful, so I'd like to know where I could look up more info on this described actor-models situation. I'm still a bit confused about all of this, as this new approach is radically different from anything I've done before.

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  • RewitePath on IIS7 with .Net 3.5 or 4.0 - The resource cannot be found.

    - by Renso
    In Global.asax handle errors by trying to redirect users to another page without changing the url in the address bar, that's why I am using RewritePath and not Redirect. void Application_Error(object sender, EventArgs e) { // Code that runs when an unhandled error occurs Context.RewritePath("~/Error.aspx", false); } Error.apsx in same root folder as About.aspx, and Default.aspx pages which of course work. Not sure I am having this issue. Have the following web.config file settings that I thought may be relevant: IIS7 settings: Application "TestRewriteUrl" under Default Web Site on DefaultAppPool. This example my seem trivial but I cannot use IIS7 HTTP Redirect as I actually was using this example to keep it simple. What I want to ultimately do is have a user type in http://www.somesite.com/myownpage and have it rewrite the path to another page in the same application directory by looking up the "myownpage" in the database to see what database id they have and redirect them to the correct "microsite" based on that without the user noticing a url change. Kind of like when you go to a blogging engine and no matter where in your blog you go the url remains the same. I don't want the user to go from http://www.mysite.com/tomshardware to http://www.mysite.com?id=8734656856. So that is why I used the simply example above to try and understand why the rewrite path does not work.

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  • NULL pointer comparison fails

    - by Ilya
    Hello, I'm initializing in a class a pointer to be NULL. Afterwards I check if it is NULL in the same class. But it's not always 0x0. Sometimes it's 0x8 or 0xfeffffff or 0x3f800000 or 0x80 or other strange stuff. In most case the pointer is 0x0 but sometimes it gets altered somehow. I'm sure that I'm not changing it anywhere in my code. Is there a way it gets changed by "itself"? Here's my code: MeshObject::MeshObject() { mesh.vertexColors = NULL; } MeshObject::MeshObject(const MeshObject &_copyFromMe) { SimpleLog("vertexColors pointer: %p", _copyFromMe.mesh.vertexColors); if (_copyFromMe.mesh.vertexColors != NULL) { SimpleLog("vertexColors"); this->mesh.vertexColors = new tColor4i[_copyFromMe.mesh.vertexCount]; memcpy(this->mesh.vertexColors, _copyFromMe.mesh.vertexColors, _copyFromMe.mesh.vertexCount * sizeof(tColor4i) ); } } My application crashes, because vertexColors wasn't initialized and is being copied. However it is NULL and shouldn't be copied. Thanks.

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  • reading keyboard input without "consuming" it in x86 assembly

    - by Bob
    Ok so here the deal: I have an assignment regarding DOS and interrupts: I need to write a sort of key-logger function that can be called from C code. what it means is a c program would call an assembly function called startlog that would indicate to start logging the keys pressed until a function called endlog is called. the logging should work like this: write the ascii value of any key pressed without disturbing the C code between startlog and endlog, meaning that if the C code also needs to read the input (let's say by scanf, it would work ok). I managed to write the logger by changing the interrupt vector 9th entry (interrupt for keyboard press) to a function I wrote that writes the values to a file, and it works fine. however the C code does not get the input. Basically what i did is read the key pressed using int 21h, however after reading the ascii value it is "consumed" so I need a way to either simulate the key press again or read the value without "consuming" it so next time a key is read it reads the same key. (I described the code in english because it is long and clumsy assembly code)

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  • (How) Can I approximate a "dynamic" index (key extractor) for Boost MultiIndex?

    - by Sarah
    I have a MultiIndex container of boost::shared_ptrs to members of class Host. These members contain private arrays bool infections[NUM_SEROTYPES] revealing Hosts' infection statuses with respect to each of 1,...,NUM_SEROTYPES serotypes. I want to be able to determine at any time in the simulation the number of people infected with a given serotype, but I'm not sure how: Ideally, Boost MultiIndex would allow me to sort, for example, by Host::isInfected( int s ), where s is the serotype of interest. From what I understand, MultiIndex key extractors aren't allowed to take arguments. An alternative would be to define an index for each serotype, but I don't see how to write the MultiIndex container typedef ... in such an extensible way. I will be changing the number of serotypes between simulations. (Do experienced programmers think this should be possible? I'll attempt it if so.) There are 2^(NUM_SEROTYPES) possible infection statuses. For small numbers of serotypes, I could use a single index based on this number (or a binary string) and come up with some mapping from this key to actual infection status. Counting is still darn slow. I could maintain a separate structure counting the total numbers of infecteds with each serotype. The synchrony is a bit of a pain, but the memory is fine. I would prefer a slicker option, since I would like to do further sorts on other host attributes (e.g., after counting the number infected with serotype s, count the number of those infected who are also in a particular household and have a particular age). Thanks in advance.

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  • Ruby & ActiveRecord: referring to integer fields by (uniquely mapped) strings

    - by JP
    While its not my application a simple way to explain my problem is to assume I'm running a URL shortener. Rather than attempt to try and figure out what the next string I should use as the unique section of the URL, I just index all my URLs by integer and map the numbers to strings behind the scenes, essentially just changing the base of the number to, let's say, 62: a-z + A-Z + 0-9. In ActiveRecord I can easily alter the reader for the url_id field so that it returns my base 62 string instead of the number being stored in the database: class Short < ActiveRecord::Base def url_id i = read_attribute(:convo) return '0' if i == 0 s = '' while i > 0 s << CHARS[i.modulo(62)] i /= 62 end s end end but is there a way to tell ActiveRecord to accept Short.find(:first,:conditions=>{:url_id=>'Ab7'}), ie. putting the 'decoding' logic into my Short ActiveRecord class? I guess I could define my own def self.find_by_unique_string(string), but that feels like cheating somehow! Thanks!

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  • HTML Table: How to resize data cells when already specified "colspan"?

    - by Jenny
    I have tabular data to display, which has a meaning to both rows and columns. Columns are time blocks, rows are days. A particular datacell is confined to a single day, but can be in multiple time block. To show this, I am using the colspan tag. <div id = "GuideTable"> <table> <tr> <td colspan = 3> </td></tr></table> </div> Or Whatever. I'm trying to apply CSS formating to the entire table, and for changing colors, etc, things are fine, but wanting to have a consistent width is where I am running into problems. Right now, each data cell's width seems tied to the maximum width in its column (everything auto lines up). Some columns are itty bitty, others are huge. I'm trying to make columns consistently sized (even if that means every column is as big as the biggest column needs to be), but setting an individual datacells width (either via css or in the tag itself) is getting me nowhere. I'm thinking maybe the colspan tag is overriding my manual width? If that's the case, how can I change the width of a column as a whole, especially since they aren't explicitly defined? (CAN you explicitly define columns?) Examples of the CSS I'm using: #GuideTable td{ background:#ffffff; border-style: solid; border-width: 1px; width: 100px; }

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  • How can I prevent the scaling of a UIWebview's content after reorientation?

    - by frankhermes
    I'm building an iOS 5/6 app that has a UIWebView. It loads some HTML that I have embedded in my app. Now when I rotate my device, the WebView changes its size (as I want it to fill the entire width of the screen). And then it gets weird: some content gets scaled up and some content doesn't get scaled up. See this image with some example text in it: As you can see, the header (H6) stays the same, while the paragraph gets scaled up. Does anybody have an idea how to prevent this? I want the html to look the same in landscape as it does in portrait mode. I've tried setting the viewport scaling to 1: <meta name="viewport" content="initial-scale=1.0,max-scale=1.0"> but that doesn't help. The body's font-size style is set to 14px, but changing that to 14pt or a percentage also made no difference. Setting the width of the body to 100% also didn't help. Strangely, removing the line break (<br/>) that's in the text fixes it but I need line breaks to be in there so that's no solution. The only thing that does work is reloading the UIWebView's content after an orientation change, but that doesn't prevent it from looking wrong during rotation, and it resets any scrolling that the user may have done. Any ideas?

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  • Pointer mysteriously moves

    - by Armen Ablak
    Hi, I have this code for Node rotation and in a line which is marked something happens and I don't really know what and why :). //Test case 30 \ 16 / 29 RotationRight(node->mParent); //call template<class T> void SplayTree<T>::RotationRight(SplayNode<T> *&node) const { SplayNode<T> *left = node->mLeft; SplayNode<T> *parent = node->mParent; node->mLeft = left->mRight; if(left->HasRight()) left->mRight->mParent = node; left->mRight = node; //node in this line points to 0x00445198 {30} left->mParent = node->mParent; //and in this line it points to 0x00444fb8 {16} (node, not node->mParent) node->mParent = left; node = left; } Well, left-mParent points to node also, so I basically do node = node-mParent. The problem is I can't find a work around - how to unpin in from node and change it's pointing address without changing it's.

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  • Rails 3 MySQL 2 reports an error in what looks to be valid SQL syntax

    - by John Judd
    I am trying to use the following bit of code to help in seeding my database. I need to add data continually over development and do not want to have to completely reseed data every time I add something new to the seeds.rb file. So I added the following function to insert the data if it doesn't already exist. def AddSetting(group, name, value, desc) Admin::Setting.create({group: group, name: name, value: value, description: desc}) unless Admin::Setting.find_by_sql("SELECT * FROM admin_settings WHERE group = '#{group}' AND name = '#{name}';").exists? end AddSetting('google', 'analytics_id', '', 'The ID of your Google Analytics account.') AddSetting('general', 'page_title', '', '') AddSetting('general', 'tag_line', '', '') This function is included in the db/seeds.rb file. Is this the right way to do this? However I am getting the following error when I try to run it through rake. rake aborted! Mysql2::Error: You have an error in your SQL syntax; check the manual that corresponds to your MySQL server version for the right syntax to use near 'group = 'google' AND name = 'analytics_id'' at line 1: SELECT * FROM admin_settings WHERE group = 'google' AND name = 'analytics_id'; Tasks: TOP => db:seed (See full trace by running task with --trace) Process finished with exit code 1 What is confusing me is that I am generating correct SQL as far as I can tell. In fact my code generates the SQL and I pass that to the find_by_sql function for the model, Rails itself can't be changing the SQL, or is it? SELECT * FROM admin_settings WHERE group = 'google' AND name = 'analytics_id'; I've written a lot of SQL over the years and I've looked through similar questions here. Maybe I've missed something, but I cannot see it.

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