Search Results

Search found 8776 results on 352 pages for 'boolean logic'.

Page 266/352 | < Previous Page | 262 263 264 265 266 267 268 269 270 271 272 273  | Next Page >

  • DDD and MVC: Difference between 'Model' and 'Entity'

    - by Nathan Loding
    I'm seriously confused about the concept of the 'Model' in MVC. Most frameworks that exist today put the Model between the Controller and the database, and the Model almost acts like a database abstraction layer. The concept of 'Fat Model Skinny Controller' is lost as the Controller starts doing more and more logic. In DDD, there is also the concept of a Domain Entity, which has a unique identity to it. As I understand it, a user is a good example of an Entity (unique userid, for instance). The Entity has a life-cycle -- it's values can change throughout the course of the action -- and then it's saved or discarded. The Entity I describe above is what I thought Model was supposed to be in MVC? How off-base am I? To clutter things more, you throw in other patterns, such as the Repository pattern (maybe putting a Service in there). It's pretty clear how the Repository would interact with an Entity -- how does it with a Model? Controllers can have multiple Models, which makes it seem like a Model is less a "database table" than it is a unique Entity. So, in very rough terms, which is better? No "Model" really ... class MyController { public function index() { $repo = new PostRepository(); $posts = $repo->findAllByDateRange('within 30 days'); foreach($posts as $post) { echo $post->Author; } } } Or this, which has a Model as the DAO? class MyController { public function index() { $model = new PostModel(); // maybe this returns a PostRepository? $posts = $model->findAllByDateRange('within 30 days'); while($posts->getNext()) { echo $posts->Post->Author; } } } Both those examples didn't even do what I was describing above. I'm clearly lost. Any input?

    Read the article

  • Match entities fulfilling filter (strict superset of search)

    - by Jon
    I have an entity (let's say Person) with a set of arbitrary attributes with a known subset of values. I need to search for all of these entities that match all my filter conditions. That is, given a set of Attributes A, I need to find all people that have a set of Attributes that are a superset of A. For example, my table structures look like this: Person: id | name 1 | John Doe 2 | Jane Roe 3 | John Smith Attribute: id | attr_name 1 | Sex 2 | Eye Color ValidValue: id | attr_id | value_name 1 | 1 | Male 2 | 1 | Female 3 | 2 | Blue 4 | 2 | Green 5 | 2 | Brown PersonAttributes id | person_id | attr_id | value_id 1 | 1 | 1 | 1 2 | 1 | 2 | 3 3 | 2 | 1 | 2 4 | 2 | 2 | 4 5 | 3 | 1 | 1 6 | 3 | 2 | 4 In JPA, I have entities built for all of these tables. What I'd like to do is perform a search for all entities matching a given set of attribute-value pairs. For instance, I'd like to be able to find all males (John Doe and John Smith), all people with green eyes (Jane Roe or John Smith), or all females with green eyes (Jane Roe). I see that I can already take advantage of the fact that I only really need to match on value_id, since that's already unique and tied to the attr_id. But where can I go from there? I've been trying to do something like the following, given that the ValidValue is unique in all cases: select distinct p from Person p join p.personAttributes a where a.value IN (:values) Then I've tried putting my set of required values in as "values", but that gives me errors no matter how I try to structure that. I also have to get a little more complicated, as follows, but at this point I'd be happy with solving the first problem cleanly. However, if it's possible, the Attribute table actually has a field for default value: id | attr_name | default_value 1 | Sex | 1 2 | Eye Color | 5 If the value you're searching on happens to be the default value, I want it to return any people that have no explicit value set for that attribute, because in the application logic, that means they inherit the default value. Again, I'm more concerned about the primary question, but if someone who can help with that also has some idea of how to do this one, I'd be extremely grateful.

    Read the article

  • Performing text processing on flatpage content to include handling of custom tag

    - by Dzejkob
    Hi. I'm using flatpages app in my project to manage some html content. That content will include images, so I've made a ContentImage model allowing user to upload images using admin panel. The user should then be able to include those images in content of the flatpages. He can of course do that by manually typing image url into <img> tag, but that's not what I'm looking for. To make including images more convenient, I'm thinking about something like this: User edits an additional, let's say pre_content field of CustomFlatPage model (I'm using custom flatpage model already) instead of defining <img> tags directly, he uses a custom tag, something like [img=...] where ... is name of the ContentImage instance now the hardest part: before CustomFlatPage is saved, pre_content field is checked for all [img=...] occurences and they are processed like this: ContentImage model is searched if there's image instance with given name and if so, [img=...] is replaced with proper <img> tag. flatpage actual content is filled with processed pre_content and then flatpage is saved (pre_content is leaved unchanged, as edited by user) The part that I can't cope with is text processing. Should I use regular expressions? Apparently they can be slow for large strings. And how to organize logic? I assume it's rather algorithmic question, but I'm not familliar with text processing in Python enough, to do it myself. Can somebody give me any clues?

    Read the article

  • Continuous Integration with 64-bit Sharepoint and TFS 2008?

    - by Hirvox
    I've set up a 64-bit TFS 2008 build server with Sharepoint, continuous integration and out-of-the-box MSTest. Unit tests for plain business logic classes run just fine and test results are published into TFS. However, any test that uses Sharepoint's API fails horribly, SPFarm.Local returning null and so on. Is there a way to fix this? The tests run fine in an otherwise identical 32-bit development environment (Windows Server 2008 under Hyper-V, Sharepoint patched up to June 2009 cumulative update) from both Visual Studio and command line, so the problem is not about improper use of SPContext.Current or any other part of the API that needs to be run in a web server context. I've ruled out permissions issues, because the build agent account can deploy the solution and create site collections just fine with stsadm. The next culprit could be that the unit tests were being run with a 32-bit process, which couldn't access the 64-bit Sharepoint API properly. I tried a workaround, but it has the side effect of disabling TFS support in MSTest. Do I have to wait for 2010 versions of MS tools (and hope for the best) or is there a third-party test framework available that runs natively in 64 bit and can publish test results into TFS 2008?

    Read the article

  • Flex 3 - Issues with textArea "editable" property

    - by BS_C3
    Hello Community! I'm having issues with the property "editable" of textArea control. I have a component: OrderView.mxml and it's associated data class OrderViewData.as. Orderview.mxml is inside a viewStack to enable navigation from a component to another. In this particular case, OrderView.mxml is called by another component: SearchResult.mxml. I can thus navigate from SearchResult.mxml to OrderView.mxml, and back to SearchResult.mxml... OrderView.mxml has textArea and textInput control, that have to be editable or nonEditable depending on the property var isEditable:Boolean from OrderViewData.as. When the application is launched, isEditable = true. So, all textInput and textArea controls are editable the first time the user gets to OrderView.mxml. When the user clicks on the button order from OrderView.mxml, isEditable = false. When the user goes back to SearchResult.mxml, isEditable = true (again) -- Until here, everything works fine. The thing is: when the user goes back to OrderView.mxml for the second time (and beyond), even if the property isEditable = true, textArea controls are still non editable... But the textInput controls are editable! Here is some code for your comprehension: OrderView.mxml <mx:Canvas xmlns:mx="http://www.adobe.com/2006/mxml" backgroundColor="#F3EDEC"> <mx:TextArea id="contentTA" text="{OrderViewData.instance.contentTA}" enabled="{OrderViewData.instance.isEnabled}" width="100%" height="51" maxChars="18" styleName="ORTextInput" focusIn="if(OrderViewData.instance.isEditable) contentTA.setSelection(0, contentTA.length)"/> <mx:TextInput id="contentTI" text="{OrderViewData.instance.contentTI}" width="40" height="18" maxChars="4" styleName="ORTextInput" change="contentTI_change()" focusIn="if(OrderViewData.instance.isEditable) contentTI.setSelection(0, contentTI.length)" editable="{OrderViewData.instance.isEditable}"/> </mx:Canvas> Am I missing something? Thanks for any help you can provide. Regards. BS_C3

    Read the article

  • Hiding Command Prompt with CodeDomProvider

    - by j-t-s
    Hi All I've just got my own little custom c# compiler made, using the article from MSDN. But, when I create a new Windows Forms application using my sample compiler, the MSDOS window also appears, and if I close the DOS window, my WinForms app closes too. How can I tell the Compiler? not to show the MSDOS window at all? Thank you :) Here's my code: using System; namespace JTS { public class CSCompiler { protected string ot, rt, ss, es; protected bool rg, cg; public string Compile(String se, String fe, String[] rdas, String[] fs, Boolean rn) { System.CodeDom.Compiler.CodeDomProvider CODEPROV = System.CodeDom.Compiler.CodeDomProvider.CreateProvider("CSharp"); ot = fe; System.CodeDom.Compiler.CompilerParameters PARAMS = new System.CodeDom.Compiler.CompilerParameters(); // Ensure the compiler generates an EXE file, not a DLL. PARAMS.GenerateExecutable = true; PARAMS.OutputAssembly = ot; PARAMS.CompilerOptions = "/target:winexe"; PARAMS.ReferencedAssemblies.Add(typeof(System.Xml.Linq.Extensions).Assembly.Location); PARAMS.LinkedResources.Add("this.ico"); foreach (String ay in rdas) { if (ay.Contains(".dll")) PARAMS.ReferencedAssemblies.Add(ay); else { string refd = ay; refd = refd + ".dll"; PARAMS.ReferencedAssemblies.Add(refd); } } System.CodeDom.Compiler.CompilerResults rs = CODEPROV.CompileAssemblyFromFile(PARAMS, fs); if (rs.Errors.Count > 0) { foreach (System.CodeDom.Compiler.CompilerError COMERR in rs.Errors) { es = es + "Line number: " + COMERR.Line + ", Error number: " + COMERR.ErrorNumber + ", '" + COMERR.ErrorText + ";" + Environment.NewLine + Environment.NewLine; } } else { // Compilation succeeded. es = "Compilation Succeeded."; if (rn) System.Diagnostics.Process.Start(ot); } return es; } } }

    Read the article

  • Hiding Command Prompt with CodeDomProvider

    - by j-t-s
    Hi All I've just got my own little custom c# compiler made, using the article from MSDN. But, when I create a new Windows Forms application using my sample compiler, the MSDOS window also appears, and if I close the DOS window, my WinForms app closes too. How can I tell the Compiler? not to show the MSDOS window at all? Thank you :) Here's my code: using System; namespace JTS { public class CSCompiler { protected string ot, rt, ss, es; protected bool rg, cg; public string Compile(String se, String fe, String[] rdas, String[] fs, Boolean rn) { System.CodeDom.Compiler.CodeDomProvider CODEPROV = System.CodeDom.Compiler.CodeDomProvider.CreateProvider("CSharp"); ot = fe; System.CodeDom.Compiler.CompilerParameters PARAMS = new System.CodeDom.Compiler.CompilerParameters(); // Ensure the compiler generates an EXE file, not a DLL. PARAMS.GenerateExecutable = true; PARAMS.OutputAssembly = ot; PARAMS.CompilerOptions = "/target:winexe"; PARAMS.ReferencedAssemblies.Add(typeof(System.Xml.Linq.Extensions).Assembly.Location); PARAMS.LinkedResources.Add("this.ico"); foreach (String ay in rdas) { if (ay.Contains(".dll")) PARAMS.ReferencedAssemblies.Add(ay); else { string refd = ay; refd = refd + ".dll"; PARAMS.ReferencedAssemblies.Add(refd); } } System.CodeDom.Compiler.CompilerResults rs = CODEPROV.CompileAssemblyFromFile(PARAMS, fs); if (rs.Errors.Count > 0) { foreach (System.CodeDom.Compiler.CompilerError COMERR in rs.Errors) { es = es + "Line number: " + COMERR.Line + ", Error number: " + COMERR.ErrorNumber + ", '" + COMERR.ErrorText + ";" + Environment.NewLine + Environment.NewLine; } } else { // Compilation succeeded. es = "Compilation Succeeded."; if (rn) System.Diagnostics.Process.Start(ot); } return es; } } }

    Read the article

  • Adding custom methods to a subclassed NSManagedObject

    - by CJ
    I have a Core Data model where I have an entity A, which is an abstract. Entities B, C, and D inherit from entity A. There are several properties defined in entity A which are used by B, C, and D. I would like to leverage this inheritance in my model code. In addition to properties, I am wondering if I can add methods to entity A, which are implemented in it's sub-entities. For example: I add a method to the interface for entity A which returns a value and takes one argument I add implementations of this method to A, B, C, D Then, I call executeFetchRequest: to retrieve all instances of B I call the method on the objects retrieved, which should call the implementation of the method contained in B's implementation I have tried this, but when calling the method, I receive: [NSManagedObject methodName:]: unrecognized selector sent to instance I presume this is because the objects returned by executeFetchRequest: are proxy objects of some sort. Is there any way to leverage inheritance using subclassed NSManagedObjects? I would really like to be able to do this, otherwise my model code would be responsible for determining what type of NSManagedObject it's dealing with and perform special logic according to the type, which is undesirable. Any help is appreciated, thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • Help to resolve 'Out of memory' exception when calling DrawImage

    - by Jack Juiceson
    Hi guys, About one percent of our users experience sudden crash while using our application. The logs show below exception, the only thing in common that I've seen so far is that, they all have XP SP3. Thanks in advance Out of memory. at System.Drawing.Graphics.CheckErrorStatus(Int32 status) at System.Drawing.Graphics.DrawImage(Image image, Rectangle destRect, Int32 srcX, Int32 srcY, Int32 srcWidth, Int32 srcHeight, GraphicsUnit srcUnit, ImageAttributes imageAttrs, DrawImageAbort callback, IntPtr callbackData) at System.Drawing.Graphics.DrawImage(Image image, Rectangle destRect, Int32 srcX, Int32 srcY, Int32 srcWidth, Int32 srcHeight, GraphicsUnit srcUnit, ImageAttributes imageAttr, DrawImageAbort callback) at System.Drawing.Graphics.DrawImage(Image image, Rectangle destRect, Int32 srcX, Int32 srcY, Int32 srcWidth, Int32 srcHeight, GraphicsUnit srcUnit, ImageAttributes imageAttr) at System.Windows.Forms.ControlPaint.DrawBackgroundImage(Graphics g, Image backgroundImage, Color backColor, ImageLayout backgroundImageLayout, Rectangle bounds, Rectangle clipRect, Point scrollOffset, RightToLeft rightToLeft) at System.Windows.Forms.Control.PaintBackground(PaintEventArgs e, Rectangle rectangle, Color backColor, Point scrollOffset) at System.Windows.Forms.Control.PaintBackground(PaintEventArgs e, Rectangle rectangle) at System.Windows.Forms.Control.OnPaintBackground(PaintEventArgs pevent) at System.Windows.Forms.ScrollableControl.OnPaintBackground(PaintEventArgs e) at System.Windows.Forms.Control.PaintTransparentBackground(PaintEventArgs e, Rectangle rectangle, Region transparentRegion) at System.Windows.Forms.Control.PaintBackground(PaintEventArgs e, Rectangle rectangle, Color backColor, Point scrollOffset) at System.Windows.Forms.Control.PaintBackground(PaintEventArgs e, Rectangle rectangle) at System.Windows.Forms.Control.OnPaintBackground(PaintEventArgs pevent) at System.Windows.Forms.ScrollableControl.OnPaintBackground(PaintEventArgs e) at System.Windows.Forms.Control.PaintTransparentBackground(PaintEventArgs e, Rectangle rectangle, Region transparentRegion) at System.Windows.Forms.Control.PaintBackground(PaintEventArgs e, Rectangle rectangle, Color backColor, Point scrollOffset) at System.Windows.Forms.Control.PaintBackground(PaintEventArgs e, Rectangle rectangle) at System.Windows.Forms.Control.OnPaintBackground(PaintEventArgs pevent) at System.Windows.Forms.Control.PaintWithErrorHandling(PaintEventArgs e, Int16 layer, Boolean disposeEventArgs) at System.Windows.Forms.Control.WmPaint(Message& m) at System.Windows.Forms.Control.WndProc(Message& m) at System.Windows.Forms.Control.ControlNativeWindow.OnMessage(Message& m) at System.Windows.Forms.Control.ControlNativeWindow.WndProc(Message& m) at System.Windows.Forms.NativeWindow.Callback(IntPtr hWnd, Int32 msg, IntPtr wparam, IntPtr lparam) Operation System Information ---------------------------- Name = Windows XP Edition = Home Service Pack = Service Pack 3 Version = 5.1.2600.196608 Bits = 32

    Read the article

  • org.hibernate.NonUniqueObjectException Within GWT application using hibernate through gilead

    - by molleman
    Hello Guys, i am working on a project for college that uses GWT,Hibernate and Gilead. Basically for the moment users should be able to add friends and remove them. also a user can see if his or her friends are online or not. my trouble is that when i add a friend that is already related to another friend i get this error org.hibernate.NonUniqueObjectException: a different object with the same identifier value was already associated with the session: [com.example.client.YFUser#4] i have a service class public class TestServiceImpl extends PersistentRemoteService implements TestService { this is my service class for my gwt application. my toruble is here with my implmentation class of my serivce in this method that is called when a user presses add friend button on the client-side public void addYFUserFriend(String userName){ //this retrieves the current user YFUser user = (YFUser)getSession().getAttribute(SESSION_USER); Session session = com.example.server.HibernateUtil.getSessionFactory().getCurrentSession(); session.beginTransaction(); YFUser friend = (YFUser) session.createQuery("select u FROM YFUser u where u.username = :username").setParameter("username", userName).uniqueResult(); System.out.println("user " + friend.getUsername() + " Found"); user.getFriends().add(friend); friend.getBefriended().add(user); session.update(user); session.update(friend); session.getTransaction().commit(); } a scenerio : user1 adds user2 as a friend. this works fine. then user3 adds user2 and the exeception is thrown. any ideas why and where my logic is going wrong Ok so i have changed my code, and i have removed all the getCurrentASession() calls and replaced with openSession() call which are closed at the appropiate point, now the error i am getting is com.google.gwt.user.server.rpc.UnexpectedException: Service method 'public abstract void com.example.client.TestService.addYFUserFriend(java.lang.String)' threw an unexpected exception: org.hibernate.NonUniqueResultException: query did not return a unique result: 3

    Read the article

  • Extension Methods and Application Code

    - by Mystagogue
    I have seen plenty of online guidelines for authoring extension methods, usually along these lines: 1) Avoid authoring extension methods when practical - prefer other approaches first (e.g. regular static methods). 2) Don't author extension methods to extend code you own or currently develop. Instead, author them to extend 3rd party or BCL code. But I have the impression that a couple more guidelines are either implied or advisable. What does the community think of these two additional guidelines: A) Prefer to author extension methods to contain generic functionality rather than application-specific logic. (This seems to follow from guideline #2 above) B) An extension method should be sizeable enough to justify itself (preferably at least 5 lines of code in length). Item (B) is intended to discourage a develoer from writing dozens of extension methods (totalling X lines of code) to refactor or replace what originally was already about X lines of inline code. Perhaps item (B) is badly qualified, or even misinformed about how a one line extension method is actually powerful and justified. I'm curious to know. But if item (B) is somehow dismissed by the community, I must admist I'm still particularly interested in feedback on guideline (A).

    Read the article

  • Colour manipulation of custom tags in niceEdit HTML editor ( JS / DOM )

    - by Chris
    Hi, I would like to be able to highlight, during typing and in real time, certain custom tags in the format #tag_name# within the text of a nicEdit instance ( http://nicedit.com/ ). My current attempt to implement as close to this as possible revolves around using the blur event of the editor to highlight the tags once the editor loses focus. I then use the following logic to wrap the tags in a span with a highlight class.. htmlEditor.addEvent( "blur", function( ) { str = nicEditors.findEditor( "html_content" ).getContent( ); // Remove existing spans first, leaving just the tag ( this could mess up if the html has been edited directly ) str = str.replace( /(<span class=\"highlight\">)(.[^<]+)(<\/span>)/gi, "$2" ); // Then wrap all instances of a particular tag with the highlight span str = str.replace( /#tag_name#/gi, "<span class='highlight'>#tag_name#</span>" ); nicEditors.findEditor( "html_content" ).setContent( str ); }); This is not ideal as my actual text now contains unwanted spans ( I only want the highlighting for the user's input experience, not to be saved to the database ). Obviously I could remove the spans before saving the text but the whole system is currently open to errors ( If the html is directly edited then other text may get highlighted etc ). What I would like to know is.. Is there any way to directly change the colour of the tags in the editor or DOM without using a mechanism such as this? Perhaps a way of colouring the text in memory rather than changing the HTML ? Any ideas ? Regards Chris P

    Read the article

  • Simple ASP.NET MVC views without writing a controller

    - by Jake Stevenson
    We're building a site that will have very minimal code, it's mostly just going to be a bunch of static pages served up. I know over time that will change and we'll want to swap in more dynamic information, so I've decided to go ahead and build a web application using ASP.NET MVC2 and the Spark view engine. There will be a couple of controllers that will have to do actual work (like in the /products area), but most of it will be static. I want my designer to be able to build and modify the site without having to ask me to write a new controller or route every time they decide to add or move a page. So if he wants to add a "http://mysite.com/News" page he can just create a "News" folder under Views and put an index.spark page within it. Then later if he decides he wants a /News/Community page, he can drop a community.spark file within that folder and have it work. I'm able to have a view without a specific action by making my controllers override HandleUnknownAction, but I still have to create a controller for each of these folders. It seems silly to have to add an empty controller and recompile every time they decide to add an area to the site. Is there any way to make this easier, so I only have to write a controller and recompile if there's actual logic to be done? Some sort of "master" controller that will handle any requests where there was no specific controller defined?

    Read the article

  • Any HTTP proxies with explicit, configurable support for request/response buffering and delayed conn

    - by Carlos Carrasco
    When dealing with mobile clients it is very common to have multisecond delays during the transmission of HTTP requests. If you are serving pages or services out of a prefork Apache the child processes will be tied up for seconds serving a single mobile client, even if your app server logic is done in 5ms. I am looking for a HTTP server, balancer or proxy server that supports the following: A request arrives to the proxy. The proxy starts buffering in RAM or in disk the request, including headers and POST/PUT bodies. The proxy DOES NOT open a connection to the backend server. This is probably the most important part. The proxy server stops buffering the request when: A size limit has been reached (say, 4KB), or The request has been received completely, headers and body Only now, with (part of) the request in memory, a connection is opened to the backend and the request is relayed. The backend sends back the response. Again the proxy server starts buffering it immediately (up to a more generous size, say 64KB.) Since the proxy has a big enough buffer the backend response is stored completely in the proxy server in a matter of miliseconds, and the backend process/thread is free to process more requests. The backend connection is immediately closed. The proxy sends back the response to the mobile client, as fast or as slow as it is capable of, without having a connection to the backend tying up resources. I am fairly sure you can do 4-6 with Squid, and nginx appears to support 1-3 (and looks like fairly unique in this respect). My question is: is there any proxy server that empathizes these buffering and not-opening-connections-until-ready capabilities? Maybe there is just a bit of Apache config-fu that makes this buffering behaviour trivial? Any of them that it is not a dinosaur like Squid and that supports a lean single-process, asynchronous, event-based execution model? (Siderant: I would be using nginx but it doesn't support chunked POST bodies, making it useless for serving stuff to mobile clients. Yes cheap 50$ handsets love chunked POSTs... sigh)

    Read the article

  • Flash "visible" issue

    - by justkevin
    I'm writing a tool in Flex that lets me design composite sprites using layered bitmaps and then "bake" them into a low overhead single bitmapData. I've discovered a strange behavior I can't explain: toggling the "visible" property of my layers works twice for each layer (i.e., I can turn it off, then on again) and then never again for that layer-- the layer stays visible from that point on. If I override "set visible" on the layer as such: override public function set visible(value:Boolean):void { if(value == false) this.alpha = 0; else {this.alpha = 1;} } The problem goes away and I can toggle "visibility" as much as I want. Any ideas what might be causing this? Edit: Here is the code that makes the call: private function onVisibleChange():void { _layer.visible = layerVisible.selected; changed(); } The changed() method "bakes" the bitmap: public function getBaked():BitmapData { var w:int = _composite.width + (_atmosphereOuterBlur * 2); var h:int = _composite.height + (_atmosphereOuterBlur * 2); var bmpData:BitmapData = new BitmapData(w,h,true,0x00000000); var matrix:Matrix = new Matrix(); var bounds:Rectangle = this.getBounds(this); matrix.translate(w/2,h/2); bmpData.draw(this,matrix,null,null,new Rectangle(0,0,w,h),true); return bmpData; } Incidentally, while the layer is still visible, using the Flex debugger I can verify that the layer's visible value is "false".

    Read the article

  • puzzled with java if else performance

    - by user1906966
    I am doing an investigation on a method's performance and finally identified the overhead was caused by the "else" portion of the if else statement. I have written a small program to illustrate the performance difference even when the else portion of the code never gets executed: public class TestIfPerf { public static void main( String[] args ) { boolean condition = true; long time = 0L; int value = 0; // warm up test for( int count=0; count<10000000; count++ ) { if ( condition ) { value = 1 + 2; } else { value = 1 + 3; } } // benchmark if condition only time = System.nanoTime(); for( int count=0; count<10000000; count++ ) { if ( condition ) { value = 1 + 2; } } time = System.nanoTime() - time; System.out.println( "1) performance " + time ); time = System.nanoTime(); // benchmark if else condition for( int count=0; count<10000000; count++ ) { if ( condition ) { value = 1 + 2; } else { value = 1 + 3; } } time = System.nanoTime() - time; System.out.println( "2) performance " + time ); } } and run the test program with java -classpath . -Dmx=800m -Dms=800m TestIfPerf. I performed this on both Mac and Linux Java with 1.6 latest build. Consistently the first benchmark, without the else is much faster than the second benchmark with the else section even though the code is structured such that the else portion is never executed because of the condition. I understand that to some, the difference might not be significant but the relative performance difference is large. I wonder if anyone has any insight to this (or maybe there is something I did incorrectly). Linux benchmark (in nano) performance 1215488 performance 2629531 Mac benchmark (in nano) performance 1667000 performance 4208000

    Read the article

  • Dymanic if statement evaluation problem with string comparison

    - by Mani
    I tried the example given in http://forums.sun.com/thread.jspa?threadID=780576&tstart=67605 to create if statement dynamically. But it is not working fine. Instead of using "age" variable as integer, i have used string in the below example. I am getting "fail" as answer instead of "success". Can anyone help me? / To change this template, choose Tools | Templates and open the template in the editor. / import java.lang.reflect.*; import bsh.Interpreter; public class Main { public static String d; public static void main(String args[]) { try { String age = "30"; String cond = "age==30"; Interpreter i = new Interpreter(); i.set("age", age); System.out.println(" sss" + i.get("age")); if((Boolean)i.eval(cond)) { System.out.println("success"); } else { System.out.println("fail"); } } catch (Throwable e) { System.err.println(e); } } } Thanks, Mani

    Read the article

  • Consistent Equals() results, but inconsistent TreeMap.containsKey() result

    - by smessing
    I have the following object Node: private class Node implements Comparable<Node>(){ private String guid(); ... public boolean equals(Node o){ return (this == o); } public int hashCode(){ return guid.hashCode(); } ... } And I use it in the following TreeMap: TreeMap<Node, TreeSet<Edge>> nodes = new TreeMap<Node, TreeSet<Edge>>(); Now, the tree map is used in a class called Graph to store nodes currently in the graph, along with a set of their edges (from the class Edge). My problem is when I try to execute: public containsNode(n){ for (Node x : nodes.keySet()) { System.out.println("HASH CODE: "); System.out.print(x.hashCode() == n.hashCode()); System.out.println("EQUALS: "); System.out.print(x.equals(n)); System.out.println("CONTAINS: "); System.out.print(nodes.containsKey(n)); System.out.println("N: " + n); System.out.println("X: " + x); } } I sometimes get the following: HASHCODE: true EQUALS: true CONTAINS: false N: foo X: foo Anyone have an idea as to what I'm doing wrong? I'm still new to all this, so I apologize in advance if I'm overlooking something simple (I know hashCode() doesn't really matter for TreeMap, but I figured I'd include it).

    Read the article

  • Two different seeds producing the same "random" sequence

    - by Ruud Lenders
    Maybe there is a very logic explanation for this, but I just can't seem to understand why the seeds 0 and 2,147,483,647 produce the same "random" sequence, using .NET's Random Class (System). Quick code example: ushort len = 8; Random r0 = new Random(0), r1 = new Random(1), r2 = new Random(int.MaxValue); //2,147,483,647 byte[] b0 = new byte[len], b1 = new byte[len], b2 = new byte[len]; r0.NextBytes(b0); r1.NextBytes(b1); r2.NextBytes(b2); for (int i = 0; i < len; i++) { System.Diagnostics.Debug.WriteLine("{0}\t\t{1}\t\t{2}", b0[i], b1[i], b2[i]); } Console.ReadLine(); Output: 26 70 26 12 208 12 70 134 76 111 130 111 93 64 93 117 151 115 228 228 228 216 163 216 As you can see, the first and the third sequence are the same. Can someone please explain this to me?

    Read the article

  • How to allow anonymous login in org.apache.ftpserver?

    - by ablmf
    I wrote a little code like this to start an ftp server embedded in my application. It's based on apache ftpserver I found that anonymous user could not login. Client keeps get 530. Do I have add a configure file for ftp? I can not find any API to create a User to add to UserManger. private void start_ftp() throws FtpException { FtpServerFactory serverFactory = new FtpServerFactory(); ListenerFactory factory = new ListenerFactory(); // set the port of the listener factory.setPort(DEF_FTP_PORT); // replace the default listener serverFactory.addListener("default", factory.createListener()); Ftplet fl = new MyFtplet(); Map<String, Ftplet> map_ftplest = new LinkedHashMap<String, Ftplet>(); map_ftplest.put("default", fl); serverFactory.setFtplets(map_ftplest); UserManagerFactory u_factory = new PropertiesUserManagerFactory(); UserManager u_manager = u_factory.createUserManager(); //u_manager. Boolean b = u_manager.doesExist("anonymous"); serverFactory.setUserManager(u_manager); // start the server server = serverFactory.createServer(); server.start(); }

    Read the article

  • Why is VB6 still so widely used?

    - by Uri
    Note that this question is not meant to start an argument, I am genuinely curious: Back in the 90s I used to work for a large CPU maker and we were building some debuggers. All our core logic was in C++, but the GUI was made in VB6. We couldn't figure out MFC and it was too much a hassle. We glued together VB6 and C++ using COM which we created via ATL. Fast forward to 2009, having been mostly in the Java world I am looking at job boards and seeing more VB6 jobs than I expected. I genuinely thought that VB6 was extinct, especially since VB.NET supposedly solved a lot of the problems with the VB6 which at the time felt a lot like a scripting language than a true OOP language. So what happened? Why is new code still written in it? Isn't there a better way to glue C++ and VB.NET? Note that I haven't used VB.NET, I just understand that it is a much more "stricter" language than VB6 was. Even with Option Explicit or whatever it was.

    Read the article

  • Which Java library for Binary Decision Diagrams?

    - by reprogrammer
    A Binary Decision Diagram (BDD) is a data structure to represent boolean functions. I'd like use this data structure in a Java program. My search for Java based BDD libraries resulted into the following packages. Java Decision Diagram Libraries JavaBDD JDD If you know of any other BDD libraries available for Java programs, please let me know so that I add it to the list above. If you have used any of these libraries, please tell me about your experience with the library. In particular, I'd like you to compare the available libraries along the following dimensions. Quality. Is the library mature and reasonably bug free? Performance. How do you evaluate the performance of the library? Support. Could you easily get support whenever you encountered a problem with the library? Was the library well documented? Ease of use. Was the API well designed? Could you install and use the library quickly and easily? Please mention the version of the library that you are evaluating.

    Read the article

  • Android Multiple Handlers Design Question

    - by Soumya Simanta
    This question is related to an existing question I asked. I though I'll ask a new question instead of replying back to the other question. Cannot "comment" on my previous question because of a word limit. Marc wrote - I've more than one Handlers in an Activity." Why? If you do not want a complicated handleMessage() method, then use post() (on Handler or View) to break the logic up into individual Runnables. Multiple Handlers makes me nervous. I'm new to Android. Is having multiple handlers in a single activity a bad design ? I'm new to Android. My question is - is having multiple handlers in a single activity a bad design ? Here is the sketch of my current implementation. I've a mapActivity that creates a data thread (a UDP socket that listens for data). My first handler is responsible for sending data from the data thread to the activity. On the map I've a bunch of "dynamic" markers that are refreshed frequently. Some of these markers are video markers i.e., if the user clicks a video marker, I add a ViewView that extends a android.opengl.GLSurfaceView to my map activity and display video on this new vide. I use my second handler to send information about the marker that the user tapped on ItemizedOverlay onTap(int index) method. The user can close the video view by tapping on the video view. I use my third handler for this. I would appreciate if people can tell me what's wrong with this approach and suggest better ways to implement this. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • identifying id of listitem for contextmenu

    - by martinjd
    I have a View that extends Activity. A ListView will display a number of listitems. When the user long clicks I would like to present them with a contextmenu allowing them to select edit, delete etc... and then identify the listitem that was selected as the item to perform the action on. In onCreate I have: listView.setAdapter(adapter); listView.setOnItemClickListener(onListClick); listView.setOnItemLongClickListener(onListLongClick); registerForContextMenu(listView); I have a method onCreateContextMenu @Override public void onCreateContextMenu(ContextMenu menu, View v, ContextMenuInfo menuInfo) { super.onCreateContextMenu(menu, v, menuInfo); menu.setHeaderTitle("Context Menu"); menu.add(0, v.getId(), 0, "Edit"); menu.add(0, v.getId(), 0, "Delete"); } and also onContextItemSelected @Override public boolean onContextItemSelected(MenuItem item) { if (item.getTitle() == "Edit") { // edit action } else if (item.getTitle() == "Delete") { // delete action } else { return false; } return true; } I am not sure where to go from here to get the correct row/listitem.

    Read the article

  • MySqlDataReader giving error at build

    - by TuxMeister
    Hey there. I have a function in VB.net that authenticates a user towards a MySQL DB before launching the main application. Here's the code of the function: Public Function authConnect() As Boolean Dim dbserver As String Dim dbuser As String Dim dbpass As String dbserver = My.Settings.dbserver.ToString dbuser = My.Settings.dbuser.ToString dbpass = My.Settings.dbpass.ToString conn = New MySqlConnection myConnString = "server=" & dbserver & ";" & "user id=" & dbuser & ";" & "password=" & dbpass & ";" & "database=rtadmin" Dim myCommand As New MySqlCommand Dim myAdapter As New MySqlDataAdapter Dim myData As New DataTable Dim myDataReader As New MySqlDataReader Dim query As String myCommand.Parameters.Add(New MySqlParameter("?Username", login_usr_txt.Text)) myCommand.Parameters.Add(New MySqlParameter("?Password", login_pass_txt.Text)) query = "select * from users where user = ?Username and passwd = ?Password" conn.ConnectionString = myConnString Try conn.Open() Try myCommand.Connection = conn myCommand.CommandText = query myAdapter.SelectCommand = myCommand myDataReader = myCommand.ExecuteReader If myDataReader.HasRows() Then MessageBox.Show("You've been logged in.", "RT Live! Information", MessageBoxButtons.OK, MessageBoxIcon.Information) End If Catch ex As Exception End Try Catch ex As Exception End Try End Function The function is not yet complete, there are a few other things that need to be done before launching the application, since I'm using a MessageBox to display the result of the login attempt. The error that I'm getting is the following: Error 1 'MySql.Data.MySqlClient.MySqlDataReader.Friend Sub New(cmd As MySql.Data.MySqlClient.MySqlCommand, statement As MySql.Data.MySqlClient.PreparableStatement, behavior As System.Data.CommandBehavior)' is not accessible in this context because it is 'Friend'. C:\Users\Mario\documents\visual studio 2010\Projects\Remote Techs Live!\Remote Techs Live!\Login.vb 43 13 Remote Techs Live! Any ideas? Thanks.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 262 263 264 265 266 267 268 269 270 271 272 273  | Next Page >