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• Moving to .net 4 results in System.Transactions Critical: 0

  - by john

  Hi I have fully working project in .net 3.5SP1, with EF 1 ORM. I tried to upgrade to .net 4. No issue while upgrading... Then i ran the project and got a NullExecptionError, with no stack trace... and no way to debug. Looking at the output windows i can read this: System.Transactions Critical: 0 : <TraceRecord xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/2004/10/E2ETraceEvent/TraceRecord" Severity="Critical"><TraceIdentifier>http://msdn.microsoft.com/TraceCodes/System/ActivityTracing/2004/07/Reliability/Exception/Unhandled</TraceIdentifier><Description>Unhandled exception</Description><AppDomain>OTCSouscriptions.vshost.exe</AppDomain><Exception><ExceptionType>System.NullReferenceException, mscorlib, Version=4.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=b77a5c561934e089</ExceptionType><Message>Object reference not set to an instance of an object.</Message><StackTrace> at System.Windows.StyleHelper.GetInstanceValue(UncommonField`1 dataField, DependencyObject container, FrameworkElement feChild, FrameworkContentElement fceChild, Int32 childIndex, DependencyProperty dp, Int32 i, EffectiveValueEntry&amp;amp; entry) at System.Windows.FrameworkTemplate.ReceivePropertySet(Object targetObject, XamlMember member, Object value, DependencyObject templatedParent) at System.Windows.FrameworkTemplate.&amp;lt;&amp;gt;c__DisplayClass6.&amp;lt;LoadOptimizedTemplateContent&amp;gt;b__4(Object sender, XamlSetValueEventArgs setArgs) at System.Xaml.XamlObjectWriter.OnSetValue(Object eventSender, XamlMember member, Object value) at System.Xaml.XamlObjectWriter.Logic_ApplyPropertyValue(ObjectWriterContext ctx, XamlMember prop, Object value, Boolean onParent) at System.Xaml.XamlObjectWriter.Logic_DoAssignmentToParentProperty(ObjectWriterContext ctx) at System.Xaml.XamlObjectWriter.Logic_AssignProvidedValue(ObjectWriterContext ctx) at System.Xaml.XamlObjectWriter.WriteEndObject() at System.Xaml.XamlWriter.WriteNode(XamlReader reader) at System.Windows.FrameworkTemplate.LoadTemplateXaml(XamlReader templateReader, XamlObjectWriter currentWriter) Any help appreciated... Thanks John

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• What java web application framework to use?

  - by frohiky

  One of the main products of my company is an Oracle Forms (and Reports) based application, that "needs" to be re-written in another technology. Why? Users want a more rich interface experience, and we want, preferably, to reduce costs with an open source application server. For this (HUGE) project, we intend to use a java web application framework, keep these points in mind: We have: hundreds of tables on our database (the ORM must be as flexible as possible); some logic which is (and will still be) based on PL/SQL procedures/functions/packages; a lot of CRUDs (the application itself is of an considerable size); a demand to work with/generate documents and workflows; an intranet based user environment; We want: to offer a RIA interface experience; use (if possible) an open source app server; a rapid (as possible) development framework; a somewhat mature framework with a "wise" roadmap (and a considerable community support); a MVC approach combined with JS or GWT widgets (e.g. Vaadin or SmartGWT); Well, in the past weeks I've read a lot of posts, Q&As on stackoverflow, and much more: Wicket, JSF, Tapestry, Grails, GWT, Struts2, Play, Spring, Seam, Echo, .... the list goes on! I've even researched about Alfresco..! The obvious question: Which one to use? At this time, any insight, recommendation, shared experience, advice will be more then welcome!

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• MVVM-Light EventToCommand Behavior for CheckBox Checked/Unchecked in Silverlight

  - by George Durzi

  I would like to handle the Checked and Unchecked events of a Checkbox control and execute a command in my ViewModel. I wired up an EventTrigger for both the Checked and Unchecked events as follows: <CheckBox x:Name="chkIsExtendedHr" IsChecked="{Binding Schedule.Is24Hour, Mode=TwoWay}"> <i:Interaction.Triggers> <i:EventTrigger EventName="Checked"> <GalaSoft_MvvmLight_Command:EventToCommand CommandParameter="{Binding IsChecked, ElementName=chkIsExtendedHr}" Command="{Binding Path=SetCloseTime, Mode=OneWay}" /> </i:EventTrigger> <i:EventTrigger EventName="Unchecked"> <GalaSoft_MvvmLight_Command:EventToCommand CommandParameter="{Binding IsChecked, ElementName=chkIsExtendedHr}" Command="{Binding Path=SetCloseTime, Mode=OneWay}" /> </i:EventTrigger> </i:Interaction.Triggers> </CheckBox> I defined a RelayCommand in my ViewModel and wired up an action for it: public RelayCommand<Boolean> SetCloseTime{ get; private set; } ... SetCloseTime= new RelayCommand<bool>(ExecuteSetCloseTime); The parameter in the action for the command always resolves to the previous state of the CheckBox, e.g. false when the CheckBox is checked, and true when the CheckBox is unchecked. void ExecuteSetCloseTime(bool isChecked) { if (isChecked) { // do something } } Is this expected behavior? I have a workaround where I have separate triggers (and commands) for the Checked and Unchecked and use a RelayCommand instead of RelayCommand<bool>. Each command executes correctly when the CheckBox is checked and unchecked. Feels a little dirty though - even dirtier than having UI code in my ViewModel :) Thanks

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• httpHandler - subfolder issue

  - by Patto

  Hi, I am trying to redirect my old typepad blog to my new blog (permanent 301 redirect) that runs with wordpress. The new blog will also be on a new server. the old Blog had the following structure: http://subdomain.domain.com/weblog/year/month/what-ever-article.html The new Blog looks like this: http://www.domain.com/Blog/year/month/what-ever-article.html I am using an http handler that I found online and tried to work with it: public class MyHttpModule :IHttpModule { public MyHttpModule() { // // TODO: Add constructor logic here // } #region IHttpModule Members public void Dispose() { } public void Init(HttpApplication context) { context.BeginRequest += new EventHandler(context_BeginRequest); } void context_BeginRequest(object sender, EventArgs e) { string oldURL = System.Web.HttpContext.Current.Request.Url.ToString(); string newURL = String.Empty; //oldURL = if (oldURL.ToString().ToLower().IndexOf("articles") >= 0 || System.Web.HttpContext.Current.Request.Url.ToString().ToLower().IndexOf("weblog") >= 0) { newURL = oldURL.Replace("subdomain.domain.com/weblog", "www.domain.com/Blog/index.php"); if (newURL.ToLower().Contains("subdomain")) { newURL = "http://www.domain.com/Blog"; } } else { newURL = "http://www.domain.com/Blog"; } System.Web.HttpContext.Current.Response.Clear(); System.Web.HttpContext.Current.Response.StatusCode = 301; System.Web.HttpContext.Current.Response.AddHeader("Location", newURL); System.Web.HttpContext.Current.Response.End(); } #endregion } To use this code, I put the handler into the web.config <httpModules> <add name="MyHttpModule" type="MyHttpModule, App_Code"/> </httpModules> The issue that I have is that when I want to redirect from the http://subdomain.domain.com/weblog/year/month/what-ever-article.html, I get an error that the folder would not exist. Is there any way to change my script or add an catch all to the web.config that forwards the URL to my script? When I use "http://subdomain.domain.com/weblog/year/month/what-ever-article.html" in oldURL string, then the redirect works just fine... so I must have some IIS or web.config settings wrong. Thanks in advance, Patrick

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• Toggle row visibility one at a time

  - by kuswantin

  I have a couple of tables with similar structures like this: <table> <tbody> <tr>content</tr> <tr>content</tr> <tr>content</tr> <tr>content</tr> <tr>content</tr> <tr>content</tr> <tr>content</tr> <tr>content</tr> ..etc --- The fake button is added here <div class="addrow">Add another</div> </tbody> </table> Since this is a long list, I have a need to toggle the rows one at a time. I just need to show the first row, of course, the rest should be toggled. The action is when I click a dynamic fake button, it will show row no. 2, and clicking again will show another next row. This is what I have done so far: $("table#field_fruit_values tr.draggable").not(':first').hide(); $("table#field_vegetables_values tr.draggable").not(':first').hide(); $("body.form table.content-multiple-table tbody").append('<div class="addrow">Add</div>'); $(".addrow").click(function() { var hiddenRow = $(this).prev('tr.draggable'); $(this).prev(hiddenRow + 1).show(); //if (hiddenRow + ':last').length) { // <= silly logic // $(this).hide(); //} }); The button only works for one row. I must have done something wrong :) When the final is reached, I also want the button to disappear. Sorry if this question sound silly. Any help would be very much appreciated. Thanks.

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• NHibernate: how to handle entity-based validation using session-per-request pattern, without control

  - by Seth Petry-Johnson

  What is the best way to do entity-based validation (each entity class has an IsValid() method that validates its internal members) in ASP.NET MVC, with a "session-per-request" model, where the controller has zero (or limited) knowledge of the ISession? Here's the pattern I'm using: Get an entity by ID, using an IFooRepository that wraps the current NH session. This returns a connected entity instance. Load the entity with potentially invalid data, coming from the form post. Validate the entity by callings its IsValid() method. If valid, call IFooRepository.Save(entity). Otherwise, display error message. The session is currently opened when the request begins and flushed when the request ends. Since my entity is connected to a session, flushing the session attempts to save the changes even if the object is invalid. What's the best way to keep validation logic in the entity class, limit controller knowledge of NH, and avoid saving invalid changes at the end of a request? Option 1: Explicitly evict on validation failure, implicitly flush: if the validation fails, I could manually evict the invalid object in the action method. If successful, I do nothing and the session is automatically flushed. Con: error prone and counter-intuitive ("I didn't call .Save(), why are my invalid changes being saved anyways?") Option 2: Explicitly flush, do nothing by default: By default I can dispose of the session on request end, only flushing if the controller indicates success. I'd probably create a SaveChanges() method in my base controller that sets a flag indicating success, and then query this flag when closing the session at request end. Pro: More intuitive to troubleshoot if dev forgets this step [relative to option 1] Con: I have to call IRepository.Save(entity)' and SaveChanges(). Option 3: Always work with disconnected objects: I could modify my repositories to return disconnected/transient objects, and modify the Repo.Save() method to re-attach them. Pro: Most intuitive, given that controllers don't know about NH. Con: Does this defeat many of the benefits I'd get from NH?

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• Colour manipulation of custom tags in niceEdit HTML editor ( JS / DOM )

  - by Chris

  Hi, I would like to be able to highlight, during typing and in real time, certain custom tags in the format #tag_name# within the text of a nicEdit instance ( http://nicedit.com/ ). My current attempt to implement as close to this as possible revolves around using the blur event of the editor to highlight the tags once the editor loses focus. I then use the following logic to wrap the tags in a span with a highlight class.. htmlEditor.addEvent( "blur", function( ) { str = nicEditors.findEditor( "html_content" ).getContent( ); // Remove existing spans first, leaving just the tag ( this could mess up if the html has been edited directly ) str = str.replace( /(<span class=\"highlight\">)(.[^<]+)(<\/span>)/gi, "$2" ); // Then wrap all instances of a particular tag with the highlight span str = str.replace( /#tag_name#/gi, "<span class='highlight'>#tag_name#</span>" ); nicEditors.findEditor( "html_content" ).setContent( str ); }); This is not ideal as my actual text now contains unwanted spans ( I only want the highlighting for the user's input experience, not to be saved to the database ). Obviously I could remove the spans before saving the text but the whole system is currently open to errors ( If the html is directly edited then other text may get highlighted etc ). What I would like to know is.. Is there any way to directly change the colour of the tags in the editor or DOM without using a mechanism such as this? Perhaps a way of colouring the text in memory rather than changing the HTML ? Any ideas ? Regards Chris P

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• NSDate out of scope

  - by therealtkd

  Having problems with out of scope for NSDate in an iphone app. I have an interface defined like this: @interface MyObject : NSoObject { NSMutableArray *array; BOOL checkThis; NSDate *nextDue; } Now in the implementation I have this: -(id) init { if( (self=[super init]) ) { checkThis = NO; array = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; nextDue = [[NSDate date] retain]; NSDate *testDate = [NSDate date]; } return self; } Now, if I trace through the init, before I actually assign the variables checkThis shows as boolean. array shows as pointer 0x0 because it hasn't ben assigned. But the nextDue is showing as 'out of scope'. I don't understand why this is out of scope but the other variables aren't. If I trace through the code until after the variables are assigned, array now shows as being correctly assigned but nextDue is still out of scope. Interestingly, the testDate variable is assigned just fine and the debugger shows this as a valid date. Further interesting point is if I move the mouse over the testDate variable while I am debugging, it shows as an 'NSDate *' type which I would expect since that's its definition. Yet the nextDue, which to me is defined the same way is showing as a '_NSCFDate *'. Any googling I did on the subject said that the retain is the problem, but its actually out of scope before I even try to assign the variable. However, in another class, the same definition for NSDate work ok. It shows as nil before a value is assigned to it. Arghhh

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• loops and conditionals inside triggers

  - by Ying

  I have this piece of logic I would like to implement as a trigger, but I have no idea how to do it! I want to create a trigger that, when a row is deleted, it checks to see if the value of one of its columns exists in another table, and if it does, it should also perform a delete on another table based on another column. So say we had a table Foo that has columns Bar, Baz. This is what id be doing if i did not use a trigger: function deleteFromFooTable(FooId) { SELECT (Bar,Baz) FROM FooTable WHERE id=FooId if not-empty(SELECT * FROM BazTable WHERE id=BazId) DELETE FROM BarTable WHERE id=BarId DELETE FROM FooTable WHERE id=FooId } I jumped some hoops in that pseudo code, but i hope you all get where im going. It seems what i would need is a way to do conditionals and to loop(in case of multiple row deletes?) in the trigger statement. So far, I haven't been able to find anything. Is this not possible, or is this bad practice? Thanks!

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• Getting my foot in the SCADA door, how?

  - by bibby

  I keep hearing that I should learn SCADA and its PLC language to upgrade my career. While I enjoy currently being a web and mobile development privateer, the prospects of working for a municipality or industrial entity has its appeals (since I am trying to grow a family). Over the years, I've tought myself to skillfully use php, javascript, java, perl, awk, bash. Surely, these language skills can tranfer somewhat to SCADA's logic controller language. Without any formal training in CS (music major!) other than at the workplace, I wouldn't have been able to pick up those languages and run with them had it not been for their open documentation and free-to-install or already-installed interpreters/compilers. I can't see that this is true with SCADA, and I'm hoping that I'm wrong. Ideally, I'd like to be able to apply for a job that requires [A,B,C] and suggest that they hire me because I already know [A & B]; that they wouldn't have to do a ground-up training with someone that's never programmed before. So, finally, the question; How do I "learn" SCADA? Are there sites and docs? What's going to help me get my foot in the door? Any insight is appreciated. Thanks!

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• Flash "visible" issue

  - by justkevin

  I'm writing a tool in Flex that lets me design composite sprites using layered bitmaps and then "bake" them into a low overhead single bitmapData. I've discovered a strange behavior I can't explain: toggling the "visible" property of my layers works twice for each layer (i.e., I can turn it off, then on again) and then never again for that layer-- the layer stays visible from that point on. If I override "set visible" on the layer as such: override public function set visible(value:Boolean):void { if(value == false) this.alpha = 0; else {this.alpha = 1;} } The problem goes away and I can toggle "visibility" as much as I want. Any ideas what might be causing this? Edit: Here is the code that makes the call: private function onVisibleChange():void { _layer.visible = layerVisible.selected; changed(); } The changed() method "bakes" the bitmap: public function getBaked():BitmapData { var w:int = _composite.width + (_atmosphereOuterBlur * 2); var h:int = _composite.height + (_atmosphereOuterBlur * 2); var bmpData:BitmapData = new BitmapData(w,h,true,0x00000000); var matrix:Matrix = new Matrix(); var bounds:Rectangle = this.getBounds(this); matrix.translate(w/2,h/2); bmpData.draw(this,matrix,null,null,new Rectangle(0,0,w,h),true); return bmpData; } Incidentally, while the layer is still visible, using the Flex debugger I can verify that the layer's visible value is "false".

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• Diffie-Hellman -- Primitive root mod n -- cryptography question.

  - by somewhat confused

  In the below snippet, please explain starting with the first "for" loop what is happening and why. Why is 0 added, why is 1 added in the second loop. What is going on in the "if" statement under bigi. Finally explain the modPow method. Thank you in advance for meaningful replies. public static boolean isPrimitive(BigInteger m, BigInteger n) { BigInteger bigi, vectorint; Vector<BigInteger> v = new Vector<BigInteger>(m.intValue()); int i; for (i=0;i<m.intValue();i++) v.add(new BigInteger("0")); for (i=1;i<m.intValue();i++) { bigi = new BigInteger("" + i); if (m.gcd(bigi).intValue() == 1) v.setElementAt(new BigInteger("1"), n.modPow(bigi,m).intValue()); } for (i=0;i<m.intValue();i++) { bigi = new BigInteger("" + i); if (m.gcd(bigi).intValue() == 1) { vectorint = v.elementAt(bigi.intValue()); if ( vectorint.intValue() == 0) i = m.intValue() + 1; } } if (i == m.intValue() + 2) return false; else return true; }

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• Update mapping table in Linq

  - by Gary McGill

  I have a table Customers with a CustomerId field, and a table of Publications with a PublicationId field. Finally, I have a mapping table CustomersPublications that records which publications a customer can access - it has two fields: CustomerId field PublicationId. For a given customer, I want to update the CustomersPublications table based on a list of publication ids. I want to remove records in CustomersPublications where the PublicationId is not in the list, and add new records where the PublicationId is in the list but not already in the table. This would be easy in SQL, but I can't figure out how to do it in Linq. For the delete part, I tried: var recordsToDelete = dataContext.CustomersPublications.Where ( cp => (cp.CustomerId == customerId) && ! publicationIds.Contains(cp.PublicationId) ); dataContext.CustomersPublications.DeleteAllOnSubmit(recordsToDelete); ... but that didn't work. I got an error: System.NotSupportedException: Method 'Boolean Contains(Int32)' has no supported translation to SQL So, I tried using Any(), as follows: var recordsToDelete = dataContext.CustomersPublications.Where ( cp => (cp.CustomerId == customerId) && ! publicationIds.Any(p => p == cp.PublicationId) ); ... and this just gives me another error: System.NotSupportedException: Local sequence cannot be used in LINQ to SQL implementation of query operators except the Contains() operator Any pointers? [I have to say, I find Linq baffling (and frustrating) for all but the simplest queries. Better error messages would help!]

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• Handling XMLHttpRequest to call external application

  - by Ian

  I need a simple way to use XMLHttpRequest as a way for a web client to access applications in an embedded device. I'm getting confused trying to figure out how to make something thin and light that handles the XMLHttpRequests coming to the web server and can translate those to application calls. The situation: The web client using Ajax (ExtJS specifically) needs to send and receive asynchronously to an existing embedded application. This isn't just to have a thick client/thin server, the client needs to run background checking on the application status. The application can expose a socket interface, with a known set of commands, events, and configuration values. Configuration could probably be transmitted as XML since it comes from a SQLite database. In between the client and app is a lighttpd web server running something that somehow handles the translation. This something is the problem. What I think I want: Lighttpd can use FastCGI to route all XMLHttpRequest to an external process. This process will understand HTML/XML, and translate between that and the application's language. It will have custom logic to simulate pushing notifications to the client (receive XMLHttpRequest, don't respond until the next notification is available). C/C++. I'd really like to avoid installing Java/PHP/Perl on an embedded device. So I'll need more low level understanding. How do I do this? Are there good C++ libraries for interpreting the CGI headers and HTML so that I don't have to do any syntax processing, I can just deal with the request/response contents? Are there any good references to exactly what goes on, server side, when handling the XMLHttpRequest and CGI interfaces? Is there any package that does most of this job already, or will I have to build the non-HTTP/CGI stuff from scratch? Thanks for any help! I am really having trouble learning about the server side of these technologies.

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• Grails UrlMappings with .html

  - by Glennn

  I'm developing a Grails web application (mainly as a learning exercise). I have previously written some standard Grails apps, but in this case I wanted to try creating a controller that would intercept all requests (including static html) of the form: <a href="/testApp/testJsp.jsp">test 1</a> <a href="/testApp/testGsp.gsp">test 2</a> <a href="/testApp/testHtm.htm">test 3</a> <a href="/testApp/testHtml.html">test 4</a> The intent is to do some simple business logic (auditing) each time a user clicks a link. I know I could do this using a Filter (or a range of other methods), however I thought this should work too and wanted to do this using a Grails framework. I set up the Grail UrlMappings.groovy file to map all URLs of that form (/$myPathParam?) to a single controller: class UrlMappings { static mappings = { "/$controller/$action?/$id?"{ constraints { } } "/$path?" (controller: 'auditRecord', action: 'showPage') "500"(view:'/error') } } In that controller (in the appropriate "showPage" action) I've been printing out the path information, for example: def showPage = { println "params.path = " + params.path ... render(view: resultingView) } The results of the println in the showPage action for each of my four links are testJsp.jsp testGsp.gsp testHtm.htm testHtml Why is the last one "testHtml", not "testHtml.html"? In a previous (Stack Overflow query) Olexandr encountered this issue and was advised to simply concatenate the value of request.format - which, indeed, does return "html". However request.format also returns "html" for all four links. I'm interested in gaining an understanding of what Grails is doing and why. Is there some way to configure Grails so the params.path variable in the controller shows "testHtml.html" rather than stripping off the "html" extension? It doesn't seem to remove the extension for any other file type (including .htm). Is there a good reason it's doing this? I know that it is a bit unusual to use a controller for static html, but still would like to understand what's going on.

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• Theme change doesn't work on <4.0 as it should

  - by user1717276

  I have some difficulties with setting up a "theme switcher" programmatically. I would like to switch themes from app (between White (Theme.Light.NoTitleBar) and Dark (Theme.Black.NoTitleBar)) and what I do is: I set a SharedPreference: final String PREFS_NAME = "MyPrefsFile"; final SharedPreferences settings = getSharedPreferences(PREFS_NAME, 0); final SharedPreferences.Editor editor = settings.edit(); and than I have a two buttons to switch themes (second one is almost identical) Button ThemeWhite = (Button) findViewById(R.id.ThemeWhite); ThemeWhite.setOnClickListener(new OnClickListener() { public void onClick(View v) { editor.putBoolean("Theme", false); editor.commit(); System.exit(2); } }); and in begging of each activity I check SharedPreference boolean theme = settings.getBoolean("Theme", false); if(theme){ this.setTheme(R.style.Theme_NoBarBlack); } else{ this.setTheme(R.style.Theme_NoBar); } setContentView(R.layout.aplikacja); I define themes in file styles.xml in folder values: <resources> <style name="Theme.NoBar" parent="@android:style/Theme.Light.NoTitleBar" /> <style name="Theme.NoBarBlack" parent="@android:style/Theme.NoActionBar" /> in values-v11: <resources> <style name="Theme.NoBar" parent="@android:style/Theme.Holo.Light.NoActionBar" /> <style name="Theme.NoBarBlack" parent="@android:style/Theme.Holo.NoActionBar" /> in values-v14: <resources> <style name="Theme.NoBar" parent="@android:style/Theme.DeviceDefault.Light.NoActionBar" /> <style name="Theme.NoBarBlack" parent="@android:style/Theme.DeviceDefault.NoActionBar" /> manifest file: <application android:theme="@style/Theme.NoBar" > Everything is working excellent on android 4.0 but when I use 2.2 it doesn't change theme - just font is getting white as it should be but there is no dark background. I tried checking if it at least works and changed Theme.NoBarBlack in values (for android <3.0) and its value the same as Theme.NoBar and then when I pressed button font wasn't changed -as it should do.

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• best way to add and delete text lines with jquery product configurator

  - by Daniel White

  I am creating a product configurator with Jquery. My users can add custom text lines to their product. So you could create say... 4 text lines with custom text. I need to know what the best way to add and delete these lines would be. Currently I have the following code for adding lines... //Add Text Button $('a#addText').live('click', function(event) { event.preventDefault(); //Scroll up the text editor $('.textOptions').slideUp(); $('#customText').val(''); //count how many items are in the ul textList var textItems = $('ul#textList li').size(); var nextNumber = textItems + 1; if(textItems <= 5) { //Change input to reflect current text being changed $('input#currentTextNumber').val(nextNumber); //Append a UL Item to the textList $('ul#textList').append('<li id="textItem'+nextNumber+'">Text Line. +$5.00 <a class="deleteTextItem" href="'+nextNumber+'">Delete</a></li>'); //Scroll down the text editor $('.textOptions').slideDown(); }else { alert('you can have a maximum of 6 textual inputs!'); } }); I'm probably not doing this the best way, but basically i have an empty UL list to start with. So when they click "Add Text Line" it finds out how many list elements are in the unordered list, adds a value of 1 to that and places a new list element with the id TextItem1 or TextItem2 or whatever number we're on. The problem i'm running into is that when you click delete item, it screws everything up because when you add an item again all the numbers aren't correct. I thought about writing some kind of logic that says all the numbers above the one you want deleted get 1 subtracted from their value and all the numbers below stay the same. But I think i'm just going about this the wrong way. Any suggestions on the easiest way to add and delete these text lines is appreciated.

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• java - codesprint2 programming contest answer

  - by arya

  I recently took part in Codesprint2. I was unable to submit the solution to the following question. http://www.spoj.pl/problems/COINTOSS/ ( I have posted the link to the problem statement at spoj because the codesprint link requires login ) I checked out one of the successful solutions, ( url : http://pastebin.com/uQhNh9Rc ) and the logic used is exactly the same as mine, yet I am still getting "Wrong Answer" I would be very thankful if someone could please tell me what error I have made, as I am unable to find it. Thank you. My code : import java.io.BufferedReader; import java.io.IOException; import java.io.InputStreamReader; import java.text.DecimalFormat; import java.util.StringTokenizer; public class Solution { static double solve( int n, int m ) { if( m==n ) return 0; if( m==0 ) return ( Math.pow( 2, n+1 ) - 2 ); else { double res = 1 + ( Double )( solve( n, m+1 ) + solve( n, 0 ))/2; return res; } } public static void main( String[] args ) throws IOException { BufferedReader br = new BufferedReader( new InputStreamReader( System.in )); int n, m; int t = Integer.parseInt( br.readLine() ); StringTokenizer tok; String s; for( int T=0; T<t; T++ ) { s = br.readLine(); tok = new StringTokenizer( s ); n = Integer.parseInt( tok.nextToken() ); m = Integer.parseInt( tok.nextToken() ); DecimalFormat df = new DecimalFormat(); df.setMaximumFractionDigits(2); df.setMinimumFractionDigits(2); System.out.println( df.format ( solve( n, m ) )); } } }

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• Set Property Value on Master Page from Content Page

  - by Merk

  Hello, I tried following the advice posted here: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1071920/set-property-value-on-master-page-from-content-page. Specifically the last post about creating a class. However, visual studio keeps giving me an error on my default.aspx.cs page when i try to set the value: using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Web; using System.Web.UI; using System.Web.UI.WebControls; public partial class _Default : BasePage { protected override int NavHighlight { get { return new{0} ; } } protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { } } It throws an error on new, the error being: cannot inplicity convert anonymoustype#1 to int Can someone tell me what i might have done wrong here? Here's what my class looks like: using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Web; /// <summary> /// Summary description for BasePage /// </summary> public abstract class BasePage : System.Web.UI.Page { protected abstract int NavHighlight { get; } protected override void OnLoad(EventArgs e) { base.OnLoad(e); if (this.Master != null) { //value assignment } } public BasePage() { // // TODO: Add constructor logic here // } } Thanks.

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• Using Rails Helper Methods within ActionRecord Queries?

  - by Pygmalion

  I have a table of events (in a sqlite3 database for what it's worth) with a column called "when" that contains a timestamp detailing precisely when the event that particular row denotes is set to occur. Right now, I have @events = Event.find(:all) in my controller and I am using template helper methods to calculate where to place each event on my display page based on the day of the week it occurs on. For example: <% if(event.when.wday == 6) %> # DO SOMETHING <% end %> I want to abstract this logic to the controller however. My idea was to do the following: @thursday_events = Event.find(:all, :conditions => ["when.wday=4"]) Obviously (I guess?) this didn't work. Throwing the error "SQLite3::SQLException: near "when": syntax error: SELECT * FROM "events" WHERE (when.wday=4)". I'm assuming this is because I tried to use a helper method within a find condition but I don't know a better way to do this. Any advice? Thanks!

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• Continuous Integration with 64-bit Sharepoint and TFS 2008?

  - by Hirvox

  I've set up a 64-bit TFS 2008 build server with Sharepoint, continuous integration and out-of-the-box MSTest. Unit tests for plain business logic classes run just fine and test results are published into TFS. However, any test that uses Sharepoint's API fails horribly, SPFarm.Local returning null and so on. Is there a way to fix this? The tests run fine in an otherwise identical 32-bit development environment (Windows Server 2008 under Hyper-V, Sharepoint patched up to June 2009 cumulative update) from both Visual Studio and command line, so the problem is not about improper use of SPContext.Current or any other part of the API that needs to be run in a web server context. I've ruled out permissions issues, because the build agent account can deploy the solution and create site collections just fine with stsadm. The next culprit could be that the unit tests were being run with a 32-bit process, which couldn't access the 64-bit Sharepoint API properly. I tried a workaround, but it has the side effect of disabling TFS support in MSTest. Do I have to wait for 2010 versions of MS tools (and hope for the best) or is there a third-party test framework available that runs natively in 64 bit and can publish test results into TFS 2008?

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• Open XML document ContentControls problem with signed id's

  - by willvv

  I have an application that generates Open XML documents with Content Controls. To create a new Content Control I use Interop and the method ContentControls.Add. This method returns an instance of the added Content Control. I have some logic that saves the id of the Content Control to reference it later, but in some computers I've been having a weird problem. When I access the ID property of the Content Control I just created, it returns a string with the numeric id, the problem is that when this value is too big, after I save the document, if I look through the document.xml in the generated document, the <w:id/> element of the <w:sdtPr/> element has a negative value, that is the signed equivalent of the value I got from the Id property of the generated control. For example: var contentControl = ContentControls.Add(...); var contentControlId = contentControl.ID; // the value of contentControlId is "3440157266" If I save the document and open it in the Package Explorer, the Id of the Content Control is "-854810030" instead of "3440157266". What have I figured out is this: ((int)uint.Parse("3440157266")).ToString() returns "-854810030" Any idea of why this happens? This issue is hard to replicate because I don't control the Id of the generated controls, the Id is automatically generated by the Interop libraries.

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• Best practice - When to evaluate conditionals of function execution

  - by Tesserex

  If I have a function called from a few places, and it requires some condition to be met for anything it does to execute, where should that condition be checked? In my case, it's for drawing - if the mouse button is held down, then execute the drawing logic (this is being done in the mouse movement handler for when you drag.) Option one says put it in the function so that it's guaranteed to be checked. Abstracted, if you will. public function Foo() { DoThing(); } private function DoThing() { if (!condition) return; // do stuff } The problem I have with this is that when reading the code of Foo, which may be far away from DoThing, it looks like a bug. The first thought is that the condition isn't being checked. Option two, then, is to check before calling. public function Foo() { if (condition) DoThing(); } This reads better, but now you have to worry about checking from everywhere you call it. Option three is to rename the function to be more descriptive. public function Foo() { DoThingOnlyIfCondition(); } private function DoThingOnlyIfCondition() { if (!condition) return; // do stuff } Is this the "correct" solution? Or is this going a bit too far? I feel like if everything were like this function names would start to duplicate their code. About this being subjective: of course it is, and there may not be a right answer, but I think it's still perfectly at home here. Getting advice from better programmers than I is the second best way to learn. Subjective questions are exactly the kind of thing Google can't answer.

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• Consistent Equals() results, but inconsistent TreeMap.containsKey() result

  - by smessing

  I have the following object Node: private class Node implements Comparable<Node>(){ private String guid(); ... public boolean equals(Node o){ return (this == o); } public int hashCode(){ return guid.hashCode(); } ... } And I use it in the following TreeMap: TreeMap<Node, TreeSet<Edge>> nodes = new TreeMap<Node, TreeSet<Edge>>(); Now, the tree map is used in a class called Graph to store nodes currently in the graph, along with a set of their edges (from the class Edge). My problem is when I try to execute: public containsNode(n){ for (Node x : nodes.keySet()) { System.out.println("HASH CODE: "); System.out.print(x.hashCode() == n.hashCode()); System.out.println("EQUALS: "); System.out.print(x.equals(n)); System.out.println("CONTAINS: "); System.out.print(nodes.containsKey(n)); System.out.println("N: " + n); System.out.println("X: " + x); } } I sometimes get the following: HASHCODE: true EQUALS: true CONTAINS: false N: foo X: foo Anyone have an idea as to what I'm doing wrong? I'm still new to all this, so I apologize in advance if I'm overlooking something simple (I know hashCode() doesn't really matter for TreeMap, but I figured I'd include it).

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• Architecture Guidance Needed?

  - by vijay

  We are about to automate number of process for our reporting team. (The reports are like daily reports, weekly reports, monthly reports, etc..) Mostly the process is like pulling some data from the oracle and then fill them in particular excel template files. Each reports and so their templates are different from each other. Except the excel file manipulation, there are hardly any business logic behind these. Client wanted an integrated tool and all the automated processes are placed as menus/submenus. Right now roughly there are around 30 process waiting to be automated. And we are expecting more new reports in the next quarter. I am nowhere to near having any practical experience when comes to architecuring. Already i have been maintaining two or three systems(they are more than 4yrs old.) for this prestegious client.The possiblity of the above mentioned tool will be manintained for another 3 yrs is very likely. From my past experience i've been through the pain of implmenting change requests to the rigd & undocumented code base resulting in the break down of the system and then eventually myself. So My main and top most concern is the maintainablity. When i was searching for these i came across this link, Smart Clients Using CAB and SCSF is the above link appropriate for my requirement? Also Should i place each automated processes in separate forms under a single project, or place them in separate projects under a single solution.. Please correct me if have missed any other important information. Thx.

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