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• Visual studio erroneous errors when building a website?

  - by Curtis White

  Visual Studio 2008 shows a lot of erroneous errors when building a website (not a web project) in the errors list. These errors are usually corrected (removed) when I rebuild the site a couple times but they cost me wasted time. Is there anyway to hide the erroneous errors? Update: I've decided to look into this to see if I could reproduce it. This is the exact behavior I am seeing, using the website model, I type some invalid syntax on a page. The errors list fills up with errors. I correct the error and the errors list does not update. I build the project and the errors list still shows the errors but the build shows as build completed. I build the project a second time and the errors list is cleared. My question is there anyway to make the errors list clear on the first build? I thought it might have something to do with page build vs website build but it seems to make no difference. I am not using any third party dlls on this website.

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• Schema for element with Attributes and Child nodes

  - by Matthew

  I am trying to write xsd type schema for an element that has a custom type to include addition attributes to extend a base type. I am running into trouble getting the syntax right. <xs:element name="graphs"> <xs:complexType> <xs:sequence> <xs:element name="graph" minOccurs="1" maxOccurs="unbounded" type="graphType"> <!-- child elements --> </xs:element> </xs:sequence> </xs:complexType> </xs:element> <xs:complexType name="graphType"> <xs:simpleContent> <xs:extension base="xs:string"> <xs:attribute name="title" type="xs:string"/> <xs:attribute name="type" type="xs:string"/> </xs:extension> </xs:simpleContent> </xs:complexType> I thought this would be something very common, but having read many tuts and forums, I cant seem to find an answer that works for me.

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• How to prepare data for display on a silverlight chart using WCF RIA Services + Entity Framework

  - by Banford

  I've used WCF RIA services with Entity Framework to build a simple application which can display and updates data about school courses. This was done by following the Microsoft tutorials. Now I would like to have a chart which shows a count for how many courses are on a key stage. Example: Key Stage 3 - 20 courses Key Stage 4 - 32 courses Key Stage 5 - 12 courses Displayed on any form of chart. I have no problem binding data to the chart in XAML. My problem is that I do not know how to correct way of getting the data into that format. The generated CRUD methods are basic. I have a few thoughts about possible ways, but don't know which is correct, they are: Create a View in SQL server and map this to a separate Entity in the Entity Data Model. Generating new CRUD methods for this automatically. Customise the read method in the existing DomainService using .Select() .Distinct() etc. Don't know this syntax very well labda expressions/LINQ??? what is it? Any good quickstarts on it? Create a new class to store only the data required and create a read method for it. Tried this but didn't know how to make it work without a matching entity in the entity model. Something I am not aware of. I'm very new to this and struggling with the concepts so if there are useful blogs or documentation I've missed feel free to point me towards them. But I'm unsure of the terminology to use in my searches at the moment.

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• How do I use .htaccess to redirect to a URL containing HTTP_HOST?

  - by Jon Cram

  Problem I need to redirect some short convenience URLs to longer actual URLs. The site in question uses a set of subdomains to identify a set of development or live versions. I would like the URL to which certain requests are redirected to include the HTTP_HOST such that I don't have to create a custom .htaccess file for each host. Host-specific Example (snipped from .htaccess file) Redirect /terms http://support.dev01.example.com/articles/terms/ This example works fine for the development version running at dev01.example.com. If I use the same line in the main .htaccess file for the development version running under dev02.example.com I'd end up being redirected to the wrong place. Ideal rule (not sure of the correct syntax) Redirect /terms http://support.{HTTP_HOST}/articles/terms/ This rule does not work and merely serves as an example of what I'd like to achieve. I could then use the exact same rule under many different hosts and get the correct result. Answers? Can this be done with mod_alias or does it require the more complex mod_rewrite? How can this be achieved using mod_alias or mod_rewrite? I'd prefer a mod_alias solution if possible. Clarifications I'm not staying on the same server. I'd like: http://example.com/terms/ - http://support.example.com/articles/terms/ https://secure.example.com/terms/ - http://support.example.com/articles/terms/ http://dev.example.com/terms/ - http://support.dev.example.com/articles/terms/ https://secure.dev.example.com/terms/ - http://support.dev.example.com/articles/terms/ I'd like to be able to use the same rule in the .htaccess file on both example.com and dev.example.com. In this situation I'd need to be able to refer to the HTTP_HOST as a variable rather than specifying it literally in the URL to which requests are redirected. I'll investigate the HTTP_HOST parameter as suggested but was hoping for a working example.

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• Is a full html page needed when loading a page with jQuery mobile?

  - by Vincent Hiribarren

  I am currently looking at jQuery mobile and its system of loading web pages with XmlHttpRequest. Thanks to that it is possible to automatically perform transition animations between two pages, for instance. However, something is not clear to me. If I understand correctly, each new page of a jQuery mobile powered website is injected in the DOM of the initial web page. The documentation of jQuery mobile even tells that because of this mechanism, the <title> tag of new webpages are not taken into account. So, in a way, if my initial webpage A.html loads a page B.html, I would tend to think that the webpage B.html does not need to have a full HTML grammar with the <html>, <head> or <body> tags. My page B.html could directly begin with a <div> element. Am I right?Is a full html page needed when loading a HTML page with jQuery mobile?What are the pros and cons about having a webpage with a wrong/truncated HTML syntax (appart that this page should not be accessed directly but through the main page)?

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• jQuery selector for option tag value attribute returns null

  - by Ben

  Hello, I am trying to change the selected option in a select dropdown box with jQuery. I have it set so that it finds the hash tag at the end of the URL and based on that hash tag it changes the selected option in the select box. Most of my code is functional, it successfully finds the hash tag and executes the if statement that corresponds with it. However, when it goes to execute the "then" section of the statement when it goes to the selector for the option (which uses an attribute selector based on the value attribute of the option tag) it returns null. If figured this out with firebug, in the console it says that the selector is null. Here is my code: $(document).ready(function() { var $hash = window.location.hash if($hash == "#htmlcss") { $('option[value="HTML/CSS Coding"]').attr("selected","selected") } if($hash == "#php") { $('option[value="PHP Coding"]').attr("selected","selected") } if($hash == "#jscript") { $('option[value="Javascript and jQuery Coding"]').attr("selected","selected") } if($hash == "#improv") { $('option[value="General Website Improvements"]').attr("selected","selected") } if($hash == "#towp") { $('option[value="Website Conversion to Wordpress"]').attr("selected","selected") } if($hash == "#wptheme") { $('option[value="Wordpress Theme Design"]').attr("selected","selected") } if($hash == "#complete") { $('option[value="Complete Website Creation"]').attr("selected","selected") } if($hash == "#server") { $('option[value="Web Server Configuration"]').attr("selected","selected") } }); So to clarify, when I enter in a url that ends in the #php hash tag, for example, the desired action does not occur which would change the "PHP Coding" option to the selected one by using the "selected" html attribute however the selector for the particular option tag returns null. Is there a problem with my syntax or is my code not functioning in the way that I think it should? Thanks very much.

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• Core Data Predicates with Subclassed NSManagedObjects

  - by coneybeare

  I have an AUDIO class. This audio has a SOUND_A subclass and a SOUND_B subclass. This is all done correctly and is working fine. I have another model, lets call it PLAYLIST_JOIN, and this can contain (in the real world) SOUND_A's and SOUND_B's, so we give it a relationship of AUDIO and PLAYLIST. This all works in the app. The problem I am having now is querying the PLAYLIST_JOIN table with an NSPredicate. What I want to do is find an exact PLAYLIST_JOIN item by giving it 2 keys in the predicate sound_a._sound_a_id = %@ && playlist.playlist_id = %@ and sound_b.sound_b_id = %@ && playlist.playlist_id = %@ The main problem is that because the table does not store sound_a and sound_b, but stored audio, I cannot use this syntax. I do not have the option of reorganizing the sound_a and sound_b to use the same _id attribute name, so how do I do this? Can I pass a method to the predicate? something like this: [audio getID] = %@ && playlist_id = %@

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• XPath ordered priority attribute search

  - by user94000

  I want to write an XPath that can return some link elements on an HTML DOM. The syntax is wrong, but here is the gist of what I want: //web:link[@text='Login' THEN_TRY @href='login.php' THEN_TRY @index=0] THEN_TRY is a made-up operator, because I can't find what operator(s) to use. If many links exist on the page for the given set of [attribute=name] pairs, the link which matches the most left-most attribute(s) should be returned instead of any others. For example, consider a case where the above example XPath finds 3 links that match any of the given attributes: link A: text='Sign In', href='Login.php', index=0 link B: text='Login', href='Signin.php', index=15 link C: text='Login', href='Login.php', index=22 Link C ranks as the best match because it matches the First and Second attributes. Link B ranks second because it only matches the First attribute. Link A ranks last because it does not match the First attribute; it only matches the Second and Third attributes. The XPath should return the best match, Link C. If more than one link were tied for "best match", the XPath should return the first best link that it found on the page.

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• Best practice accessing an array set within a class

  - by user350599

  I have created a basic class for a customer. I haven't done this before and want to know the best way to access the data. Should I have a get() method for every field in the customer array or should I simply pass the customer array back and access with the page. i.e. Just return the array class Customer { protected $id; protected $customer; public function __construct($customer_id) { $this->id = $customer_id; $this->set_customer(); } protected function set_customer() { $query = mysql_query("SELECT * FROM customer WHERE id = '$this->id'"); $this->customer = mysql_fetch_row($query); } public function get_customer() { return $this->customer; } } versus create a method for each item in the array class Customer { protected $id; protected $customer; public function __construct($customer_id) { $this->id = $customer_id; $this->set_customer(); } protected function set_customer() { $query = mysql_query("SELECT * FROM customer WHERE id = '$this->id'"); $this->customer = mysql_fetch_row($query); } public function get_customer_name() { return $this->customer->customer_name; } ... ... } versus option 3 based on Tobias' feedback: (not sure if syntax is correct) class Customer { protected $id; protected $customer; public function __construct($customer_id) { $this->id = $customer_id; return $this->set_customer(); } protected function set_customer() { $query = mysql_query("SELECT * FROM customer WHERE id = '$this->id'"); return mysql_fetch_row($query); } }

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• Trait, FunctionN, or trait-inheriting-FunctionN in Scala?

  - by Willis Blackburn

  I have a trait in Scala that has a single method. Call it Computable and the single method is compute(input: Int): Int. I can't figure out whether I should Leave it as a standalone trait with a single method. Inherit from (Int = Int) and rename "compute" to "apply." Just get rid of Computable and use (Int = Int). A factor in favor of it being a trait is that I could usefully add some additional methods. But of course if they were all implemented in terms of the compute method then I could just break them out into a separate object. A factor in favor of just using the function type is simplicity and the fact that the syntax for an anonymous function is more concise than that for an anonymous Computable instance. But then I've no way to distinguish objects that are actually Computable instances from other functions that map Int to Int but aren't meant to be used in the same context as Computable. How do other people approach this type of problem? No right or wrong answers here; I'm just looking for advice.

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• how to store a file handle in perl class

  - by Haiyuan Zhang

  please look at the following code first. #! /usr/bin/perl package foo; sub new { my $pkg = shift; my $self = {}; my $self->{_fd} = undef; bless $self, $pkg; return $self; } sub Setfd { my $self = shift; my $fd = shift; $self_->{_fd} = $fd; } sub write { my $self = shift; print $self->{_fd} "hello word"; } my $foo = new foo; My intention is to store a file handle within a class using hash. the file handle is undefined at first, but can be initilized afterwards by calling Setfd function. then write can be called to actually write string "hello word" to a file indicated by the file handle, supposed that the file handle is the result of a success "write" open. but, perl compiler just complains that there are syntax error in the "print" line. can anyone of you tells me what's wrong here? thanks in advance.

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• Run a command as cron would but from the command line.

  - by BCS

  I have a script that I'm trying to run from cron. When I run it from bash, it work just fine. However when I let cron do it's thing, I get a: myscript.sh: line 122: syntax error: unexpected end of file What I want is a way to run a command as if it was a cron job, but do it in my shell. As a side note: does anyone know what would be differnt under cron? (the script already has a #!/bin/sh line) To answer my own question: I added this to my crontab: * * * * * bcs for ((i=1; i <= 55; i++)) ; do find ~/.crontemp/ -name '*.run' -exec "{}" ";" ; sleep 1; done` and created this script: #!/bin/sh tmp=$(mktemp ~/.crontemp/cron.XXXXX) mknod $tmp.pipe p mv $tmp $tmp.pre echo $* '>' $tmp.pipe '1>&2' >> $tmp.pre echo rm $tmp.run >> $tmp.pre chmod 700 $tmp.pre mv $tmp.pre $tmp.run cat $tmp.pipe rm $tmp.pipe With that, I can run an arbitrary command with a delay of not more than one second. (And yes, I know there are all kinds of security issue involved in that)

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• MSVC 2003 doesn't see any definitions from a nested include file

  - by ezpresso

  I have a piece of code with COM class declaration as follows: #include "PathTypes.h" MIDL_INTERFACE("552C7555-0555-4444-BA86-56CF39AAFFFF") IPathCalc : public IUnknown { virtual HRESULT STDMETHODCALLTYPE GetLocation( /* [retval][out] */ GeoLocation* pLoc) = 0; virtual HRESULT STDMETHODCALLTYPE SetLocation( /* [in] */ GeoLocation* pLoc) = 0; ... }; Below is the contents of PathTypes.h file: #if !defined(PATHCALC_TYPES_INCLUDED) #define PATHCALC_TYPES_INCLUDED #include "libastro/AstronomyStructs.h" #endif And the libastro/AstronomyStructs.h from an external cross-platform library: #ifndef _ASTRONOMY_STRUCTS_INCLUDED #define _ASTRONOMY_STRUCTS_INCLUDED typedef struct { double lattitude; double longitude; } GeoLocation; ... #endif /* _ASTRONOMY_STRUCTS_INCLUDED */ When I'm trying to build this code with g++ everything goes well. That's not the case with MSVC 2003 which returns error C2061: syntax error : identifier 'GeoLocation'. Seems like MSVC doesn't "see" the definitions from the libastro/AstronomyStructs.h file. When I replace #include "PathTypes.h" with #include "libastro/AstronomyStructs.h" the code compiles without errors. How to make MSVC 2003 to actually "see" the definitions from the nested include files?

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• Spring MVC: How to get the remaining path after the controller path?

  - by Willis Blackburn

  I've spent over an hour trying to find the answer to this question, which seems like it should reflect a common use case, but I can't figure it out! Basically I am writing a file-serving controller using Spring MVC. The URLs are of the format http://www.bighost.com/serve/the/path/to/the/file.jpg, in which the part after "/serve" is the path to the requested file, which may have an arbitrary number of path segments. I have a controller like this: @Controller class ServerController { @RequestMapping(value = "/serve/???") public void serve(???) { } } What I am trying to figure out is: What do I use in place of "???" to make this work? I have two theories about how this should work. The first theory is that I could replace the first "???" in the RequestMapping with a path variable placeholder that has some special syntax meaning "capture to the end of the path." If a regular placeholder looks like "{path}" then maybe I could use "{path:**}" or "{path:/}" or something like that. Then I could use a @PathVariable annotation to refer to the path variable in the second "???". The other theory is that I could replace the first "???" with "**" (match anything) and that Spring would give me an API to obtain the remainder of the path (the part matching the "**"). But I can't find such an API. Thanks for any help you can provide!

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• Doing a POST to a Service Operation in ADO.NET data services

  - by DataServices123

  Is it possible to POST to a service operation defined in an ADO.NET data service (it is decorated with WebInvoke)? I had no problem calling the service operation as an HTTP GET. However, when I switched to doing a POST, the stack trace consistently comes back with "Parameter cannot be NULL". I am using the jQuery syntax below, and sending the POST as JSON (though I'm not including the $.ajax call, the parameter names line up exactly). It would be possible to try this with WCF, as opposed to ADO.NET data services (newly renamed as WCF data services). However, my preference would be to use this approach first. I have tried this with and without the stringify method. Most examples online only show how to use a POST to entities (i.e. for handling CRUD operations). However, in this case we are POSTing to a Service Operation. function PostToDataService() { varType = "POST"; varUrl = "http://dev-server/MyServices/MyService.svc/SampleSO"; varData = { CustomMessage: $("#TextBox1").val() }; varData = JSON.stringify(varData); varContentType = "application/json; charset=utf-8"; varDataType = "json"; varProcessData = true; CallService(); }

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• jQuery class selectors with nested div's

  - by mboles57

  This is part of some HTML from which I need to retrieve a piece of data. The HTML is assigned to a variable called fullDescription. <p>testing</p> <div class="field field-type-text field-field-video-short-desc"> <div class="field-label">Short Description:&nbsp;</div> <div class="field-items"> <div class="field-item odd"> Demonstrates the basics of using the Content section of App Cloud Studio </div> </div> </div> <div class="field field-type-text field-field-video-id"> <div class="field-label">Video ID:&nbsp;</div> <div class="field-items"> <div class="field-item odd"> 1251462871001 </div> </div> </div> I wish to retrieve the video ID number (1251462871001). I was thinking something like this: var videoID = $(fullDescription).find(".field.field-type-text.field-field-video-id").find(".field-item.odd").html(); Although it does not generate any syntax errors, it does not retrieve the number. Thanks for helping out a jQuery noob! -Matt

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• Formatting associative array declaration

  - by Drew Stephens

  When declaring an associative array, how do you handle the indentation of the elements of the array? I've seen a number of different styles (PHP syntax, since that's what I've been in lately). This is a pretty picky and trivial thing, so move along if you're interested in more serious pursuits. 1) Indent elements one more level: $array = array( 'Foo' => 'Bar', 'Baz' => 'Qux' ); 2) Indent elements two levels: $array = array( 'Foo' => 'Bar', 'Baz' => 'Qux' ); 3) Indent elements beyond the array constructor, with closing brace aligned with the start of the constructor: $array = array( 'Foo' => 'Bar', 'Baz' => 'Qux' ); 4) Indent elements beyond the array construct, with closing brace aligned with opening brace: $array = array( 'Foo' => 'Bar', 'Baz' => 'Qux' ); Personally, I like #3—the broad indentation makes it clear that we're at a break point in the code (constructing the array), and having the closing brace floating a bit to the left of all of the array's data makes it clear that this declaration is done.

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• How to use boost::fusion::transform on heterogeneous containers?

  - by Kyle

  Boost.org's example given for fusion::transform is as follows: struct triple { typedef int result_type; int operator()(int t) const { return t * 3; }; }; // ... assert(transform(make_vector(1,2,3), triple()) == make_vector(3,6,9)); Yet I'm not "getting it." The vector in their example contains elements all of the same type, but a major point of using fusion is containers of heterogeneous types. What if they had used make_vector(1, 'a', "howdy") instead? int operator()(int t) would need to become template<typename T> T& operator()(T& const t) But how would I write the result_type? template<typename T> typedef T& result_type certainly isn't valid syntax, and it wouldn't make sense even if it was, because it's not tied to the function.

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• jQuery Validate PHP Response

  - by Kurt

  Hello Everybody, my problem is, I want to validate an email adresse with jquery. Not only the syntax but rather if the email is already registrated. There are some tutorials but they are not working! At first the Jquery Code: <script id="demo" type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { // validate signup form on keyup and submit var validator = $("form#signupform").validate({ rules: { Vorname: { required: true, minlength: 3 }, Nachname:{ required: true, minlength: 4 }, password: { required: true, minlength: 5 }, password_confirm: { required: true, minlength: 5, equalTo: "#password" }, Email: { required: true, email: true, type: "POST", remote: "remotemail.php" }, dateformat: "required", ... </script> And now the PHP Code: <?php include('dbsettings.php'); $conn = mysql_connect($dbhost,$dbuser,$dbpw); mysql_select_db($dbdb,$conn); $auslesen1 = "SELECT Email FROM flo_user"; $auslesen2 = mysql_query($auslesen1,$conn); $registered_email = mysql_fetch_assoc($auslesen2); $requested_email = $_POST['Email']; if( in_array($requested_email, $registered_email) ){ echo "false"; } else{ echo "true"; } ?> I tried return TRUE/ return FALSE as well, but this displays "Email is registrated" all the time. json_encode didn't work as well. Thanks a lot!

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• MySQL get point in time totals from related tables

  - by batfastad

  Hi everyone We have an order book and invoicing system and I've been tasked with trying to output monthly rolling totals from these tables. But I don't know really where to start with this. I think there's some SQL syntax that I don't even know about yet. I'm familiar with INNER/LEFT/JOINS and GROUP BY etc but grouping by date is confusing since I don't know how to limit the data to only the current date that's being grouped by at that point. I think this will involve joining the tables to themselves or possibly a sub-select. I always thought it best to avoid sub-selects apart from when absolutely necessary. Basically the system has 3 tables orders: order_id, currency, order_stamp orders_lines: order_line_id, invoice_id, order_id, price invoices: invoice_id, invoice_stamp order_stamp and invoice_stamp are UTC unix timestamps stored as integers, not MySQL timestamps. I'm trying to get a listing by year/month showing the total of current unbilled orders (sum of price), at that point in time. Current orders are ones where order_stamp is less than or equal to 00:00 on the 1st of the month. Unbilled orders are ones where invoice_stamp is null or invoice_stamp is greater than 00:00 on the 1st of the month. At that point in time there may not be a related invoice yet and invoice_id might be null. Anyone got any suggestions on what I should join to what and what I need to group by? Cheers, B

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• How to write to a text file in pipe delimited format from SQL Server / ASP.Net?

  - by NJTechGuy

  I have a text file which needs to be constantly updated (regular intervals). All I want is the syntax and possibly some code that outputs data from a SQL Server database using ASP.Net. The code I have so far is : <%@ Import Namespace="System.IO" %> <script language="vb" runat="server"> sub Page_Load(sender as Object, e as EventArgs) Dim FILENAME as String = Server.MapPath("Output.txt") Dim objStreamWriter as StreamWriter ' If Len(Dir$(FILENAME)) > 0 Then Kill(FILENAME) objStreamWriter = File.AppendText(FILENAME) objStreamWriter.WriteLine("A user viewed this demo at: " & DateTime.Now.ToString()) objStreamWriter.Close() Dim objStreamReader as StreamReader objStreamReader = File.OpenText(FILENAME) Dim contents as String = objStreamReader.ReadToEnd() lblNicerOutput.Text = contents.Replace(vbCrLf, "<br>") objStreamReader.Close() end sub </script> <asp:label runat="server" id="lblNicerOutput" Font-Name="Verdana" /> With PHP, it is a breeze, but with .Net I have no clue. If you could help me with the database connectivity and how to write the data in pipe delimited format to an Output.txt file, that had be awesome. Thanks guys!

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• Mysql for update

  - by shantanuo

  MySQL supports "for update" keyword. Here is how I tested that it is working as expected. I opened 2 browser tabs and executed the following commands in one window. mysql> start transaction; Query OK, 0 rows affected (0.00 sec) mysql> select * from myxml where id = 2 for update; .... mysql> update myxml set id = 3 where id = 2 limit 1; Query OK, 1 row affected, 1 warning (0.00 sec) Rows matched: 1 Changed: 1 Warnings: 0 mysql> commit; Query OK, 0 rows affected (0.08 sec) In another window, I started the transaction and tried to take an update lock on the same record. mysql> start transaction; Query OK, 0 rows affected (0.00 sec) mysql> select * from myxml where id = 2 for update; Empty set (43.81 sec) As you can see from the above example, I could not select the record for 43 seconds as the transaction was being processed by another application in the Window No 1. Once the transaction was over, I got to select the record, but since the id 2 was changed to id 3 by the transaction that was executed first, no record was returned. My question is what are the disadvantages of using "for update" syntax? If I do not commit the transaction that is running in window 1 will the record be locked for-ever?

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• How to make an AJAX call immediately on document loading

  - by Ankur

  I want to execute an ajax call as soon as a document is loaded. What I am doing is loading a string that contains data that I will use for an autocomplete feature. This is what I have done, but it is not calling the servlet. I have removed the calls to the various JS scripts to make it clearer. I have done several similar AJAX calls in my code but usually triggered by a click event, I am not sure what the syntax for doing it as soon as the document loads, but I thought this would be it (but it's not): <!DOCTYPE HTML PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD HTML 4.01 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/html4/loose.dtd"> <html> <head> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function(){ $.ajax({ type: "GET", url: "AutoComplete", dataType: 'json', data: queryString, success: function(data) { var dataArray = data; alert(dataArray); } }); $("#example").autocomplete(dataArray); }); </script> <title></title> </head> <body> API Reference: <form><input id="example"> (try "C" or "E")</form> </body> </html>

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• Spring Form: Submitting extra parameter on submit buttons

  - by theringostarrs

  Hi, I am working on a form with a bunch of selection criteria that will generate a report when the form is submitted. I also have a number of different reports that can be generated form this same criteria, and want the type of report to be selectable by using a tab system where each tab clicked on submits the form and generates the correct report. I was to do this by passing an extra parameter into the form to switch onto the right form type I am new to Spring, and from the guidance of an elder was told to use an input button for each tab with the following approximate syntax: <input type="submit" name="${form.selectionValues.tabSelection}" value="1" /> tabSelection form property of the SelectionValues object is not being set. I wasn't surprised ;) DIdn't think this would work. So I am wondering how can I can submit a post back from a button in Spring containing the form values plus an extra tabSelection parameter and value? How should I mark up this mechanism? Will I have to do anything to the form controller to register this extra parameter? The original markup I was using to build this page, was using HTML anchor tags instead of buttons for the tab links, which would be much better for the CSS, is there any way to trigger a full form submit using an anchor href? I know this will be a GET request instead of a POST, and not associated with the form.. so I dont expect this to work.. just trying to think of solutions! I would prefer to use the priginal markup, as the styles are there. Any help would be appreciated

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• Type casting in C++ by detecting the current 'this' object type

  - by Elroy

  My question is related to RTTI in C++ where I'm trying to check if an object belongs to the type hierarchy of another object. The BelongsTo() method checks this. I tried using typeid, but it throws an error and I'm not sure about any other way how I can find the target type to convert to at runtime. #include <iostream> #include <typeinfo> class X { public: // Checks if the input type belongs to the type heirarchy of input object type bool BelongsTo(X* p_a) { // I'm trying to check if the current (this) type belongs to the same type // hierarchy as the input type return dynamic_cast<typeid(*p_a)*>(this) != NULL; // error C2059: syntax error 'typeid' } }; class A : public X { }; class B : public A { }; class C : public A { }; int main() { X* a = new A(); X* b = new B(); X* c = new C(); bool test1 = b->BelongsTo(a); // should return true bool test2 = b->BelongsTo(c); // should return false bool test3 = c->BelongsTo(a); // should return true } Making the method virtual and letting derived classes do it seems like a bad idea as I have a lot of classes in the same type hierarchy. Or does anybody know of any other/better way to the do the same thing? Please suggest.

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