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Cisco 7206vxr cpu reducing

- by naimson

I have a 7206VXR (NPE-G2) . At the rate of 140 kpps i gain 80% of cpu . So i looking for ways how to reduce it? So i want to turn off netflow(but don't want to this,monitoring is highly important for me), but it will give me only 10-20% ? At this moment with 84kpps i have 58% sh processes cpu sorted give me this. PID Runtime(ms) Invoked uSecs 5Sec 1Min 5Min TTY Process 109 163534600 537236763 304 35.38% 32.83% 16.85% 0 IP Input 67 829396 52280 15864 0.15% 0.01% 0.00% 0 Per-minute Jobs 68 5542736 3053476 1815 0.15% 0.18% 0.16% 0 Per-Second Jobs 51 635852 1116315 569 0.07% 0.03% 0.02% 0 Net Background 329 120396 4607274 26 0.07% 0.00% 0.00% 0 EIGRP-IPv4 Hello 105 50508 95032488 0 0.07% 0.05% 0.05% 0 IPAM Manager 6 4068580 476916 8531 0.00% 0.07% 0.05% 0 Check heaps 7 7768 3634 2137 0.00% 0.00% 0.00% 0 Pool Manager 8 0 1 0 0.00% 0.00% 0.00% 0 DiscardQ Backgro 10 8 708 11 0.00% 0.00% 0.00% 0 WATCH_AFS 5 0 1 0 0.00% 0.00% 0.00% 0 RO Notify Timers 12 0 2 0 0.00% 0.00% 0.00% 0 ATM VC Auto Crea 9 0 2 0 0.00% 0.00% 0.00% 0 Timers 11 0 2 0 0.00% 0.00% 0.00% 0 ATM AutoVC Perio 13 296 610532 0 0.00% 0.00% 0.00% 0 IPC Event Notifi 16 0 1 0 0.00% 0.00% 0.00% 0 IPC Zone Manager 17 3584 2980311 1 0.00% 0.00% 0.00% 0 IPC Periodic Tim 4 0 1 0 0.00% 0.00% 0.00% 0 EDDRI_MAIN 19 0 1 0 0.00% 0.00% 0.00% 0 IPC Process leve 20 0 1 0 0.00% 0.00% 0.00% 0 IPC Seat Manager 21 96 174453 0 0.00% 0.00% 0.00% 0 IPC Check Queue 14 4 50890 0 0.00% 0.00% 0.00% 0 IPC Dynamic Cach 3 0 1 0 0.00% 0.00% 0.00% 0 cpf_process_tpQ 24 756 305371 2 0.00% 0.00% 0.00% 0 IPC Keep Alive M 25 2340 610561 3 0.00% 0.00% 0.00% 0 IPC Loadometer 22 0 1 0 0.00% 0.00% 0.00% 0 IPC Seat RX Cont 15 0 1 0 0.00% 0.00% 0.00% 0 IPC Session Serv 18 1620 2980310 0 0.00% 0.00% 0.00% 0 IPC Deferred Por 29 0 1 0 0.00% 0.00% 0.00% 0 Exception contro sh run(greped): http://pastie.org/5483194 Hardware: c7200p-adventerprisek9-mz.151-4.M1.bin Cisco 7206VXR (NPE-G2) processor (revision A) with 917504K/65536K bytes of memory. Processor board ID 2xxxxxxx MPC7448 CPU at 1666Mhz, Implementation 0, Rev 2.2 6 slot VXR midplane, Version 2.1

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Locate devices within a building

- by ams0

The situation: Our company is spread between two floors in a building. Every employee has a laptop (macbook Air or MacbookPro) and an iPhone. We have static DHCP mappings and DNS resolution so every mobile gets a name like employeeiphone.example.com, every macbook air gets a employeelaptop.example.com and every macbook pro gets a employeelaptop.example.com on the Ethernet interface (the wifi gets a dynamic IP from a small range dedicated for the purpose). We know each and every MAC address of phones and laptops, since we do DHCP static mapping (ISC DHCP server runs on linux). At each floor we have a Netgear stack of two switches, connected via 10GB fiber to each other. No VLANs so far. At every floor there are 4 Airport Extreme making a single SSID network with WPA2 authentication. The request: Our CTO wants to know who is present at which floor. My solution (so far): Every switch contains an table listing MAC address and originating port. On each switch stack, all the MAC addresses coming from the other floor are listed as coming on port 48 (the fiber link). So I came up with: 1) Get the table from each switch via SNMP 2) Filter out the ones associated with port 48 3) Grep dhcpd.conf, removing all entries not *laptop and not *iphone 4) Match the two lists for each switch, output in JSON or XML 5) present the results on a dashboard for all to see I wrote it in bash with a lot of awk and sed, it kinda works but I always have for some reason stale entries in the switch lookup tables, making it unreliable; some people may have put their laptop to sleep, their iphones drop connections after a while, if not woken up and so on..I searched left and right, we are prepared to spend a little on the project too (RFIDs?), does anybody do something similar? I can provide with the script if needed (although it's really specific to our switches and naming scheme). Thanks! p.s. perhaps is this a question for stackoverflow? please move if it so.

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Using Openfire for distributed XMPP-based video-chat

- by Yitzhak

I have been tasked with setting up a distributed video-chat system built on XMPP. Currently my setup looks like this: Openfire (XMPP server) + JingleNodes plugin for video chat OpenLDAP (LDAP server) for storing user information and allowing directory queries Kerberos server for authentication and passwords In testing with one set of machines (i.e. only three), everything works as expected: I can log in to Openfire and it looks up the user information in the OpenLDAP database, which in turn authenticates my user with Kerberos. Now, I want to have several clusters, so that there is a cluster on each continent. A typical cluster will probably contain 2-5 servers. Users logging in will be directed to the closest cluster based on geographical location. Something that concerns me particularly is the dynamic maintenance of contact lists. If a user is using a machine in Asia, for example, how would contact lists be updated around the world to reflect the current server he is using? How would that work with LDAP? Specific questions: How do I direct users based on geographical location? What is the best architecture for a cluster? -- would all traffic need to come into a load-balancer on each one, for example? How do I manage the update of contact lists across all these servers? In general, how do I go about setting this up? What are the pitfalls in doing this? I am inexperienced in this area, so any advice and suggestions would be appreciated.

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How can I tell System Restore in WIndows 7 recovery console to use my recovered backup drive's restore point data?

- by Rich Shealer

My Windows 7 desktop PC failed to boot. It would get to a grayish screen with a mouse and would only respond to the power button. After much examination I found that the problem was not a failed drive as running CHKDSK from the Recovery Console on my main drives passed without any errors. I had been installing various Java version in the days before the failure so I decided to use a restore point to roll backwards. I have an external SATA drive controller with two 2 TB drives mirrored using the Windows mirroring function. My system has been backing up to this drive regularly. The problem is I accidently broke the mirror when testing to see if this drive system might have been causing my boot issue. Connecting it to another machine showed two dynamic drives that were invalid. In the end I reformatted one as an NTFS basic disc and used recovery software on the other to copy all of the files to the reformatted drive. I had to copy the restore points into the new drive's System Volume Information folder by granting rights to that user. I moved the drive back to the original machine and rebooted. I can see my new drive, it even uses the same drive letter as it did in normal mode. Running System Restore it lists a new Automatic Restore point created while sitting at the RC along with all of my backups. Selecting the backup I want (or any other) I get a dialog. The backup drive could not be found. System Restore is looking for restore points on your backup. Make sure the backup drive is on and connected to this computer and then click OK. What do I need to do to allow system restore to see the restore points?

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Data recovery on working hard drive

- by emgee

So I have a 5 bay hot swap SATA enclosure that's connected to a Silicon Image-based SATA adapter in a computer. It's running XP Pro. There are two 1.5TB hard drives in slots 1 and 2 respectively, set up using RAID 1 using the the Silicon Image utility. There are also two 1TB drives in bays 3 and 4, also set to RAID 1 the same way. The partitions for both RAID arrays are Dynamic partitions. A few days back, there was a bare hard drive that needed some files copied off of, so it was popped it in bay 5, that bay to pass-through, and the copied data off of it. Later, I noticed that my 1.5TB drives no longer showed up in windows. In the Silicon Image utility, the drives showed up fine, no error. However, in Device Manager, it shows the RAID 1 array as uninitialized. It shows up as the right size, etc., but nothing else. There's no sign of anything wrong with either drive, so I'm not sure what happened exactly. I'm not the only one who has access to that computer, so it is possible there is something else done to it that I don't know of. There's quite a lot of data on it still, and if at all possible, I'd prefer to not send it to Ontrack. Does anyone know of software that would restore the partitions, keeping in mind that it's a Windows LDM partition? I have access to a variety of Operating Systems, so something that would work on Mac, Windows or Linux would be acceptable. The programs I usually use are not compatible with LDM.

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Print over the internet from a remote linux session locally (on a Windows 7 machine) to the shared printers?

- by obeliksz

I'm trying to use a linux virtual machine as a file server for windows clients. I have successfully implemented remote file sharing (samba+ssh) with which I am able to print locally with a little program that I made for this purpose (jetforms style)... but I would like to hear about a somewhat more direct approach. How can I attach the printers to the server, so that I can for example open a file on the remote session and in the print dialogbox I would see my local printers (on the machine from which I have established a remote session)? I guess there should be some kind of putty tunneling, but dont know how. I have a windows 7 machine locally; there is a CentOS 6 VM over the internet. It has ssh, cups, and samba. I have found a question which asks the opposite: there is a windows based server to connect form linux but that windows has a domain, mine is just a simple windows workstation that is behind NAT and has a dynamic IP. That question is: Print from Linux to Windows networked printer.

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View all ntext column text in SQL Server Management Studio for SQL CE database

- by Dave

I often want to do a "quick check" of the value of a large text column in SQL Server Management Studio (SSMS). The maximum number of characters that SSMS will let you view, in grid results mode, is 65535. (It is even less in text results mode.) Sometimes I need to see something beyond that range. Using SQL Server 2005 databases, I often used the trick of converting it to XML, because SSMS lets you view much larger amounts of text that way: SELECT CONVERT(xml, MyCol) FROM MyTable WHERE ... But now I am using SQL CE, and there is no Xml data type. There is still a "Maximum Characters Retreived XML" value under Options; I suppose this is useful when connecting to other data sources. I know I can just get the full value by running a little console app or something, but is there a way within SSMS to see the entire ntext column value? [Edit] OK, this didn't get much attention the first time around (18 views?!). It's not a huge concern, but maybe I'm just obsessed with it. There has to be some good way around this, doesn't there? So a modest bounty is active. What I am willing to accept as answers, in order from best-to-worst: A solution that works just as easy as the XML trick in SQL CE. That is, a single function (convert, cast, etc.) that does the job. A not-too-invasive way to hack SSMS to get it to display more text in the results. An equivalent SQL query (perhaps something that creatively uses SUBSTRING and generates multiple ad-hoc columns??) to see the results. The solution should work with nvarchar and ntext columns of any length in SQL CE from SSMS. Any ideas?

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Noob Objective-C/C++ - Linker Problem/Method Signature Problem

- by Josh

There is a static class Pipe, defined in C++ header that I'm including. The static method I'm interested in calling (from Objetive-c) is here: static ERC SendUserGet(const UserId &_idUser,const GUID &_idStyle,const ZoneId &_idZone,const char *_pszMsg); I have access to an objetive-c data structure that appears to store a copy of userID, and zoneID -- it looks like: @interface DataBlock : NSObject { GUID userID; GUID zoneID; } Looked up the GUID def, and its a struct with a bunch of overloaded operators for equality. UserId and ZoneId from the first function signature are #typedef GUID Now when I try to call the method, no matter how I cast it (const UserId), (UserId), etc, I get the following linker error: Ld build/Debug/Seeker.app/Contents/MacOS/Seeker normal i386 cd /Users/josh/Development/project/Mac/Seeker setenv MACOSX_DEPLOYMENT_TARGET 10.5 /Developer/usr/bin/g++-4.2 -arch i386 -isysroot /Developer/SDKs/MacOSX10.5.sdk -L/Users/josh/Development/TS/Mac/Seeker/build/Debug -L/Users/josh/Development/TS/Mac/Seeker/../../../debug -L/Developer/Platforms/iPhoneOS.platform/Developer/usr/lib/gcc/i686-apple-darwin10/4.2.1 -F/Users/josh/Development/TS/Mac/Seeker/build/Debug -filelist /Users/josh/Development/TS/Mac/Seeker/build/Seeker.build/Debug/Seeker.build/Objects-normal/i386/Seeker.LinkFileList -mmacosx-version-min=10.5 -framework Cocoa -framework WebKit -lSAPI -lSPL -o /Users/josh/Development/TS/Mac/Seeker/build/Debug/Seeker.app/Contents/MacOS/Seeker Undefined symbols: "SocPipe::SendUserGet(_GUID const&, _GUID const&, _GUID const&, char const*)", referenced from: -[PeoplePaneController clickGet:] in PeoplePaneController.o ld: symbol(s) not found collect2: ld returned 1 exit status Is this a type/function signature error, or truly some sort of linker error? I have the headers where all these types and static classes are defined #imported -- I tried #include too, just in case, since I'm already stumbling :P Forgive me, I come from a web tech background, so this c-style memory management and immutability stuff is super hazy. Edit: Added full linker error text. Changed "function" to "method" Thanks, Josh

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How to use multiple DisplayName attribute using Entity Framework and ASP.Net Mvc 2

- by Picflight

Depending on where I use my Class, I want to be able to show a different DisplayName. I have the following class: [MetadataType(typeof(PortalMetaData))] [System.Web.Mvc.Bind(Exclude = "PortalId")] public partial class Portal { public Portal() { this.Created = DateTime.Now; } } public class PortalMetaData { [Required(ErrorMessage = "Portal name is required")] [StringLength(50, ErrorMessage = "Portal name must be under 50 characters")] public object PortalName { get; set; } [Required(ErrorMessage = "Description is required")] public object Description { get; set; } } I have a corresponding Table in the database Portal I use the Portal table with a PortalController for the Site Admin to update the records in the Portal Table. I want another user with a different Role (AsstAdmin) to be able to update this table as well. To facilitate that I am thinking of creating a separate partial class that somehow links back to the Portal Model. This would allow me to display limited Fields for update by the AsstAdmin and I can display a different name for the Field as well. How can I accomplish this task? If I add the following class which inherits from Portal than I get an exception: Unable to cast object of type 'Project1.Mvc.Models.Portal' to type 'Prpject1.Mvc.Models.Site'. [MetadataType(typeof(SiteMetaData))] public class Site : Portal { public Site() { } } public class SiteMetaData { [Required(DisplayName = "Site Description")] public object Description { get; set; } }

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MVC2 client/server validation of DateTime/Date using DataAnnotations

- by Thomas

The following are true: One of my columns (BirthDate) is of type Date in SQL Server. This very same column (BirthDate) is of type DateTime when EF generates the model. I am using JQuery UI Datepicker on the client side to be able to select the BirthDate. I have the following validation logic in my buddy class: [Required(ErrorMessageResourceType = typeof(Project.Web.ValidationMessages), ErrorMessageResourceName = "Required")] [RegularExpression(@"\b(0?[1-9]|1[012])[/](0?[1-9]|[12][0-9]|3[01])[/](19|20)?[0-9]{2}\b", ErrorMessageResourceType = typeof(Project.Web.ValidationMessages), ErrorMessageResourceName = "Invalid")] public virtual DateTime? BirthDate { get; set; } There are two issues with this: This will not pass server side validation (if I enable client side validation it works just fine). I am assuming that this is because the regular expression doesn't take into account hours, minutes, seconds as the value in the text box has already been cast as a DateTime on the server by the time validation occurs. If data already exists in the database and is read into the model and displayed on the page the BirthDate field shows hours, minutes, seconds in my text box (which I don't want). I can always use ToShortDateString() but I am wondering if there is some cleaner approach that I might be missing. Thanks

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Edit/Access data from a CheckBox column in an ASPX:GridView - c#

- by Endo

Hi, I have a GridView to which I bind a dataTable I manually create. Both the GridView and the dataTable contain 2 columns, Name and isBusy. My GridView looks like this <Columns> <asp:BoundField HeaderText="Name" DataField="Name" SortExpression="Name"> </asp:BoundField> <asp:CheckBoxField DataField="isBusy" HeaderText="Busy" SortExpression="isBusy" /> </Columns> That works fine, except that the Busy column is non-editable unless you set a specific row to edit mode. I require the entire column of checkboxes to be checkable. So I converted the column to a template, and so the columns look like this: <Columns> <asp:BoundField HeaderText="Name" DataField="Name" SortExpression="Name"> </asp:BoundField> <asp:TemplateField HeaderText="Busy" SortExpression="isBusy"> <ItemTemplate> <asp:CheckBox ID="isBusy" runat="server" Checked='<%# Eval("isBusy") %>' oncheckedchanged="CheckBoxBusy_CheckedChanged" /> </ItemTemplate> </asp:TemplateField> </Columns> Now, this throws an error at runtime, saying System.InvalidCastException was unhandled by user code Message="Specified cast is not valid." Source="App_Web_zzjsqlrr" StackTrace: at ASP.proyectos_aspx.__DataBinding__control24(Object sender, EventArgs e) in c:\Proyect\Users.aspx:line 189 at System.Web.UI.Control.OnDataBinding(EventArgs e) at System.Web.UI.Control.DataBind(Boolean raiseOnDataBinding) at System.Web.UI.Control.DataBind() at System.Web.UI.Control.DataBindChildren() InnerException: Any idea why this is happening? The next step I would need is to know how to set and get a checkbox's state (haven't been able to find how to manually check a checkbox). I appreciate very much any help.

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Noob Objective-C/C++ - Linker Problem/Function Def Problem

- by Josh

There is a static class Pipe, defined in C++ header that I'm including. The function I'm interested in calling (from Objetive-c) is here: static ERC SendUserGet(const UserId &_idUser,const GUID &_idStyle,const ZoneId &_idZone,const char *_pszMsg); I have access to an objetive-c data structure that appears to store a copy of userID, and zoneID -- it looks like: @interface DataBlock : NSObject { GUID userID; GUID zoneID; } Looked up the GUID def, and its a struct with a bunch of overloaded operators for equality. UserId and ZoneId from the first function signature are #typedef GUID Now when I try to call the function, no matter how I cast it (const UserId), (UserId), etc, I get the following linker error: "Pipe::SendUserGet(_GUID const&, _GUID const&, _GUID const&, char const*)", referenced from: -[PeoplePaneController clickGet:] in PeoplePaneController.o Is this a type/function signature error, or truly some sort of linker error? I have the headers where all these types and static classes are defined #imported -- I tried #include too, just in case, since I'm already stumbling :P Forgive me, I come from a web tech background, so this c-style memory management and immutability stuff is super hazy. Thanks, Josh

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Serializing java objects with respect to xml schema loaded at runtime

- by kohomologie

I call an XML document three-layered if its structure is laid out as following: the root element contains some container elements (I'll call them entities), each of them has some simpleType elements inside (I'll call them properties). Something like that: <data> <spaceship> <number>1024</number> <name>KTHX</name> </spaceship> <spaceship> <number>1624</number> <name>LEXX</name> </spaceship> <knife> <length>10</length> </knife> </data> where spaceship is an entity, and number is a property. My problem is stated below: Given schema: an arbitrary xsd file describing a three-layered document, loaded at runtime. xmlDocument: an xml document conforming to the schema. Create A Map<String, Map <String, Object>> containing data from the xmlDocument, where first key corresponds to entity, second key correponds to this entity's property, and the value corresponds to this property's value, after casting it to a proper java type (for example, if the schema sets the property value to be xs:int, then it should be cast to Integer). What is the easiest way to achieve this result with existing libraries? P. S. JAXB is not really an option here. The schema might be arbitrary and unknown at compile-time. Also I wish to avoid an excessive use of reflection (associated with converting the beans to maps). I'm looking for something that would allow me to make the typecasts while xml is being parsed.

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iTextSharp error - cannot convert type 'Collections.Generic.List' to 'iTextSharp.text.Element'

- by mike

I am trying to export pdf file using aspx and c#. I got the following error. Cannot implicitly convert type 'System.Collections.Generic.List'' to 'iTextSharp.text.Element' I have the following code using iTextSharp.text; using iTextSharp.text.pdf; using iTextSharp.text.html.simpleparser; StringBuilder strB = new StringBuilder(); document.Open(); if (text.Length.Equals(0))//export the text { GridView1.DataBind(); using (StringWriter sWriter = new StringWriter(strB)) { using (HtmlTextWriter htWriter = new HtmlTextWriter(sWriter)) { GridView1.RenderControl(htWriter); } } } else //export the grid { strB.Append(text); } using (TextReader sReader = new StringReader(strB.ToString())) { StyleSheet styles = new StyleSheet(); List<Element> list = new List<Element>(); list = HTMLWorker.ParseToList(sReader, styles); foreach (IElement elm in list) { document.Add(elm); } } I got the error in this line: list = HTMLWorker.ParseToList(sReader, styles); It's the first time that I am trying to export pdf files. I tried to cast the list element , however this did not solve my error. Any advice would be helpful!!!

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Error Handling in T-SQL Scalar Function

- by hydroparadise

Ok.. this question could easily take multiple paths, so I will hit the more specific path first. While working with SQL Server 2005, I'm trying to create a scalar funtion that acts as a 'TryCast' from varchar to int. Where I encounter a problem is when I add a TRY block in the function; CREATE FUNCTION u_TryCastInt ( @Value as VARCHAR(MAX) ) RETURNS Int AS BEGIN DECLARE @Output AS Int BEGIN TRY SET @Output = CONVERT(Int, @Value) END TRY BEGIN CATCH SET @Output = 0 END CATCH RETURN @Output END Turns out theres all sorts of things wrong with this statement including "Invalid use of side-effecting or time-dependent operator in 'BEGIN TRY' within a function" and "Invalid use of side-effecting or time-dependent operator in 'END TRY' within a function". I can't seem to find any examples of using try statements within a scalar function, which got me thinking, is error handling in a function is possible? The goal here is to make a robust version of the Convert or Cast functions to allow a SELECT statement carry through depsite conversion errors. For example, take the following; CREATE TABLE tblTest ( f1 VARCHAR(50) ) GO INSERT INTO tblTest(f1) VALUES('1') INSERT INTO tblTest(f1) VALUES('2') INSERT INTO tblTest(f1) VALUES('3') INSERT INTO tblTest(f1) VALUES('f') INSERT INTO tblTest(f1) VALUES('5') INSERT INTO tblTest(f1) VALUES('1.1') SELECT CONVERT(int,f1) AS f1_num FROM tblTest DROP TABLE tblTest It never reaches point of dropping the table because the execution gets hung on trying to convert 'f' to an integer. I want to be able to do something like this; SELECT u_TryCastInt(f1) AS f1_num FROM tblTest fi_num __________ 1 2 3 0 5 0 Any thoughts on this? Is there anything that exists that handles this? Also, I would like to try and expand the conversation to support SQL Server 2000 since Try blocks are not an option in that scenario. Thanks in advance.

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Strings in array are no longer strings after jQuery.each()

- by Álvaro G. Vicario

I'm pretty confused with the behaviour of arrays of strings when I loop them through the jQuery.each() method. Apparently, the strings become jQuery objects inside the callback function. However, I cannot use the this.get() method to obtain the original string; doing so triggers a this.get is not a function error message. I suppose the reason is that it's not a DOM node. I can do $(this).get() but it makes my string become an array (from "foo" to ["f", "o", "o"]). How can I cast it back to string? I need to get a variable of String type because I pass it to other functions that compare the values among them. I enclose a self-contained test case (requires Firebug's console): <!DOCTYPE html> <html> <head><title></title> <script type="text/javascript" src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.4.2/jquery.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"></script> </head> <body> </body> </html>

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How to clone a Model using Entity Framework and ASP.Net Mvc 2

- by Picflight

I have the following class: [MetadataType(typeof(PortalMetaData))] [System.Web.Mvc.Bind(Exclude = "PortalId")] public partial class Portal { public Portal() { this.Created = DateTime.Now; } } public class PortalMetaData { [Required(ErrorMessage = "Portal name is required")] [StringLength(50, ErrorMessage = "Portal name must be under 50 characters")] public object PortalName { get; set; } [Required(ErrorMessage = "Description is required")] public object Description { get; set; } } I have a corresponding Table in the database Portal I use the Portal table with a PortalController for the Site Admin to update the records in the Portal Table. I want another user with a different Role (AsstAdmin) to be able to update this table as well. To facilitate that I am thinking of creating a separate partial class that somehow links back to the Portal Model. This would allow me to display limited Fields for update by the AsstAdmin and I can display a different name for the Field as well. How can I accomplish this task? If I add the following class which inherits from Portal than I get an exception: Unable to cast object of type 'Project1.Mvc.Models.Portal' to type 'Prpject1.Mvc.Models.Site'. [MetadataType(typeof(SiteMetaData))] public class Site : Portal { public Site() { } } public class SiteMetaData { [Required(DisplayName = "Site Description")] public object Description { get; set; } }

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Rolemanager not working when ASPDotNetStorefront served in a virtual folder with FormsAuthentication

- by digiguru

Does anyone know if there is a valid roleManager I can apply to ASPDotNetStorefront to get the site working? We have a website that has an ASP.Net storefront served in a virtual folder off the root. ourwebsite.com ourwebsite.com/shop Everything has been workign fine until we put the groundwork in place for forms authentication in the website recently. This caused an error on the production server when you tried to get into the shop... Unable to cast object of type 'System.Web.Security.RolePrincipal' to type 'AspDotNetStorefrontCore.AspDotNetStorefrontPrincipal'. Looking at the shop's web.config I noticed there was no RoleManager node, so I tried to fix the problem by removing it in the shop's web.config <roleManager enabled="false"> </roleManager> This prevented the error occurring, but also prevented the shopping basket from working. Instead I removed the rolemanager tag from the root website...  This worked, but obviously prevents role authentication working on the root website, which is okay for the next 2 or 3 releases. Anyone know the correct code for the rolemanager in DotNetStorefront?

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How to correctly refactor this?

- by kane77

I have trouble finding way to correctly refactor this code so that there would be as little duplicate code as possible, I have a couple of methods like this (pseudocode): public List<Something> parseSomething(Node n){ List<Something> somethings = new ArrayList<Something>(); initialize(); sameCodeInBothClasses(); List<Node> nodes = getChildrenByName(n, "somename"); for(Node n:nodes){ method(); actionA(); somethings.add(new Something(actionB()); } return somethings; } methods sameCodeInBothClasses() are same in all classes but where it differs is what hapens in for loop actionA() and it also adds an element to the List of different type. Should I use Strategy pattern for the different parts inside loop? What about the return value (The type of list differs), should the method return just List<Object> that I would then cast to appropriate type? Should I pass the class I want to return as parameter?

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serializing type definitions?

- by Dave

I'm not positive I'm going about this the right way. I've got a suite of applications that have varying types of output (custom defined types). For example, I might have a type called Widget: Class Widget Public name as String End Class Throughout the course of operation, when a user experiences a certain condition, the application will take that output instance of widget that user received, serialize it, and log it to the database noting the name of the type. Now, I have other applications that do something similar, but instead of dealing with Widget, it could be some totally random other type with different attributes, but again I serialize the instance, log it to the db, and note the name of the type. I have maybe a half dozen different types and don't anticipate too many additional ones in the future. After all this is said and done, I have an admin interface that looks through these logs, and has the ability for the user to view the contents of this data thats been logged. The Admin app has a reference to all the types involved, and with some basic switch case logic hinged upon the name of the type, will cast it into their original types, and pass it on to some handlers that have basic display logic to spit the data back out in a readable format (one display handler for each type) NOW... all this is well and good... Until one day, my model changed. The Widget class now has deprecated the name attribute and added on a bunch of other attributes. I will of course get type mismatches in the admin side when I try to reconstitute this data. I was wondering if there was some way, at runtime, i could perhaps reflect through my code and get a snapshot of the type definition at that precise moment, serialize it, and store it along with the data so that I could somehow use this to reconstitute it in the future?

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What's slowing for loops/assignment vs. C?

- by Lee

I have a collection of PHP scripts that are extremely CPU intensive, juggling millions of calculations across hundreds of simultaneous users. I'm trying to find a way to speed up the internals of PHP variable assignment, and looping sequences vs C. Although PHP is obviously loosely typed, is there any way/extension to specifically assign type (assign, not cast, which seems even more expensive) in a C-style fashion? Here's what I mean. This is some dummy code in C: #include <stdio.h> int main() { unsigned long add=0; for(unsigned long x=0;x<100000000;x++) { add = x*59328409238; } printf("x is %ld\n",add); } Pretty self-explanatory -- it loops 100 million times, multiples each iteration by an arbitrary number of some 59 billion, assigns it to a variable and prints it out. On my Macbook, compiling it and running it produced: lees-macbook-pro:Desktop lee$ time ./test2 x is 5932840864471590762 real 0m0.266s user 0m0.253s sys 0m0.002s Pretty darn fast! A similar script in PHP 5.3 CLI... <?php for($i=0;$i<100000000;$i++){ $a=$i*59328409238; } echo $a."\n"; ?> ... produced: lees-macbook-pro:Desktop lee$ time /Applications/XAMPP/xamppfiles/bin/php test3.php 5.93284086447E+18 real 0m22.837s user 0m22.110s sys 0m0.078s Over 22 seconds vs 0.2! I realize PHP is doing a heck of a lot more behind the scenes than this simple C program - but is there any way to make the PHP internals to behave more 'natively' on primitive types and loops?

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ASP MVC2 model binding issue on POST

- by Brandon Linton

So I'm looking at moving from MVC 1.0 to MVC 2.0 RTM. One of the conventions I'd like to start following is using the strongly-typed HTML helpers for generating controls like text boxes. However, it looks like it won't be an easy jump. I tried migrating my first form, replacing lines like this: <%= Html.TextBox("FirstName", Model.Data.FirstName, new {maxlength = 30}) %> ...for lines like this: <%= Html.TextBoxFor(x => x.Data.FirstName, new {maxlength = 30}) %> Previously, this would map into its appropriate view model on a POST, using the following method signature: [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] public ActionResult Registration(AccountViewInfo viewInfo) Instead, it currently gets an empty object back. I believe the disconnect is in the fact that we pass the view model into a larger aggregate object that has some page metadata and other fun stuff along with it (hence x.Data.FirstName instead of x.FirstName). So my question is: what is the best way to use the strongly-typed helpers while still allowing the MVC framework to appropriately cast the form collection to my view-model as it does in the original line? Is there any way to do it without changing the aggregate type we pass to the view? Thanks!

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Creating Array of settings names and values using ADO.NET Entities

- by jordan.baucke

I'm using an ADO.NET Entities (.edmx) data-model along with MVC2 to build an application. I have a DB table where I want to store settings for method that run elsewhere. MVC2 allows me to create a view, editor, etc. to update this table which is great, but now when I want to do simple assignments based on column titles I'm a bit confused. For example, I would like to easily build an array that I could offset into the record's value based on it's "Title" Column: var entities = new ManagerEntities(); Setting[] settings = entities.settings.ToArray(); This returns something like: Settings[0].[SettingTitle][SettingValue] However, I would like to more easily index into the value than having to loop through all the returned settings, when they're already index. string URL_ID_NEED = [NeededUrl][http://www.url.com] Am I missing something relatively simple? Thanks! ========================= *Update* ========================= Ok, I think I've got a solution, but I'm wondering why this would be so complicated, and if I'm just not thinking of the right context for ADO.NET objects, here's what I did: public string GetSetting(string SettingName) { var entities = new LabelManagerEntities(); IEnumerable<KeyValuePair<string, object>> entityKeyValues = new KeyValuePair<string, object>[] { new KeyValuePair<string, object>("SettingTitle", SettingName) }; EntityKey key = new EntityKey("LabelManagerEntities.Settings", entityKeyValues); // Get the object from the context or the persisted store by its key. Setting settingvalue = (Setting)entities.GetObjectByKey(key); return settingvalue.SettingValue.ToString(); } This method handles the job of querying the Entities by "Key" to get back the correct value as a returned string (which I can than strip out the " ", or or cast to an integer, etc. etc.,) Am I just duplicating functionality that already exists in ADO.NET's design patterns (I'm pretty new to it) -- or is this a reasonable solution?

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Ruby String accent error: More than meet the eyes

- by Fabiano PS

I'm having a real trouble to get accents right, and I believe this may happen to most Latin languages, in my case, portuguese I have a string that come as parameter and I must get the first letter and upcase it! That should be trivial in ruby, but here is the catch: s1 = 'alow'; s1.size #=> 4 s2 = 'álow'; s2.size #=> 5 s1[0,1] #=> "a" s2[0,1] #=> "\303" s1[0,1].upcase #=> 'A' s2[0,1].upcase #=> '\303' !!! s1[0,1].upcase + s1[1,100] #=> "Alow" OK s2[0,1].upcase + s2[1,100] #=> "álow" NOT OK I'd like to make it generic, Any help? [EDIT] I found that Rails Strings can be cast to Multibytes as seen in class ../active_support/core_ext/string/multibyte.rb, just using: s2.mb_chars[0,1].upcase.to_s #=> "Á" Still, @nsdk approach is easier to use =)

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Character set issues with Oracle Gateways, SQL Server, and Application Express

- by Brian Deterling

I am migrating data from a Oracle on VMS that accesses data on SQL Server using heterogeneous services (over ODBC) to Oracle on AIX accessing the SQL Server via Oracle Gateways (dg4msql). The Oracle VMS database used the WE8ISO8859P1 character set. The AIX database uses WE8MSWIN1252. The SQL Server database uses "Latin1-General, case-insensitive, accent-sensitive, kanatype-insensitive, width-insensitive for Unicode Data, SQL Server Sort Order 52 on Code Page 1252 for non-Unicode Data" according to sp_helpsort. The SQL Server databases uses nchar/nvarchar or all string columns. In Application Express, extra characters are appearing in some cases, for example 123 shows up as %001%002%003. In sqlplus, things look ok but if I use Oracle functions like initcap, I see what appear as spaces between each letter of a string when I query the sql server database (using a database link). This did not occur under the old configuration. I'm assuming the issue is that an nchar has extra bytes in it and the character set in Oracle can't convert it. It appears that the ODBC solution didn't support nchars so must have just cast them back to char and they showed up ok. I only need to view the sql server data so I'm open to any solution such as casting, but I haven't found anything that works. Any ideas on how to deal with this? Should I be using a different character set in Oracle and if so, does that apply to all schemas since I only care about one of them.

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