Search Results

Search found 7914 results on 317 pages for 'valid xhtml'.

Page 270/317 | < Previous Page | 266 267 268 269 270 271 272 273 274 275 276 277  | Next Page >

  • Initialize listitem with blanks?

    - by VBartilucci
    Say I have a list made up of a listitem which contains three strings. I add a new listitem, and try to assign the values of said strings from an outside source. If one of those items is unassigned, the value in the listitem remains as null (unassigned). As a result I get an error if I try to assign that value to a field on my page. I can do a check on isNullOrEmpty for each field on the page, but that seems inefficient. I'd rather initialize the values to "" (Empty string) in the codebehind and send valid data. I can do it manually: ClaimPwk emptyNode = new ClaimPwk(); emptyNode.cdeAttachmentControl = ""; emptyNode.cdeRptTransmission = ""; emptyNode.cdeRptType = ""; headerKeys.Add(emptyNode); But I have some BIG list items, and writing that for those will get tedious. So is there a command, or just plain an easier way to initialize a listitem to empty string as opposed to null? Or has anyone got a better idea?

    Read the article

  • Cookie blocked/not saved in IFRAME in Internet Explorer

    - by Piskvor
    I have two websites, let's say they're example.com and anotherexample.net. On anotherexample.net/page.html, I have an IFRAME SRC="http://example.com/someform.asp". That IFRAME displays a form for the user to fill out and submit to http://example.com/process.asp. When I open the form ("someform.asp") in its own browser window, all works well. However, when I load someform.asp as an IFRAME in IE 6 or IE 7, the cookies for example.com are not saved. In Firefox this problem doesn't appear. For testing purposes, I've created a similar setup on http://newmoon.wz.cz/test/page.php . example.com uses cookie-based sessions (and there's nothing I can do about that), so without cookies, process.asp won't execute. How do I force IE to save those cookies? Results of sniffing the HTTP traffic: on GET /someform.asp response, there's a valid per-session Set-Cookie header (e.g. Set-Cookie: ASPKSJIUIUGF=JKHJUHVGFYTTYFY), but on POST /process.asp request, there is no Cookie header at all. Edit3: some AJAX+serverside scripting is apparently capable to sidestep the problem, but that looks very much like a bug, plus it opens a whole new set of security holes. I don't want my applications to use a combination of bug+security hole just because it's easy. Edit: the P3P policy was the root cause, full explanation below.

    Read the article

  • MySQL SELECT Statement not working when executed from PHP

    - by Andrew K
    Hello all, I have the following piece of code, executing a pretty simple MySQL query: $netnestquery = 'SELECT (`nested`+1) AS `nest` FROM `ipspace6` WHERE `id`<='.$adaddr.' AND `subnet`<='.$postmask.' AND `type`="net" AND `addr` NOT IN(SELECT `id` FROM `ipspace6` WHERE `addr`<'.$adaddr.' AND `type`="broadcast") ORDER BY `id`,`subnet` DESC LIMIT 1'; $netnestresults = mysql_query($netnestquery); $netnestrow = mysql_fetch_array($netnestresults); $nestlvl = $netnestrow['nest']; echo '<br> NESTQ: '.$netnestquery; Now, when I execute this in PHP, I get no results; an empty query. However, when I copy and paste the query echoed by my code (for debug purposes) into the mysql command line, I get a valid result: mysql> SELECT (`nested` + 1) AS `nest` FROM `ipspace6` WHERE `id`<=50552019054038629283648959286463168512 AND `subnet`<=36 AND `type`='net' AND `addr` NOT IN (SELECT `id` FROM `ipspace6` WHERE `addr`<50552019054038629283648959286463168512 AND `type`='broadcast') ORDER BY `id`,`subnet` DESC LIMIT 1; +------+ | nest | +------+ | 1 | +------+ 1 row in set (0.00 sec) Can anybody tell me what I'm doing wrong? I can't put quotes around my variables, as then MySQL will try to evaluate the variable as a string, when it is, in fact, a very large decimal. I think I might just be making a stupid mistake somewhere, but I can't tell where.

    Read the article

  • Is Google Mock a good mocking framework ?

    - by des4maisons
    I am pioneering unit testing efforts at my company, and need need to choose a mocking framework to use. I have never used a mocking framework before. We have already chosen Google Test, so using Google Mock would be nice. However, my initial impressions after looking at Google Mock's tutorial are: The need for re-declaring each method in the mocking class with a MOCK_METHODn macro seems unnecessary and seems to go against the DRY principle. Their matchers (eg, the '_' in EXPECT_CALL(turtle, Forward(_));) and the order of matching seem almost too powerful. Like, it would be easy to say something you don't mean, and miss bugs that way. I have high confidence in google's developers, and low confidence in my own ability to judge mocking frameworks, never having used them before. So my question is: Are these valid concerns? Or is there no better way to define a mock object, and are the matchers intuitive to use in practice? I would appreciate answers from anyone who has used Google Mock before, and comparisons to other C++ frameworks would be helpful.

    Read the article

  • mysql query using global variables

    - by Carlos
    I am trying run a query to active the users account. I am not sure if I am having problem with the query itself or if there's something else that I dont know about. here is the code: if($_SESSION['lastid']&&$_SESSION['random']) { $check= mysql_query('SELECT * FROM members WHERE id= "$_SESSION[lastid]" AND random = " $_SESSION[random]"'); $checknum = mysql_num_rows($check); //$checknum = mysql_query($check) or die("Error: ". mysql_error(). " with query ". $check); if($checknum != 0) // run query to activate the account { $acti= mysql_query('UPDATE members SET activation = "1" WHERE id= "$_SESSION[lastid]"'); die('Your account has been activated. You may now log in!'); }else{ echo('Invalid id or activation code.') . ' lastid: ' .$_SESSION['lastid'] . ' random: ' .$_SESSION['random'] ; // die ('Invalid id or activation code.'); } }else{ die('Could not either find id or random number!'); } this is the warning I am getting from mysql: Warning: mysql_num_rows(): supplied argument is not a valid MySQL result resource in /hermes/bosweb26b/b2501/servername/folder/file.php on line 30 but when I echo the variables out, I get the same values that are stored in the database.... Invalid id or activation code. lastid: 2 and random: 36308075 could someone please give me a hint? thank you.

    Read the article

  • Process xml-like log file queue

    - by Zsolt Botykai
    Hi all, first of all: I'm not a programmer, never was, although had learn a lot during my professional carreer as a support consultant. Now my task is to process - and create some statistics about a constantly written and rapidly growing XML like log file. It's not valid XML, because it does not have a proper <root> element, e.g. the log looks like this: <log itemdate="somedate"> <field id="0" /> ... </log> <log itemdate="somedate+1"> <field id="0" /> ... </log> <log itemdate="somedate+n"> <field id="0" /> ... </log> E.g. I have to count all the items with field id=0. But most of the solutions I had found (e.g. using XPath) reports an error about the garbage after the first closing </log>. Most probably I can use python (2.6, although I can compile 3.x as well), or some really old perl version (5.6.x), and recently compiled xmlstarlet which really looks promising - I was able to create the statistics for a certain period after copying the file, and pre- & appending the opening and closing root element. But this is a huge file and copying takes time as well. Isn't there a better solution? Thanks in advance!

    Read the article

  • merge my code with Ajax code>>> problem

    - by sandy
    I want to help me In the following link i found nice code in Ajax http://www.w3schools.com/php/php_ajax_livesearch.asp I want to link my code with the code you see in the link above and replace dropdown list How can I do it for I could not where is it change in code even my code work as Ajax ?? I wish .... I wish .... I wish any somebody can help me <?php include ("connect.php"); print_r($_POST['sector_list']); $member_id = intval($_POST['sector_list']); if($member_id == 0) { // Default choice was selected } else { $res = mysql_query("SELECT * FROM members WHERE MemberID = $member_id LIMIT 1"); if(mysql_num_rows($res) == 0) { // Not a valid member } else { // The member is in the database } } ?> <form method="POST" action=<?php echo $_SERVER["PHP_SELF"]; ?> > <input type="hidden" name="sector" value="sector_list"> <select name="sector_list[]" class="inputstandard" multiple="multiple"> <option size ="40" value="default">send to </option> <?php $result = mysql_query('SELECT * from members') or die(mysql_error()); while ($row = mysql_fetch_assoc($result)) { echo '<option value="' . $row['MemberName'] . '">' . $row['MemberName']. '</option>'; } ?> <input type ="submit" name ="go" value = "go" > </select> </form>

    Read the article

  • Dynamic evaluation of a table column within an insert before trigger

    - by Tim Garver
    HI All, I have 3 tables, main, types and linked. main has an id column and 32 type columns. types has id, type linked has id, main_id, type_id I want to create an insert before trigger on the main table. It needs to compare its 32 type columns to the values in the types table if the main table column has an 'X' for its value and insert the main_id and types_id into the linked table. i have done a lot of searching, and it looks like a prepared statement would be the way to go, but i wanted to ask the experts. The issue, is i dont want to write 32 IF statements, and even if i did, i need to query the types table to get the ID for that type, seems like a huge waist of resources. Ideally i want to do this inside of my trigger: BEGIN DECLARE @types results_set -- (not sure if this is a valid type); -- (iam sure my loop syntax is all wrong here)... SET @types = (select * from types) for i=0;i<types.records;i++ { IF NEW.[i.type] = 'X' THEN insert into linked (main_id,type_id) values (new.ID, i.id); END IF; } END; Anyway, This is what i was hoping to do, maybe there is a way to dynamically set the field name inside of a results loop, but i cant find a good example of this. Thanks in advance Tim

    Read the article

  • Semi-generic function

    - by Fredrik Ullner
    I have a bunch of overloaded functions that operate on certain data types such as int, double and strings. Most of these functions perform the same action, where only a specific set of data types are allowed. That means I cannot create a simple generic template function as I lose type safety (and potentially incurring a run-time problem for validation within the function). Is it possible to create a "semi-generic compile time type safe function"? If so, how? If not, is this something that will come up in C++0x? An (non-valid) idea; template <typename T, restrict: int, std::string > void foo(T bar); ... foo((int)0); // OK foo((std::string)"foobar"); // OK foo((double)0.0); // Compile Error Note: I realize I could create a class that has overloaded constructors and assignment operators and pass a variable of that class instead to the function.

    Read the article

  • ignoring elements order in xml validation against xsd

    - by segolas
    Hi, Ia processing an email and saving some header inside a xml document. I also need to validate the document against a xml schema. As the subject suggest, I need to validate ignoring the elements order but, as far as I read this seems to be impossible. Am I correct? If I put the headers in a<xsd:sequence>, the order obviously matter. If I us the order is ignored but for some strange reason this imply that the elements must occur at least once. My xml is something like this: <headers> <subject>bla bla bla</subject> <recipient>[email protected]</recipient> <recipient>rcp02domain.com</recipient> <recipient>[email protected]</recipient> </headers> but I think the final document is valid even if subject and recipient elements are swapped. There is really nothing to do?

    Read the article

  • wordpress php > div issue

    - by Philip Bateman
    Thanks in advance for you help Ive been doing this as a lovejob for friends and now im getting quotes of several hundred dollars for minor homepage variation and I'm not sure if its valid. I'm not a programmer myself, just trying hard :) Via the CafePress press75 theme, I'm trying to go from 1 / 2 / 3 column home layout, to 1-2 merged and 3, push the 2nd column data to the right and have the 1st column span as a 16:9 gallery (nextgengallery plugin installed). Is this really a complex thing from a coding perspective? The current guy talking to me is saying its going to cost $700 or 800 AUD to alter, which is rough when the template cost $85.. From this http://shocolate.com.au.previewdns.com/wp-content/uploads/2010/05/shocolatecurrent.jpg to this 'url+Shocolatelooklikethis.jpg' I was able to get the sidebar removed by taking out ‘‘ near the bottom of home.css.. Just can’t get the middle data to flow over it? This would be ideal as a result, as the system puts the latest selected blog post on the homepage, so if we can get rid of the sidebar div and have the text appear where it was, that would be ideal. Removing the sidebar from the bottom of home.php and setting the thumbnail width to say 450 gives me the result im after EXCEPT the text doesn’t fill where the sidebar is, it wraps underneath. Reference 'shocolate.com.au.previewdns.com' for current site Thank you!!! Phil (Melbourne)

    Read the article

  • Getting ellipses function parameters without an initial argument

    - by Tox1k
    So I've been making a custom parser for a scripting language, and I wanted to be able to pass only ellipses arguments. I don't need or want an initial variable, however Microsoft and C seem to want something else. FYI, see bottom for info. I've looked at the va_* definitions #define _crt_va_start(ap,v) ( ap = (va_list)_ADDRESSOF(v) + _INTSIZEOF(v) ) #define _crt_va_arg(ap,t) ( *(t *)((ap += _INTSIZEOF(t)) - _INTSIZEOF(t)) ) #define _crt_va_end(ap) ( ap = (va_list)0 ) and the part I don't want is the v in va_start. As a little background I'm competent in goasm and I know how the stack works so I know what's happening here. I was wondering if there is a way to get the function stack base without having to use inline assembly. Ideas I've had: #define im_va_start(ap) (__asm { mov [ap], ebp }) and etc... but really I feel like that's messy and I'm doing it wrong. struct function_table { const char* fname; (void)(*fptr)(...); unsigned char maxArgs; }; function_table mytable[] = { { "MessageBox", &tMessageBoxA, 4 } }; ... some function that sorts through a const char* passed to it to find the matching function in mytable and calls tMessageBoxA with the params. Also, the maxArgs argument is just so I can check that a valid number of parameters is being sent. I have personal reasons for not wanting to send it in the function, but in the meantime we can just say it's because I'm curious. This is just an example; custom libraries are what I would be implementing so it wouldn't just be calling WinAPI stuff. void tMessageBoxA(...) { // stuff to load args passed MessageBoxA(arg1, arg2, arg3, arg4); } I'm using the __cdecl calling convention and I've looked up ways to reliably get a pointer to the base of the stack (not the top) but I can't seem to find any. Also, I'm not worried about function security or typechecking.

    Read the article

  • JSF 2 - clearing component attributes on page load?

    - by jamiebarrow
    Hi, The real question: Is there a way to clear certain attributes for all components on an initial page load? Background info: In my application, I have a JSF 2.0 frontend layer that speaks to a service layer (the service layer is made up of Spring beans that get injected to the managed beans). The service layer does its own validation, and I do the same validation in the frontend layer using my own validator classes to try and avoid code duplication somehow. These validator classes aren't JSF validators, they're just POJOs. I'm only doing validation on an action, so in the action method, I perform validation, and only if it's valid do I call through to the service layer. When I do my validation, I set the styleClass and title on the UIComponents using reflection (so if the UIComponent has the setStyleClass(:String) or setTitle(:String) methods, then I use them). This works nicely, and on a validation error I see a nicely styled text box with a popup containing the error message if I hover over it. However, since the component is bound to a Session Scoped Managed Bean, it seems that these attributes stick. So if I navigate away and come back to the same page, the styleClass and title are still in the error state. Is there a way to clear the styleClass and title attributes on each initial page load? Thanks, James P.S. I'm using the action method to validate because of some issues I had before with JSF 1.2 and it's validation methods, but can't remember why... so that's why I'm using the action method to validate.

    Read the article

  • MongoDB C# - Hide property from serializer

    - by ehftwelve
    This is what my user model looks like: namespace Api.Models { public class User { [BsonId(IdGenerator = typeof(StringObjectIdGenerator))] [BsonRequired] public string Id { get; set; } [Required(ErrorMessage = "Username is required.")] [StringLength(20, MinimumLength=3, ErrorMessage="Username must be between 3 and 20 characters.")] [BsonRequired] public string Username { get; set; } [Required(ErrorMessage="Email is required.")] [EmailAddress(ErrorMessage="Valid email required.")] [BsonRequired] public string Email { get; set; } [Required(ErrorMessage = "Password is required.")] [StringLength(50, MinimumLength=8, ErrorMessage="Password must be between 8 and 50 characters.")] [BsonRequired] public string Password { get; set; } [BsonRequired] public string Salt { get; set; } } } I want to write, and require, all of the properties into the MongoDB Database. What I don't want to do, is expose the Password and Salt properties when I send this through the request. Is there any sort of data attribute that I can set that will write it, but not expose it when displayed to any API user?

    Read the article

  • C# - Bug in Code Logic

    - by Matthew
    I have some code which keeps track of the number of times a button has been clicked. As a matter of fact, when the page first loads, a counter is set to 0. On every postback, the counter is incremented by 1. I have only one button on the page. The main idea behind this is to allow the user to enter some details 4 times. If he enters invalid details for 4 times, he is redirected to an error page. Otherwise, he is redirected to a confirmation page. This is my code: if (!this.IsPostBack) { Session["Count"] = 0; } else { if (Session["Count"] == null) { Session.Abandon(); Response.Redirect("CheckOutErrorPage.htm"); } else { int count = (int)Session["Count"]; if (count == 3) { Session.Abandon(); Response.Redirect("CheckOutFailure.aspx"); } else { count++; Session["Count"] = count; } } } Everything works as it should except that if the user enter invalid details for 3 times and then he enters VALID details on the 4th time, the user is redirected to the Error Page (because he has tried 4 times) instead of the confirmation page. How can I solve this please?

    Read the article

  • Incorrect syntax inserting data into table

    - by SelectDistinct
    I am having some trouble with my update() method. The idea is that the user Provides a recipe name, ingredients, instructions and then selects an image using Filestream. Once the user clicks 'Add Recipe' this will call the update method, however as things stand I am getting an error which is mentioning the contents of the text box: Here is the update() method code: private void updatedata() { // filesteam object to read the image // full length of image to a byte array try { // try to see if the image has a valid path if (imagename != "") { FileStream fs; fs = new FileStream(@imagename, FileMode.Open, FileAccess.Read); // a byte array to read the image byte[] picbyte = new byte[fs.Length]; fs.Read(picbyte, 0, System.Convert.ToInt32(fs.Length)); fs.Close(); //open the database using odp.net and insert the lines string connstr = @"Server=mypcname\SQLEXPRESS;Database=RecipeOrganiser;Trusted_Connection=True"; SqlConnection conn = new SqlConnection(connstr); conn.Open(); string query; query = "insert into Recipes(RecipeName,RecipeImage,RecipeIngredients,RecipeInstructions) values (" + textBox1.Text + "," + " @pic" + "," + textBox2.Text + "," + textBox3.Text + ")"; SqlParameter picparameter = new SqlParameter(); picparameter.SqlDbType = SqlDbType.Image; picparameter.ParameterName = "pic"; picparameter.Value = picbyte; SqlCommand cmd = new SqlCommand(query, conn); cmd.Parameters.Add(picparameter); cmd.ExecuteNonQuery(); MessageBox.Show("Image successfully saved"); cmd.Dispose(); conn.Close(); conn.Dispose(); Connection(); } } catch (Exception ex) { MessageBox.Show(ex.Message); } } Can anyone see where I have gone wrong with the insert into Recipes query or suggest an alternative approach to this part of the code?

    Read the article

  • jQuery Form Validation being bypassed

    - by user1953681
    Can someone tell me what is wrong with my jQuery validation? It is not validating my form, rather, just ignoring the code resulting in no check of the inputs. Form: <form class="form" accept-charset="UTF-8" action="URL-to-complete-form" method="POST" onsubmit="return validateForm();"> <input class="form-name" type="text" placeholder="Name"></div> <input class="form-email" type="text"placeholder="Email"></div> <input style="background-color: #fc8f12;" type="submit" value="Subscribe"> </div> </form> Javascript: function validateForm() { // Validate Name var title = $(".form-name").val(); if (title=="" ||title=="Name" || title==null) { } else { alert("Please enter a name!"); } // Validate Email var email = $(".form-email").val(); if ((/(.+)@(.+){2,}\.(.+){2,}/.test(email)) || email=="" || email=="Email" || email==null) { } else { alert("Please enter a valid email"); } return false; } Thank you all for your time and help.

    Read the article

  • Inserting default "admin" user into database during Rails App startup

    - by gbc
    I'm building my first real rails application for a little in-house task. Most of the application tasks require authentication/authorization. The first time the app starts up (or starts with a wiped db), I'd like the process to be: User logs into the admin panel using "admin" & "admin" for authentication info. User navigates to admin credentials editing page and changes name and password to something safer so that "admin" & "admin" is no longer a valid login. To achieve this result, I'd like to stuff a default username & password combination into the database on if the application starts up and detects that there are no user credentials in the 'users' table. For example: if User.count == 0 User.create(:name => "admin", :password => "admin") end However, I'm unsure where to place that code. I tried adding an initializer script in the config/initializers, but the error I received appeared to indicate that the model classes weren't yet loaded into the application. So I'm curious to know at what point I can hook into the application startup cycle and insert data into the database through ActiveRecord before requests are dispatched.

    Read the article

  • Does not contain a definition

    - by JB
    public void button2_Click(object sender, System.EventArgs e) { string text = textBox1.Text; Mainform = this; this.Hide(); GetSchedule myScheduleFinder = new GetSchedule(); string result = myScheduleFinder.GetDataFromNumber(text);// says there is no definition if (!string.IsNullOrEmpty(result)) { MessageBox.Show(result); } else { MessageBox.Show("Enter A Valid ID Number!"); } } says it does not contain definition for it but on my GetSchedule .cs file i have it defined public string GetDataFromNumber(string ID)//defined here { foreach (IDnumber IDCandidateMatch in IDnumbers) { if (IDCandidateMatch.ID == ID) { StringBuilder myData = new StringBuilder(); myData.AppendLine(IDCandidateMatch.Name); myData.AppendLine(": "); myData.AppendLine(IDCandidateMatch.ID); myData.AppendLine(IDCandidateMatch.year); myData.AppendLine(IDCandidateMatch.class1); myData.AppendLine(IDCandidateMatch.class2); myData.AppendLine(IDCandidateMatch.class3); myData.AppendLine(IDCandidateMatch.class4); //return myData; return myData.ToString(); } } return ""; } } } }

    Read the article

  • XSD: Different sub-elements depending on attribute/element value

    - by AndiDog
    Another XSD question - how can I achieve that the following XML elements are both valid: <some-element> <type>1</type> <a>...</a> </some-element> <some-element> <type>2</type> <b>...</b> </some-element> The sub-elements (either <a> or <b>) should depend on the content of <type> (could also be an attribute). It would be so simple in RelaxNG - but RelaxNG doesn't support key integrity :( Is there a way to implement this in XSD? Note: XML schema version 1.1 supports <xs:alternative>, which might be a solution, but afaik no reference implementation (e.g. libxml2) supports this yet. So I'm searching for workarounds. The only way I've come up with is: <type>1</type> <some-element type="1"> <!-- simple <xs:choice> between <a> and <b> goes here --> <a>...</a> </some-element> <!-- and now create a keyref between <type> and @type -->

    Read the article

  • How to transform a production to LL(1) grammar for a list separated by a semicolon?

    - by Subb
    Hi, I'm reading this introductory book on parsing (which is pretty good btw) and one of the exercice is to "build a parser for your favorite language." Since I don't want to die today, I thought I could do a parser for something relatively simple, ie a simplified CSS. Note: This book teach you how to right a LL(1) parser using the recursive-descent algorithm. So, as a sub-exercice, I am building the grammar from what I know of CSS. But I'm stuck on a production that I can't transform in LL(1) : //EBNF block = "{", declaration, {";", declaration}, [";"], "}" //BNF <block> =:: "{" <declaration> "}" <declaration> =:: <single-declaration> <opt-end> | <single-declaration> ";" <declaration> <opt-end> =:: "" | ";" This describe a CSS block. Valid block can have the form : { property : value } { property : value; } { property : value; property : value } { property : value; property : value; } ... The problem is with the optional ";" at the end, because it overlap with the starting character of {";", declaration}, so when my parser meet a semicolon in this context, it doesn't know what to do. The book talk about this problem, but in its example, the semicolon is obligatory, so the rule can be modified like this : block = "{", declaration, ";", {declaration, ";"}, "}" So, Is it possible to achieve what I'm trying to do using a LL(1) parser?

    Read the article

  • larger file upload problem with php

    - by chris
    I need to upload a csv file to a server. works fine for smaller files but when the file is 3-6 meg its not working. $allowedExtensions = array("csv"); foreach ($_FILES as $file) { if ($file['tmp_name'] > '') { if (!in_array(end(explode(".", strtolower($file['name']))), $allowedExtensions)) { die($file['name'].' is an invalid file type!<br/>'. '<a href="javascript:history.go(-1);">'. '&lt;&lt Go Back</a>'); } if (move_uploaded_file($file['tmp_name'], $uploadfile)) { echo "File is valid, and was successfully uploaded.\n"; } else { echo "Possible file upload attack!\n"; } echo "File has been uploaded"; } //upload form <form name="upload" enctype="multipart/form-data" action="<? echo $_SERVER['php_self'];?>?action=upload_process" method="POST"> <!-- MAX_FILE_SIZE must precede the file input field --> <input type="hidden" name="MAX_FILE_SIZE" value="31457280" /> <!-- Name of input element determines name in $_FILES array --> Send this file: <input name="userfile" type="file" /> <input type="submit" value="Send File" /> </form> I have also added this to htaccess php_value upload_max_filesize 20M php_value post_max_size 20M php_value max_execution_time 200 php_value max_input_time 200 Where am i going wrong?

    Read the article

  • WCF Multiple contracts with duplicate method names

    - by haxelit
    Hello, I have a service with multiple contracts like so. [ServiceContract] public partial interface IBusinessFunctionDAO { [OperationContract] BusinessFunction GetBusinessFunction(Int32 businessFunctionRefID); [OperationContract] IEnumerable<Project> GetProjects(Int32 businessFunctionRefID); } [ServiceContract] public partial interface IBusinessUnitDAO { [OperationContract] BusinessUnit GetBusinessUnit(Int32 businessUnitRefID); [OperationContract] IEnumerable<Project> GetProjects(Int32 businessUnitRefID); } I then explicitly implemented each one of the interfaces like so. public class TrackingTool : IBusinessFunctionDAO, IBusinessUnitDAO { BusinessFunction IBusinessFunctionDAO.GetBusinessFunction(Int32 businessFunctionRefID) { // implementation } IEnumerable<Project> IBusinessFunctionDAO.GetProjects(Int32 businessFunctionRefID) { // implementation } BusinessUnit IBusinessUnitDAO.GetBusinessUnit(Int32 businessUnitRefID) { // implementation } IEnumerable<Project> IBusinessUnitDAO.GetProjects(Int32 businessUnitRefID) { // implementation } } As you can see I have two GetProjects(int) methods, but each one is implemented explicitly so this compiles just fine and is perfectly valid. The problem arises when I actually start this as a service. It gives me an error staying that TrackingTool already contains a definition GetProject. While it is true, it is part of a different service contract. Does WCF not distinguish between service contracts when generating the method names ? Is there a way to get it to distinguish between the service contracts ? My App.Config looks like this <service name="TrackingTool"> <endpoint address="BusinessUnit" contract="IBusinessUnitDAO" /> <endpoint address="BusinessFunction" contract="IBusinessFunctionDAO" /> </service> Any help would be appreciated. Thanks, Raul

    Read the article

  • Glassfish 3: How do I get and use a developers build so I can navigate a stack trace including Glas

    - by Thorbjørn Ravn Andersen
    I am migrating a JSF 1.1 application to JEE 6 Web profile, and doing it in steps. I am in the process of moving from JSP with JSF 1.1 to Facelets under JSF 1.2 using the jsf-facelets.jar for JSF 1.2, and received an "interesting" stack trace when trying to lookup a key in a Map using a "{Bean.foo.map.key}" where the stacktrace complained about "key" not being a valid integer. (After code introspection I am workarounding it using a number as the key). That bug is not what this question is about. In such a situation it is essential to be able to navigate the source of every line in the stack trace. In Eclipse I normally attach a source jar to every jar on the build path, but in this particular case the Glassfish server adapter creates a library automatically containing the jars. Also there is to my knowledge no debug build of Glassfish where sources are included in the bundle. Glassfish is a non-trivial Maven project, and a bit picky too. I am not very familiar with maven, but have managed to checkout the code from Subversion and build it for the 3.0 tag according to http://wiki.glassfish.java.net/Wiki.jsp?page=V3FullBuildInstructions#section-V3FullBuildInstructions-CheckoutTheWorkspace - it appears to be the code corresponding to the official released 3.0 version. After finishing the "mvn -U install" part, I have then tried to create Eclipse projects by first using "mvn -DdownloadSources=true eclipse:eclipse" and then import them in Eclipse JEE 3.5.2 and specifying the M2_REPO variable but many of the projects still have compilation errors, and I cannot locate any instructions from Oracle about how to do this. I'd appreciate some help in just getting a functional IDE workspace reflecting the 3.0 version of Glassfish. I have Eclipse 3.5.2, Netbeans 6.8 and 6.9 beta, and IntelliJ IDEA 9, and Linux/Windows/OS X do do it on.

    Read the article

  • Getting list of Facebook friends with latest API

    - by Eric
    I'm using the most recent version of the Facebook SDK (which lets to connect to something called the 'graph API' though I'm not sure). I've adapted Facebook's example code to let me connect to Facebook and that works... but I can't get a list of my friends. $friends = $facebook->api('friends.get'); This produces the error message: "Fatal error: Uncaught OAuthException: (#803) Some of the aliases you requested do not exist: friends.get thrown in /mycode/facebook.php on line 543" No clue why that is or what that means. Can someone tell me the right syntax (for the latest Facebook API) to get a list of friends? (I tried "$friends = $facebook-api-friends_get();" and get a different error, "Fatal error: Call to a member function friends_get() on a non-object in /mycode/example.php on line 129".) I can confirm that BEFORE this point in my code, things are fine: I'm connected to Facebook with a valid session and I can get my info and dump it to the screen just... i.e. this code executes perfectly before the failed friends.get call: $session = $facebook->getSession(); if ($session) { $uid = $facebook->getUser(); $me = $facebook->api('/me'); } print_r($me);

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 266 267 268 269 270 271 272 273 274 275 276 277  | Next Page >