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  • Number of simple mutations to change one string to another?

    - by mstksg
    Hi; I'm sure you've all heard of the "Word game", where you try to change one word to another by changing one letter at a time, and only going through valid English words. I'm trying to implement an A* Algorithm to solve it (just to flesh out my understanding of A*) and one of the things that is needed is a minimum-distance heuristic. That is, the minimum number of one of these three mutations that can turn an arbitrary string a into another string b: 1) Change one letter for another 2) Add one letter at a spot before or after any letter 3) Remove any letter Examples aabca => abaca: aabca abca abaca = 2 abcdebf => bgabf: abcdebf bcdebf bcdbf bgdbf bgabf = 4 I've tried many algorithms out; I can't seem to find one that gives the actual answer every time. In fact, sometimes I'm not sure if even my human reasoning is finding the best answer. Does anyone know any algorithm for such purpose? Or maybe can help me find one? Thanks.

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  • Combining the jquery Calendar picker with the jquery validation and getting them to play nice?

    - by MBonig
    I'm just starting to get into jquery/javascript programming so this may be a beginner question but I sure can't seem to find anything about it. I have a text field on a form. I've used the JQuery UI Calendar picker to make data entry better. I've also added jquery validation to ensure that if the user enters the date by hand that it's still valid. Here is the html: <input class="datepicker" id="Log_ServiceStartTime_date" name="Log_ServiceStartTime_date" type="text" value="3/16/2010"></input> and javascript: $('form').validate(); $('#Log_ServiceStartTime_date').rules('add','required'); $('#Log_ServiceStartTime_date').rules('add','date'); the problem I'm having is this: If a user puts in a bad date, or no date at all, the validation correctly kicks in and the error description displays. However, if the user clicks on the textbox to bring up the calendar picker and selects a date, the date fills into the field but the validation does not go away. If the user clicks into the textbox and then back out, the validation correctly goes away. How can I get the calendar picker to kick off the validation routine once a date is selected? thanks

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  • Prolog Beginner: How to unify with arithmentic comparison operators or how to get a set var to range

    - by sixtyfootersdude
    I am new to prolog. I need to write an integer adder that will add numbers between 0-9 to other numbers 0-9 and produce a solution 0-18. This is what I want to do: % sudo code add(in1, in2, out) :- in1 < 10, in2 < 10, out < 18. I would like to be able to call it like this: To Check if it is a valid addition: ?- add(1,2,3). true ?- add(1,2,4). false With one missing variable: ?- add(X,2,3). 1 ?- add(1,4,X). 5 With multiple missing variables: ?-add(X,Y,Z). % Some output that would make sense. Some examples could be: X=1, Y=1, Z=2 ; X=2, Y=1, Z=3 ...... I realize that this is probably a pretty simplistic question and it is probably very straightforward. However cording to the prolog tutorial I am using: "Unlike unification Arithmetic Comparison Operators operators cannot be used to give values to a variable. The can only be evaluated when every term on each side have been instantiated."

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  • Is it safe to read regular expressions from a file?

    - by Zilk
    Assuming a Perl script that allows users to specify several text filter expressions in a config file, is there a safe way to let them enter regular expressions as well, without the possibility of unintended side effects or code execution? Without actually parsing the regexes and checking them for problematic constructs, that is. There won't be any substitution, only matching. As an aside, is there a way to test if the specified regex is valid before actually using it? I'd like to issue warnings if something like /foo (bar/ was entered. Thanks, Z. EDIT: Thanks for the very interesting answers. I've since found out that the following dangerous constructs will only be evaluated in regexes if the use re 'eval' pragma is used: (?{code}) (??{code}) ${code} @{code} The default is no re 'eval'; so unless I'm missing something, it should be safe to read regular expressions from a file, with the only check being the eval/catch posted by Axeman. At least I haven't been able to hide anything evil in them in my tests. Thanks again. Z.

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  • How does one restrict xml with an XML Schema?

    - by John
    Hello, I want to restrict xml with a schema to a specific set. I read this tutorial http://www.w3schools.com/schema/schema_facets.asp This seems to be what I want. So, I'm using Qt to validate this xml <car>BMW</car> Here is the pertinent source code. QXmlSchema schema; schema.load( QUrl("file:///workspace/QtExamples/ValidateXSD/car.xsd") ); if ( schema.isValid() ) { QXmlSchemaValidator validator( schema ); if ( validator.validate( QUrl("file:///workspace/QtExamples/ValidateXSD/car.xml") ) ) { qDebug() << "instance is valid"; } else { qDebug() << "instance is invalid"; } } else { qDebug() << "schema is invalid"; } I expected the xml to match the schema definition. Unexpectedly, QxmlSchemaValidator complains. Error XSDError in file:///workspace/QtExamples/ValidateXSD/car.xml, at line 1, column 5: Content of element car does not match its type definition: String content is not listed in the enumeration facet.. instance is invalid I suspect this is a braino. How does one restrict xml with an XML Schema? Thanks for your time and consideration. Sincerely, -john Here is the xsd from the tutorial. <xs:element name="car"> <xs:simpleType> <xs:restriction base="xs:string"> <xs:enumeration value="Audi"/> <xs:enumeration value="Golf"/> <xs:enumeration value="BMW"/> </xs:restriction> </xs:simpleType> </xs:element>

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  • Finding character in String in Vector.

    - by SoulBeaver
    Judging from the title, I kinda did my program in a fairly complicated way. BUT! I might as well ask anyway xD This is a simple program I did in response to question 3-3 of Accelerated C++, which is an awesome book in my opinion. I created a vector: vector<string> countEm; That accepts all valid strings. Therefore, I have a vector that contains elements of strings. Next, I created a function int toLowerWords( vector<string> &vec ) { for( int loop = 0; loop < vec.size(); loop++ ) transform( vec[loop].begin(), vec[loop].end(), vec[loop].begin(), ::tolower ); that splits the input into all lowercase characters for easier counting. So far, so good. I created a third and final function to actually count the words, and that's where I'm stuck. int counter( vector<string> &vec ) { for( int loop = 0; loop < vec.size(); loop++ ) for( int secLoop = 0; secLoop < vec[loop].size(); secLoop++ ) { if( vec[loop][secLoop] == ' ' ) That just looks ridiculous. Using a two-dimensional array to call on the characters of the vector until I find a space. Ridiculous. I don't believe that this is an elegant or even viable solution. If it was a viable solution, I would then backtrack from the space and copy all characters I've found in a separate vector and count those. My question then is. How can I dissect a vector of strings into separate words so that I can actually count them? I thought about using strchr, but it didn't give me any epiphanies.

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  • Spring 3 MVC validation BindingResult doesn't contain any errors

    - by Travelsized
    I'm attempting to get a Spring 3.0.2 WebMVC project running with the new annotated validation support. I have a Hibernate entity annotated like this: @Entity @Table(name = "client") public class Client implements Serializable { private static final long serialVersionUID = 1L; @Id @Basic(optional = false) @Column(name = "clientId", nullable = false) @NotEmpty private Integer clientId; @Basic(optional = false) @Column(name = "firstname", nullable = false, length = 45) @NotEmpty @Size(min=2, max=45) private String firstname; ... more fields, getters and setters } I've turned on mvc annotation support in my applicationContext.xml file: <mvc:annotation-driven /> And I have a method in my controller that responds to a form submission: @RequestMapping(value="/addClient.htm") public String addClient(@ModelAttribute("client") @Valid Client client, BindingResult result) { if(result.hasErrors()) { return "addClient"; } service.storeClient(client); return "clientResult"; } When my app loads in the server, I can see in the server log file that it loads a validator: 15 [http-8084-2] INFO org.hibernate.validator.util.Version - Hibernate Validator 4.0.2.GA The problem I'm having is that the validator doesn't seem to kick in. I turned on the debugger, and when I get into the controller method, the BindingResult contains 0 errors after I submit an empty form. (The BindingResult does show that it contains the Client object as a target.) It then proceeds to insert a record without an Id and throws an exception. If I fill out an Id but leave the name blank, it creates a record with the Id and empty fields. What steps am I missing to get the validation working?

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  • Can't use my form

    - by Alexandr
    I have class with my form in folder /application/forms/Auth.php it looks like class Form_Auth extends Zend_Form { public function __construct() { $this->setName(); parent::__construct(); $username = new Zend_Form_Element_Text('username'); $password = new Zend_Form_Element_Password('password'); $mail = new Zend_Form_Element_Text('mail'); $submit = new Zend_Form_Element_Submit('submit'); $this->addElements(array($username,$password,$mail,$submit)); } } When i try create object $this->view->form = new Form_Auth(); is see exeption Application error Exception information: Message: Invalid name provided; must contain only valid variable characters and be non-empty Stack trace: D:\WWW\zends\application\Forms\Auth.php(8): Zend_Form-setName() d:\WWW\zends\application\controllers\RegistrationController.php(49): Form_Auth-__construct() D:\WebServer\ZendFramework\ZendFramework\library\Zend\Controller\Action.php(513): RegistrationController-indexAction() D:\WebServer\ZendFramework\ZendFramework\library\Zend\Controller\Dispatcher\Standard.php(289): Zend_Controller_Action-dispatch('indexAction') D:\WebServer\ZendFramework\ZendFramework\library\Zend\Controller\Front.php(954): Zend_Controller_Dispatcher_Standard-dispatch(Object(Zend_Controller_Request_Http), Object(Zend_Controller_Response_Http)) D:\WebServer\ZendFramework\ZendFramework\library\Zend\Application\Bootstrap\Bootstrap.php(97): Zend_Controller_Front-dispatch() D:\WebServer\ZendFramework\ZendFramework\library\Zend\Application.php(366): Zend_Application_Bootstrap_Bootstrap-run() D:\WWW\zends\public\index.php(26): Zend_Application-run() {main} Request Parameters: array ( 'controller' = 'registration', 'action' = 'index', 'module' = 'default', ) the version zf is 1.10.3 what i do wrong ?

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  • How to build a simulation of a login hardware token in .Net

    - by Michel
    Hi, i have a hardware token for remote login to some citrix environment. When i click the button on the device, i get an id and i can use that to login to the citrix farm. I can click the button as much as i like, and every time a new code gets generated, and they all work. Now i want to secure my private website likewise, but not with the hardware token, but with a 'token app' on my phone. So i run an app on my phone, generate a key, and use that to (partly) authenticate myself on the server. But here's the point: i don't know how it works! How can i generate 1, 2 or 100 keys at one time which i can see (on the server) are all valid, but without the server and the phone app having contact (the hardware token also is an 'offline' solution). Can you help me with a hint how i would do this? This is what i thought of so far: the phone app and the server app know (hardcoded) the same encryption key. The phone app encrypts the current time. The server app decrypts the string to the current time and if the diff between that time and the actual server time is less than 10 minutes it's an ok. Difficult for other users to fake a key, but encryption gives such nasty strings to enter, and the hardware token gives me nice things like 'H554TU8' And this is probably not how the real hardware token works, because the server and the phone app must 'know' the same encryption key. Michel

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  • In a class with no virtual methods or superclass, is it safe to assume (address of first member vari

    - by Jeremy Friesner
    Hi all, I made a private API that assumes that the address of the first member-object in the class will be the same as the class's this-pointer... that way the member-object can trivially derive a pointer to the object that it is a member of, without having to store a pointer explicitly. Given that I am willing to make sure that the container class won't inherit from any superclass, won't have any virtual methods, and that the member-object that does this trick will be the first member object declared, will that assumption hold valid for any C++ compiler, or do I need to use the offsetof() operator (or similar) to guarantee correctness? To put it another way, the code below does what I expect under g++, but will it work everywhere? class MyContainer { public: MyContainer() {} ~MyContainer() {} // non-virtual dtor private: class MyContained { public: MyContained() {} ~MyContained() {} // Given that the only place Contained objects are declared is m_contained // (below), will this work as expected on any C++ compiler? MyContainer * GetPointerToMyContainer() { return reinterpret_cast<MyContainer *>(this); } }; MyContained m_contained; // MUST BE FIRST MEMBER ITEM DECLARED IN MyContainer int m_foo; // other member items may be declared after m_contained float m_bar; };

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  • jQuery.ajax() + empty JSON object = parse error

    - by roosteronacid
    I get a parse error when using jQuery to load some JSON data. Here's a snippet of my code: jQuery.ajax({ dataType: "json", success: function (json) { jQuery.each(json, function () { alert(this["columnName"]); }); } }); I get no errors when parsing a non-empty JSON object. So my guess is that the problem is with my serializer. Question is: how do I format an empty JSON object which jQuery won't consider malformed? This is what I've tried so far, with no success: {[]} {[null]} {} {null} {"rows": []} {"rows": null} {"rows": {}} UPDATE: I can understand that I've been somewhat vague--let me try and clarify: Parsing of the JSON object is not the issue here--JQuery is - I think. jQuery throws a parse-error (invokes the error function). It seems like jQuery's internal JSON validation is not accepting any of the before mentioned objects. Not even the valid ones. Output of the error function is: XMLHttpRequest: XMLHttpRequest readyState=4 status=200 textStatus: parsererror errorThrown: undefined This goes for all of the before mentioned objects.

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  • Need help with strange Class#getResource() issue

    - by Andreas_D
    I have some legacy code that reads a configuration file from an existing jar, like: URL url = SomeClass.class.getResource("/configuration.properties"); // some more code here using url variable InputStream in = url.openStream(); Obviously it worked before but when I execute this code, the URL is valid but I get an IOException on the third line, saying it can't find the file. The url is something like "file:jar:c:/path/to/jar/somejar.jar!configuration.properties" so it doesn't look like a classpath issue - java knows pretty well where the file can be found.. The above code is part of an ant task and it fails while the task is executed. Strange enough - I copied the code and the jar file into a separate class and it works as expected, the properties file is readable. At some point I changed the code of the ant task to URL url = SomeClass.class.getResource("/configuration.properties"); // some more code here using url variable InputStream in = SomeClass.class.getResourceAsStream("/configuration.properties"); and now it works - just until it crashes in another class where a similiar access pattern is implemented.. Why could it have worked before, why does it fail now? The only difference I see at the moment is, that the old build was done with java 1.4 while I'm trying it with Java 6 now. Workaround Today I installed Java 1.4.2_19 on the build server and made ant to use it. To my totally frustrating surprise: The problem is gone. It looks to me, that java 1.4.2 can handle URLs of this type while Java 1.6 can't (at least in my context/environment). I'm still hoping for an explanation although I'm facing the work to rewrite parts of the code to use Class#getRessourceAsStream which behaved much more stable...

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  • Migrate Data and Schema from MySQL to MSSQL

    - by colithium
    Are there any free solutions for automatically migrating a database from MySQL to MSSQL Server that "just works"? I've been attempting this simple (at least I thought so) task all day now. I've tried: MSSQL Server Management Studio's Import Data feature Create an empty database Tasks - Import Data... .NET Framework Data Provider for Odbc Valid DSN (verified it connects) Copy data from one or more tables or views Check 1 VERY simple table Click Preview Get Error: The preview data could not be retrieved. ADDITIONAL INFORMATION: ERROR [42000] [MySQL][ODBC 5.1 Driver][mysqld-5.1.45-community]You have an error in your SQL syntax; check the manual that corresponds to your MySQL server version for the right syntax to use near '"table_name"' at line 1 (myodbc5.dll) A similar error occurs if I go through the rest of the wizard and perform the operation. The failed step is "Setting Source Connection" the error refers to retrieving column information and then lists the above error. It can retrieve column information just fine when I modify column mappings so I really don't know what the issue is. I've also tried getting various MySql tools to output ddl statements that MSSQL understand but haven't succeeded. I've tried with MySQL v5.1.11 to SQL Server 2005 and with MySQL v5.1.45 to SQL Server 2008 (with ODBC drivers 3.51.27.00 and 5.01.06.00 respectively)

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  • WPF : Command routing for Keyboard shortcuts.

    - by Sprotty
    Basically I want to create a keyboard shortcut which is valid within the scope of a window, and not just enabled when focus is within the control that binds it. in more detail.... I have a window which has 3 controls a toolbar textbox Custom Control The toolbar has a button bound to the Command CustomCommands.CmdA and linked to 'Ctrl-T'. My Custom Control can process CmdA. When I run the app and click on my custom control CmdA is enabled and works fine. Also Ctrl-T cause the command to fire. However when I select the text box, my custom command CmdA becomes disabled. I can rectify this by setting the command target for CmdA's button. Now when I select the textBox, CmdA is still enabled. But the Keyboard shortcut Ctrl-T does nothing. Is there any easy way to change the scope of keyboard shortcuts? Or do I need to catch the keypress somewhere lower down, and work out which Command it relates to and route it myself (if so is there a framework within which to do this?) Many Thanks Simon

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  • Why is PHP discriminating between .php and .abc extensions for caching?

    - by Sam
    There seems to be a problem between how PHP engine handles identical files that differ only in their file extension. Problem: "An If-Modified-Since conditional request returned the full content unchanged." Also, I measured that the .php extension loads much faster than identitcal twin with .xxx extension even though the file contents are identical, and they differ only in their file extension. "HTTP allows clients to make conditional requests to see if a copy that they hold is still valid. Since this response has a Last-Modified header, clients should be able to use an If-Modified-Since request header for validation. RED has done this and found that the resource sends a full response even though it hadn't changed, indicating that it doesn't support Last-Modified validation." homepage ending with .php exact same file, but ending .ast Given: A home.php file is copied as home.xxx and this extension is added to htaccess to recognize it as a PHP file. The .php file listen to the php.ini where freshness is set to 3 hrs, the non .php files have to listen to htaccess where freshness is set to 2 hrs according to: AddType application/x-httpd-php .php .ast .abc .xxx .etc <IfModule mod_headers.c> ExpiresActive On ExpiresDefault M2419200 Header unset ETag FileETag None Header unset Pragma Header set Cache-Control "max-age=2419200" ##### DYNAMIC PAGES <FilesMatch "\\.(ast|php|abc|xxx)$"> ExpiresDefault M7200 Header set Cache-Control "public, max-age=7200" </FilesMatch> </IfModule> So far so good and everything loads, except, the non-php file doesn't cache properly, or it does cache well but doesn't validate well, to be more specific. See images enclosed. Only the non-php file extension causes the error and loads slower. The entire page.php loads faster as somehow all the elements in there then load properly from cache, while the page.abc has the full request returned while it ought to be cached, meaning the entire page is slower. Bottom line: What should be changed, in order eliminate the If-Modified-Since conditional request returning the full content unchanged?

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  • Unable to get data from a WCF client

    - by Scott
    I am developing a DLL that will provide sychronized time stamps to multiple applications running on the same machine. The timestamps are altered in a thread that uses a high performance timer and a scalar to provide the appearance of moving faster than real-time. For obvious reasons I want only 1 instance of this time library, and I thought I could use WCF for the other processes to connect to this and poll for timestamps whenever they want. When I connect however I never get a valid time stamp, just an empty DateTime. I should point out that the library does work. The original implementation was a single DLL that each application incorporated and each one was synced using windows messages. I'm fairly sure it has something to do with how I'm setting up the WCF stuff, to which I am still pretty new. Here are the contract definitions: public interface ITimerCallbacks { [OperationContract(IsOneWay = true)] void TimerElapsed(String id); } [ServiceContract(SessionMode = SessionMode.Required, CallbackContract = typeof(ITimerCallbacks))] public interface ISimTime { [OperationContract] DateTime GetTime(); } Here is my class definition: [ServiceBehavior(InstanceContextMode = InstanceContextMode.Single)] public class SimTimeServer: ISimTime The host setup: // set up WCF interprocess comms host = new ServiceHost(typeof(SimTimeServer), new Uri[] { new Uri("net.pipe://localhost") }); host.AddServiceEndpoint(typeof(ISimTime), new NetNamedPipeBinding(), "SimTime"); host.Open(); and the implementation of the interface function server-side: public DateTime GetTime() { if (ThreadMutex.WaitOne(20)) { RetTime = CurrentTime; ThreadMutex.ReleaseMutex(); } return RetTime; } Lastly the client-side implementation: Callbacks myCallbacks = new Callbacks(); DuplexChannelFactory pipeFactory = new DuplexChannelFactory(myCallbacks, new NetNamedPipeBinding(), new EndpointAddress("net.pipe://localhost/SimTime")); ISimTime pipeProxy = pipeFactory.CreateChannel(); while (true) { string str = Console.ReadLine(); if (str.ToLower().Contains("get")) Console.WriteLine(pipeProxy.GetTime().ToString()); else if (str.ToLower().Contains("exit")) break; }

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  • Matlab GUI - How to get the previous value entered from a callback function?

    - by Graham
    Hi, I know that this is probably a simple problem but I am new to Matlab GUI's and basically want to get the old value which used to be stored in the text box to replace the value which has just been entered. E.g. Text box contains a valid string, User enters invalid string, Callback func, validates input and realises new input is an error and reverts to the old previous value. How should this be implemented or done? Atm I am just using the get and set property values. Below is some sample code: function sampledist_Callback(hObject, eventdata, handles) % hObject handle to sampledist (see GCBO) % eventdata reserved - to be defined in a future version of MATLAB % handles structure with handles and user data (see GUIDATA) % Hints: get(hObject,'String') returns contents of sampledist as text % str2double(get(hObject,'String')) returns contents of sampledist as a double input = str2double(get(hObject,'String')); if(input < 0 || input > 500) errordlg('Sampled Dist. must be > 0 and < 500','Sample Dist - Input Error'); set(handles.sampledist,'String',['10']); %<--- I would like this value 10 to be the previous entry! guidata(hObject,handles); else set(handles.sampledist,'String',['',input]); guidata(hObject,handles); end

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  • Using HABTM relationships in cakephp plugins with unique set to false

    - by Dean
    I am working on a plugin for our CakePHP CMS that will handle blogs. When getting to the tags I needed to set the HABTM relationship to unique = false to be able add tags to a post without having to reset them all. The BlogPost model looks like this class BlogPost extends AppModel { var $name = 'BlogPost'; var $actsAs = array('Core.WhoDidIt', 'Containable'); var $hasMany = array('Blog.BlogPostComment'); var $hasAndBelongsToMany = array('Blog.BlogTag' => array('unique' => false), 'Blog.BlogCategory'); } The BlogTag model looks like this class BlogTag extends AppModel { var $name = 'BlogTag'; var $actsAs = array('Containable'); var $hasAndBelongsToMany = array('Blog.BlogPost'); } The SQL error I am getting when I have the unique = true setting in the HABTM relationship between the BlogPost and BlogTag is Query: SELECT `Blog`.`BlogTag`.`id`, `Blog`.`BlogTag`.`name`, `Blog`.`BlogTag`.`slug`, `Blog`.`BlogTag`.`created_by`, `Blog`.`BlogTag`.`modified_by`, `Blog`.`BlogTag`.`created`, `Blog`.`BlogTag`.`modified`, `BlogPostsBlogTag`.`blog_post_id`, `BlogPostsBlogTag`.`blog_tag_id` FROM `blog_tags` AS `Blog`.`BlogTag` JOIN `blog_posts_blog_tags` AS `BlogPostsBlogTag` ON (`BlogPostsBlogTag`.`blog_post_id` = 4 AND `BlogPostsBlogTag`.`blog_tag_id` = `Blog`.`BlogTag`.`id`) As you can see it is trying to set the blog_tags table to 'Blog'.'BlogTag. which isn't a valid MySQL name. When I remove the unique = true from the relationship it all works find and I can save one tag but when adding another it just erases the first one and puts the new one in its place. Does anyone have any ideas? is it a bug or am I just missing something? Cheers, Dean

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  • Object Design: How to Organize/Structure a "Collection Class"

    - by CrimsonX
    I'm currently struggling to understand how I should organize/structure a class which I have already created. The class does the following: As its input in the constructor, it takes a collection of logs In the constructor it validates and filters the logs through a series of algorithms implementing my business logic After all filtering and validation is complete, it returns a collection (a List) of the valid and filtered logs which can be presented to the user graphically in a UI. Here is some simplified code describing what I'm doing: class FilteredCollection { public FilteredCollection( SpecialArray<MyLog> myLog) { // validate inputs // filter and validate logs in collection // in end, FilteredLogs is ready for access } Public List<MyLog> FilteredLogs{ get; private set;} } However, in order to access this collection, I have to do the following: var filteredCollection = new FilteredCollection( secialArrayInput ); //Example of accessing data filteredCollection.FilteredLogs[5].MyLogData; Other key pieces of input: I foresee only one of these filtered collections existing in the application (therefore should I make it a static class? Or perhaps a singleton?) Testability and flexibility in creation of the object is important (Perhaps therefore I should keep this an instanced class for testability?) I'd prefer to simplify the dereferencing of the logs if at all possible, as the actual variable names are quite long and it takes some 60-80 characters to just get to the actual data. My attempt in keeping this class simple is that the only purpose of the class is to create this collection of validated data. I know that there may be no "perfect" solution here, but I'm really trying to improve my skills with this design and I would greatly appreciate advice to do that. Thanks in advance.

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  • Should my validator have access to my entire model?

    - by wb
    As the title states I'm wondering if it's a good idea for my validation class to have access to all properties from my model. Ideally, I would like to do that because some fields require 10+ other fields to verify whether it is valid or not. I could but would rather not have functions with 10+ parameters. Or would that make the model and validator too coupled with one another? Here is a little example of what I mean. This code however does not work because it give an infinite loop! Class User Private m_UserID Private m_Validator Public Sub Class_Initialize() End Sub Public Property Let Validator(value) Set m_Validator = value m_Validator.Initialize(Me) End Property Public Property Get Validator() Validator = m_Validator End Property Public Property Let UserID(value) m_UserID = value End property Public Property Get UserID() UserID = m_Validator.IsUserIDValid() End property End Class Class Validator Private m_User Public Sub Class_Initialize() End Sub Public Sub Initialize(value) Set m_User = value End Sub Public Function IsUserIDValid() IsUserIDValid = m_User.UserID > 13 End Function End Class Dim mike : Set mike = New User mike.UserID = 123456 mike.Validator = New Validator Response.Write mike.UserID If I'm right and it is a good idea, how can I go a head and fix the infinite loop with the get property UserID? Thank you.

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  • Why doesn't java.util.Set have get(int index)?

    - by Marty Pitt
    I'm sure there's a good reason, but could someone please explain why the java.util.Set interface lacks get(int Index), or any similar get() method? It seems that sets are great for putting things into, but I can't find an elegant way of retrieving a single item from it. If I know I want the first item, I can use set.iterator().next(), but otherwise it seems I have to cast to an Array to retrieve an item at a specific index? What are the appropriate ways of retrieving data from a set? (other than using an iterator) I'm sure the fact that it's excluded from the API means there's a good reason for not doing this -- could someone please enlighten me? EDIT: Some extremely great answers here, and a few saying "more context". The specific scneario was a dbUnit test, where I could reasonalby assert that the returned set from a query had only 1 item, and I was trying to access that item. However, the question is more valid without the scenario, as it remains more focussed : What's the difference between set & list. Thanks to all for the fantastic answers below.

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  • MySQL SELECT combining 3 SELECTs INTO 1

    - by Martin Tóth
    Consider following tables in MySQL database: entries: creator_id INT entry TEXT is_expired BOOL other: creator_id INT entry TEXT userdata: creator_id INT name VARCHAR etc... In entries and other, there can be multiple entries by 1 creator. userdata table is read only for me (placed in other database). I'd like to achieve a following SELECT result: +------------+---------+---------+-------+ | creator_id | entries | expired | other | +------------+---------+---------+-------+ | 10951 | 59 | 55 | 39 | | 70887 | 41 | 34 | 108 | | 88309 | 38 | 20 | 102 | | 94732 | 0 | 0 | 86 | ... where entries is equal to SELECT COUNT(entry) FROM entries GROUP BY creator_id, expired is equal to SELECT COUNT(entry) FROM entries WHERE is_expired = 0 GROUP BY creator_id and other is equal to SELECT COUNT(entry) FROM other GROUP BY creator_id. I need this structure because after doing this SELECT, I need to look for user data in the "userdata" table, which I planned to do with INNER JOIN and select desired columns. I solved this problem with selecting "NULL" into column which does not apply for given SELECT: SELECT creator_id, COUNT(any_entry) as entries, COUNT(expired_entry) as expired, COUNT(other_entry) as other FROM ( SELECT creator_id, entry AS any_entry, NULL AS expired_entry, NULL AS other_enry FROM entries UNION SELECT creator_id, NULL AS any_entry, entry AS expired_entry, NULL AS other_enry FROM entries WHERE is_expired = 1 UNION SELECT creator_id, NULL AS any_entry, NULL AS expired_entry, entry AS other_enry FROM other ) AS tTemp GROUP BY creator_id ORDER BY entries DESC, expired DESC, other DESC ; I've left out the INNER JOIN and selecting other columns from userdata table on purpose (my question being about combining 3 SELECTs into 1). Is my idea valid? = Am I trying to use the right "construction" for this? Are these kind of SELECTs possible without creating an "empty" column? (some kind of JOIN) Should I do it "outside the DB": make 3 SELECTs, make some order in it (let's say python lists/dicts) and then do the additional SELECTs for userdata? Solution for a similar question does not return rows where entries and expired are 0. Thank you for your time.

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  • How to fix error - "@interface interfaceName : someEnumeration" gives error "cannot find interface '

    - by Paul V
    How can I solve "cannot find interface declaration 'someEnumeration', superclass of 'interfaceName'" error? What steps will reproduce the problem? Compiling Wsdl2ObjC Targeting groupwise.wsdl file Fixing non-valid file names of output csource code like ".h" + ".m" and objects inside source files Moving up one of the @interface BEFORE it was used futher in code! What is the expected output? Something working What do you see instead? 33 errors. "Inherited" from only 3 similar Inheritances of a typedef enum object by a class. All errors are typical: typedef enum types_StatusTrackingOptions { types_StatusTrackingOptions_none = 0, types_StatusTrackingOptions_None, types_StatusTrackingOptions_Delivered, types_StatusTrackingOptions_DeliveredAndOpened, types_StatusTrackingOptions_All, } types_StatusTrackingOptions; types_StatusTrackingOptions types_StatusTrackingOptions_enumFromString(NSString *string); NSString * types_StatusTrackingOptions_stringFromEnum(types_StatusTrackingOptions enumValue); @interface types_StatusTracking : types_StatusTrackingOptions { ... and here I'm having error "cannot find interface declaration for 'types_StatusTrackingOptions', superclass of 'types_StatusTracking'". What version of the product are you using? On what operating system? Wsdl2ObjC - rev 168, OS - Mac OS X 10.6.2, iPhone SDK - 3.2, Simulator - v. 3.1.2 - 3.1.3, wsdl - for GroupWise v.8, NDK released 2008-12-23, wsdl and xsd files are attached. P.S. GroupWise.wsdl + .xsd files could be downloaded from http://code.google.com/p/wsdl2objc/issues/detail?id=99

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  • Identity.Name is disposed in a IIS7 Asp.NET MVC application Thread

    - by vIceBerg
    I have made the smallest demo project to illustrate my problem. You can download the sources Here Visual Studio 2008, .NET 3.5, IIS7, Windows 7 Ultimate 32 bits. The IIS Website is configured ONLY for Windows Authentication in an Integreated pipeline app pool (DefaultAppPool). Here's the problem. I have an Asp.NET MVC 2 application. In an action, I start a thread. The View returns. The thread is doing it's job... but it needs to access Thread.CurrentPrincipal.Identity.Name BANG The worker process of IIS7 stops. I have a window that says: "Visual Studio Just-In-Time Debugger An unhandled exception ('System.Object.DisposedException') occured in w3wp.exe [5524]" I checked with the debugger and the Thread.CurrentPrincipal.Identity is valid, but the Name property is disposed. If I put a long wait in the action before it returns the view, then the Thread can do it's job and the Identity.Name is not disposed. So I think the Name gets disposed when the view is returned. For the sake of the discussion, here's the code that the thread runs (but you can also download the demo project. The link is on top of this post): private void Run() { const int SECTOWAIT = 3; //wait SECTOWAIT seconds long end = DateTime.Now.Ticks + (TimeSpan.TicksPerSecond * SECTOWAIT); while (DateTime.Now.Ticks <= end) continue; //Check the currentprincipal. BANG!!!!!!!!!!!!! var userName = Thread.CurrentPrincipal.Identity.Name; } Here's the code that starts the thread public void Start() { Thread thread = new Thread(new ParameterizedThreadStart(ThreadProc)); thread.SetApartmentState(ApartmentState.MTA); thread.Name = "TestThread"; thread.Start(this); } static void ThreadProc(object o) { try { Builder builder = (Builder)o; builder.Run(); } catch (Exception ex) { throw; } } So... what am i doing wrong? Thanks

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  • How to increase PermGen memory for eclipselink StaticWeaveAntTask

    - by rayd09
    We are using Eclipselink and need to weave the code in order for lazy fetching to work property. During the weave process I'm getting the following error: weave: BUILD FAILED java.lang.OutOfMemoryError: PermGen space I have the following tasks within my ant build file: <target name="define_weave_task" description="task definition for EclipseLink static weaving"> <taskdef name="eclipse_weave" classname="org.eclipse.persistence.tools.weaving.jpa.StaticWeaveAntTask"/> </target> <target name="weave" depends="compile,define_weave_task" description="weave eclipselink code into compiled classes"> <eclipse_weave source="${path.classes}" target="${path.classes}"> <classpath refid="compile.classpath"/> </eclipse_weave> </target> It has been working great for a long time. Now that the amount of code to be woven has increased I'm getting the PermGen error. I would like to be able to up the amount of perm space. If I was doing a compile I would be able to up the perm space via a compiler argument such as <compilerarg value="-XX:MaxPermSize=256M"/> but this does not appear to be a valid argument for eclipselink weaving. How can I up the perm space for the weave?

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