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• Sql Server problems reading columns with a foreigh key

  - by illdev

  I have a weird situation, where simple queries seem to never finish for instance SELECT top 100 ArticleID FROM Article WHERE ProductGroupID=379114 returns immediately SELECT top 1000 ArticleID FROM Article WHERE ProductGroupID=379114 never returns SELECT ArticleID FROM Article WHERE ProductGroupID=379114 never returns SELECT top 1000 ArticleID FROM Article returns immediately by 'returning' I mean 'in query analyzer the green check mark appears and it says "Query executed successfully"'. I sometimes get the rows painted to the grid in qa, but still the query goes on waiting for my client to time out - 'sometimes': SELECT ProductGroupID AS Product23_1_, ArticleID AS ArticleID1_, ArticleID AS ArticleID18_0_, Inventory_Name AS Inventory3_18_0_, Inventory_UnitOfMeasure AS Inventory4_18_0_, BusinessKey AS Business5_18_0_, Name AS Name18_0_, ServesPeople AS ServesPe7_18_0_, InStock AS InStock18_0_, Description AS Descript9_18_0_, Description2 AS Descrip10_18_0_, TechnicalData AS Technic11_18_0_, IsDiscontinued AS IsDisco12_18_0_, Release AS Release18_0_, Classifications AS Classif14_18_0_, DistributorName AS Distrib15_18_0_, DistributorProductCode AS Distrib16_18_0_, Options AS Options18_0_, IsPromoted AS IsPromoted18_0_, IsBulkyFreight AS IsBulky19_18_0_, IsBackOrderOnly AS IsBackO20_18_0_, Price AS Price18_0_, Weight AS Weight18_0_, ProductGroupID AS Product23_18_0_, ConversationID AS Convers24_18_0_, DistributorID AS Distrib25_18_0_, type AS Type18_0_ FROM Article AS articles0_ WHERE (IsDiscontinued = '0') AND (ProductGroupID = 379121) shows this behavior. I have no idea what is going on. Probably select is broken ;) Anyone can tell me how to handle such a situation? More info, anyone?

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• Fluent NHibernate AutoMap

  - by Markus

  Hi. I have a qouestion regarding the AutoMap xml generation. I have two classes: public class User { virtual public Guid Id { get; private set; } virtual public String Name { get; set; } virtual public String Email { get; set; } virtual public String Password { get; set; } virtual public IList<OpenID> OpenIDs { get; set; } } public class OpenID { virtual public Guid Id { get; private set; } virtual public String Provider { get; set; } virtual public String Ticket { get; set; } virtual public User User { get; set; } } The generated sequences of xml files are: For User class: <bag name="OpenIDs"> <key> <column name="User_Id" /> </key> <one-to-many class="BL_DAL.Entities.OpenID, BL_DAL, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null" /> </bag> For OpenID class: <many-to-one class="BL_DAL.Entities.User, BL_DAL, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null" name="User"> <column name="User_id" /> </many-to-one> I don't see the inverse=true attribute for the User mapping. Is it a normal behavior, or I made a mistake somewhere?

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• jquery dialog is clearing my form fields and I need to return a value from a jquery dialog

  - by Seth

  1.) I have a jQuery dialog that is opened whenever a particular textbox is focused. The dialog's contents are loaded from ajax and the unique ID of the textbox that was focused is passed in the ajax call (like this): $('[name=start_airport[]],[name=finish_airport[]]').click(function(){   var id = $(this).attr('id');   if($('#use_advanced_airport_selector').attr('checked')) {     $('#advanced_airport_selector').dialog({       open : function() {         $(this).load('/flight-booker/advanced-airport-selector.php?callerID='+id);       }     });     $('#advanced_airport_selector').dialog('open');   } }); (where advanced_airport_selector is an empty div) THAT PART WORKS FINE. However, when I make my ajax call within my dialog, all my form values are reset! No matter what I do, when that dialog opens, all form values are reset (not just the value of the textbox that was focused). I simply don't understand what would cause this behavior! But that's only issue #1. 2.) I need to be able to return a value from that dialog box. I am passing the ID in the ajax query so that I can use a jquery selector to update the caller's value after certain actions are performed within the dialog box. However, I can't actually access that textbox because of DOM_ERRORS that I've never come across. It doesn't make any sense! There's way to much code to post, and it's really hard to explain, so sorry if I'm unclear as to what I'm asking.

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• Invoking a method overloaded where all arguments implement the same interface

  - by double07

  Hello, My starting point is the following: - I have a method, transform, which I overloaded to behave differently depending on the type of arguments that are passed in (see transform(A a1, A a2) and transform(A a1, B b) in my example below) - All these arguments implement the same interface, X I would like to apply that transform method on various objects all implementing the X interface. What I came up with was to implement transform(X x1, X x2), which checks for the instance of each object before applying the relevant variant of my transform. Though it works, the code seems ugly and I am also concerned of the performance overhead for evaluating these various instanceof and casting. Is that transform the best I can do in Java or is there a more elegant and/or efficient way of achieving the same behavior? Below is a trivial, working example printing out BA. I am looking for examples on how to improve that code. In my real code, I have naturally more implementations of 'transform' and none are trivial like below. public class A implements X { } public class B implements X { } interface X { } public A transform(A a1, A a2) { System.out.print("A"); return a2; } public A transform(A a1, B b) { System.out.print("B"); return a1; } // Isn't there something better than the code below??? public X transform(X x1, X x2) { if ((x1 instanceof A) && (x2 instanceof A)) { return transform((A) x1, (A) x2); } else if ((x1 instanceof A) && (x2 instanceof B)) { return transform((A) x1, (B) x2); } else { throw new RuntimeException("Transform not implemented for " + x1.getClass() + "," + x2.getClass()); } } @Test public void trivial() { X x1 = new A(); X x2 = new B(); X result = transform(x1, x2); transform(x1, result); }

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• JavaScript: How is "function x() {}" different from "x = function() {}" ?

  - by jleedev

  In the answers to this question, we read that function f() {} defines the name locally, while [var] f = function() {} defines it globally. That makes perfect sense to me, but there's some strange behavior that's different between the two declarations. I made an HTML page with the script onload = function() { alert("hello"); } and it worked as expected. When I changed it to function onload() { alert("hello"); } nothing happened. (Firefox still fired the event, but WebKit, Opera, and Internet Explorer didn't, although frankly I've no idea which is correct.) In both cases (in all browsers), I could verify that both window.onload and onload were set to the function. In both cases, the global object this is set to the window, and I no matter how I write the declaration, the window object is receiving the property just fine. What's going on here? Why does one declaration work differently from the other? Is this a quirk of the JavaScript language, the DOM, or the interaction between the two?

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• Python base classes share attributes?

  - by tad

  Code in test.py: class Base(object): def __init__(self, l=[]): self.l = l def add(self, num): self.l.append(num) def remove(self, num): self.l.remove(num) class Derived(Base): def __init__(self, l=[]): super(Derived, self).__init__(l) Python shell session: Python 2.6.5 (r265:79063, Apr 1 2010, 05:22:20) [GCC 4.4.3 20100316 (prerelease)] on linux2 Type "help", "copyright", "credits" or "license" for more information. >>> import test >>> a = test.Derived() >>> b = test.Derived() >>> a.l [] >>> b.l [] >>> a.add(1) >>> a.l [1] >>> b.l [1] >>> c = test.Derived() >>> c.l [1] I was expecting "C++-like" behavior, in which each derived object contains its own instance of the base class. Is this still the case? Why does each object appear to share the same list instance?

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• PendingIntent in Widget + TaskKiller

  - by YaW

  Hi, I've developed an Application (called Instant Buttons) and the app has a widget feature. This widget uses PendingIntent for the onClick of the widget. My PendingIntent code is something like this: Intent active = new Intent(context, InstantWidget.class); active.setAction(String.valueOf(appWidgetId)); active.putExtra("blabla", blabla); //Some data PendingIntent actionPendingIntent = PendingIntent.getBroadcast(context, 0, active, 0); actionPendingIntent.cancel(); actionPendingIntent = PendingIntent.getBroadcast(context, 0, active, 0); remoteViews.setOnClickPendingIntent(R.id.button, actionPendingIntent); The onReceive gets the intent and do some stuff with the MediaPlayer class to reproduce a sound. I have reports from some users that the widgets stop working after a while and with some research i've discovered is because the Task Killers. It seems that when you kill the app in the TaskKiller, the PendingIntent is erased from memory, so when you click the widget, it doesn't know what to do. Is there any solution for this? Is my code wrong or something or it's the default behavior of the PendingIntent? Is there something I can use to avoid the TaskKiller to stop my widgets from working?? Greetings.

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• How to change the meaning of pointer access operator

  - by kumar_m_kiran

  Hi All, This may be very obvious question, pardon me if so. I have below code snippet out of my project, #include <stdio.h> class X { public: int i; X() : i(0) {}; }; int main(int argc,char *arv[]) { X *ptr = new X[10]; unsigned index = 5; cout<<ptr[index].i<<endl; return 0; } Question Can I change the meaning of the ptr[index] ? Because I need to return the value of ptr[a[index]] where a is an array for subindexing. I do not want to modify existing source code. Any new function added which can change the behavior is needed. Since the access to index operator is in too many places (536 to be precise) in my code, and has complex formulas inside the index subscript operator, I am not inclined to change the code in many locations. PS : 1. I tried operator overload and came to conclusion that it is not possible. 2. Also p[i] will be transformed into *(p+i). I cannot redefine the basic operator '+'. So just want to reconfirm my understanding and if there are any possible short-cuts to achieve. Else I need fix it by royal method of changing every line of code :) .

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• Cannot overload function

  - by anio

  So I've got a templatized class and I want to overload the behavior of a function when I have specific type, say char. For all other types, let them do their own thing. However, c++ won't let me overload the function. Why can't I overload this function? I really really do not want to do template specialization, because then I've got duplicate the entire class. Here is a toy example demonstrating the problem: http://codepad.org/eTgLG932 The same code posted here for your reading pleasure: #include <iostream> #include <cstdlib> #include <string> struct Bar { std::string blah() { return "blah"; } }; template <typename T> struct Foo { public: std::string doX() { return m_getY(my_t); } private: std::string m_getY(char* p_msg) { return std::string(p_msg); } std::string m_getY(T* p_msg) { return p_msg->blah(); } T my_t; }; int main(int, char**) { Foo<char> x; Foo<Bar> y; std::cout << "x " << x.doX() << std::endl; return EXIT_SUCCESS; } Thank you everyone for your suggestions. Two valid solutions have been presented. I can either specialize the doX method, or specialize m_getY() method. At the end of the day I prefer to keep my specializations private rather than public so I'm accepting Krill's answer.

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• Pre-formatting text to prevent reflowing

  - by mattjn

  I've written a fairly simple script that will take elements (in this case, <p> elements are the main concern) and type their contents out like a typewriter, one by one. The problem is that as it types, when it reaches the edge of the container mid-word, it reflows the text and jumps to the next line (like word wrap in any text editor). This is, of course, expected behavior; however, I would like to pre-format the text so that this does not happen. I figure that inserting <br> before the word that will wrap would be the best solution, but I'm not quite sure what the best way to go about doing that is that supports all font sizes and container widths, while also keeping any HTML tags intact. I figure something involving a hidden <span> element, adding text to it gradually and checking its width against the container width might be on the right track, but I'm not quite sure how to actually put this together. Any help or suggestions on better methods would be appreciated.

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• Best way to associate data files with particular tests in RSpec / Ruby

  - by Bill T

  For my RSpec tests I would to automatically associate data files with each test. To clarify, if my tests each require an xml file as input data and then some xpath statements to validate the responses they get back I would like to externalize the xml and xpath as files and have the testing framework easily associate them with the particular test being run by using the unique ID of the test as the file(s) name. I tried to get this behavior but the solution isn't very clean. I wrote a helper method that takes the value of "description" and combines it with FILE to create a unique identifier which is set into a global variable that other utilities can access. The unique identifier is used to associate the data files I need. I have to call this helper method as the first line of every test, which is ugly. If I have an RSpec example that looks like this: describe "Basic functions of this server I'm testing" do it "should give me back a response" do # Sets a global var to: "my_tests_spec.rb_should_give_me_back_a_response" TestHelper::who_am_i __FILE__, description ... end end Is there some better/cleaner/slicker way I can get an unique ID for each test that I could use to associate data files with? Perhaps something build into RSpec I'm unaware of? Thank you, -Bill

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• How do I stop a bouncy JQuery animation?

  - by Miguel

  In a webapp I'm working on, I want to create some slider divs that will move up and down with mouseover & mouseout (respectively.) I currently have it implemented with JQuery's hover() function, by using animate() and reducing/increasing it's top css value as needed. This works fairly well, actually. The problem is that it tends to get stuck. If you move the mouse over it (especially near the bottom), and quickly remove it, it will slide up & down continuously and won't stop until it's completed 3-5 cycles. To me, it seems that the issue might have to do with one animation starting before another is done (e.g. the two are trying to run, so they slide back and forth.) Okay, now for the code. Here's the basic JQuery that I'm using: $('.slider').hover( /* mouseover */ function(){ $(this).animate({ top : '-=120' }, 300); }, /* mouseout*/ function(){ $(this).animate({ top : '+=120' }, 300); } ); I've also recreated the behavior in a JSFiddle. Any ideas on what's going on? :) ==EDIT== UPDATED JSFiddle

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• Mixing menuItem.setIntent with onOptionsItemSelected doesn't work

  - by superjos

  While extending a sample Android activity that fires some other activities from its menu, I came to have some menu items handled within onOptionsItemSelected, and some menu items (that just fired intents) handled by calling setIntent within onCreateOptionsMenu. Basically something like: @Override public boolean onCreateOptionsMenu(Menu menu) { super.onCreateOptionsMenu(menu); menu.add(0, MENU_ID_1, Menu.NONE, R.string.menu_text_1); menu.add(0, MENU_ID_2, Menu.NONE, R.string.menu_text_2); menu.add(0, MENU_ID_3, Menu.NONE, R.string.menu_text_3). setIntent(new Intent(this, MyActivity_3.class)); return true; } @Override public boolean onOptionsItemSelected(MenuItem item) { super.onOptionsItemSelected(item); switch (item.getItemId()) { case (MENU_ID_1): // Process menu command 1 ... return true; case (MENU_ID_2): // Process menu command 2 ... // E.g. also fire Intent for MyActivity_2 return true; default: return false; } } Apparently, in this situation the Intent set on MENU_ID_3 is never fired, or anyway the related activity is never started. Android javadoc at some point goes like <<[if you set an intent on a menu item] and nothing else handles the item, then the default behavior will be to [start the activity with the intent]. What does it actually mean "and nothing else handles the item"? Is it enough to return false from onOptionsItemSelected? I also tried not to call super.onOptionsItemSelected(item) at the beginning and only invoke it in the default switch case, but I had same results. Does anyone have any suggestion? Does Android allow to mix the two type of handling? Thanks for your time everyone.

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• JPA entitylisteners and @embeddable

  - by seanizer

  I have a class hierarchy of JPA entities that all inherit from a BaseEntity class: @MappedSuperclass @EntityListeners( { ValidatorListener.class }) public abstract class BaseEntity implements Serializable { // other stuff } I want all entities that implement a given interface to be validated automatically on persist and/or update. Here's what I've got. My ValidatorListener: public class ValidatorListener { private enum Type { PERSIST, UPDATE } @PrePersist public void checkPersist(final Object entity) { if (entity instanceof Validateable) { this.check((Validateable) entity, Type.PERSIST); } } @PreUpdate public void checkUpdate(final Object entity) { if (entity instanceof Validateable) { this.check((Validateable) entity, Type.UPDATE); } } private void check(final Validateable entity, final Type persist) { switch (persist) { case PERSIST: if (entity instanceof Persist) { ((Persist) entity).persist(); } if (entity instanceof PersistOrUpdate) { ((PersistOrUpdate) entity).persistOrUpdate(); } break; case UPDATE: if (entity instanceof Update) { ((Update) entity).update(); } if (entity instanceof PersistOrUpdate) { ((PersistOrUpdate) entity).persistOrUpdate(); } break; default: break; } } } and here's my Validateable interface that it checks against (the outer interface is just a marker, the inner contain the methods): public interface Validateable { interface Persist extends Validateable { void persist(); } interface PersistOrUpdate extends Validateable { void persistOrUpdate(); } interface Update extends Validateable { void update(); } } All of this works, however I would like to extend this behavior to Embeddable classes. I know two solutions: call the validation method of the embeddable object manually from the entity validation method: public void persistOrUpdate(){ // validate my own properties first // then manually validate the embeddable property: myEmbeddable.persistOrUpdate(); // this works but I'd like something that I don't have to call manually } use reflection, checking all properties to see if their type is of one of their interface types. This would work, but it's not pretty. Is there a more elegant solution?

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• Why is it that an int in C++ that isnt initialized (then used) doesn't return an error?

  - by omizzle

  I am new to C++ (just starting). I come from a Java background and I was trying out the following piece of code that would sum the numbers between 1 and 10 (inclusive) and then print out the sum: /* * File: main.cpp * Author: omarestrella * * Created on June 7, 2010, 8:02 PM */ #include <cstdlib> #include <iostream> using namespace std; int main() { int sum; for(int x = 1; x <= 10; x++) { sum += x; } cout << "The sum is: " << sum << endl; return 0; } When I ran it it kept printing 32822 for the sum. I knew the answer was supposed to be 55 and realized that its print the max value for a short (32767) plus 55. Changing int sum; to int sum = 0; would work (as it should, since the variable needs to be initialized!). Why does this behavior happen, though? Why doesnt the compiler warn you about something like this? I know Java screams at you when something isnt initialized. Thank you.

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• Cannot pass null to server using jQuery AJAX. Value received at the server is the string "null".

  - by Tom

  I am converting a javascript/php/ajax application to use jQuery to ensure compatibility with browsers other than Firefox. I am having trouble passing true, false, and null values using jQuery's ajax function. Javascript code: $.ajax ( { url : <server_url>, dataType: 'json', type : 'POST', success : receiveAjaxMessage, data: { valueTrue : true, valueFalse : false, valueNull : null } } ); PHP code: var_dump($_POST); Server output: array(3) { ["valueTrue"]=> string(4) "true" ["valueFalse"]=> string(5) "false" ["valueNull"]=> string(4) "null" } The problem is that the null, true, and false values are being converted to strings. The Javascript AJAX code currently in use passes null, true, and false correctly but only works in Firefox. Does anyone know how to solve this problem using jQuery? Here is some working code (not using jQuery) to compare with the code not-working code given above. Javascript Code: ajaxPort.send ( <server_url>, { valueTrue : true, valueFalse : false, valueNull : null } ); PHP code: var_dump(json_decode(file_get_contents('php://input'), true)); Server output: array(3) { ["valueTrue"]=> bool(true) ["valueFalse"]=> bool(false) ["valueNull"]=> NULL } Note that the null, true, and false values are correctly received. Note also that in the second method the $_POST array is not used in the PHP code. I think this is the key to the problem, but I cannot find a way to replicate this behavior using jQuery.

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• What are the best software/website UI design you have even seen?

  - by Edwin

  What are the best UI design in terms of usability and esthetics you have even seen? I mean both desktop software (of all OS) and website. My list: Picasa 3 - the way it organizes photos. Find-and-highlight-as-you-type in google Chrome. Dynamic search hints when entering something in the search box in Gmail. I'm not a Mac OS X user, but I have seen in most windows on the top toolbar there are both the icons and texts shown for each function, as apposed to on Windows I have seen many programs (MS Office included) have many small toolbar icons which you can hardly understand what they do until you hover the mouse on it for a while to see the hints (if any). The ability to search an setting in Eclipse IDE. the way to make 3D models in Google Sketchup. the way to label an email in Gmail. What are you list? Well, I couldn't resist to list some annoying UI design I have experienced and remember at this moment. IE on Windows server, when you visit the new website, you have to click many times to get it added to the white list before you can start browsing, IIRC, it's not fixed in IE 8 when that last time I used it on Windows 2008. The default search behavior in the File Explorer on Windows xp, that animated thing... the dialog that shows up when you are trying to save a plain text CSV file in Excel after applied some formatting options which does not compatible with CSV.

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• validation controls are not validating on enabling on client side using java script, plz guide

  - by haansi

  Hi, As per requirement I disabled all validation controls in page on PageLoad event in server side. On clicking submit button I want to activate them and validate the page and if the page is ok submit other wise not. I am able to enable all validaters but one thing that I am unable to understand is that they do not validate the page. I set alerts and check they are being enabled but they do not validate the page and let the page submit. I am sorry I couldn't get where I am wrong, may be there need to call some validation method as well or I should prevent default behavior of button. please guide me. Below is my script: <script type="text/javascript"> function NextClicked() { var _ddlStatus = document.getElementById("<%=ddlEmpStatus.ClientID%>"); var _selectedIndex = _ddlStatus.selectedIndex; if (_selectedIndex == 0) { alert("Nothing selected"); }<br/> else<br/> if (_selectedIndex == 1) { for (i = 0; i < Page_Validators.length; i++) { Page_Validators[i].Enabled = true; } } } </script> thanks in anticipation.

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• NHibernate will not insert a record

  - by Brian Beckham

  I have an application that is now 4+ years old that is exhibiting some odd behavior on our latest deployment. The application uses nHibernate for all inserts / updates / selects, etc. We are currently using .NET 2.0, and nHibernate 1.2 (I know, we need to upgrade) This deployment is on Windows 2008 Server x64, IIS 7.5 - what I have seen so far is that the application runs, but is unable to insert or update records in the DB - reads seem fine so far, but writes are a problem. SOME writes actually work, inserts into some small tables, but most never even make it to the DB. Using SQL Profiler, the insert / updates never make it to the server, and turning log4net up to DEBUG, and show_sql true - the select statements appear, but the insert / update statements never make it into the log at all, and never show up at the server. What's even more odd is that the application seems to be oblivious to this - the commandandclose runs without exception (open session in view with an httpmodule), the domain objects come back with uuid's generated, etc. but never get persisted. Certainly an upgrade is due, but I would hate to try it during a deployment, and without time to accurately test the app. Any ideas?

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• ZeroMQ REQ/REP on ipc:// and concurrency

  - by Metiu

  I implemented a JSON-RPC server using a REQ/REP 0MQ ipc:// socket and I'm experiencing strange behavior which I suspect is due to the fact that the ipc:// underlying unix socket is not a real socket, but rather a single pipe. From the documentation, one has to enforce strict zmq_send()/zmq_recv() alternation, otherwise the out-of-order zmq_send() will return an error. However, I expected the enforcement to be per-client, not per-socket. Of course with a Unix socket there is just one pipeline from multiple clients to the server, so the server won't know who it is talking with. Two clients could zmq_send() simultaneously and the server would see this as an alternation violation. The sequence could be: ClientA: zmq_send() ClientB: zmq_send() : will it block until the other send/receive completes? will it return -1? (I suspect it will with ipc:// due to inherent low-level problems, but with TCP it could distinguish the two clients) ClientA: zmq_recv() ClientB: zmq_recv() so what about tcp:// sockets? Will it work concurrently? Should I use some other locking mechanism to work around this?

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• Ruby: counters, counting and incrementing

  - by Shyam

  Hi, If you have seen my previous questions, you'd already know I am a big nuby when it comes to Ruby. So, I discovered this website which is intended for C programming, but I thought whatever one can do in C, must be possible in Ruby (and more readable too). The challenge is to print out a bunch of numbers. I discovered this nifty method .upto() and I used a block (and actually understanding its purpose). However, in IRb, I got some unexpected behavior. class MyCounter def run 1.upto(10) { |x| print x.to_s + " " } end end irb(main):033:0> q = MyCounter.new => #<MyCounter:0x5dca0> irb(main):034:0> q.run 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 => 1 I have no idea where the = 1 comes from :S Should I do this otherwise? I am expecting to have this result: 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 Thank you for your answers, comments and feedback!

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• Can isdigit legitimately be locale dependent in C

  - by cdev

  In the section covering setlocale, the ANSI C standard states in a footnote that the only ctype.h functions whose behaviour is not affected by the current locale are isdigit and isxdigit. The Microsoft implementation of isdigit is locale dependent because, for example, in locales using code page 1250 isdigit only returns non-zero for characters in the range 0x30 ('0') - 0x39 ('9'), whereas in locales using code page 1252 isdigit also returns non-zero for the superscript digits 0xB2 ('²'), 0xB3 ('³') and 0xB9 ('¹'). Is Microsoft in violation of the C standard by making isdigit locale dependent? In this question I am primarily interested in C90, which Microsoft claims to conform to, rather than C99. Additional background: Microsoft's own documentation of setlocale incorrectly states that isdigit is unaffected by the LC_CTYPE part of the locale. The section of the C standard that covers the ctype.h functions contains some wording that I consider ambiguous: "The behavior of these functions is affected by the current locale. Those functions that have locale-specific aspects only when not in the "C" locale are noted below." I consider this ambiguous because it is unclear what it is trying to say about functions such as isdigit for which there are no notes about locale-specific aspects. It might be trying to say that such functions must be assumed to be locale dependent, in which case Microsoft's implementation of isdigit would be OK. (Except that the footnote I mentioned earlier seems to contradict this interpretation.)

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• Does Interlocked guarantee visibility to other threads in C# or do I still have to use volatile?

  - by Lirik

  I've been reading the answer to a similar question, but I'm still a little confused... Abel had a great answer, but this is the part that I'm unsure about: ...declaring a variable volatile makes it volatile for every single access. It is impossible to force this behavior any other way, hence volatile cannot be replaced with Interlocked. This is needed in scenarios where other libraries, interfaces or hardware can access your variable and update it anytime, or need the most recent version. Does Interlocked guarantee visibility of the atomic operation to all threads, or do I still have to use the volatile keyword on the value in order to guarantee visibility of the change? Here is my example: public class CountDownLatch { private volatile int m_remain; // <--- do I need the volatile keyword there since I'm using Interlocked? private EventWaitHandle m_event; public CountDownLatch (int count) { Reset(count); } public void Reset(int count) { if (count < 0) throw new ArgumentOutOfRangeException(); m_remain = count; m_event = new ManualResetEvent(false); if (m_remain == 0) { m_event.Set(); } } public void Signal() { // The last thread to signal also sets the event. if (Interlocked.Decrement(ref m_remain) == 0) m_event.Set(); } public void Wait() { m_event.WaitOne(); } }

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• jQuery slideDown + CSS Floats

  - by danilo

  I'm using a HTML Table with several rows. Every second row - containing details about the preceding row - is hidden using CSS. When clicking the first row, the second row gets showed using jQuery show(). This is quite nice, but I would prefer the slideDown-Effect. The problem is, inside the details row, there are two floating DIVs, one floating on the left, and one on the right. Now if i slideDown the previously hidden row, the contained DIVs behave strange and "jump around". See this animated gif to understand what I mean: http://ich-wars-nicht.ch/tmp/lunapic_127365879362365_.gif The markup: <tr class="row-vm"> <td>...</td> ... </tr> <tr class="row-details"> <td colspan="8"> <div class="vmdetail-left"> ... </div> <div class="vmdetail-right"> ... </div> </td> </tr> The CSS: .table-vmlist tr.row-details { display: none; } div.vmdetail-left { float: left; width: 50%; } div.vmdetail-right { float: right; width: 50%; } And the jQuery code: if ($(this).next().css('display') == 'none') { // Show details //$(this).next().show(); $(this).next().slideDown(); } else { // Hide details //$(this).next().hide(); $(this).next().slideUp(); } Is there a way to fix this behavior, and to implement a nice slideDown-effect?

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• What is the purpose of the Html "no-js" class?

  - by Swader

  I notice that in a lot of template engines, in the HTML5 Boilerplate, in various frameworks and in plain php sites there is the no-js class added onto the html element. Why is this done? Is there some sort of default browser behavior that reacts to this class? Why include it always? Does that not render the class itself obsolete, if there is no no-"no-js" case and html can be addressed directly? Here is an example from the HTML5 Boilerplate index.html: <!--[if lt IE 7 ]> <html lang="en" class="no-js ie6"> <![endif]--> <!--[if IE 7 ]> <html lang="en" class="no-js ie7"> <![endif]--> <!--[if IE 8 ]> <html lang="en" class="no-js ie8"> <![endif]--> <!--[if IE 9 ]> <html lang="en" class="no-js ie9"> <![endif]--> <!--[if (gt IE 9)|!(IE)]><!--> <html lang="en" class="no-js"> <!--<![endif]--> As you can see, the html element will always have this class. Can someone explain why this is done so often?

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