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• ASP.NET 2.0 in Virtual Trying to Use SQL State Server

  - by user251660

  We have IIS 6 running on a W2003 Server. The root web site is running a v1.1 site. Under this site we have a virtual running a v2.0 site (with a separate application pool). The web.config for the root site is using SQL as its state server and has a 1.1 SQL state server database installed. The 2.0 virtual web.config does not need state and its web.config has no reference to a state server. When we attempt to call the virtual we receive this error message. "Unable to use SQL Server because ASP.NET version 2.0 Session State is not installed on the SQL server. Please install ASP.NET Session State SQL Server version 2.0 or above. This issue is currently only occurring on one web server. The rest are able to run the 2.0 virtual application. I also notice that if we call the 2.0 virtual with the IP address it does not generate the error, however if we call it with the host header name it generates the error (this behavior is only on the 1 web server with the error, all the others can be called with either the ip or host header without error). As an additional note the root and virtual are running with SSL. My theory is that the virtual 2.0 application is inheriting the 1.1 web.config state server entry from the root and when it looks at the state server it sees it as a 1.1 version and reports the error that it needs a 2.0 state server. I however cannot understand why the other servers are not behaving in this matter. All of the servers are on the same OS service pack as well as the same version of .net framework. Any ideas? Thanks

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• wpf progress bar slows 10x times serial port communications... how could be possible that?

  - by D_Guidi

  I know that this could look a dumb question, but here's my problem. I have a worker dialog that "hides" a backgroundworker, so in a worker thread I do my job, I report the progress in a standard way and then I show the results in my WPF program. The dialog contains a simply animated gif and a standard wpf progress bar, and when a progress is notified I set Value property. All lokks as usual and works well for any kind of job, like web service calls, db queries, background elaboration and so on. For my job we use also many "couplers", card readers that reads data from smart card, that are managed with native C code that access to serial port (so, I don't use .NET SerialPort object). I have some nunit tests and I read a sample card in 10 seconds, but using my actual program, under the backgroundworker and showing my worker dialog, I need 1.30 minutes to do the SAME job. I struggled into problem for days until I decide to remove the worker dialog, and without dialog I obtain the same performances of the tests! So I investigated, and It's not the dialog, not the animated gif, but the wpf progress bar! Simply the fact that a progress bar is shown (so, no animation, no Value set called, nothing of nothing) slows serialport communicatitons. Looks incredible? I've tested this behavior and it's exactly what happens.

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• File upload fails when user is authenticated. Using IIS7 Integrated mode.

  - by Nikkelmann

  These are the user identities my website tells me that it uses: Logged on: NT AUTHORITY\NETWORK SERVICE (Can not write any files at all) and Not logged on: WSW32\IUSR_77 (Can write files to any folder) I have a ASP.NET 4.0 website on a shared hosting IIS7 web server running in Integrated mode with 32-bit applications support enabled and MSSQL 2008. Using classic mode is not an option since I need to secure some static files and I use Routing. In my web.config file I have set the following: <system.webServer> <modules runAllManagedModulesForAllRequests="true" /> </system.webServer> My hosting company says that Impersonation is enabled by default on machine level, so this is not something I can change. I asked their support and they referred me to this article: http://www.codinghub.net/2010/08/differences-between-integrated-mode-and.html Citing this part: Different windows identity in Forms authentication When Forms Authentication is used by an application and anonymous access is allowed, the Integrated mode identity differs from the Classic mode identity in the following ways: * ServerVariables["LOGON_USER"] is filled. * Request.LogognUserIdentity uses the credentials of the [NT AUTHORITY\NETWORK SERVICE] account instead of the [NT AUTHORITY\INTERNET USER] account. This behavior occurs because authentication is performed in a single stage in Integrated mode. Conversely, in Classic mode, authentication occurs first with IIS 7.0 using anonymous access, and then with ASP.NET using Forms authentication. Thus, the result of the authentication is always a single user-- the Forms authentication user. AUTH_USER/LOGON_USER returns this same user because the Forms authentication user credentials are synchronized between IIS 7.0 and ASP.NET. A side effect is that LOGON_USER, HttpRequest.LogonUserIdentity, and impersonation no longer can access the Anonymous user credentials that IIS 7.0 would have authenticated by using Classic mode. How do I set up my website so that it can use the proper identity with the proper permissions? I've looked high and low for any answers regarding this specific problem, but found nil so far... I hope you can help!

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• UITableViewRowAnimationBottom doesn't work for last row

  - by GendoIkari

  I've come across a very similar question here: Inserting row to end of table with UITableViewRowAnimationBottom doesn't animate., though no answers have been given. His code was also a little different than mine. I have an extremely simple example, built from the Navigation application template. NSMutableArray *items; - (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; items = [[NSMutableArray array] retain]; self.navigationItem.rightBarButtonItem = [[[UIBarButtonItem alloc] initWithBarButtonSystemItem:UIBarButtonSystemItemAdd target:self action:@selector(addItem)] autorelease]; } - (void)addItem{ [items insertObject:@"new" atIndex:0]; [self.tableView insertRowsAtIndexPaths:[NSArray arrayWithObject:[NSIndexPath indexPathForRow:0 inSection:0]] withRowAnimation:UITableViewRowAnimationBottom]; } - (NSInteger)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView numberOfRowsInSection:(NSInteger)section { return items.count; } - (UITableViewCell *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { static NSString *CellIdentifier = @"Cell"; UITableViewCell *cell = [tableView dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier:CellIdentifier]; if (cell == nil) { cell = [[[UITableViewCell alloc] initWithStyle:UITableViewCellStyleDefault reuseIdentifier:CellIdentifier] autorelease]; } cell.textLabel.text = [items objectAtIndex:indexPath.row]; return cell; } - (void)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView commitEditingStyle:(UITableViewCellEditingStyle)editingStyle forRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { if (editingStyle == UITableViewCellEditingStyleDelete) { [items removeObjectAtIndex:indexPath.row]; [tableView deleteRowsAtIndexPaths:[NSArray arrayWithObject:indexPath] withRowAnimation:UITableViewRowAnimationBottom]; } } The problem is, when I either insert or delete the very last row in the table, the animation doesn't work at all; the row just appears or disappears instantly. This only happens with UITableViewRowAnimationBottom, but that's the animation that makes the most sense for creating or deleting table cells in this way. Is this a bug in Apple's framework? Or does it do this on purpose? Would it make sense to add an extra cell to the count, and then setup this cell so that it looks like it's not there at all, just to get around this behavior?

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• jQuery slideDown + CSS Floats

  - by danilo

  I'm using a HTML Table with several rows. Every second row - containing details about the preceding row - is hidden using CSS. When clicking the first row, the second row gets showed using jQuery show(). This is quite nice, but I would prefer the slideDown-Effect. The problem is, inside the details row, there are two floating DIVs, one floating on the left, and one on the right. Now if i slideDown the previously hidden row, the contained DIVs behave strange and "jump around". See this animated gif to understand what I mean: http://ich-wars-nicht.ch/tmp/lunapic_127365879362365_.gif The markup: <tr class="row-vm"> <td>...</td> ... </tr> <tr class="row-details"> <td colspan="8"> <div class="vmdetail-left"> ... </div> <div class="vmdetail-right"> ... </div> </td> </tr> The CSS: .table-vmlist tr.row-details { display: none; } div.vmdetail-left { float: left; width: 50%; } div.vmdetail-right { float: right; width: 50%; } And the jQuery code: if ($(this).next().css('display') == 'none') { // Show details //$(this).next().show(); $(this).next().slideDown(); } else { // Hide details //$(this).next().hide(); $(this).next().slideUp(); } Is there a way to fix this behavior, and to implement a nice slideDown-effect?

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• In Java, is there a gain in using interfaces for complex models?

  - by Gnoupi

  The title is hardly understandable, but I'm not sure how to summarize that another way. Any edit to clarify is welcome. I have been told, and recommended to use interfaces to improve performances, even in a case which doesn't especially call for the regular "interface" role. In this case, the objects are big models (in a MVC meaning), with many methods and fields. The "good use" that has been recommended to me is to create an interface, with its unique implementation. There won't be any other class implementing this interface, for sure. I have been told that this is better to do so, because it "exposes less" (or something close) to the other classes which will use methods from this class, as these objects are referring to the object from its interface (all public method from the implementation being reproduced in the interface). This seems quite strange to me, as it seems like a C++ use to me (with header files). There I see the point, but in Java? Is there really a point in making an interface for such unique implementation? I would really appreciate some clarifications on the topic, so I could justify not following such kind of behavior, and the hassle it creates from duplicating all declarations.

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• How to specify generic method type parameters partly

  - by DNNX

  I have an extension method like below: public static T GetValueAs<T, R>(this IDictionary<string, R> dictionary, string fieldName) where T : R { R value; if (!dictionary.TryGetValue(fieldName, out value)) return default(T); return (T)value; } Currently, I can use it in the following way: var dictionary = new Dictionary<string, object(); //... var list = dictionary.GetValueAs<List<int, object("A"); // this may throw ClassCastException - this is expected behavior; It works pretty fine, but the second type parameter is really annoying. Is it possible in C# 4.0 rewrite GetValueAs is such a way that the method will still be applicable to different types of string-keyed dictionaries AND there will be no need to specify second type parameter in the calling code, i.e. use var list = dictionary.GetValueAs<List<int("A"); or at least something like var list = dictionary.GetValueAs<List<int, ?("A"); instead of var list = dictionary.GetValueAs<List<int, object("A");

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• Does Interlocked guarantee visibility to other threads in C# or do I still have to use volatile?

  - by Lirik

  I've been reading the answer to a similar question, but I'm still a little confused... Abel had a great answer, but this is the part that I'm unsure about: ...declaring a variable volatile makes it volatile for every single access. It is impossible to force this behavior any other way, hence volatile cannot be replaced with Interlocked. This is needed in scenarios where other libraries, interfaces or hardware can access your variable and update it anytime, or need the most recent version. Does Interlocked guarantee visibility of the atomic operation to all threads, or do I still have to use the volatile keyword on the value in order to guarantee visibility of the change? Here is my example: public class CountDownLatch { private volatile int m_remain; // <--- do I need the volatile keyword there since I'm using Interlocked? private EventWaitHandle m_event; public CountDownLatch (int count) { Reset(count); } public void Reset(int count) { if (count < 0) throw new ArgumentOutOfRangeException(); m_remain = count; m_event = new ManualResetEvent(false); if (m_remain == 0) { m_event.Set(); } } public void Signal() { // The last thread to signal also sets the event. if (Interlocked.Decrement(ref m_remain) == 0) m_event.Set(); } public void Wait() { m_event.WaitOne(); } }

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• no such file to load -- for several gems unpacked in a Rails 2.3.8 app

  - by vincentp

  Hi, I unpacked several gems into the /vendor/gems folder, and I get the same error message for 5 of these gems when I try to start my Rails application. The date-performance one as an example : no such file to load -- date_performance.so /opt/ruby-enterprise-1.8.7-20090928/lib/ruby/site_ruby/1.8/rubygems/custom_require.rb:36:in `gem_original_require' /opt/ruby-enterprise-1.8.7-20090928/lib/ruby/site_ruby/1.8/rubygems/custom_require.rb:36:in `require' /opt/ruby-enterprise-1.8.7-20090928/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/activesupport-2.3.8/lib/active_support/dependencies.rb:156:in `require' /opt/ruby-enterprise-1.8.7-20090928/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/activesupport-2.3.8/lib/active_support/dependencies.rb:521:in `new_constants_in' /opt/ruby-enterprise-1.8.7-20090928/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/activesupport-2.3.8/lib/active_support/dependencies.rb:156:in `require' /path_to_my_app/vendor/gems/date-performance-0.4.8/lib/date/performance.rb:34 ... Here is the line 34 : require 'date_performance.so' I'm including the gem using the following code : config.gem "date-performance", :lib => "date/performance" The '.so' file is under /path_to_my_app/vendor/gems/date-performance-0.4.8/lib/ Any idea on why things were working while the gems were not unpacked? Do you have any idea about this behavior? I'm using : Rails 2.3.8 REE 1.8.7 gem 1.3.6 Mac OS X Thanks! Vincent

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• Catching exception in Main() method

  - by Corvin

  Consider the following simple application: a windows form created by a "new C# windows application" sequence in VS that was modified in a following way: public static void Main() { Application.EnableVisualStyles(); Application.SetCompatibleTextRenderingDefault(false); try { Application.Run(new Form1()); } catch (Exception ex) { MessageBox.Show("An unexpected exception was caught."); } } Form1.cs contains the following modifications: private void Form1_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { throw new Exception("Error"); } If I press F5 in IDE, then, as I expect, I see a message box saying that exception was caught and the application quits. If I go to Debug(or Release)/bin and launch the executable, I see the standard "Unhandled exception" window, meaning that my exception handler doesn't work. Obviously, that has something to do with exception being thrown from a different thread that Application.Run is called from. But the question remains - why the behavior differs depending on whether the application has been run from IDE or from command line? What is the best practice to ensure that no exceptions remain unhandled in the application?

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• RegEx expression or jQuery selector to NOT match "external" links in href

  - by TrueBlueAussie

  I have a jQuery plugin that overrides link behavior, to allow Ajax loading of page content. Simple enough with a delegated event like $(document).on('click','a', function(){});. but I only want it to apply to links that are not like these ones (Ajax loading is not applicable to them, so links like these need to behave normally): target="_blank" // New browser window href="#..." // Bookmark link (page is already loaded). href="afs://..." // AFS file access. href="cid://..." // Content identifiers for MIME body part. href="file://..." // Specifies the address of a file from the locally accessible drive. href="ftp://..." // Uses Internet File Transfer Protocol (FTP) to retrieve a file. href="http://..." // The most commonly used access method. href="https://..." // Provide some level of security of transmission href="mailto://..." // Opens an email program. href="mid://..." // The message identifier for email. href="news://..." // Usenet newsgroup. href="x-exec://..." // Executable program. href="http://AnythingNotHere.com" // External links Sample code: $(document).on('click', 'a:not([target="_blank"])', function(){ var $this = $(this); if ('some additional check of href'){ // Do ajax load and stop default behaviour return false; } // allow link to work normally }); Q: Is there a way to easily detect all "local links" that would only navigate within the current website? excluding all the variations mentioned above. Note: This is for an MVC 5 Razor website, so absolute site URLs are unlikely to occur.

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• jQuery code works for console but not in-page.

  - by justSteve

  I have a form element defined as: <div class="field"> <div class="name"> <label for="User_LastName"> Last name: <span class="asterisk">*</span></label> </div> <div class="value"> <%= Html.TextBox("User.LastName", Model.LastName)%> <%= Html.ValidationMessage("User.LastName")%> </div> </div> and a jQuery selector that is supposed to detect when the input gets focus and highlight the parent: $("input").focus(function() { //watching for an event where an input form comes into focus $(this) .parent() .addClass("curFocus") .children("div") .toggle(); }); If i paste this code into firebug's console - things work as planned. However, i'm running this from a 'RenderPartial' .net mvc page. Other jQuery code sitting within the same $(document).ready(function() { block work correctly. The form uses html helpers to generate the inputs which might complicate the process somewhat - but even so... i'm seeing correct behavior when that code's in console but not in a 'real-time' page. How do i troubleshoot this?

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• How do you hide a Swing Popup when you click somewhere else.

  - by Casey Watson

  I have a Popup that is shown when a user clicks on a button. I would like to hide the popup when any of the following events occur: The user clicks somewhere else in the application. (The background panel for example) The user minimizes the application. The JPopupMenu has this behavior, but I need more than just JMenuItems. The following code block is a simplified illustration to demonstrate the current usage. import java.awt.*; import java.awt.event.ActionEvent; import javax.swing.*; public class PopupTester extends JFrame { public static void main(String[] args) { final PopupTester popupTester = new PopupTester(); popupTester.setLayout(new FlowLayout()); popupTester.setSize(300, 100); popupTester.add(new JButton("Click Me") { @Override protected void fireActionPerformed(ActionEvent event) { Point location = getLocationOnScreen(); int y = (int) (location.getY() + getHeight()); int x = (int) location.getX(); JLabel myComponent = new JLabel("Howdy"); Popup popup = PopupFactory.getSharedInstance().getPopup(popupTester, myComponent, x, y); popup.show(); } }); popupTester.add(new JButton("No Click Me")); popupTester.setVisible(true); popupTester.setDefaultCloseOperation(JFrame.EXIT_ON_CLOSE); } }

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• How to catch unintentional function interpositioning with GCC?

  - by SiegeX

  Reading through my book Expert C Programming, I came across the chapter on function interpositioning and how it can lead to some serious hard to find bugs if done unintentionally. The example given in the book is the following: my_source.c mktemp() { ... } main() { mktemp(); getwd(); } libc mktemp(){ ... } getwd(){ ...; mktemp(); ... } According to the book, what happens in main() is that mktemp() (a standard C library function) is interposed by the implementation in my_source.c. Although having main() call my implementation of mktemp() is intended behavior, having getwd() (another C library function) also call my implementation of mktemp() is not. Apparently, this example was a real life bug that existed in SunOS 4.0.3's version of lpr. The book goes on to explain the fix was to add the keyword static to the definition of mktemp() in my_source.c; although changing the name altogether should have fixed this problem as well. This chapter leaves me with some unresolved questions that I hope you guys could answer: Should our software group adopt the practice of putting the keyword static in front of all functions that we don't want to be exposed? Does GCC have a way to warn about function interposition? We certainly don't ever intend on this happening and I'd like to know about it if it does. Can interposition happen with functions introduced by static libraries? Thanks for the help.

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• nservicebus deleting subscription record after inserting it?

  - by Justin Holbrook

  I have been playing with nservicebus for a few weeks now and since everything was going well on my local machine I decided to try to set up a test environment and work on deployment. I am using the generic host that comes with nservicebus and was using the nservicebus.Integration profile when running locally, but would like to use Nservicebus.Production in the test environment. I set up a sql server 2008 database, made changes to my app.config and everything seemed to work fine. But after a few attempts, I noticed messages were not being picked up by my subscriber. I checked the subscription table and it was empty. Upon examination of the logs I noticed the following: 2010-05-06 15:07:57,416 [1] DEBUG NHibernate.Persister.Entity.AbstractEntityPers ister [(null)] <(null) - Insert 0: INSERT INTO [Subscription] (SubscriberEndpo int, MessageType) VALUES (?, ?) 2010-05-06 15:07:57,416 [1] DEBUG NHibernate.Persister.Entity.AbstractEntityPers ister [(null)] <(null) - Update 0: 2010-05-06 15:07:57,416 [1] DEBUG NHibernate.Persister.Entity.AbstractEntityPers ister [(null)] <(null) - Delete 0: DELETE FROM [Subscription] WHERE Subscriber Endpoint = ? AND MessageType = ? Why would it insert then delete my subscription right afterwards? To try to rule out a nhibernate dialect issue I tried switching my subscription storage to an oracle 10g database. It behaved exactly the same, it worked the first 2 times, then I started seeing my subscriptions being deleted right after they were inserted. Any ideas what is causing this behavior?

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• Work with AJAX response with DOM methods

  - by Stomped

  I'm retrieving an entire HTML document via AJAX - and that works fine. But I need to extract certain parts of that document and do things with them. Using a framework (jquery, mootools, etc) is not an option. The only solution I can think of is to grab the body of the HTML document with a regex (yes, I know, terrible) ie. <body>(.*)</body> put that into the current page's DOM in a hidden element, and work with it from there. Is there an easier/better way? Update I've done some testing, and inserting an entire HTML document into a created element behaves a bit differently across browsers I've tested. For example: FF3.5: keeps the contents of the HEAD and BODY tags IE7 / Safari4: Only includes what's between ... Opera 10.10: Keeps HEAD and everything inside it, Keeps contents of BODY The behavior of IE7 and Safari are ideal, but different browsers are doing this differently. Since I'm loading a predetermined HTML document I think I'm going to use the regEx to grab what I want and insert it into a DOM element - unless someone has other suggestions.

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• Silverlight Binding - Binds when item is added but doesn't get updates.

  - by dw

  Hello, I'm sorta at a loss to why this doesn't work considering I got it from working code, just added a new level of code, but here's what I have. Basically, when I bind the ViewModel to a list, the binding picks up when Items are added to a collection. However, if an update occurs to the item that is bound, it doesn't get updated. Basically, I have an ObservableCollection that contains a custom class with a string value. When that string value gets updated I need it to update the List. Right now, when I debug, the list item does get updated correctly, but the UI doesn't reflect the change. If I set the bound item to a member variable and null it out then reset it to the right collection it will work, but not desired behavior. Here is a mockup of the code, hopefully someone can tell me where I am wrong. Also, I've tried implementing INofityPropertyChanged at every level in the code below. public class Class1 { public string ItemName; } public class Class2 { private Class2 _items; private Class2() //Singleton { _items = new ObservableCollection<Class1>(); } public ObservableCollection<Class1> Items { get { return _items; } internal set { _items = value; } } } public class Class3 { private Class2 _Class2Instnace; private Class3() { _Class2Instnace = Class2.Instance; } public ObservableCollection<Class1> Items2 { get {return _Class2Instnace.Items; } } } public class MyViewModel : INofityPropertyChanged { private Class3 _myClass3; private MyViewModel() { _myClass3 = new Class3(); } private BindingItems { get { return _myClass3.Items2; } // Binds when adding items but not when a Class1.ItemName gets updated. } }

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• SELECT SQL Variable - should i avoid using this syntax and always use SET?

  - by Sholom

  Hi All, This may look like a duplicate to here, but it's not. I am trying to get a best practice, not a technical answer (which i already (think) i know). New to SQL Server and trying to form good habits. I found a great explanation of the functional differences between SET @var = and SELECT @var = here: http://vyaskn.tripod.com/differences_between_set_and_select.htm To summarize what each has that the other hasn't (see source for examples): SET: ANSI and portable, recommended by Microsoft. SET @var = (SELECT column_name FROM table_name) fails when the select returns more then one value, eliminating the possibility of unpredictable results. SET @var = (SELECT column_name FROM table_name) will set @var to NULL if that's what SELECT column_name FROM table_name returned, thus never leaving @var at it's prior value. SELECT: Multiple variables can be set in one statement Can return multiple system variables set by the prior DML statement SELECT @var = column_name FROM table_name would set @var to (according to my testing) the last value returned by the select. This could be a feature or a bug. Behavior can be changed with SELECT @j = (SELECT column_name FROM table_name) syntax. Speed. Setting multiple variables with a single SELECT statement as opposed to multiple SET/SELECT statements is much quicker. He has a sample test to prove his point. If you could design a test to prove the otherwise, bring it on! So, what do i do? (Almost) always use SET @var =, using SELECT @var = is messy coding and not standard. OR Use SELECT @var = freely, it could accomplish more for me, unless the code is likely to be ported to another environment. Thanks

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• @dynamic property needs setter with multiple behaviors

  - by ambertch

  I have a class that contains multiple user objects and as such has an array of them as an instance variable: NSMutableArray *users; The tricky part is setting it. I am deserializing these objects from a server via Objective Resource, and for backend reasons users can only be returned as a long string of UIDs - what I have locally is a separate dictionary of users keyed to UIDs. Given the string uidString of comma separated UIDs I override the default setter and populate the actual user objects: @dynamic users; - (void)setUsers:(id)uidString { users = [NSMutableArray arrayWithArray: [[User allUsersDictionary] objectsForKeys:[(NSString*)uidString componentsSeparatedByString:@","]]]; } The problem is this: I now serialize these to database using SQLitePO, which stores these as the array of user objects, not the original string. So when I retrieve it from database the setter mistakenly treats this array of user objects as a string! Where I actually want to adjust the setter's behavior when it gets this object from DB vs. over the network. I can't just make the getter serialize back into a string without tearing up large code that reference this array of user objects, and I tried to detect in the setter whether I have a string or an array coming in: if ([uidString respondsToSelector:@selector(addObject)]) { // Already an array, so don't do anything - just assign users = uidString but no success... so I'm kind of stuck - any suggestions? Thanks in advance!

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• Keyboard not dismissed

  - by sgosha

  I am developing a messaging application that have SMS.app-like UI. Conversation screen has text input field at the bottom which is moved up with keyboard. Tapping on conversation area dismisses keyboard by calling resignFirstResponder method on UITextView that we use. This usually works fine, but users report a weird bug which I can't reproduce and fix. People say that sometimes onscreen keyboard doesn't go away when they tap on conversation area, though text input field loses input focus. Once the view enters that abnormal state users are able to type with keyboard, but text that is being entered is not visible anywhere. This bug happens in one of conversation views and since then no one text input field in other views doesn't work as expected. The only way to stop this weird behavior is killing application from multitasking bar. Even more weird thing is that keyboard stays visible while navigating between view controllers in UINavigationController. I noticed two things: - if tap on ' Anyone else experiencing same problems. Any ideas on what may cause this bug?

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• Is there anything on a local network or desktop environment that could effect JScript execution?

  - by uku

  I know this sounds odd. The JS on my project functions perfectly, except when the web site is accessed using computers at one specific company. To make things even more difficult, the JS fails only about 50% of the time when run from that company. The JS failure occurs with FireFox, Chrome, and IE. I have tested this myself using FF and Chrome on a thumb drive. The browsers on my thumb always display my project site perfectly, except when run from a computer on said company's network where they fail at the same rate as the installed browsers. My JS is using jQuery and making some Ajax calls. The Ajax calls are where the failure is occurring. To diagnose the problem I created a logging function for my Ajax calls and recorded success and failure. Over a one month period, there were only a handful of failures (about 1%) from all access points other than this company. Oddly enough, the Ajax calls in the logging function are not failing. There is nothing exotic there - Just Win XP SP3. I have never noticed any other unusual behavior from their network. The company is a division of a mega ISP and is on their corporate network. Any other suggestions for troubleshooting would be welcome.

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• PHP loop hanging/interspersed/threaded through HTML

  - by sandyv

  I can't figure out how to say what I'm talking about which is a big part of why I'm stuck. In PHP I often see code like this html <?php language construct that uses brackets { some code; ?> more html <?php some more code; } ?> rest of html Is there any name for this? Having seen this lead me to try it out so here is a concrete example whose behavior doesn't make sense to me <div id="content"> <ul id="nav"> <?php $path = 'content'; $dir = dir($path); while(false !== ($file = $dir->read())) { if(preg_match('/.+\.txt/i', $file)) { echo "<li>$file</li>"; ?> </ul> <?php echo file_get_contents($path . '/' . $file); } } ?> </div> Which outputs roughly <div><ul><li></li></ul><li></li>...</div> instead of <div><ul><li></li>...</ul></div> which is what I thought would happen and what I want to happen.

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• What could trigger a change of http status to 500 on the client's end?

  - by VexedPanda

  We have a PHP web application that posts data to itself, and either displays an updated page based on that data, or redirects to another page. An example of this is a script with a paged list on it, where clicking on the Next link causes a post to the same page, which then returns an updated version of the page showing the new set of list items. One client is reporting that IE is displaying friendly error messages when the page updates itself instead of the correct behavior of displaying the updated page. Turning friendly error messages off "corrects" this problem, and displays the updated page normally, indicating no actual server error occurred. When testing from any location other than this client's our web app does not produce any http error statuses, and in this specific situation only produces 200 statuses. (According to Fiddler.) What could be interfering with the HTTP POST and changing the response's http status code to 500 (or another code that would trigger friendly errors in IE)? Are there certain proxies or other network tools that could be misconfigured or buggy in this manner? Is there any way we can alter our application (apart from avoiding posts to the same script, which is not feasible) to get around this misbehavior?

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• boost thread pool

  - by Dtag

  I need a threadpool for my application, and I'd like to rely on standard (C++11 or boost) stuff as much as possible. I realize there is an unofficial(!) boost thread pool class, which basically solves what I need, however I'd rather avoid it because it is not in the boost library itself -- why is it still not in the core library after so many years? In some posts on this page and elsewhere, people suggested using boost::asio to achieve a threadpool like behavior. At first sight, that looked like what I wanted to do, however I found out that all implementations I have seen have no means to join on the currently active tasks, which makes it useless for my application. To perform a join, they send stop signal to all the threads and subsequently join them. However, that completely nullifies the advantage of threadpools in my use case, because that makes new tasks require the creation of a new thread. What I want to do is: ThreadPool pool(4); for (...) { for (int i=0;i<something;i++) pool.pushTask(...); pool.join(); // do something with the results } Can anyone suggest a solution (except for using the existing unofficial thread pool on sourceforge)? Is there anything in C++11 or core boost that can help me here? Thanks a lot

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• Using the AutoComplete feature of ComboBox, while limiting values to those in the list?

  - by Schmuli

  In WinForms 2.0, a ComboBox has an Auto-Complete feature, that displays a custom Drop-Down list with only the values that start with the entered text. However, if I want to limit valid values to only those that appear in the ComboBox's list of items, I can do that by setting the DropDownStyle to DropDownList, which stops the user from entering a value. However, now I can't use the Auto-Complete feature, which requires user input. Is there another way to limit input to the list, while still allowing use of the Auto-Complete feature? Note that I have seen some custom solutions for this, but I really like the way the matching Auto-Complete items are displayed in a Drop-Down list, and sorted even though the original list may not be. EDIT: I have thought about just validating the entered value, i.e. testing user input if it is valid in, say, the TextChanged event, or even using the Validating event. The question then is what is the expected behavior? Do I clear their value (an empty value is also invalid), or do I use a default value? Closest matching value? P.s. Is there any other tags that I could add to this question?

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