Search Results

Search found 7851 results on 315 pages for 'chris bunch'.

Page 271/315 | < Previous Page | 267 268 269 270 271 272 273 274 275 276 277 278  | Next Page >

• C++ .NET DLL vs C# Managed Code ? (File Encrypting AES-128+XTS)

  - by Ranhiru

  I need to create a Windows Mobile Application (WinMo 6.x - C#) which is used to encrypt/decrypt files. However it is my duty to write the encryption algorithm which is AES-128 along with XTS as the mode of operation. RijndaelManaged just doesn't cut it :( Very much slower than DES and 3DES CryptoServiceProviders :O I know it all depends on how good I am at writing the algorithm in the most efficient way. (And yes I my self have to write it from scratch but i can take a look @ other implementations) Nevertheless, does writing a C++ .NET DLL to create the encryption/decryption algorithm + all the file handling and using it from C# have a significant performance advantage OVER writing the encryption algorithm + file handling in completely managed C# code? If I use C++ .NET to create the encryption algorithm, should I use MFC Smart Device DLL or ATL? What is the difference and is there any impact on which one I choose? And can i just add a reference to the C++ DLL from C# or should I use P/Invoke? I am fairly competent with C# than C++ but performance plays a major role as I have convinced my lecturers that AES is a very efficient cryptographic algorithm for resource constrained devices. Thanx a bunch :)

  Read the article

• Gems install fine but don't show as installed under rake gems

  - by Josh Pinter

  I'll show you my output here: rake gems (in /Users/jp/Sites/central/trunk) - [F] authlogic - [R] activesupport - [F] builder - [F] formtastic - [R] activesupport >= 2.3.0 - [R] actionpack >= 2.3.0 - [ ] fastercsv I = Installed F = Frozen R = Framework (loaded before rails starts) Making sure fastercsv is installed: gem which fastercsv /usr/local/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/fastercsv-1.5.3/lib/fastercsv.rb After installing through a variety of methods but only one is shown here: sudo rake gems:install (in /Users/jp/central/trunk) gem install fastercsv Successfully installed fastercsv-1.5.3 1 gem installed Installing ri documentation for fastercsv-1.5.3... Installing RDoc documentation for fastercsv-1.5.3... And try it again. rake gems (in /Users/jp/Sites/central/trunk) - [F] authlogic - [R] activesupport - [F] builder - [F] formtastic - [R] activesupport >= 2.3.0 - [R] actionpack >= 2.3.0 - [ ] fastercsv I = Installed F = Frozen R = Framework (loaded before rails starts) One thing to know is that I tried unpacking the gems but if it doesn't think it's installed it can't unpack it. Another thing is that I really tried to figure this out. There's a bunch of people saying clean up local gems in your user account, always install with sudo, etc. But I've tried all that. What would you guys do to fix this? Thanks many times over, Josh

  Read the article

• Bypassing confirmation prompt of an external process

  - by Alidad

  How can I convert this Perl code to Groovy? How to bypass confirmation prompts of an external process? I am trying to convert a Perl script to Groovy. The program is loading/delete maestro (job scheduling) jobs automatically. The problem is the delete command will prompt for confirmation (Y/N) on every single job that it finds. I tried the process execute in groovy but will stop at the prompts. The Perl script is writing bunch of Ys to the stream and print it to the handler( if I understood it correctly) to avoid stopping. I am wondering how to do the same thing in Groovy ? Or any other approach to execute a command and somehow write Y on every confirmation prompt. Perl Script: $maestrostring=""; while ($x < 1500) { $maestrostring .= "y\n"; $x++; } # delete the jobs open(MAESTRO_CMD, "|ssh mserver /bin/composer delete job=pserver#APPA@") print MAESTRO_CMD $maestrostring; close(MAESTRO_CMD); This is my groovy code so far: def deleteMaestroJobs (){ ... def commandSched ="ssh $maestro_server /bin/composer delete sched=$primary_server#$app_acronym$app_level@" def commandJobs ="ssh $maestro_server /bin/composer delete job=$primary_server#$app_acronym$app_level@" try { executeCommand commandJobs } catch (Exception ex ){ throw new Exception("Error executing the Maestro Composer [DELETE]") } try { executeCommand commandSched } catch (Exception ex ){ throw new Exception("Error executing the Maestro Composer [DELETE]") } } def executeCommand(command){ def process = command.execute() process.withWriter { writer -> 1500.times {writer.println 'Y' } } process.consumeProcessOutput(System.out, System.err) process.waitFor() }

  Read the article

• Update existing Preference-item in a PreferenceActivity upon returning from a (sub)PreferenceScreen

  - by aioobe

  I have a PreferenceActivity with a bunch of (Sub)PreferenceScreens. Each such (Sub)PreferenceScreen represents an account and has the account-username as its title. PreferenceScreen root = mgr.createPreferenceScreen(this); for (MyAccountClass account : myAccounts) { final PreferenceScreen accScreen = mgr.createPreferenceScreen(this); accScreen.setTitle(account.getUsername()); // add Preferences to the accScreen // (for instance a "change username"-preference) ... root.add(accScreen); } As the user enters sub-PreferenceScreen, and edits the account user-name, I want the outer PreferenceScreen to update it's PreferenceScreen-title for the account in question. I've tried to add... usernamePref.setOnPreferenceChangeListener(new OnPreferenceChangeListener() { public boolean onPreferenceChange(Preference preference, Object newValue) { accScreen.setTitle(newValue.toString()); return true; } }); ...but the accScreen.setTitle does not seem to take effect on the outer PreferenceScreen. I've note that calling onContentChanged(); actually makes it work, but I realize that this is probably not the preferred way of doing it. I suspect I should call postInvalidate() on some view somewhere, but I really can't figure out on what view and when to do it. http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2396153/preferencescreen-androidsummary-update may be experiening the same problem as me. Any help appreciated.

  Read the article

• Using Regex, how can I remove certain characters from inside angle-brackets, leaving the characters

  - by Iain Fraser

  Edit: To be clear, please understand that I am not using Regex to parse the html, that's crazy talk! I'm simply wanting to clean up a messy string of html so it will parse Edit #2: I should also point out that the control character I'm using is a special unicode character - it's not something that would ever be used in a proper tag under any normal circumstances Suppose I have a string of html that contains a bunch of control characters and I want to remove the control characters from inside tags only, leaving the characters outside the tags alone. For example Here the control character is the numeral "1". Input The quick 1<strong>orange</strong> lemming <sp11a1n 1class1='jumpe111r'11>jumps over</span> 1the idle 1frog Desired Output The quick 1<strong>orange</strong> lemming <span class='jumper'>jumps over</span> 1the idle 1frog So far I can match tags which contain the control character but I can't remove them in one regex. I guess I could perform another regex on my matches, but I'd really like to know if there's a better way. My regex Bear in mind this one only matches tags which contain the control character. <(([^>])*?`([^>])*?)*?> Thanks very much for your time and consideration. Iain Fraser

  Read the article

• SharePoint 2007 and SiteMinder

  - by pborovik

  Here is a question regarding some details how SiteMinder secures access to the SharePoint 2007. I've read a bunch of materials regarding this and have some picture for SharePoint 2010 FBA claims-based + SiteMinder security (can be wrong here, of course): SiteMinder is registered as a trusted identity provider for the SharePoint; It means (to my mind) that SharePoint has no need to go into all those user directories like AD, RDBMS or whatever to create a record for user being granted access to SharePoint - instead it consumes a claims-based id supplied by SiteMinder SiteMinder checks all requests to SharePoint resources and starts login sequence via SiteMinder if does not find required headers in the request (SMSESSION, etc.) SiteMinder creates a GenericIdentity with the user login name if headers are OK, so SharePoint recognizes the user as authenticated But in the case of SharePoint 2007 with FBA + SiteMinder, I cannot find an answer for questions like: Does SharePoint need to go to all those user directories like AD to know something about users (as SiteMinder is not in charge of providing user info like claims-based ids)? So, SharePoint admin should configure SharePoint FBA to talk to these sources? Let's say I'm talking to a Web Service of SharePoint protected by SiteMinder. Shall I make a Authentication.asmx-Login call to create a authentication ticket or this schema is somehow changed by the SiteMinder? If such call is needed, do I also need a SiteMinder authentication sequence? What prevents me from rewriting request headers (say, manually in Fiddler) before posting request to the SharePoint protected by SiteMinder to override its defence? Pity, but I do not have access to deployed SiteMinder + SharePoint, so need to investigate some question blindly. Thanks.

  Read the article

• Instruments (Leaks) and NSDateFormatter

  - by Cal

  When I run my iPhone app with Instruments Leaks and parse a bunch of NSDates using NSDateFormatter my memory goes up about 1mb and stays even though these NSDates should be dealloc'd after the parsing (I just discard them if they aren't new). I thought the malloc (in my heaviest stack trace below) could become part of the NSDate but I also thought it could be memory that only used during some intermediate step in parsing. Does anyone know which one it is or how to find out? Also, is there a way to put a breakpoint on NSDate dealloc to see if that memory is really being reclaimed? Here's what my date formatter looks like for parsing these dates: df = [[NSDateFormatter alloc] init]; [df setDateFormat:@"EEE, d MMM yyyy H:m:s z"]; Here's the Heaviest Stack trace when the memory bumps up and stays there: 0 libSystem.B.dylib 208.80 Kb malloc 1 libicucore.A.dylib 868.19 Kb icu::ZoneMeta::getSingleCountry(icu::UnicodeString const&, icu::UnicodeString&) 2 libicucore.A.dylib 868.66 Kb icu::ZoneMeta::getSingleCountry(icu::UnicodeString const&, icu::UnicodeString&) 3 libicucore.A.dylib 868.67 Kb icu::ZoneMeta::getSingleCountry(icu::UnicodeString const&, icu::UnicodeString&) 4 libicucore.A.dylib 868.67 Kb icu::DateFormatSymbols::initZoneStringFormat() 5 libicucore.A.dylib 868.67 Kb icu::DateFormatSymbols::getZoneStringFormat() const 6 libicucore.A.dylib 868.67 Kb icu::SimpleDateFormat::subParse(icu::UnicodeString const&, int&, unsigned short, int, signed char, signed char, signed char*, icu::Calendar&) const 7 libicucore.A.dylib 868.67 Kb icu::SimpleDateFormat::parse(icu::UnicodeString const&, icu::Calendar&, icu::ParsePosition&) const 8 libicucore.A.dylib 868.67 Kb icu::DateFormat::parse(icu::UnicodeString const&, icu::ParsePosition&) const 9 libicucore.A.dylib 868.67 Kb udat_parse 10 CoreFoundation 868.67 Kb CFDateFormatterGetAbsoluteTimeFromString 11 CoreFoundation 868.67 Kb CFDateFormatterCreateDateFromString 12 Foundation 868.67 Kb -[NSDateFormatter getObjectValue:forString:range:error:] 13 Foundation 868.75 Kb -[NSDateFormatter getObjectValue:forString:errorDescription:] 14 Foundation 868.75 Kb -[NSDateFormatter dateFromString:] Thanks!

  Read the article

• structured vs. unstructured data in db

  - by Igor

  the question is one of design. i'm gathering a big chunk of performance data with lots of key-value pairs. pretty much everything in /proc/cpuinfo, /proc/meminfo/, /proc/loadavg, plus a bunch of other stuff, from several hundred hosts. right now, i just need to display the latest chunk of data in my UI. i will probably end up doing some analysis of the data gathered to figure out performance problems down the road, but this is a new application so i'm not sure what exactly i'm looking for performance-wise just yet. i could structure the data in the db -- have a column for each key i'm gathering. the table would end up being O(100) columns wide, it would be a pain to put into the db, i would have to add new columns if i start gathering a new stat. but it would be easy to sort/analyze the data just using SQL. or i could just dump my unstructured data blob into the table. maybe three columns -- host id, timestamp, and a serialized version of my array, probably using JSON in a TEXT field. which should I do? am i going to be sorry if i go with the unstructured approach? when doing analysis, should i just convert the fields i'm interested in and create a new, more structured table? what are the trade-offs i'm missing here?

  Read the article

• how to extend a protocol for a delegate in objective C, then subclass an object to require a conform

  - by fess .

  I want to subclass UITextView, and send a new message to the delegate. So, I want to extend the delegate protocol, What's the correct way to do this? I started out with this: interface: #import <Foundation/Foundation.h> @class MySubClass; @protocol MySubClassDelegate <UITextViewDelegate> - (void) MySubClassMessage: (MySubClass *) subclass; @end @interface MySubClass : UITextView { } @end implementation: #import "MySubClass.h" @implementation MySubClass - (void) SomeMethod; { if ([self.delegate respondsToSelector: @selector (MySubClassMessage:)]) { [self.delegate MySubClassMessage: self]; } } @end however with that I get the warning: '-MySubClassMessage:' not found in protocol(s). I had one way working where I created my own ivar to store the delegate, then also stored the delegate using [super setDelegate] but that seemed wrong. perhaps it's not. I know I can just pass id's around and get by, but My goal is to make sure that the compiler checks that any delegate supplied to MySubClass conforms to MySubClassDelegate protocol. To further clairfy: @interface MySubClassTester : NSObject { } @implementation MySubClassTester - (void) one { MySubClass *subclass = [[MySubClass alloc] init]; subclass.delegate = self; } @end will produce the warning: class 'MySubClassTester' does not implement the 'UITextViewDelegate' protocol I want it to produce the warning about not implementing 'MySubClassDelegate' protocol instead. Thanks, a bunch. (thanks brad)

  Read the article

• How to serialize a protected property in wcf

  - by Denis Rosca

  Hello, i need some help with wcf serializing. I have two classes Person and Address. The Address class looks like this: public class Adresa : IExtensibleDataObject { private Guid _id; [DataMember] protected virtual Guid Id { get { return _id; } set { _id = value; } } private ExtensionDataObject _extensionData; [DataMember] public virtual ExtensionDataObject ExtensionData { get { return _extensionData; } set { _extensionData = value; } } private string _street; [DataMember] public virtual string Street { get { return this._cUTAM; } set { this._cUTAM = value; } } private string _number; [DataMember] public virtual string Number { get { return this._number; } set { this._number = value; } } private string _postalCode; [DataMember] public virtual string PostalCode { get { return this._postalCode; } set { this._postalCode = value; } } // and some other stuff related to the address } The Person class looks like this: public class PersoanaFizica :IExtensibleDataObject { private Guid _id; [DataMember] protected virtual Guid Id { get { return _id; } set { _id = value; } } private ExtensionDataObject _extensionData; [DataMember] public virtual ExtensionDataObject ExtensionData { get { return _extensionData; } set { _extensionData = value; } } private string _firstName; [DataMember] public virtual string FirstName { get { return this._firstName; } set { this._firstName = value; } } private string _lastName; [DataMember] public virtual string LastName { get { return this._lastName; } set { this._lastName = value; } } } The problem is that when the wcf client the data the Id properties are set to a bunch of zeros ( something like 000000-0000-000000-0000000). Any ideas on why this is happening? Thanks, Denis.

  Read the article

• Get the value for a WPF binding

  - by Jose

  Ok, I didn't want a bunch of ICommands in my MVVM ViewModels so I decided to create a MarkupExtension for WPF that you feed it a string(the name of the method), and it gives you back an ICommand that executes the method. here's a snippet: public class MethodCall : MarkupExtension { public MethodCall(string methodName) { MethodName = methodName; CanExecute = "Can" + methodName; } public override object ProvideValue(IServiceProvider serviceProvider) { Binding bin= new Binding { Converter = new MethodConverter(MethodName,CanExecute) }; return bin.ProvideValue(serviceProvider); } } public class MethodConverter : IValueConverter { string MethodName; public object Convert(object value, Type targetType, object parameter, System.Globalization.CultureInfo culture) { //Convert to ICommand ICommand cmd = ConvertToICommand(); if (cmd == null) Debug.WriteLine(string.Format("Could not bind to method 'MyMethod' on object",MethodName)); return cmd; } } It works great, except when the binding fails(e.g. you mistype). When you do this in xaml: {Binding MyPropertyName} you see in the output window whenever the binding fails. and it tells you the propertyName the Type name etc. The MethodConverter Class can tell you the name of the method that failed, but it can't tell you the source object type. Because the value will be null. I can't figure out how to store the source object type so for the following class public class MyClass { public void MyMethod() { } } and the following xaml: <Button Command={d:MethodCall MyMethod}>My Method</Button> It currently says: "Could not bind to method 'MyMethod' on object but I would like it to say: "Could not bind to method 'MyMethod' on object MyClass Any ideas?

  Read the article

• Programmatical Creation of NSMappingModel

  - by enchilada

  I want to programmatically (without Lightweight Migration) create a mapping model between two models that are exactly the same, except one of the entities (there are a bunch of entities) has different attributes. Let's call this entity "Person". And let's say the destination model has 1) added a new attribute called "address" 2) deleted an attribute called "eyeColor" 3) kept (i.e. not done anything with) an attribute called "name" How would you create an NSMappingModel between these models programmatically? I happen to have some explicit questions that might help me do this by myself: Q1) Do I have to create NSEntityMapping objects for all of the entities other than "Person", even if they remain unchanged? Q2) How do I deal with the "address" attribute in "Person", which is a new one being created? Should I create an NSPropertyMapping for that somehow, that turns nothing into something ("address")? Q3) How do I deal with the "name" attribute in "Person"? Do I have to create an NSPropertyMapping for that, even though it simply stays the same? Q4) For the NSEntityMapping corresponding to "Person", is not creating any NSPropertyMapping for "eyeColor" a proper way to get it deleted? Or should I create an NSPropertyMapping for "eyeColor"? If yes, how would this object be created, i.e. what would determine that its purpose is to get rid of "eyeColor"? Thank you in advance, and I apologize not being able to answer these questions myself, as the documenation really has no good example of how to create NSMappingModels programmatically. Note again that I'm not allowed to use Lightweight Migration. I must do this manually.

  Read the article

• Error Log states that I have MySQL connect error, yet script runs fine

  - by rob - not a robber

  Hello All, First, thanks for all the help I've received so far from StackOverflow. I've learned much. Once again, I'm posing a rudimentary question that I've searched on, but cannot find the exact answer to. Here or on PHP.net. It's sort of like what this guy asked, but not exactly: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/288603/mysql-throwing-query-error-yet-finishing-query-just-fine-why So, I saw my errorlog ballooning up when I checked my site directory and opened to notice that a bunch of errors have been recorded since I wrote this new Admin area. I know something is obviously awry with my scripting for the error to be thrown, but the weird thing is, the script actually runs through and pulls all the data I need without breaking. The log contains: PHP Warning: mysql_query() [function.mysql-query]: Access denied for user 'someuser'@'localhost' (using password: NO) in /home/mysite/adminconsole.php on line 15 I don't get that because that very line is where I setup my connection... the exact same way I do it everywhere else on the site with no problem. After that error, I have these thrown at the same time [09-Apr-2010 08:44:18] PHP Warning: mysql_query() [function.mysql-query]: A link to the server could not be established in /home/mysite/adminconsole.php on line 15 [09-Apr-2010 08:44:18] PHP Warning: mysql_fetch_array(): supplied argument is not a valid MySQL result resource in /home/mysite/adminconsole.php on line 16 From what I read in the other guys thread, the problem is the contents of the query maybe? Maybe my query is malformed? Thanks so much for any guidance you can provide. -Rob

  Read the article

• Configure IIS7 to server static content through ASP.NET Runtime

  - by Anton Gogolev

  I searched high an low and still cannot find a definite answer. How do I configure IIS 7.0 or a Web Application in IIS so that ASP.NET Runtime will handle all requests -- including ones to static files like *.js, *.gif, etc? What I'm trying to do is as follows. We have kind of SaaSy site, which we can "skin" for every customer. "Skinnig" means developing a custom master page and using a bunch of *.css and other images. Quite naturally, I'm using VirtualPathProvider, which operates like this: public override System.Web.Hosting.VirtualFile GetFile(string virtualPath) { if(PhysicalFileExists(virtualPath)) { var virtualFile = base.GetFile(virtualPath); return virtualFile; } if(VirtualFileExists(virtualPath)) { var brandedVirtualPath = GetBrandedVirtualPath(virtualPath); var absolutePath = HttpContext.Current.Server.MapPath(brandedVirtualPath); Trace.WriteLine(string.Format("Serving '{0}' from '{1}'", brandedVirtualPath, absolutePath), "BrandingAwareVirtualPathProvider"); var virtualFile = new VirtualFile(brandedVirtualPath, absolutePath); return virtualFile; } return null; } The basic idea is as follows: we have a branding folder inside our webapp, which in turn contains folders for each "brand", with "brand" being equal to host name. That is, requests to http://foo.example.com/ should use static files from branding/foo_example_com, whereas http://bar.example.com/ should use content from branding/bar_example_com. Now what I want IIS to do is to forward all requests to static files to StaticFileHandler, which would then use this whole "infrastructure" and serve correct files. However, try as I might, I cannot configure IIS to do this.

  Read the article

• How to pull one commit at a time from a remote git repository?

  - by Norman Ramsey

  I'm trying to set up a darcs mirror of a git repository. I have something that works OK, but there's a significant problem: if I push a whole bunch of commits to the git repo, those commits get merged into a single darcs patchset. I really want to make sure each git commit gets set up as a single darcs patchset. I bet this is possible by doing some kind of git fetch followed by interrogation of the local copy of the remote branch, but my git fu is not up to the job. Here's the (ksh) code I'm using now, more or less: git pull -v # pulls all the commits from remote --- bad! # gets information about only the last commit pulled -- bad! author="$(git log HEAD^..HEAD --pretty=format:"%an <%ae>")" logfile=$(mktemp) git log HEAD^..HEAD --pretty=format:"%s%n%b%n" > $logfile # add all new files to darcs and record a patchset. this part is OK darcs add -q --umask=0002 -r . darcs record -a -A "$author" --logfile="$logfile" darcs push -a rm -f $logfile My idea is Try git fetch to get local copy of the remote branch (not sure exactly what arguments are needed) Somehow interrogate the local copy to get a hash for every commit since the last mirroring operation (I have no idea how to do this) Loop through all the hashes, pulling just that commit and recording the associated patchset (I'm pretty sure I know how to do this if I get my hands on the hash) I'd welcome either help fleshing out the scenario above or suggestions about something else I should try. Ideas?

  Read the article

• Efficient way to handle multiple HTMLPurifier configs.

  - by anomareh

  I'm using HTMLPurifier in a current project and I'm not sure about the most efficient way to go about handling multiple configs. For the most part the only major thing changing is the allowed tags. Currently I have a private method, in each class using HTMLPurifier, that gets called when a config is needed and it creates one from the default. I'm not really happy with this as if 2 classes are using the same config, that's duplicating code, and what if a class needs 2 configs? It just feels messy. The one upside to it, is it's lazy in the sense that it's not creating anything until it's needed. The various classes could be used and never have to purify anything. So I don't want to be creating a bunch of config objects that might not even be used. I just recently found out that you can create a new instance of HTMLPurifier and directly set config options like so: $purifier = new HTMLPurifier(); $purifier->config->set('HTML.Allowed', ''); I'm not sure if that's bad form at all or not, and if it isn't I'm not really sure of a good way to put it to use. My latest idea was to create a config handler class that would just return an HTMLPurifier config for use in subsequent purify calls. At some point it could probably be expanded to allow the setting of configs, but just from the start I figured they'd just be hardcoded and run a method parameter through a switch to grab the requested config. Perhaps I could just send the stored purifier instance as an argument and have the method directly set the config on it like shown above? This to me seems the best of the few ways I thought of, though I'm not sure if such a task warrants me creating a class to handle it, and if so, if I'm handling it in the best way. I'm not too familiar with the inner workings of HTMLPurifier so I'm not sure if there are any better mechanisms in place for handling multiple configs. Thanks for any insight anyone can offer.

  Read the article

• How can I marshall a vector<int> from a C++ dll to a C# application?

  - by mmr

  I have a C++ function that produces a list of rectangles that are interesting. I want to be able to get that list out of the C++ library and back into the C# application that is calling it. So far, I'm encoding the rectangles like so: struct ImagePatch{ int xmin, xmax, ymin, ymax; } and then encoding some vectors: void MyFunc(..., std::vector<int>& rectanglePoints){ std::vector<ImagePatch> patches; //this is filled with rectangles for(i = 0; i < patches.size(); i++){ rectanglePoints.push_back(patches[i].xmin); rectanglePoints.push_back(patches[i].xmax); rectanglePoints.push_back(patches[i].ymin); rectanglePoints.push_back(patches[i].ymax); } } The header for interacting with C# looks like (and works for a bunch of other functions): extern "C" { __declspec(dllexport) void __cdecl MyFunc(..., std::vector<int>& rectanglePoints); } Are there some keywords or other things I can do to get that set of rectangles out? I found this article for marshalling objects in C#, but it seems way too complicated and way too underexplained. Is a vector of integers the right way to do this, or is there some other trick or approach?

  Read the article

• Scrolling down to next element via keypress & scrollTo plugin - jQuery

  - by lyrae

  I am using jQuery's scrollTo plugin to scroll up and down my page, using UP arrow and DOWN arrow. i have a bunch of div with class "screen", as so: <div class="screen-wrapper">...</div> What I am trying to do is, when i press UP or DOWN, the window scrolls to the next, or previous div with class of "screen". I have the keypresses taken care of. According to the plugin docs, to scroll a window, you use $.scrollTo(...); Here's the code I have: $(document).keypress(function(e){ switch (e.keyCode) { case 40: // down n = $('.screen-wrapper').next() $.scrollTo( n, 800 ); break; case 38: // up break; case 37: // left break; case 39: // right break; } }); And if it helps, here's the HTML div. I have a few of these on the page, and essentially, am trying to scroll to next one by pressing down arrow: <div class='screen-wrapper'> <div class='screen'> <div class="sections"> <ul> <li><img src="images/portfolio/sushii-1.png " /></li> <li><img src="images/portfolio/sushii-2.png" /></li> <li><img src="images/portfolio/sushii-3.png" /></li> </ul> </div> <div class="next"></div> <div class="prev"></div> </div> And also if it needed, I can provide a link where this is being used if it'll help someone get a better idea. edit And, i forgot to mention what the real question here is. The question/problem is that it won't scroll down past the first element, as seth mentioned.

  Read the article

• Application doesn't exit with 0 threads

  - by Bryce Wagner

  We have a WinForms desktop application, which is heavily multithreaded. 3 threads run with Application.Run and a bunch of other background worker threads. Getting all the threads to shut down properly was kind of tricky, but I thought I finally got it right. But when we actually deployed the application, users started experiencing the application not exiting. There's a System.Threading.Mutex to prevent them from running the app multiple times, so they have to go into task manager and kill the old one before they can run it again. Every thread gets a Thread.Join before the main thread exits, and I added logging to each thread I spawn. According to the log, every single thread that starts also exits, and the main thread also exits. Even stranger, running SysInternals ProcessExplorer show all the threads disappear when the application exits. As in, there are 0 threads (managed or unmanaged), but the process is still running. I can't reproduce this on any developers computers or our test environment, and so far I've only seen it happen on Windows XP (not Vista or Windows 7 or any Windows Server). How can a process keep running with 0 threads?

  Read the article

• How do you save images to a Blackberry device via HttpConnection?

  - by Kai

  My script fetches xml via httpConnection and saves to persistent store. No problems there. Then I loop through the saved data to compose a list of image url's to fetch via queue. Each of these requests calls the httpConnection thread as so ... public synchronized void run() { HttpConnection connection = (HttpConnection)Connector.open("http://www.somedomain.com/image1.jpg"); connection.setRequestMethod("GET"); String contentType = connection.getHeaderField("Content-type"); InputStream responseData = connection.openInputStream(); connection.close(); outputFinal(responseData, contentType); } public synchronized void outputFinal(InputStream result, String contentType) throws SAXException, ParserConfigurationException, IOException { if(contentType.startsWith("text/")) { // bunch of xml save code that works fine } else if(contentType.equals("image/png") || contentType.equals("image/jpeg") || contentType.equals("image/gif")) { // how to save images here? } else { //default } } What I can't find any good documentation on is how one would take the response data and save it to an image stored on the device. Maybe I just overlooked something very obvious. Any help is very appreciated. Thanks

  Read the article

• How do you find a functions virtual call address in assembly?

  - by Daniel

  I've googled around but i'm not sure i am asking the right question or not and i couldn't find much regardless, perhaps a link would be helpful. I made a c++ program that shows a message box, then I opened it up with Ollydbg and went to the part where it calls MessageBoxW. The call address of MessageBoxW changes each time i run the app as windows is updating my Imports table to have the correct address of MessageBoxW. So my question is how do i find the virtual addres of MessageBoxW to my imports table and also how can i use this in ollydbg? Basically I'm trying to make a code cave in assembly to call MessageBoxW again. I got fairly close once by searching the executable with a hex editor and found the position of the call, and I think I found the virtual address. But when i call that virtual address in olly and saved it to the executable, the next time i opened it the call was replaced with a bunch of DB xyz (which looked like the virtual address but why did the call get removed? Sorry if my terminology is off as i'm new to this so i'm not quite sure what to call things.

  Read the article

• WPF TexBox TwoWay Binding Problem when ValidationRules used

  - by ignis

  I seem to have a problem with TwoWay DataBinding - my application has a window with a bunch of textboxes that allow to edit values of the properties they are bound to. Everything works well except for textboxes that also have a validation rule defined, in which case no text is displayed in the textbox when the window opens (binding back-to-source still works fine for those). If I remove Validation rule, everything's back to normal. I searched for an answer to this for a few hours now, but somehow did not even find anyone else complaining of the same issue. I am completely new to WPF, and I am sure it is just a silly mistake I have somewhere in my code... I will greatly appreciate any feedback... <TextBox Margin="40,2,20,0" Grid.Column="0" Grid.Row="1" Background="#99FFFFFF" > <Binding Path="LastName" Mode="TwoWay" ValidatesOnDataErrors="true" UpdateSourceTrigger="LostFocus" > <Binding.ValidationRules> <validation:StringNameValidationRule /> </Binding.ValidationRules> </Binding> </TextBox>

  Read the article

• cl.exe Difference in object files when /E output is the same and flags are the same

  - by madiyaan damha

  Hello: I am using Visual Studio 2005's cl.exe compiler. I call it with a bunch of /I /D and some compilation/optimization flags (example: /Ehsc). I have two compilation scripts, and both differ only in the /I flags (include directories are different). All other flags are the same. These scripts produce different object files (and not just a timestamp difference as noted below). The strange thing is that the /E output of both scripts is the same. That means that the include files are not causing the difference in object files, but then again, where is the difference coming from? Can anyone elucidate on how I am seeing two different object files in my situation. If the include files are causing the difference, how come I see identical /E output? PS. The object files are different not only in the timestamp, but in the code sections also. In fact the behavior of my final executable is different in both cases. Edit: PSS: I even looked at the /includeFiles output of cl.exe and that output is identical. The object files, however, differ in more than just the timestamp (in fact, one is 1KB bigger than another!)

  Read the article

• Get the parent id..

  - by tixrus

  I have a bunch of elements like the following: <div class="droppableP" id="s-NSW" style="width:78px; height:63px; position: absolute; top: 223px; left: 532px;"> </div> They all have class droppableP but different id's obviously and I would like to factor the code in this script I am hacking on. The original script just has a specific selector for each of one of these divs, but the code is all alike except for the id it does things to, which is either the id of the parent or another div with a name that's related to it. Here is the original code specifically for this div: $("#s-NSW > .sensible").droppable( { accept : "#i-NSW", tolerance : 'intersect', activeClass : 'droppable-active', hoverClass : 'droppable-hover', drop : function() { $('#s-NSW').addClass('s-NSW'); $('#s-NSW').addClass('encastrada'); //can't move any more.. $('#i-NSW').remove(); $('#s-NSW').animate( { opacity: 0.25 },200, 'linear'); checkWin(); } }); Here is how I would like to factor so the same code can do all of them and I will eventually do chaining as well and maybe get rid of the inline styles but here is my first go: $(".droppableP > .sensible").droppable( { accept : "#i" + $(this).parent().attr('id').substring(2), tolerance : 'intersect', activeClass : 'droppable-active', hoverClass : 'droppable-hover', drop : function() { $(this).parent().addClass($(this).parent().attr('id')); $(this).parent().addClass('encastrada'); $("#i" + ($this).parent().attr('id').substring(2)).remove(); $(this).parent().animate( { opacity: 0.25 },200, 'linear'); checkWin(); } }); The error I get is $(this).parent().attr("id") is undefined Many thanks. I have browsed related questions the one I understand that's closest to mine, turns out they didn't need parent function at all. I'm kind of a noob so please don't yell at me too hard if this is a stupid question.

  Read the article

• Problem with Unit testing of ASP.NET project (NullReferenceException when running the test)

  - by Alex

  Hi, I'm trying to create a bunch of MS visual studio unit tests for my n-tiered web app but for some reason I can't run those tests and I get the following error - "Object reference not set to an instance of an object" What I'm trying to do is testing of my data access layer where I use LINQ data context class to execute a certain function and return a result,however during the debugging process I found out that all the tests fail as soon as they get to the LINQ data context class and it has something to do with the connection string but I cant figure out what is the problem. The debugging of tests fails here(the second line): public EICDataClassesDataContext() : base(global::System.Configuration.ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["EICDatabaseConnectionString"].ConnectionString, mappingSource) { OnCreated(); } And my test is as follows: TestMethod()] public void OnGetCustomerIDTest() { FrontLineStaffDataAccess target = new FrontLineStaffDataAccess(); // TODO: Initialize to an appropriate value string regNo = "jonh"; // TODO: Initialize to an appropriate value int expected = 10; // TODO: Initialize to an appropriate value int actual; actual = target.OnGetCustomerID(regNo); Assert.AreEqual(expected, actual); } The method which I call from DAL is: public int OnGetCustomerID(string regNo) { using (LINQDataAccess.EICDataClassesDataContext dataContext = new LINQDataAccess.EICDataClassesDataContext()) { IEnumerable<LINQDataAccess.GetCustomerIDResult> sProcCustomerIDResult = dataContext.GetCustomerID(regNo); int customerID = sProcCustomerIDResult.First().CustomerID; return customerID; } } So basically everything fails after it reaches the 1st line of DA layer method and when it tries to instantiate the LINQ data access class... I've spent around 10 hours trying to troubleshoot the problem but no result...I would really appreciate any help! UPDATE: Finally I've fixed this!!!!:) I dont know why but for some reasons in the app.config file the connection to my database was as follows: AttachDbFilename=|DataDirectory|\EICDatabase.MDF So what I did is I just changed the path and instead of |DataDirectory| I put the actual path where my MDF file sits,i.e C:\Users\1\Documents\Visual Studio 2008\Projects\EICWebSystem\EICWebSystem\App_Data\EICDatabase.mdf After I had done that it worked out!But still it's a bit not clear what was the problem...probably incorrect path to the database?My web.config of ASP.NET project contains the |DataDirectory|\EICDatabase.MDF path though..

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 267 268 269 270 271 272 273 274 275 276 277 278  | Next Page >