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  • SSRS Report from Oracle DB - Use stored procedure

    - by Emtucifor
    I am developing a report in Sql Server Reporting Services 2005, connecting to an Oracle 11g database. As you post replies perhaps it will help to know that I'm skilled in MSSQL Server and inexperienced in Oracle. I have multiple nested subreports and need to use summary data in outer reports and the same data but in detail in the inner reports. In order to spare the DB server from multiple executions, I thought to populate some temp tables at the beginning and then query just them the multiple times in the report and the subreports. In SSRS, Datasets are evidently executed in the order they appear in the RDL file. And you can have a dataset that doesn't return a rowset. So I created a stored procedure to populate my four temp tables and made this the first Dataset in my report. This SP works when I run it from SQLDeveloper and I can query the data from the temp tables. However, this didn't appear to work out because SSRS was apparently not reusing the same session, so even though the global temporary tables were created with ON COMMIT PRESERVE ROWS my Datasets were empty. I switched to using "real" tables and am now passing in an additional parameter, a GUID in string form, uniquely generated on each new execution, that is part of the primary key of each table, so I can get back just the rows for this execution. Running this from Sql Developer works fine, example: DECLARE ActivityCode varchar2(15) := '1208-0916 '; ExecutionID varchar2(32) := SYS_GUID(); BEGIN CIPProjectBudget (ActivityCode, ExecutionID); END; Never mind that in this example I don't know the GUID, this simply proves it works because rows are inserted to my four tables. But in the SSRS report, I'm still getting no rows in my Datasets and SQL Developer confirms no rows are being inserted. So I'm thinking along the lines of: Oracle uses implicit transactions and my changes aren't getting committed? Even though I can prove that the non-rowset returning SP is executing (because if I leave out the parameter mapping it complains at report rendering time about not having enough parameters) perhaps it's not really executing. Somehow. Wrong execution order isn't the problem or rows would appear in the tables, and they aren't. I'm interested in any ideas about how to accomplish this (especially the part about not running the main queries multiple times). I'll redesign my whole report. I'll stop using a stored procedure. Suggest anything you like! I just need help getting this working and I am stuck. If you want more details, in my SSRS report I have a List object (it's a container that repeats once for each row in a Dataset) that has some header values and then contains a subreport. Eventually, there will be four total reports: one main report, with three nested subreports. Each subreport will be in a List on the parent report.

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  • vector iterator not dereferencable at runtime on a vector<vector<vector<A*>*>*>

    - by marouanebj
    Hi, I have this destructor that create error at runtime "vector iterator not dereferencable". The gridMatrix is a std::vector<std::vector<std::vector<AtomsCell< Atom<T> * > * > * > * > I added the typename and also the typedef but I still have the error. I will move for this idea of vect of vect* of vect* to use boost::multi_array I think, but still I want to understand were this is wrong. /// @brief destructor ~AtomsGrid(void) { // free all the memory for all the pointers inside gridMatrix (all except the Atom<T>* ) //typedef typename ::value_type value_type; typedef std::vector<AtomsCell< Atom<T>* >*> std_vectorOfAtomsCell; typedef std::vector<std_vectorOfAtomsCell*> std_vectorOfVectorOfAtomsCell; std_vectorOfAtomsCell* vectorOfAtomsCell; std_vectorOfVectorOfAtomsCell* vectorOfVecOfAtomsCell; typename std_vectorOfVectorOfAtomsCell::iterator itSecond; typename std_vectorOfVectorOfAtomsCell::reverse_iterator reverseItSecond; typename std::vector<std_vectorOfVectorOfAtomsCell*>::iterator itFirst; //typename std::vector<AtomsCell< Atom<T>* >*>* vectorOfAtomsCell; //typename std::vector<std::vector<AtomsCell< Atom<T>* >*>*>* vectorOfVecOfAtomsCell; //typename std::vector<std::vector<AtomsCell< Atom<T>* >*>*>::iterator itSecond; //typename std::vector<std::vector<AtomsCell< Atom<T>* >*>*>::reverse_iterator reverseItSecond; //typename std::vector<std::vector<std::vector<AtomsCell< Atom<T>* >*>*>*>::iterator itFirst; for (itFirst = gridMatrix.begin(); itFirst != gridMatrix.end(); ++itFirst) { vectorOfVecOfAtomsCell = (*itFirst); while (!vectorOfVecOfAtomsCell->empty()) { reverseItSecond = vectorOfVecOfAtomsCell->rbegin(); itSecond = vectorOfVecOfAtomsCell->rbegin().base(); vectorOfAtomsCell = (*itSecond); // ERROR during run: "vector iterator not dereferencable" // I think the ERROR is because I need some typedef typename or template ???!!! // the error seems here event at itFirst //fr_Myit_Utils::vectorElementDeleter(*vectorOfAtomsCell); //vectorOfVecOfAtomsCell->pop_back(); } } fr_Myit_Utils::vectorElementDeleter(gridMatrix); } If someone want the full code that create the error I'm happy to give it but I do not think we can attach file in the forum. BUT still its is not very big so if you want it I can copy past it here. Thanks

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  • Word Spell Check pops up hidden and "freezes" my App

    - by Refracted Paladin
    I am using Word's Spell Check in my in house WinForm app. My clients are all XP machines with Office 2007 and randomly the spell check suggestion box pops up behind the App and makes everything "appear" frozen as you cannot get at it. Suggestions? What do other people do to work around this or stop it altogether? Thanks Below is my code, for reference, though I am doubtful that this has anything to do with my code but I'll take anything. public class SpellCheckers { public string CheckSpelling(string text) { Word.Application app = new Word.Application(); object nullobj = Missing.Value; object template = Missing.Value; object newTemplate = Missing.Value; object documentType = Missing.Value; object visible = false; object optional = Missing.Value; object savechanges = false; app.ShowMe(); Word._Document doc = app.Documents.Add(ref template, ref newTemplate, ref documentType, ref visible); doc.Words.First.InsertBefore(text); Word.ProofreadingErrors errors = doc.SpellingErrors; var ecount = errors.Count; doc.CheckSpelling(ref optional, ref optional, ref optional, ref optional, ref optional, ref optional, ref optional, ref optional, ref optional, ref optional, ref optional, ref optional); object first = 0; object last = doc.Characters.Count - 1; var results = doc.Range(ref first, ref last).Text; doc.Close(ref savechanges, ref nullobj, ref nullobj); app.Quit(ref savechanges, ref nullobj, ref nullobj); Marshal.ReleaseComObject(doc); Marshal.ReleaseComObject(app); Marshal.ReleaseComObject(errors); return results; } } And I call it from my WinForm app like so -- public static void SpellCheckControl(Control control) { if (IsWord2007Available()) { if (control.HasChildren) { foreach (Control ctrl in control.Controls) { SpellCheckControl(ctrl); } } if (IsValidSpellCheckControl(control)) { if (control.Text != String.Empty) { control.BackColor = Color.FromArgb(180, 215, 195); control.Text = Spelling.CheckSpelling(control.Text); control.Text = control.Text.Replace("\r", "\r\n"); control.ResetBackColor(); } } } }

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  • jQuery doesn't work in IE8?

    - by Wade D Ouellet
    Hi, I am working on a site here: mfm.treethink.net All the jquery works fine in Firefox, Chrome and Safari but on IE8 it gives me errors and the banner at the top doesn't work (which uses the crossSlide jQuery plugin) and as well the image rollovers don't work with the colour change. IE8 is telling me that the errors are on lines 53, 134 and 149 in the source, all of those lines are where the jquery function is declared. $(document).ready(function(){ I am running jquery 1.4. Oddly enough, the other piece of jQuery I have on that page works, the artist browse/select menu on the right. But the banner and image rollovers don't. Here are all the scripts I'm running: 1: the banner - doesn't work in IE8 <script type="text/javascript"> $(function() { $('#banner').crossSlide({ sleep: 5, fade: 1 }, [ <?php $pages = get_posts('numberposts=2000&post_type=artist&post_status=publish'); $i = 1; foreach( $pages as $page ) { $content = $page->post_title; if( empty($content) ) continue; $content = apply_filters('the_content', $content); ?> { src: '/wp-content/uploads/<?php echo $page->post_name ?>.jpg' }, <?php $i++; } ?> ]); }); </script> 2 - image rollovers - doesn't work in IE8 <script type="text/javascript"> $(function(){ $("ul#artists li").hover(function() { /* On hover */ var thumbOver = $(this).find("img").attr("src"); /* Find image source */ /* Swap background */ $(this).find("a.thumb").css({'background' : 'url(' + thumbOver + ') center bottom no-repeat'}); $(this).find("span").stop().fadeTo('fast', 0 , function() { $(this).hide() }); } , function() { $(this).find("span").stop().fadeTo('fast', 1).show(); }); }); </script> 3 - the artist select - works in IE 8 <script> $("#browse-select").change(function() { window.location.href = $(this).val(); }); </script> These scripts were done by referencing previously made scripts, like I said I'm still new to jQuery. The second works in IE8 and the first one is the one that doesn't. I noticed the third one, the only one working, is written differently than the first two non-working ones without a function declaration at the top. Could this have anything to do with it? Any help figuring out this problem would be so appreciated. Thanks a lot, Wade

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  • jquery masked input with asp.net control problem

    - by Eyla
    Hi, I have problem while using jquery maskedinput with asp.net textbox. I have a check box that when I check will set a mask to the textbox and when uncheck it change the mask. the problem that when the focus is lost before the mask completed to be filled the text box will empty. how can I fix the problem??? here is my code: <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head runat="server"> <title>Untitled Page</title> <script src="js/jquery-1.4.1.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="js/jquery.maskedinput-1.2.2.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> function mycheck() { if ($('#<%=chk.ClientID %>').is(':checked')) { $("#<%=txt.ClientID %>").unmask(); $("#<%=txt.ClientID %>").val(""); $("#<%=txt.ClientID %>").mask("999999999999"); } else { $("#<%=txt.ClientID %>").unmask(); $("#<%=txt.ClientID %>").val(""); $("#<%=txt.ClientID %>").mask("(999)999-9999"); } } </script> <style type="text/css"> #form1 { margin-top: 0px; } </style> </head> <body> <form id="form1" runat="server"> <asp:ScriptManager ID="ScriptManager1" runat="server" /> <div> <p> <asp:CheckBox ID="chk" runat="server" CssClass="kk" onclick="mycheck()" /> </p> <p> <asp:TextBox ID="txt" runat="server" CssClass="tt" ></asp:TextBox> </p> </div> </form> </body> </html>

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  • Dataform fields won't appear

    - by dsetton
    Hello! I am trying to learn how to use the Silverlight 3 DataForm control, because I need to define the DataForm fields myself in the XAML code, that is, I don't want to use the AutoGenerateFields property. My problem is: the dataform works perfectly when the AutoGenerateFields is set to true, but when I create a DataForm and set the fields manually and run the application, all I get is an empty blank rectangle where my form and its fields should be. I created a blank Silverligh Navigation Application to test this, and below is the code of the Home.xaml page: <Grid x:Name="LayoutRoot"> <StackPanel> <!-- This doesn't work. It renders a blank rectangle --> <dataFormToolkit:DataForm x:Name="DataForm"> <dataFormToolkit:DataForm.EditTemplate> <DataTemplate> <StackPanel dataFormToolkit:DataField.IsFieldGroup="True"> <dataFormToolkit:DataField> <TextBox Text="Test1" /> </dataFormToolkit:DataField> <dataFormToolkit:DataField> <TextBox Text="Test2" /> </dataFormToolkit:DataField> <dataFormToolkit:DataField> <TextBox Text="Test3" /> </dataFormToolkit:DataField> </StackPanel> </DataTemplate> </dataFormToolkit:DataForm.EditTemplate> </dataFormToolkit:DataForm> <!-- This works. --> <dataFormToolkit:DataForm x:Name="DataForm2"/> </StackPanel> </Grid> To make the second DataForm work, I simply created a Person class, and put the following in Home.xaml.cs: protected override void OnNavigatedTo(NavigationEventArgs e) { Person client = new Person { Age = 10, DateOfBirth = new DateTime(1980, 10, 20), FirstName = "John", LastName = "Doe" }; DataForm2.CurrentItem = client; } You can see what happens when I run the application in the following link: http://dl.dropbox.com/u/1946004/image.PNG (I don't have enough points to post images, so...) Does anyone know what's wrong? Thank you in advance.

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  • Compare NSArray with NSMutableArray adding delta objects to NSMutableArray

    - by Hooligancat
    I have an NSMutableArray that is populated with objects of strings. For simplicity sake we'll say that the objects are a person and each person object contains information about that person. Thus I would have an NSMutableArray that is populated with person objects: person.firstName person.lastName person.age person.height And so on. The initial source of data comes from a web server and is populated when my application loads and completes it's initialization with the server. Periodically my application polls the server for the latest list of names. Currently I am creating an NSArray of the result set, emptying the NSMutableArray and then re-populating the NSMutableArray with NSArray results before destroying the NSArray object. This seems inefficient to me on a few levels and also presents me with a problem losing table row references which I can work around, but might be creating more work for myself in doing so. The inefficiency seems to be that I should be able to compare the two arrays and end up with a filtered NSArray. I could then add the filtered set to the NSMutableArray. This would mean that I can simply append new data to the NSMutableArray instead of throwing everything out and re-populating. Conversely I would need to do the same filter in reverse to see if there are records that need removing from the NSMutableArray. Is there any method to do this in a more efficient manner? Have I overlooked something in the docs some place that refers to a simpler technique? I have a problem when I empty the NSMutableArray and re-populate in that any referencing tables lose their selected row state. I can track it and re-select it, but my theory is that using some form of compare and adding objects and removing objects instead of dealing with the whole array in one block might mean I keep my row reference (assuming the item isn't deleted of course). Any suggestions or help much appreciated. Update Would it be just as fast to do a fast enumeration over each comparing each line item as I go? It seems like an expensive operation, but with the last fast enumeration code it might be pretty efficient...

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  • Simple Remote Shared Object with Red5 Flash Server

    - by John Russell
    Hello, I am trying to create a simple chat client using the red5 media server, but I seem to be having a slight hiccup. I am creating a shared object on the server side, and it seems to be creating it successfully. However, when I make changes to the object via the client (type a message), the SYNC event fires, but the content within the shared object remains empty. I suspect I am doing something wrong on the java end, any advice? Console Results: Success! Server Message: clear Server Message: [object Object] Local message: asdf Server Message: change Server Message: [object Object] Local message: fdsa Server Message: change Server Message: [object Object] Local message: fewa Server Message: change Server Message: [object Object] Server Side: package org.red5.core; import java.util.List; import org.red5.server.adapter.ApplicationAdapter; import org.red5.server.api.IConnection; import org.red5.server.api.IScope; import org.red5.server.api.service.ServiceUtils; import org.red5.server.api.so.ISharedObject; // import org.apache.commons.logging.Log; // import org.apache.commons.logging.LogFactory; public class Application extends ApplicationAdapter { private IScope appScope; // private static final Log log = LogFactory.getLog( Application.class ); /** {@inheritDoc} */ @Override public boolean connect(IConnection conn, IScope scope, Object[] params) { appScope = scope; createSharedObject(appScope, "generalChat", false); // Creates general chat shared object return true; } /** {@inheritDoc} */ @Override public void disconnect(IConnection conn, IScope scope) { super.disconnect(conn, scope); } public void updateChat(Object[] params) { ISharedObject so = getSharedObject(appScope, "generalChat"); // Declares and stores general chat data in general chat shared object so.setAttribute("point", params[0].toString()); } } Client Side: package { import flash.display.MovieClip; import flash.events.*; import flash.net.*; // This class is going to handle all data to and from from media server public class SOConnect extends MovieClip { // Variables var nc:NetConnection = null; var so:SharedObject; public function SOConnect():void { } public function connect():void { // Create a NetConnection and connect to red5 nc = new NetConnection(); nc.addEventListener(NetStatusEvent.NET_STATUS, netStatusHandler); nc.connect("rtmp://localhost/testChat"); // Create a StoredObject for general chat so = SharedObject.getRemote("generalChat", nc.uri, false); so.connect(nc); so.addEventListener(SyncEvent.SYNC, receiveChat) } public function sendChat(msg:String) { trace ("Local message: " + msg); nc.call("updateChat", null, msg) } public function receiveChat(e:SyncEvent):void { for (var i in e.changeList) { trace ("Server Message: " + e.changeList[i].code) trace ("Server Message: " + e.changeList[i]) } } // Given result, determine successful connection private function netStatusHandler(e:NetStatusEvent):void { if (e.info.code == "NetConnection.Connect.Success") { trace("Success!"); } else { trace("Failure!\n"); trace(e.info.code); } } } }

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  • AbcPDF renders the same page multiple times

    - by Steven
    I need to retrieve several pages and output this in a PDF document. I have the following page structure: Page 1 Sub 1 Sub 2 Sub 3 On page one, I have a link which executes the below code. What it does, is to retrieve child pages (one level) and put them in a page collection. Then I loop trough the page collection and retrieve each sub pages URL. This works. I've tested and seen that it retrieves 3 different URL's. The problem is that my PDF gets three pages of Page 1. It does not render Sub 1 to 3. Why isn't docID = document.AddImageUrl(pageLink) retrieving the pages? Websupergoo refers to a caching problem which may occur. But their solution did not help me. Any good suggestions anyone? protected void linkBtnCreateMultipagePDF_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { string baseURL = Request.Url.ToString(); PageDataCollection pdc = GetChildren(CurrentPageLink); //Create PDF document Doc document = new Doc(); document.Rect.Inset(10, 20); int docID; string pageLink = string.Empty; foreach (PageData pd in pdc) { //This lops goes through the different pages and retrieves that pages URL pageLink = baseURL + pd.LinkURL; document.Page = document.AddPage(); // But for some reason, the same page is added here. docID = document.AddImageUrl(pageLink); //Chain pages together while (true) { if (!document.Chainable(docID)) break; document.Page = document.AddPage(); docID = document.AddImageToChain(docID); } } //Flatten file for (int i = 1; i <= document.PageCount; i++) { document.PageNumber = i; document.Flatten(); } byte[] theData = document.GetData(); Response.Clear(); Response.ContentType = "application/pdf"; Response.AddHeader("content-disposition", "inline; filename=MyPDF.PDF"); Response.AddHeader("content-length", theData.Length.ToString()); Response.BinaryWrite(theData); Response.End(); }

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  • Can/should one disable namespace validation in Axis2 clients using ADB databinding?

    - by RJCantrell
    I have an document/literal Axis 1 service which I'm consuming with an Axis 2 client (ADB databinding, generated from WSDL2Java). It receives a valid XML response, but in parsing that XML, I get the error "Unexpected Subelement" for any type which doesn't have a namespace defined in the response. I can resolve the error by manually changing the (auto-generated by Axis2) type-validation line to only check the type name and not the namespace as well, but is there a non-manual way to skip this? This service is consumed properly by other Axis 1 clients. Here's the response, with bits in ALL CAPS having been anonymized. Some types have namespaces, some have empty-string namespaces, and some have none at all. Can I control this via the service's WSDL, or in Axis2's WSDL2Java handling of the WSDL? Is there a fundamental mismatch between Axis 1 and Axis2? The response below looks correct, except perhaps for where that type (anonymized as TWO below) is nested within itself. <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <soapenv:Envelope xmlns:soapenv="http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap/envelope/" xmlns:xsd="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance"> <soapenv:Body> <SERVICENAMEResponse xmlns="http://service.PROJECT.COMPANY.com"> <SERVICENAMEReturn xmlns=""> <ONE></ONE> <TWO><TWO> <THREE>2</THREE> <FOUR>-10</FOUR> <FIVE>6</FIVE> <SIX>1</SIX> </TWO></TWO> <fileName></fileName> </SERVICENAMEReturn></SERVICENAMEResponse> </soapenv:Body></soapenv:Envelope> I did not have to modify the validation of the "SERVICENAMEResponse" object because it has the correct namespace specified, but I have to so for all its subelements. The manual modification that I can make (one per type) to fix this is to change: if (reader.isStartElement() && new javax.xml.namespace.QName("http://dto.PROJECT.COMPANY.com","ONE").equals(reader.getName())){ to: if (reader.isStartElement() && new javax.xml.namespace.QName("ONE").equals(reader.getName())){

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  • Sharepoint 2007 - cant find my modifications to web.config in SpWebApplication.WebConfigModification

    - by user303672
    Hi, I cant seem to find the modifications I made to web.config in my FeatureRecievers Activated event. I try to get the modifications from the SpWebApplication.WebConfigModifications collection in the deactivate event, but this is always empty.... And the strangest thing is that my changes are still reverted after deactivating the feature... My question is, should I not be able to view all changes made to the web.config files when accessing the SpWebApplication.WebConfigModifications collection in the Deactivating event? How should I go about to remove my changes explicitly? public class FeatureReciever : SPFeatureReceiver { private const string FEATURE_NAME = "HelloWorld"; private class Modification { public string Name; public string XPath; public string Value; public SPWebConfigModification.SPWebConfigModificationType ModificationType; public bool createOnly; public Modification(string name, string xPath, string value, SPWebConfigModification.SPWebConfigModificationType modificationType, bool createOnly) { Name = name; XPath = xPath; Value = value; ModificationType = modificationType; this.createOnly = createOnly; } } private Modification[] modifications = { new Modification("connectionStrings", "configuration", "<connectionStrings/>", SPWebConfigModification.SPWebConfigModificationType.EnsureChildNode, true), new Modification("add[@name='ConnectionString'][@connectionString='Data Source=serverName;Initial Catalog=DBName;User Id=UserId;Password=Pass']", "configuration/connectionStrings", "<add name='ConnectionString' connectionString='Data Source=serverName;Initial Catalog=DBName;User Id=UserId;Password=Pass'/>", SPWebConfigModification.SPWebConfigModificationType.EnsureChildNode, false) }; public override void FeatureActivated(SPFeatureReceiverProperties properties) { SPSite siteCollection = (properties.Feature.Parent as SPWeb).Site as SPSite; SPWebApplication webApplication = siteCollection.WebApplication; siteCollection.RootWeb.Title = "Set from activating code at " + DateTime.Now.ToString(); foreach (Modification entry in modifications) { SPWebConfigModification webConfigModification = CreateModification(entry); webApplication.WebConfigModifications.Add(webConfigModification); } webApplication.Farm.Services.GetValue<SPWebService>().ApplyWebConfigModifications(); webApplication.WebService.Update(); } public override void FeatureDeactivating(SPFeatureReceiverProperties properties) { SPSite siteCollection = (properties.Feature.Parent as SPWeb).Site as SPSite; SPWebApplication webApplication = siteCollection.WebApplication; siteCollection.RootWeb.Title = "Set from deactivating code at " + DateTime.Now.ToString(); IList<SPWebConfigModification> modifications = webApplication.WebConfigModifications; foreach (SPWebConfigModification modification in modifications) { if (modification.Owner == FEATURE_NAME) { webApplication.WebConfigModifications.Remove(modification); } } webApplication.Farm.Services.GetValue<SPWebService>().ApplyWebConfigModifications(); webApplication.WebService.Update(); } public override void FeatureInstalled(SPFeatureReceiverProperties properties) { } public override void FeatureUninstalling(SPFeatureReceiverProperties properties) { } private SPWebConfigModification CreateModification(Modification entry) { SPWebConfigModification spWebConfigModification = new SPWebConfigModification() { Name = entry.Name, Path = entry.XPath, Owner = FEATURE_NAME, Sequence = 0, Type = entry.ModificationType, Value = entry.Value }; return spWebConfigModification; } } Thanks for your time. /Hans

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  • Getting uninitialized constant error when trying to run tests

    - by Ethan
    I just updated all my gems and I'm finding that I'm getting errors when trying to run Test::Unit tests. I'm getting the error copied below. That comes from creating new, empty Rails project, scaffolding a simple model, and running rake test. Tried Googling "uninitialized constant" and TestResultFailureSupport. The only thing I found was this bug report from 2007. I'm using OS X. These are the gems that I updated right before the tests stopped working: $ sudo gem outdated Password: RedCloth (4.2.1 < 4.2.2) RubyInline (3.8.1 < 3.8.2) ZenTest (4.1.1 < 4.1.3) bluecloth (2.0.4 < 2.0.5) capistrano (2.5.5 < 2.5.8) haml (2.0.9 < 2.2.1) hoe (2.2.0 < 2.3.2) json (1.1.6 < 1.1.7) mocha (0.9.5 < 0.9.7) rest-client (1.0.2 < 1.0.3) thoughtbot-factory_girl (1.2.1 < 1.2.2) thoughtbot-shoulda (2.10.1 < 2.10.2) Has anyone else seen this issue? Any troubleshooting suggestions? UPDATE On a hunch I downgraded ZenTest from 4.1.3 back to 4.1.1 and now everything works again. Still curious to know if anyone else has seen this or has any interesting comments or insights. $ rake test (in /Users/me/foo) /usr/local/bin/ruby -I"lib:test" "/usr/local/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/rake-0.8.7/lib/rake/rake_test_loader.rb" "test/unit/helpers/users_helper_test.rb" "test/unit/user_test.rb" /usr/local/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/activesupport-2.3.2/lib/active_support/dependencies.rb:105:in `const_missing': uninitialized constant Test::Unit::TestResult::TestResultFailureSupport (NameError) from /usr/local/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/test-unit-2.0.2/lib/test/unit/testresult.rb:28 from /usr/local/lib/ruby/site_ruby/1.8/rubygems/custom_require.rb:31:in `gem_original_require' from /usr/local/lib/ruby/site_ruby/1.8/rubygems/custom_require.rb:31:in `require' from /usr/local/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/activesupport-2.3.2/lib/active_support/dependencies.rb:158:in `require' from /usr/local/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/test-unit-2.0.2/lib/test/unit/ui/testrunnermediator.rb:9 from /usr/local/lib/ruby/site_ruby/1.8/rubygems/custom_require.rb:31:in `gem_original_require' from /usr/local/lib/ruby/site_ruby/1.8/rubygems/custom_require.rb:31:in `require' from /usr/local/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/activesupport-2.3.2/lib/active_support/dependencies.rb:158:in `require' ... 6 levels... from /usr/local/lib/ruby/1.8/test/unit/autorunner.rb:214:in `run' from /usr/local/lib/ruby/1.8/test/unit/autorunner.rb:12:in `run' from /usr/local/lib/ruby/1.8/test/unit.rb:278 from /usr/local/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/rake-0.8.7/lib/rake/rake_test_loader.rb:5 /usr/local/bin/ruby -I"lib:test" "/usr/local/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/rake-0.8.7/lib/rake/rake_test_loader.rb" "test/functional/users_controller_test.rb"

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  • How can I get the new Facebook Javascript SDK to work in IE8?

    - by archbishop
    I've boiled down my page to the simplest possible thing, and it still doesn't work in IE8. Here's the entire html page: <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Strict//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-strict.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml" xmlns:fb="http://www.facebook.com/2008/fbml" xml:lang="en" lang="en"> <head></head> <body> <div id="fb-root"></div> <fb:login-button></fb:login-button> <script src="http://connect.facebook.net/en_US/all.js"></script> <script> FB.init({appId: 'd663755ef4dd07c246e047ea97b44d6a', status: true, cookie: true, xfbml: true}); FB.Event.subscribe('auth.sessionChange', function(response) { alert(JSON.stringify(response)); }); FB.getLoginStatus(function (response) { alert(JSON.stringify(response)); }); </script> </body> </html> In firefox, safari, and chrome (on a mac), I get the behavior I expect: if I am not logged into Facebook, I get a dialog on page load with an empty session. When I click the Login button and log in, I get a second dialog with a session. If I am logged into Facebook, I get two dialogs with sessions: one from the getLoginStatus call, and another from the event. In IE8, I get no dialogs when I load the page. The getLoginStatus callback is not invoked. When I click the Login button, I get a dialog, but it has a very strange error in it: Invalid Argument The Facebook Connect cross-domain receiver URL (http://static.ak.fbcdn.net/connect/xd_proxy.php#?=&cb=f3e91da434653f2&origin=http%3A%2F%2Fsword.sqprod.com%2Ff210cba91f2a6d4&relation=opener&transport=flash&frame=f27aa957225164&result=xxRESULTTOKENxx) must have the application's Connect URL (http://mysiteurl.com/) as a prefix. You can configure the Connect URL in the Application Settings Editor. I've sanitized the Connect URL above, but it is correct. The dialog does have username/password fields. If I log in, the dialog box gets redirected to my Connect URL, but there's no fb cookie, so of course nothing works. What am I doing wrong here?

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  • Uploadify Hanging at random on 100%

    - by Matty
    I am using Uploadify (http://www.uploadify.com/) to enable my users to upload images via my web application. The problem I am having is that every now and then (at what appears to be random) when the progress bar reaches 100% it 'hangs' and does nothing. I was wondering if any developers familiar with uploadify may have any idea how to solve this? I am in desperate need of some help. Here is my front-end code: jQuery(document).ready(function() { jQuery("#uploadify").uploadify({ 'uploader' : 'javascripts/uploadify.swf', 'script' : 'upload-file2.php', 'cancelImg' : 'css/images/cancel.png', 'folder' : 'uploads/personal_images/' + profileOwner, 'queueID' : 'fileQueue', 'auto' : true, 'multi' : true, 'fileDesc' : 'Image files', 'fileExt' : '.jpg;.jpeg;.gif;.png', 'sizeLimit' : '2097152', 'onComplete': function(event, queueID, fileObj, response, data) { processPersonalImage(fileObj.name); arrImgNames.push(fileObj.name); showUploadedImages(true); document.getElementById("photos").style.backgroundImage = "url('css/images/minicam.png')"; }, 'onAllComplete' : function() { completionMessage(arrFailedNames); document.getElementById("displayImageButton").style.display = "inline"; document.getElementById("photos").style.backgroundImage = "url('css/images/minicam.png')"; }, 'onCancel' : function() { arrImgNames.push(fileObj.name); arrFailedNames.push(fileObj.name); showUploadedImages(false); }, 'onError' : function() { arrImgNames.push(fileObj.name); arrFailedNames.push(fileObj.name); showUploadedImages(false); } }); }); And server side: if (!empty($_FILES)) { //Get user ID from the file path for use later.. $userID = getIdFromFilePath($_REQUEST['folder'], 3); $row = mysql_fetch_assoc(getRecentAlbum($userID, "photo_album_personal")); $subFolderName = $row['pk']; //Prepare target path / file.. $tempFile = $_FILES['Filedata']['tmp_name']; $targetPath = $_SERVER['DOCUMENT_ROOT'] . $_REQUEST['folder'] . '/'.$subFolderName.'/'; $targetFile = str_replace('//','/',$targetPath) . $_FILES['Filedata']['name']; //Move uploaded file from temp directory to new folder move_uploaded_file($tempFile,$targetFile); //Now add a record to DB to reflect this personal image.. if(file_exists($targetFile)) { //add photo record to DB $directFilePath = $_REQUEST['folder'] . '/'.$subFolderName.'/' . $_FILES['Filedata']['name']; addPersonalPhotoRecordToDb($directFilePath, $row['pk']); } echo "1"; die(true); } thanks for any help!!

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  • .NET Code Generataion | Unable to create a T4 template in Visual Studio 2008

    - by cedar715
    I've the Visual Studio 2008 installed on my machine(licensed one). When I try to add a new .tt(say bar.tt) file to the project, the following code is generated: I've seen in a screencast, where in an empty .tt file should be opened and the developer enters the T4 code. Even if I remove the code and enter T4 code, am getting build errors. using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.ComponentModel; using System.Drawing; using System.Linq; using System.Reflection; using System.Windows.Forms; namespace Foobar { partial class bar : Form { public bar() { InitializeComponent(); this.Text = String.Format("About {0} {0}", AssemblyTitle); this.labelProductName.Text = AssemblyProduct; this.labelVersion.Text = String.Format("Version {0} {0}", AssemblyVersion); this.labelCopyright.Text = AssemblyCopyright; this.labelCompanyName.Text = AssemblyCompany; this.textBoxDescription.Text = AssemblyDescription; } #region Assembly Attribute Accessors public string AssemblyTitle { get { object[] attributes = Assembly.GetExecutingAssembly().GetCustomAttributes(typeof(AssemblyTitleAttribute), false); if(attributes.Length > 0) { AssemblyTitleAttribute titleAttribute = (AssemblyTitleAttribute)attributes[0]; if(titleAttribute.Title != "") { return titleAttribute.Title; } } return System.IO.Path.GetFileNameWithoutExtension(Assembly.GetExecutingAssembly().CodeBase); } } public string AssemblyVersion { get { return Assembly.GetExecutingAssembly().GetName().Version.ToString(); } } public string AssemblyDescription { get { object[] attributes = Assembly.GetExecutingAssembly().GetCustomAttributes(typeof(AssemblyDescriptionAttribute), false); if (attributes.Length == 0) { return ""; } return ((AssemblyDescriptionAttribute)attributes[0]).Description; } } public string AssemblyProduct { get { object[] attributes = Assembly.GetExecutingAssembly().GetCustomAttributes(typeof(AssemblyProductAttribute), false); if (attributes.Length == 0) { return ""; } return ((AssemblyProductAttribute)attributes[0]).Product; } } public string AssemblyCopyright { get { object[] attributes = Assembly.GetExecutingAssembly().GetCustomAttributes(typeof(AssemblyCopyrightAttribute), false); if (attributes.Length == 0) { return ""; } return ((AssemblyCopyrightAttribute)attributes[0]).Copyright; } } public string AssemblyCompany { get { object[] attributes = Assembly.GetExecutingAssembly().GetCustomAttributes(typeof(AssemblyCompanyAttribute), false); if (attributes.Length == 0) { return ""; } return ((AssemblyCompanyAttribute)attributes[0]).Company; } } #endregion } } EDIT: I didn't download any T4 software separately as I got to know that it already ships with Visual Studio 2008.

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  • Bazaar newbie question about repository structures

    - by esc1729
    I want to use Bazaar on Windows XP for web-development and related tasks. Most of the files are edited locally and then transferred via FTP to the server. Just now the repository sits on my local workstation. Later on it should be shared locally with some co-workers. Perhaps we will use a local Linux server as a centralized repository, but this structure is not decided for now. But first I need to understand the impacts of the different repository setups, which I do not at all. Using Bazaar-Explorer on Windows XP I’ve created a ‘shared tree repository’ from the option list of the init-dialogue in some location dev-filter/. Bazaar Explorer tells me: Created repository with treeless branches at F:/bzr.local/dev-filter Created branch at F:/bzr.local/dev-filter/trunk Created working tree at F:/bzr.local/dev-filter/work OK so far. Now I move a bunch of files into the work directory and add and commit them as Rev 1 ‘Start Revision’. Then I work on some of these files and commit them again as Rev 2. Here my confusion starts. Shouldn’t both revisions go into the trunk? The trunk is still empty, beside the .bzr directory which only holds some management information. If I delete my working directory, which I have tried during these first experiments, everything is gone. There’s obviously no hidden storage of those files. OK. Perhaps I need to push it into the trunk? This does not work either. Entering the work/ directory and initializing the ‘push’ to the trunk, Bazaar-Explorer tells me No new revisions to push. So what? This looks like a severe conceptual misunderstanding about what should happen on my side. Edit, 2010-02-03: Some conclusions What I learned meanwhile is this: I think I should switch to the command line until I really understand what’s going on, at least for creating the repositories and branches. Bazaar Explorer introduces a new level of abstraction which I only can handle if I understand the level beneath One of the secrets of working with Bazaar at least for me is to understand those .bzr directories, their particular properties and states when created with ‘bzr init’, ‘bzr init-repository’, ‘bzr branch’ etc. in all their variants and how they are plumped together. While there’s a whole chapter of ‘Organizing your workspace’ in the Bazaar User Guide, it’s more or less workflow oriented. The manual contains a lot of directory structures for the given examples. What I would prefer beside this and have not (or only rudimentary) found so far is some graphical representation of those ‘Lego like’ .bzr building blocks which create the linking of all the parts. So I started to invent some simple notation while working through the examples and looking into the .bzr directories to document what information is stored there, where does it come from, how and to what is it linked, is it complete or shared, etc. Erich Schreiber

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  • Mybatis nested collection doesn't work correctly with column prefix

    - by Shikarn-O
    I need to set collection for object in another collection using mybatis mappings. It works for me w/o using columnPrefix, but I need it since there are a lot of repeteable columns. <collection property="childs" javaType="ArrayList" ofType="org.example.mybatis.Child" resultMap="ChildMap" columnPrefix="c_"/> </resultMap> <resultMap id="ChildMap" type="org.example.mybatis.Parent"> <id column="Id" jdbcType="VARCHAR" property="id" /> <id column="ParentId" jdbcType="VARCHAR" property="parentId" /> <id column="Name" jdbcType="VARCHAR" property="name" /> <id column="SurName" jdbcType="VARCHAR" property="surName" /> <id column="Age" jdbcType="INTEGER" property="age" /> <collection property="toys" javaType="ArrayList" ofType="org.example.mybatis.Toy" resultMap="ToyMap" columnPrefix="t_"/> </resultMap> <resultMap id="ToyMap" type="org.example.mybatis.Toy"> <id column="Id" jdbcType="VARCHAR" property="id" /> <id column="ChildId" jdbcType="VARCHAR" property="childId" /> <id column="Name" jdbcType="VARCHAR" property="name" /> <id column="Color" jdbcType="VARCHAR" property="color" /> </resultMap> <sql id="Parent_Column_List"> p.Id, p.Name, p.SurName, </sql> <sql id="Child_Column_List"> c.Id as c_Id, c.ParentId as c_ParentId, c.Name as c_Name, c.SurName as c_Surname, c.Age as c_Age, </sql> <sql id="Toy_Column_List"> t.Id as t_Id, t.Name as t_Name, t.Color as t_Color </sql> <select id="getParent" parameterType="java.lang.String" resultMap="ParentMap" > select <include refid="Parent_Column_List"/> <include refid="Child_Column_List" /> <include refid="Toy_Column_List" /> from Parent p left outer join Child c on p.Id = c.ParentId left outer join Toy t on c.Id = t.ChildId where p.id = #{id,jdbcType=VARCHAR} With columnPrefix all works fine, but nested toys collection is empty. Sql query on database works correctly and all toys are joined. May be i missed something or this is bug with mybatis?

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  • Macro doesn't work in the function.

    - by avp
    I have problems with following code: http://lisper.ru/apps/format/96 The problem is in "normalize" function, which does not work. It fails on the fifth line: (zero-p a indexes i) (defun normalize (a &optional indexes i) "Returns normalized A." (pragma (format t "Data=~A ~A ~A" a indexes i) (if (zero-p a indexes i) a ;; cannot normalize empty vector (let* ((mmm (format t "Zero?=~a" (zero-p a indexes i))) (L (sqrt (+ (do-op-on * a :x a :x indexes i indexes i) (do-op-on * a :y a :y indexes i indexes i) (do-op-on * a :z a :z indexes i indexes i)))) (mmm (format t "L=~a" L)) (L (/ 1D0 L)) (mmm (format t "L=~a" L))) ; L=1/length(A) (make-V3 (* (ref-of a :x indexes i) l) (* (ref-of a :y indexes i) l) (* (ref-of a :z indexes i) l)))))) in function "normalize" I call the macro "zero-p", which in turn calls macro "ref-of", which is the last in the chain. (defmacro zero-p (v &optional indexes index) "Checks if the vector is 'almost' zero length." `(and (< (ref-of ,v :x ,indexes ,index) *min+*) (< (ref-of ,v :y ,indexes ,index) *min+*) (< (ref-of ,v :z ,indexes ,index) *min+*) (> (ref-of ,v :x ,indexes ,index) *min-*) (> (ref-of ,v :y ,indexes ,index) *min-*) (> (ref-of ,v :z ,indexes ,index) *min-*))) Here is ref-of: (defmacro ref-of (values coordinate &optional indexes index) "Please see DATA STRUCTURE for details." (if indexes (cond ((eq coordinate :x) `(aref ,values (aref ,indexes ,index))) ((eq coordinate :y) `(aref ,values (+ 1 (aref ,indexes ,index)))) ((eq coordinate :z) `(aref ,values (+ 2 (aref ,indexes ,index)))) (T (error "The symbol ~S is not :X, :Y or :Z." coordinate))) (cond ((eq coordinate :x) `(aref ,values 0)) ((eq coordinate :y) `(aref ,values 1)) ((eq coordinate :z) `(aref ,values 2)) (T (error "The symbol ~S is not :X, :Y or :Z." coordinate))))) Also, in "normalize" I call the macro "do-op-on", which calls "ref-of" as well. (defmacro do-op-on (op name1 coord1 name2 coord2 &optional is1 i1 is2 i2) "Example: (do-op-on * A :x B :y i n) == A[i[n]].x*B.y" `(,op (ref-of ,name1 ,coord1 ,is1 ,i1) (ref-of ,name2 ,coord2 ,is2 ,i2))) As a result, instead of having this: (aref some-array 0) I have (aref NIL NIL) which is created in "ref-of". I suppose that I lose the symbol A from the call (normalize A). I just feel that the symbol does not survive the macroexpanson. The thing is, macroexpansoin works in REPL for each macro independently. Can anyone explain where is the mistake?

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  • WPF - Redrawing a Context Menu when Items change?

    - by Rachel
    I have a ItemsControl in a ScrollViewer, and when the items exceed the width of the ScrollViewer they are put into a ContextMenu and shown as a DropDown instead. My problem is that when the Context Menu is first loaded, it saves the saves the size of the Menu and does not redraw when more commands get added/removed. For example, a panel has 3 commands. 1 is visible and 2 are in the Menu. Viewing the menu shows the 2 commands and draws the control, but then if you resize the panel so 2 are visible and only 1 command is in the menu, it doesn't redraw the menu to eliminate that second menu item. Or even worse, if you shrink the panel so that no commands are shown and all 3 are in the Menu, it will only show the top 2. Here's my code: <Button Click="DropDownMenu_Click" ContextMenuOpening="DropDownMenu_ContextMenuOpening"> <Button.ContextMenu> <ContextMenu ItemsSource="{Binding Path=MenuCommands}" Placement="Bottom"> <ContextMenu.Resources> <Style TargetType="{x:Type MenuItem}"> <Setter Property="Command" Value="{Binding Path=Command}" /> <Setter Property="Visibility" Value="{Binding Path=IsVisible, Converter={StaticResource ReverseBooleanToVisibilityConverter}}"/> </Style> </ContextMenu.Resources> <ContextMenu.ItemTemplate> <DataTemplate> <TextBlock Text="{Binding Path=DisplayName}" /> </DataTemplate> </ContextMenu.ItemTemplate> </ContextMenu> </Button.ContextMenu> </Button> Code Behind: void DropDownMenu_ContextMenuOpening(object sender, ContextMenuEventArgs e) { Button b = sender as Button; b.ContextMenu.IsOpen = false; e.Handled = true; } private void DropDownMenu_Click(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { Button b = sender as Button; ContextMenu cMenu = b.ContextMenu; if (cMenu != null) { cMenu.PlacementTarget = b; cMenu.Placement = System.Windows.Controls.Primitives.PlacementMode.Bottom; } } I have tried using InvalidateVisual and passing an empty delegate on Render to try and force a redraw, however neither works. I'm using .Net 4.0.

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  • UIWebView leak? Can someone confirm?

    - by Shaggy Frog
    I was leak-testing my current project and I'm stumped. I've been browsing like crazy and tried everything except chicken sacrifice. I just created a tiny toy project app from scratch and I can duplicate the leak in there. So either UIWebView has a leak or I'm doing something really silly. Essentially, it boils down to a loadRequest: call to a UIWebView object, given an URLRequest built from an NSURL which references a file URL, for a file in the app bundle, which lives inside a folder that Xcode is including by reference. Phew. The leak is intermittent but still happens ~75% of the time (in about 20 tests it happened about 15 times). It only happens on the device -- this does not leak in the simulator. I am testing targeting both iPhone OS 3.1.2 and 3.1.3, on an original (1st Gen) iPod Touch that is using iPhone OS 3.1.3. To reproduce, just create a project from scratch. Add a UIWebView to the RootViewController's .xib, hook it up via IBOutlet. In the Finder, create a folder named "html" inside your project's folder. Inside that folder, create a file named "dummy.html" that has the word "Test" in it. (Does not need to be valid HTML.) Then add the html folder to your project in Xcode by choosing "Create Folder References for any added folders" Add the following to viewDidLoad NSString* resourcePath = [[NSBundle mainBundle] resourcePath]; NSString* filePath = [[resourcePath stringByAppendingPathComponent:@"html"] stringByAppendingPathComponent:@"dummy.html"]; NSURL* url = [[NSURL alloc] initFileURLWithPath:filePath]; NSURLRequest* request = [NSURLRequest requestWithURL:url]; // <-- this creates the leak! [browserView loadRequest:request]; [url release]; I've tried everything from setting delegate for the UIWebView and implementing UIWebViewDelegate, to not setting a delegate in IB, to not setting a delegate in IB and explicitly setting the web view's delegate property to nil, to using alloc/init instead of getting autoreleased NSURLRequests (and/or NSURLs)... I tried the answer to a similar question (setting the shared URL cache to empty) and that did not help. Can anyone help?

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  • Forms Authentication logs out very quickly , locally works fine !!!

    - by user319075
    Hello to all, There's a problem that i am facing with my hosting company, I use a project that uses FormsAuthentication and the problem is that though it successfully logs in, it logs out VERY QUICKLY, and i don't know what could be the cause of that, so in my web.config file i added those lines: <authentication mode="Forms" > <forms name="Nadim" loginUrl="Login.aspx" defaultUrl="Default.aspx" protection="All" path="/" requireSSL="false"/> </authentication> <authorization> <deny users ="?" /> </authorization> <sessionState mode="StateServer" stateConnectionString="tcpip=localhost:42424" cookieless="false" timeout="1440"> </sessionState> and this is the code i use in my custom login page : protected void PasswordCustomValidator_ServerValidate(object source, ServerValidateEventArgs args) { try { UsersSqlDataSource.SelectParameters.Clear(); UsersSqlDataSource.SelectCommand = "Select * From Admins Where AdminID='" + IDTextBox.Text + "' and Password='" + PassTextBox.Text + "'"; UsersSqlDataSource.SelectCommandType = SqlDataSourceCommandType.Text; UsersSqlDataSource.DataSourceMode = SqlDataSourceMode.DataReader; reader = (SqlDataReader)UsersSqlDataSource.Select(DataSourceSelectArguments.Empty); if (reader.HasRows) { reader.Read(); if (RememberCheckBox.Checked == true) Page.Response.Cookies["Admin"].Expires = DateTime.Now.AddDays(5); args.IsValid = true; string userData = "ApplicationSpecific data for this user."; FormsAuthenticationTicket ticket1 = new FormsAuthenticationTicket(1, IDTextBox.Text, System.DateTime.Now, System.DateTime.Now.AddMinutes(30), true, userData, FormsAuthentication.FormsCookiePath); string encTicket = FormsAuthentication.Encrypt(ticket1); Response.Cookies.Add(new HttpCookie(FormsAuthentication.FormsCookieName, encTicket)); Response.Redirect(FormsAuthentication.GetRedirectUrl(IDTextBox.Text, RememberCheckBox.Checked)); //FormsAuthentication.RedirectFromLoginPage(IDTextBox.Text, RememberCheckBox.Checked); } else args.IsValid = false; } catch (SqlException ex) { ErrorLabel.Text = ex.Message; } catch (InvalidOperationException) { args.IsValid = false; } catch (Exception ex) { ErrorLabel.Text = ex.Message; } Also you will find that line of code: FormsAuthentication.RedirectFromLoginPage(IDTextBox.Text, RememberCheckBox.Checked); is commented because i thought there might be something wrong with the ticket when i log in , so i created it manually , every thing i know i tried but nothing worked, so does anyone have any idea what is the problem ? Thanks in advance, Baher.

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  • Dojo extending dojo.dnd.Source, move not happening. Ideas?

    - by Soulhuntre
    Hey all, Ok... I have a simple dojo page with the bare essentials. Three UL's with some LI's in them. The idea si to allow drag-n-drop among them but if any UL goes empty due to the last item being dragged out, I will put up a message to the user to gie them some instructions. In order to do that, I wanted to extend the dojo.dnd.Source dijit and add some intelligence. It seemed easy enough. To keep things simple (I am loading Dojo from a CDN) I am simply declating my extension as opposed to doing full on module load. The declaration function is here... function declare_mockupSmartDndUl(){ dojo.require("dojo.dnd.Source"); dojo.provide("mockup.SmartDndUl"); dojo.declare("mockup.SmartDndUl", dojo.dnd.Source, { markupFactory: function(params, node){ //params._skipStartup = true; return new mockup.SmartDndUl(node, params); }, onDndDrop: function(source, nodes, copy){ console.debug('onDndDrop!'); if(this == source){ // reordering items console.debug('moving items from us'); // DO SOMETHING HERE }else{ // moving items to us console.debug('moving items to us'); // DO SOMETHING HERE } console.debug('this = ' + this ); console.debug('source = ' + source ); console.debug('nodes = ' + nodes); console.debug('copy = ' + copy); return dojo.dnd.Source.prototype.onDndDrop.call(this, source, nodes, copy); } }); } I have a init function to use this to decorate the lists... dojo.addOnLoad(function(){ declare_mockupSmartDndUl(); if(dojo.byId('list1')){ //new mockup.SmartDndUl(dojo.byId('list1')); new dojo.dnd.Source(dojo.byId('list1')); } if(dojo.byId('list2')){ new mockup.SmartDndUl(dojo.byId('list2')); //new dojo.dnd.Source(dojo.byId('list2')); } if(dojo.byId('list3')){ new mockup.SmartDndUl(dojo.byId('list3')); //new dojo.dnd.Source(dojo.byId('list3')); } }); It is fine as far as it goes, you will notice I left "list1" as a standard dojo dnd source for testing. The problem is this - list1 will happily accept items from lists 2 & 3 who will move or copy as apprriate. However lists 2 & 3 refuce to accept items from list1. It is as if the DND operation is being cancelled, but the debugger does show the dojo.dnd.Source.prototype.onDndDrop.call happening, and the paramaters do look ok to me. Now, the documentation here is really weak, so the example I took some of this from may be way out of date (I am using 1.4). Can anyone fill me in on what might be the issue with my extension dijit? Thanks!

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  • XmlReader throws on an RSS feed, when the RSS document includes an embedded <script> block.

    - by Cheeso
    The code: using (XmlReader xmlr = XmlReader.Create(new StringReader(allXml))) { var items = from item in SyndicationFeed.Load(xmlr).Items select item; } The exception: Exception: System.Xml.XmlException: Unexpected node type Element. ReadElementString method can only be called on elements with simple or empty content. Line 11, position 25. at System.Xml.XmlReader.ReadElementString() at System.ServiceModel.Syndication.Rss20FeedFormatter.ReadXml(XmlReader reader, SyndicationFeed result) at System.ServiceModel.Syndication.Rss20FeedFormatter.ReadFeed(XmlReader reader) at System.ServiceModel.Syndication.Rss20FeedFormatter.ReadFrom(XmlReader reader) at System.ServiceModel.Syndication.SyndicationFeed.Load[TSyndicationFeed](XmlReader reader) at System.ServiceModel.Syndication.SyndicationFeed.Load(XmlReader reader) at Ionic.ToolsAndTests.ReadRss.Run() in c:\dev\dotnet\ReadRss.cs:line 90 The XML content: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <?xml-stylesheet type="text/xsl" href="https://www.ibm.com/developerworks/mydeveloperworks/blogs/roller-ui/styles/rss.xsl" media="screen"?><rss version="2.0" xmlns:dc="http://purl.org/dc/elements/1.1/" xmlns:atom="http://www.w3.org/2005/Atom" > <channel> <title>Software architecture, software engineering, and Renaissance Jazz</title> <link>https://www.ibm.com/developerworks/mydeveloperworks/blogs/gradybooch</link> <atom:link rel="self" type="application/rss+xml" href="https://www.ibm.com/developerworks/mydeveloperworks/blogs/gradybooch/feed/entries/rss?lang=en" /> <description>Software architecture, software engineering, and Renaissance Jazz</description> <language>en-us</language> <copyright>Copyright <script type='text/javascript'> document.write(blogsDate.date.localize (1273534889181));</script></copyright> <lastBuildDate>Mon, 10 May 2010 19:41:29 -0400</lastBuildDate> As you can see, on line 11, at position 25, there's a script block inside the <copyright> element. Other people have reported similar errors with other XML documents. The way I worked around this was to do a StreamReader.ReadToEnd, then do Regex.Replace on the result of that to yank out the script block, before passing the modified string to XmlReader.Create(). Feels like a hack. Has anyone got a better approach? I don't like this because I have to read in a 125k string into memory. Is it valid rss to include "complex content" like that - a script block inside an element? Thanks.

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  • Nhibernate one-to-many with table per subclass

    - by Wayne
    I am customizing N2CMS's database structure, and met with an issue. The two classes are listed below. public class Customer : ContentItem { public IList<License> Licenses { get; set; } } public class License : ContentItem { public Customer Customer { get; set; } } The nhibernate mapping are as follows. <class name="N2.ContentItem,N2" table="n2item"> <cache usage="read-write" /> <id name="ID" column="ID" type="Int32" unsaved-value="0" access="property"> <generator class="native" /> </id> <discriminator column="Type" type="String" /> </class> <subclass name="My.Customer,My" extends="N2.ContentItem,N2" discriminator-value="Customer"> <join table="Customer"> <key column="ItemID" /> <bag name="Licenses" generic="true" inverse="true"> <key column="CustomerID" /> <one-to-many class="My.License,My"/> </bag> </join> </subclass> <subclass name="My.License,My" extends="N2.ContentItem,N2" discriminator-value="License"> <join table="License" fetch="select"> <key column="ItemID" /> <many-to-one name="Customer" column="CustomerID" class="My.Customer,My" not-null="false" /> </join> </subclass> Then, when get an instance of Customer, the customer.Licenses is always empty, but actually there are licenses in the database for the customer. When I check the nhibernate log file, I find that the SQL query is like: SELECT licenses0_.CustomerID as CustomerID1_, licenses0_.ID as ID1_, licenses0_.ID as ID2_0_, licenses0_1_.CustomerID as CustomerID7_0_, FROM n2item licenses0_ inner join License licenses0_1_ on licenses0_.ID = licenses0_1_.ItemID WHERE licenses0_.CustomerID = 12 /* @p0 */ It seems that nhibernate believes that the CustomerID is in the 'n2item' table. I don't know why, but to make it work, I think the SQL should be something like this. SELECT licenses0_.ID as ID1_, licenses0_.ID as ID2_0_, licenses0_1_.CustomerID as CustomerID7_0_, FROM n2item licenses0_ inner join License licenses0_1_ on licenses0_.ID = licenses0_1_.ItemID WHERE licenses0_1_.CustomerID = 12 /* @p0 */ Could any one point out what's wrong with my mappings? And how can I get the correct licenses of one customer? Thanks in advance.

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  • XCode linking error when targeting armv7.

    - by Tom
    I've already spent countless hours puzzling over this, utilizing Google searches and other Stack Overflow questions to no avail. I have an iPhone/iPad universal application, which seems to compile fine when the target is armv6. However, when the device is iPad, I get this warning: warning: building for SDK 'Device - iPhone OS 3.2' requires an armv7 architecture. Oddly enough, the app still runs great on iPad in spite of this warning. However, I do want to do things the "right way" what ever that means in this case. When I switch the target architecture to armv7, I get linking errors: "___restore_vfp_d8_d15_regs", referenced from: *redacted* "___save_vfp_d8_d15_regs", referenced from: *redacted* ld: symbol(s) not found collect2: ld returned 1 exit status The "redacted" portions of the errors are references to the static library to which I'm trying to link. Here's what I've tried from the many suggestions online. Each of these were suggested more than once without any explanation, which leads me to believe nobody quite understands this problem: "Never use the drop down menu in the upper left of the XCode window to choose the target. Instead, set this to Base SDK and then the Base SDK to iPhone OS 3.0 in the target configuration. Set the target device to your preferred target (iPad, iPhone OS 3.2 in my situation.)" This yields the error "Library not found for -lcrt1.3.1.o" "Make sure that GCC isn't linking against the wrong version of the standard library. (You'll have to make sure the LIBRARY_SEARCH_PATH doesn't have the wrong path in it.)" My LIBRARY_SEARCH_PATH is already empty, so this doesn't seem relevant. "Try compiling with GCC 4.0 rather than GCC 4.2." I get a syntax error inside a UIKit header file. The error is "Syntax error before 'AT_NAME' token." The line is "UIKIT_EXTERN @interface UILocalizedIndexedCollation : NSObject." Another project compiles just fine with the same target settings, which is really making me question my sanity. Could I be dealing with a corrupt XCode project? If anyone knows what's actually happening and has a reference or doesn't mind explaining it, I would be so very grateful. Cheers!

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