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  • C++0x rvalue references and temporaries

    - by Doug
    (I asked a variation of this question on comp.std.c++ but didn't get an answer.) Why does the call to f(arg) in this code call the const ref overload of f? void f(const std::string &); //less efficient void f(std::string &&); //more efficient void g(const char * arg) { f(arg); } My intuition says that the f(string &&) overload should be chosen, because arg needs to be converted to a temporary no matter what, and the temporary matches the rvalue reference better than the lvalue reference. This is not what happens in GCC and MSVC. In at least G++ and MSVC, any lvalue does not bind to an rvalue reference argument, even if there is an intermediate temporary created. Indeed, if the const ref overload isn't present, the compilers diagnose an error. However, writing f(arg + 0) or f(std::string(arg)) does choose the rvalue reference overload as you would expect. From my reading of the C++0x standard, it seems like the implicit conversion of a const char * to a string should be considered when considering if f(string &&) is viable, just as when passing a const lvalue ref arguments. Section 13.3 (overload resolution) doesn't differentiate between rvalue refs and const references in too many places. Also, it seems that the rule that prevents lvalues from binding to rvalue references (13.3.3.1.4/3) shouldn't apply if there's an intermediate temporary - after all, it's perfectly safe to move from the temporary. Is this: Me misreading/misunderstand the standard, where the implemented behavior is the intended behavior, and there's some good reason why my example should behave the way it does? A mistake that the compiler vendors have somehow all made? Or a mistake based on common implementation strategies? Or a mistake in e.g. GCC (where this lvalue/rvalue reference binding rule was first implemented), that was copied by other vendors? A defect in the standard, or an unintended consequence, or something that should be clarified?

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  • maven assemblies. Putting each dependency with transitive dependencies in own directory?

    - by jr
    I have a maven project which consists of a few modules. This is to be deployed on a client machine and will involve installing Tomcat and will make use of NSIS for installer. There is a separate application which monitors tomcat and can restart it, perform updates, etc. So, I have the modules setup as follows: project +-- client (all code, handlers, for the war) +-- client-common - (shared code, shared between monitor and client) +-- client-web - (the war, basically just uses war has applicationcontext, web.xml,etc) +-- monitor - (the monitor application jar. Uses wrapper to run) So, I need to create an installer. I was planning on creating another module which would be the installer. This is where I would have tomcat directory and I'd like maven to "assemble" everything and then run NSIS so I can create the final installer. However, I need to have the monitor jar file in a directory and then have all monitors dependencies in a lib/ directory. The final directory structure should be: project-installer-directory/monitor/monitor-version.jar project-installer-directory/monitor/lib/monitor-dep-1.jar project-installer-directory/monitor/lib/monitor-dep-2.jar project-installer-directory/monitor/lib/monitor-dep-3.jar project-installer-directory/webapps/client-web.war Where in the client-web\WEB-INF\lib directory we will have all client-web's dependencies after it is exploded. That works, I have the .war file. What I am having problems with is getting the monitor module dependencies independent of the dependencies of the client-web module. I tried to just create the installer module and make the monitor and client-web dependencies, but when I use dependencies-copy it gives me everything. Not what I want. I'm leaning towards creating a new module called monitor-assembly or something to give me a zip file which contains the directory format I need, but that is yet another module. Can someone please help me with the correct way to accomplish this? thanks!

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  • Single log file for multiple webapps

    - by Ashish Aggarwal
    In my tomcat there are multiple webapps deployed and they communicate with each other. Currently they all have their own log file. But when there is some issue comes from call I have to 1st check with the app to whom I made a call and check log file of respective apps involved in the call. So I want that, as all apps is deployed in same tomcat and sharing a common log4j, if a call made to any app then all logs should be in a single log file and no matters how my webapps are involved all error comes from any webapp during the call should be in a single log file. I have no idea how can I achieve this. So any help is appreciable. Edited: I think my question is not cleared so updated with use case: I have three webapps A, B, C having logs files as A.log, B.log and C.log. I made two calls. 1st one to A (that internally calls C) and 2nd to B (that internally calls C). Now logging of first call must be in A.log (with the logs of every step performed inside the webapp c) and second call must be in B.log (with the logs of every step performed inside the webapp c).

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  • Flex Modules vs RSL

    - by nil
    Hi, I'm a little bit confused about when is better to use Flex Modules or RSL libriaries (in Flex 3.5). My goal is split my project in several unit projects, so I can test and work separately. Let's assume I have a Customer app and Vendor app. I also have a front-end panel with two buttons. Each button launches Customer app or Vendor app. These applications make different things. They share some .as functions and common components, too. I understand that if I make a main project (for user login and to show a first panel) and two modules (customer, vendor) I must have all that components in my Eclipse project, isn't it? Instead of doing modules, should I create SWC for Vendor and other for Customer app and call from main app by using RSL? So, which option is more suitable? What do you advise me? Which are the trade-offs of each option? On the other side, this flex application is integrated with Java through Blaze and ibatis for persistence managment, and hold by a web apache server. I considered also to create independent war files to keep this indpendence, but I thought this do not optimize flex code. I'm right? Thank you. Nil

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  • Does a CS PhD Help for Software Engineering Career?

    - by SiLent SoNG
    I would like to seek advice on whether or not to take a PhD offer from a good university. My only concern is the PhD will take at least 4 year's commitment. During the period I won't have good monetary income. I am also concerned whether the PhD will help my future career development. My career goal is software engineering only. Some of the PhD info: The PhD is CS related. The research area is Information Retrieval, Machine Learning, and Nature Language Processing. More specifically, the research topic is Deep Web search. Some of backgrounds: I worked in Oracle for 3 years in database development after obtained a CS degree from some good university. In last year I received an email telling an interesting project from a professor and thereafter I was lured into his research team. The team consists of 4 PhD students; those students have little or no industry experiences and their coding skills are really really bad. By saying bad I mean they do not know some common patterns and they do not know pitfalls of the programming languages as well as idioms for doing things right. I guess a at least 4 year commitment is worth of serious consideration. I am 27 at this moment. If I take the offer, that implies I will be 31+ upon graduation. Wah... becoming.. what to say, no longer young. Hence, here I am seeking advice on whether it is good or not to take the PhD offer, and whether a CS PhD is good for my future career growth as a software engineer? I do not intent to go for academia.

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  • Django: How to dynamically add tag field to third party apps without touching app's source code

    - by Chris Lawlor
    Scenario: large project with many third party apps. Want to add tagging to those apps without having to modify the apps' source. My first thought was to first specify a list of models in settings.py (like ['appname.modelname',], and call django-tagging's register function on each of them. The register function adds a TagField and a custom manager to the specified model. The problem with that approach is that the function needs to run BEFORE the DB schema is generated. I tried running the register function directly in settings.py, but I need django.db.models.get_model to get the actual model reference from only a string, and I can't seem to import that from settings.py - no matter what I try I get an ImportError. The tagging.register function imports OK however. So I changed tactics and wrote a custom management command in an otherwise empty app. The problem there is that the only signal which hooks into syncdb is post_syncdb which is useless to me since it fires after the DB schema has been generated. The only other approach I can think of at the moment is to generate and run a 'south' like database schema migration. This seems more like a hack than a solution. This seems like it should be a pretty common need, but I haven't been able to find a clean solution. So my question is: Is it possible to dynamically add fields to a model BEFORE the schema is generated, but more specifically, is it possible to add tagging to a third party model without editing it's source. To clarify, I know it is possible to create and store Tags without having a TagField on the model, but there is a major flaw in that approach in that it is difficult to simultaneously create and tag a new model.

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  • Why do InterruptedExceptions clear a thread's interrupted status?

    - by Hanno Fietz
    If a thread is interrupted while inside Object.wait() or Thread.join(), it throws an InterruptedException, which resets the thread's interrupted status. I. e., if I have a loop like this inside a Runnable.run(): while (!this._workerThread.isInterrupted()) { // do something try { synchronized (this) { this.wait(this._waitPeriod); } } catch (InterruptedException e) { if (!this._isStopping()) { this._handleFault(e); } } } the thread will continue to run after calling interrupt(). This means I have to explicitly break out of the loop by checking for my own stop flag in the loop condition, rethrow the exception, or add a break. Now, this is not exactly a problem, since this behaviour is well documented and doesn't prevent me from doing anything the way I want. However, I don't seem to understand the concept behind it: Why is a thread not considered interrupted anymore once the exception has been thrown? A similar behaviour also occurs if you get the interrupted status with interrupted() instead of isInterrupted(), then, too, the thread will only appear interrupted once. Am I doing something unusual here? For example, is it more common to catch the InterruptedException outside the loop? (Even though I'm not exactly a beginner, I tagged this "beginner", because it seems like a very basic question to me, looking at it.)

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  • Partially constructed object / Multi threading

    - by reto
    Heya! I'm using joda due to it's good reputation regarding multi threading. It goes great distances to make multi threaded date handling efficient, for example by making all Date/Time/DateTime objects immutable. But here's a situation where I'm not sure if Joda is really doing the right thing. It probably is correct, but I'd be very interested to see the explanation for it. When a toString() of a DateTime is being called Joda does the following: /* org.joda.time.base.AbstractInstant */ public String toString() { return ISODateTimeFormat.dateTime().print(this); } All formatters are thread safe, as they are as well ready-only. But what's about the formatter-factory: private static DateTimeFormatter dt; /* org.joda.time.format.ISODateTimeFormat */ public static DateTimeFormatter dateTime() { if (dt == null) { dt = new DateTimeFormatterBuilder() .append(date()) .append(tTime()) .toFormatter(); } return dt; } This is a common pattern in single threaded applications. I see the following dangers: Race condition during null check -- worst case: two objects get created. No Problem, as this is solely a helper object (unlike a normal singleton pattern situation), one gets saved in dt, the other is lost and will be garbage collected sooner or later. the static variable might point to a partially constructed object before the objec has been finished initialization (before calling me crazy, read about a similar situation in this Wikipedia article. So how does Joda ensure that not partially created formatter gets published in this static variable? Thanks for your explanations! Reto

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  • How to rdc to a particular machine that is member of a TS Farm?

    - by Amit Arora
    I created a Terminal Services farm comprising of 3 TS hosts (say, TS1, TS2 and TS3) running Windows 2008 R2 Enterprise, a TS Connection broker and a TS Gateway for the purpose of hosting a windows application as a TS RemoteApp. The setup works just fine. Now, I want to do some further configuration changes on a particular TS host, say TS2 and not on any other TS host. I try to rdc to TS2 but I find myself getting connected to a randomly chosen TS host (sometimes TS1, sometimes TS2, and at other times, TS3). I think rdc connection is also going via the Connection Broker that is forwarding me to a TS host it decides is best. Is there a way I can deterministically connect to a particular TS host using rdc? I don't have option to login locally on a TS host as the entire setup is hosted in a remote data center. I think this is a very common scenario and must have a straight forward solution. It could be as easy as doing rdc to Connection Broker server and disabling it for a while, but I don't know how to do that too. Any help will be highly appreciated.

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  • Web Shop Schema - Document Db

    - by Maxem
    I'd like to evaluate a document db, probably mongo db in an ASP.Net MVC web shop. A little reasoning at the beginning: There are about 2 million products. The product model would be pretty bad for rdbms as there'd be many different kinds of products with unique attributes. For example, there'd be books which have isbn, authors, title, pages etc as well as dvds with play time, directors, artists etc and quite a few more types. In the end, I'd have about 9 different products with a combined column count (counting common columns like title only once) of about 70 to 100 whereas each individual product has 15 columns at most. The three commonly used ways in RDBMS would be: EAV model which would have pretty bad performance characteristics and would make it either impractical or perform even worse if I'd like to display the author of a book in a list of different products (think start page, recommended products etc.). Ignore the column count and put it all in the product table: Although I deal with somewhat bigger databases (row wise), I don't have any experience with tables with more than 20 columns as far as performance is concered but I guess 100 columns would have some implications. Create a table for each product type: I personally don't like this approach as it complicates everything else. C# Driver / Classes: I'd like to use the NoRM driver and so far I think i'll try to create a product dto that contains all properties (grouped within detail classes like book details, except for those properties that should be displayed on list views etc.). In the app I'll use BookBehavior / DvdBehaviour which are wrappers around a product dto but only expose the revelent Properties. My questions now: Are my performance concerns with the many columns approach valid? Did I overlook something and there is a much better way to do it in an RDBMS? Is MongoDb on Windows stable enough? Does my approach with different behaviour wrappers make sense?

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  • How do I search & replace all occurrences of a string in a ms word doc with python?

    - by Mark
    Hello there, I am pretty stumped at the moment. Based on http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1045628/can-i-use-win32-com-to-replace-text-inside-a-word-document I was able to code a simple template system that generates word docs out of a template word doc (in Python). My problem is that text in "Text Fields" is not find that way. Even in Word itself there is no option to search everything - you actually have to choose between "Main Document" and "Text Fields". Being new to the Windows world I tried to browse the VBA docs for it but found no help (probably due to "text field" being a very common term). word.Documents.Open(f) wdFindContinue = 1 wdReplaceAll = 2 find_str = '\{\{(*)\}\}' find = word.Selection.Find find.Execute(find_str, False, False, True, False, False, \ True, wdFindContinue, False, False, False) while find.Found: t = word.Selection.Text.__str__() r = process_placeholder(t, answer_data, question_data) if type(r) == dict: errors.append(r) else: find.Execute(t, False, True, False, False, False, \ True, False, False, r, wdReplaceAll) This is the relevant portion of my code. I was able to get around all problems by myself by now (hint: if you want to replace strings with more than 256 chars, you have to do it via clipboard, etc ...) Hope, someone can help me.

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  • Bookmarkable URLs after Ajax for Wicket

    - by Wolfgang
    There is this well-known problem that browsers don't put Ajax request in the request history and cause problems for bookmarkability, forward/back button, and refresh. Also, there is a common solution to that problem that appends the hash symbol # and some additional parameters to the URL by using Javascript window.location.hash = .... In this question a basic solution to this problem is proposed, for example. = My question is if such a solution has been integrated in Wicket, so that existing Wicket facilities are used and no custom Javascript had to be added. If not, I'd be interested in how this could be done. Such a solution had to answer the question what should be put after the hash. I like the idea that the bookmarkable URL that (in the non-Ajax case) were in front of the hash could be put behind it. For example, when you are on http://host/catalog and reach a page http://host/product/xyz the Ajax-triggered URL would be http://host/catalog#/product/xyz. Then it would be easy to write an onload handler that checks for the # and does a redirect to the URL after the hash.

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  • Need feedback on two member functions of a Table class in C++

    - by George
    int Table::addPlayer(Player player, int position) { deque<Player>::iterator it = playerList.begin()+position; deque<Player>::iterator itStart = playerList.begin()+postion; while(*it != "(empty seat)") { it++; if (it == playerList.end()) { it = playerList.begin(); } if (it == itStart) { cout << "Table full" << endl; return -1; } } //TODO overload Player assignment, << operator *it = player; cout << "Player " << player << " sits at position " << it - playerList.begin() << endl; return it - playerList.begin(); } } int Table::removePlayer(Player player) { deque<Player>::iterator it = playerList.begin(); //TODO Do I need to overload != in Player? while(*it != player) { it++; if (it == playerList.end()) { cout << "Player " << player << " not found" << endl; return -1; } } *it = "(empty seat)"; cout << "Player " << player << " stands up from position " << it - playerList.begin() << endl; return it - playerList.begin(); } Would like some feedback on these two member functions of a Table class for Texas Hold Em Poker simulation. Any information syntax, efficiency or even common practices would be much appreciated.

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  • Django: DatabaseLockError exception with Djapian

    - by jul
    Hi, I've got the exception shown below when executing indexer.update(). I have no idea about what to do: it used to work and now index database seems "locked". Anybody can help? Thanks Environment: Request Method: POST Request URL: http://piem.org:8000/restaurant/add/ Django Version: 1.1.1 Python Version: 2.5.2 Installed Applications: ['django.contrib.auth', 'django.contrib.contenttypes', 'django.contrib.sessions', 'django.contrib.comments', 'django.contrib.sites', 'django.contrib.admin', 'registration', 'djapian', 'resto', 'multilingual'] Installed Middleware: ('django.middleware.common.CommonMiddleware', 'django.contrib.sessions.middleware.SessionMiddleware', 'django.contrib.auth.middleware.AuthenticationMiddleware', 'django.middleware.locale.LocaleMiddleware', 'multilingual.middleware.DefaultLanguageMiddleware') Traceback: File "/var/lib/python-support/python2.5/django/core/handlers/base.py" in get_response 92. response = callback(request, *callback_args, **callback_kwargs) File "/home/jul/atable/../atable/resto/views.py" in addRestaurant 639. Restaurant.indexer.update() File "/home/jul/python-modules/Djapian-2.3.1-py2.5.egg/djapian/indexer.py" in update 181. database = self._db.open(write=True) File "/home/jul/python-modules/Djapian-2.3.1-py2.5.egg/djapian/database.py" in open 20. xapian.DB_CREATE_OR_OPEN, File "/usr/lib/python2.5/site-packages/xapian.py" in __init__ 2804. _xapian.WritableDatabase_swiginit(self,_xapian.new_WritableDatabase(*args)) Exception Type: DatabaseLockError at /restaurant/add/ Exception Value: Unable to acquire database write lock on /home/jul/atable /djapian_spaces/resto/restaurant/resto.index.restaurantindexer: already locked

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  • How can I make a family of singletons?

    - by Jay
    I want to create a set of classes that share a lot of common behavior. Of course in OOP when you think that you automatically think "abstract class with subclasses". But among the things I want these classes to do is to each have a static list of instances of the class. The list should function as sort of a singleton within the class. I mean each of the sub-classes has a singleton, not that they share one. "Singleton" to that subclass, not a true singleton. But if it's a static, how can I inherit it? Of course code like this won't work: public abstract A { static List<A> myList; public static List getList() { if (myList==null) myList=new ArrayList<A>(10); return myList; } public static A getSomethingFromList() { List listInstance=getList(); ... do stuff with list ... } public int getSomethingFromA() { ... regular code acting against current instance ... } } public class A1 extends A { ... } public class A2 extends A { ... } A1 somethingfromA1List=(A1) A1.getSomethingFromList(); A2 somethingfromA2List=(A2) A2.getSomethingFromList(); The contents of the list for each subclass would be different, but all the code to work on the lists would be the same. The problem with the above code is that I'd only have one list for all the subclasses, and I want one for each. Yes, I could replicate the code to declare the static list in each of the subclasses, but then I'd also have to replicate all the code that adds to the lists and searches the list, etc, which rather defeats the purpose of subclassing. Any ideas on how to do this without replicating code?

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  • What are the lengths/limits C preprocessor as a language creation tool? Where can I learn more about

    - by Weston C
    In his FAQ @ http://www2.research.att.com/~bs/bs_faq.html#bootstrapping, Bjarne Stroustrup says: To build [Cfront, the first C++ compiler], I first used C to write a "C with Classes"-to-C preprocessor. "C with Classes" was a C dialect that became the immediate ancestor to C++... I then wrote the first version of Cfront in "C with Classes". When I read this, it piqued my interest in the C preprocessor. I'd seen its macro capabilities as suitable for simplifying common expressions but hadn't thought about its ability to significantly add to syntax and semantics on the level that I imagine bringing classes to C took. So now I have a couple of questions on my mind: 1) Are there other examples of this approach to bootstrapping a language off of C? 2) Is the source to Stroustrup's original work available anywhere? 3) Where could I learn more about the specifics of utilizing this technique? 4) What are the lengths/limits of that approach? Could one, say, create a set of preprocessor macros that let someone write in something significantly Lisp/Scheme like?

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  • Identify server that made call to web service

    - by sleepybobos
    I am working within an intranet environment. We have both a production and development sharepoint server (WSS 3). We have a 3rd party workflow product which runs on top of sharepoint. It is installed on both the production and development sharepoint servers. The workflow product can call web services I have written which are hosted on our web server. How would I have the web services determine which sharepoint server made the call to the web service, be it the production or development server? I would then use this information to server specific information from web.config or database etc. Currently the site hosting web services is setup to allow anonymous access so code such as System.Web.HttpContext.Current.User.Identity.Name; returns and empty string. If windows authenticaion is used it returns the identity of the currently logged in user, which is no user in identifying the server the call was made from. I need a push in the right direction to address what I believe is probably a common scenario please.

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  • How to write custom (odd) authentication plugins for Wordpress, Joomla and MediaWiki?

    - by Bart van Heukelom
    On our network (a group of related websites - not a LAN) we have a common authentication system which works like this: On a network site ("consumer") the user clicks on a login link This redirects the user to a login page on our auth system ("RAS"). Upon successful login the user is directed back to the consumer site. Extra data is passed in the query string. This extra data does not include any information about the user yet. The consumer site's backend contacts RAS, with this extra data, to get the information about the logged in user (id, name, email, preferences, etc.). So as you can see, the consumer site knows nothing about the authentication method. It doesn't know if it's by username/password, fingerprint, smartcard, or winning a game of poker. This is the main problem I'm encountering when trying to find out how I could write custom authentication plugins for these packages, acting as consumer sites: Wordpress Joomla MediaWiki For example Joomla offers a pretty simple auth plugin system, but it depends on a username/password entered on the Joomla site. Any hints on where to start?

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  • Getting rid of nested using(...) statements

    - by Ghostrider
    Sometimes I need to use several disposable objects within a function. Most common case is having StreamReader and StreamWriter but sometimes it's even more than this. Nested using statements quickly add up and look ugly. To remedy this I've created a small class that collects IDisposable objects and disposes of them when it itself is disposed. public class MultiDispose : HashSet<IDisposable>, IDisposable { public MultiDispose(params IDisposable[] objectsToDispose) { foreach (IDisposable d in objectsToDispose) { this.Add(d); } } public T Add<T>(T obj) where T : IDisposable { base.Add(obj); return obj; } public void DisposeObject(IDisposable obj) { obj.Dispose(); base.Remove(obj); } #region IDisposable Members public void Dispose() { foreach (IDisposable d in this) { d.Dispose(); } } #endregion } So my code now looks like this: using (MultiDispose md = new MultiDispose()) { StreamReader rdr = md.Add(new StreamReader(args[0])); StreamWriter wrt = md.Add(new StreamWriter(args[1])); WhateverElseNeedsDisposing w = md.Add(new WhateverElseNeedsDisposing()); // code } Is there anything wrong with this approach that can cause problems down the road? I left the Remove function inherited from the HashSet on purpose so that the class would be more flexible. Surely misusing this function can lead to objects not being disposed of properly, but then there many other ways to shoot yourself in the foot without this class.

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  • MVVM Listbox DataTemplate SelectedItem

    - by StinkerPeter
    I am using a ListBox with a DataTemplate as shown below (xaml simplified and variable names changed). <ListBox ItemsSource="{Binding Path=ObservCollectionItems}" SelectedItem="{Binding Path=SelectedItemVar, Mode=TwoWay}"> <ListBox.ItemTemplate> <DataTemplate> <StackPanel> <TextBlock Text="{Binding SomeVar}" /> <Border> <StackPanel> <Button Content="String1" Command="{Binding DataContext.Command1} RelativeSource={RelativeSource FindAncestor, ListBox, 1}}" /> <Button Content="String2" Command="{Binding DataContext.Command2} RelativeSource={RelativeSource FindAncestor, ListBox, 1}}" /> </StackPanel> </Border> </StackPanel> </DataTemplate> <ListBox.ItemTemplate> </ListBox> I need the SelectedItemVar (dependency property) to update when I click on one of the buttons. SelectedItemVar is then used for the respective button's command. SelectedItemVar does update when I click on the TextBlock or the Border, but not when I click either button. I found a non-MVVM solution to this problem here. I do not want to add code in the file-behind to solve this, as they did in the link. Is there a clean solution that can be done in XAML. Beyond the non-MVVM solutions, I have not found anyone with this problem. I would have thought this was fairly common. Finally, I found this Command="{Binding DataContext.CommandName} RelativeSource={RelativeSource FindAncestor, ListBox, 1} for the Command binding. I do not fully understand what it is doing, but I do know that the command wasn't firing when I was binding directly to CommandName.

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  • How do you verify that 2 copies of a VB 6 executable came from the same code base?

    - by Tim Visher
    I have a program under version control that has gone through multiple releases. A situation came up today where someone had somehow managed to point to an old copy of the program and thus was encountering bugs that have since been fixed. I'd like to go back and just delete all the old copies of the program (keeping them around is a company policy that dates from before version control was common and should no longer be necessary) but I need a way of verifying that I can generate the exact same executable that is better than saying "The old one came out of this commit so this one should be the same." My initial thought was to simply MD5 hash the executable, store the hash file in source control, and be done with it but I've come up against a problem which I can't even parse. It seems that every time the executable is generated (method: Open Project. File Make X.exe) it hashes differently. I've noticed that Visual Basic messes with files every time the project is opened in seemingly random ways but I didn't think that would make it into the executable, nor do I have any evidence that that is indeed what's happening. To try to guard against that I tried generating the executable multiple times within the same IDE session and checking the hashes but they continued to be different every time. So that's: Generate Executable Generate MD5 Checksum: md5sum X.exe > X.md5 Verify MD5 for current executable: md5sum -c X.md5 Generate New Executable Verify MD5 for new executable: md5sum -c X.md5 Fail verification because computed checksum doesn't match. I'm not understanding something about either MD5 or the way VB 6 is generating the executable but I'm also not married to the idea of using MD5. If there is a better way to verify that two executables are indeed the same then I'm all ears. Thanks in advance for your help!

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  • Keyboard shortcut to Un/Comment out code in Mathematica 7?

    - by dbjohn
    A keyboard shortcut to comment/uncomment out a piece of code is common in other programming IDE's for languages like Java, .Net. I find it a very useful technique when experimenting through trial and error to temporarily comment out and uncomment lines, words and parts of the code to find out what is and isn't working. I cannot find any such keyboard shortcut on the Mathematica front end in version 7. I know that it is possible to comment out code by selecting the code, right mouse click and select Un/Comment from the menu that appears but this is too slow while coding. I tried to access this using the menu key Menu on the keyboard but Mathematica frontend doesn't respond to or recognise this key unlike other applications, this could have allowed a key combination for commenting. Can someone else verify that this isn't unique to my machine and that the key isn't recognised by mathematica. I looked at this question and looked in the KeyEventTranslations.tr file but I don't think there is any way to create a shortcut to do this(?). Should I just live with it? Any other suggestions? (I have seen there is an Emacs version of mathematica, I have never tried Emacs or this Mma version and imagine that it would have this ability but would prefer not to go to the trouble and uncertainty of installing it. Also I would guess that the Wolfram Workbench could do this, but that may not be worth the investment just for this.)

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  • HTML file: add annotations through IHTMLDocument

    - by peterchen
    I need to add "annotations" to existing HTML documents - best in the form of string property values I can read & write by name. Apparently (to me), meta elements in the header seem to be the common way - i.e. adding/modifying elements like <head> <meta name="unique-id_property-name" content="property-value"/> ... </head> Question 1: Ist that "acceptable" / ok, or is there a better way to add meta data? I have a little previous experience with getting/mut(il)ating HTML contents through the document in an web browser control. For this task, I've already loaded the HTML document into a HTMLDocument object, but I'm not sure how to go on: // what I have IHTMLDocument2Ptr doc; doc.CreateInstance(__uuidof(HTMLDocument)); IPersistFile pf = doc; pf->Load(fileName, STGM_READ); // everything ok until here Questions 2: Should I be using anything else than HTMLDocument? Questions 3..N: How do I get the head element? How do I get the value of a meta element with a given name? How do I set the value of a meta element (adding the item if and only if it doesn't exist yet)? doc->all returns a collection of all tags, which I can enumerate even though count returns 0. I could scan that for head, then scan that for all meta where the name starts with a certain string, etc. - but this feels very clumsy.

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  • Strange behavior with Javascript's __defineSetter__

    - by Shea Barton
    I have a large project in which I need to intercept assignments to things like element.src, element.href, element.style, etc. I figured out to do this with defineSetter, but it is behaving very strangely (using Chrome 8.0.552.231) An example: var attribs = ["href", "src", "background", "action", "onblur", "style", "onchange", "onclick", "ondblclick", "onerror", "onfocus", "onkeydown", "onkeypress", "onkeyup", "onmousedown", "onmousemove", "onmouseover", "onmouseup", "onresize", "onselect", "onunload"]; for(a = 0; a < attribs.length; a++) { var attrib_name = attribs[a]; var func = new Function("attrib_value", "this.setAttribute(\"" + attrib_name + "\", attrib_value.toUpperCase());"); HTMLElement.prototype.__defineSetter__(attrib_name, func); } What this code should do is whenever common element attribute in attribs is assigned, it uses setAttribute() to set a uppercased version of that attribute. For some very strange reason, the setter works for only ~1/3 of the assignments. For example with element.src = "test" the new src is "TEST", like it should be however with element.href = "test" the new href is "test", not uppercase then even when I try element.__lookupSetter__("href"), it returns the proper, uppercasing setter the strangest thing is different variables are intercepted properly between Chrome and Firefox help!!

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  • Cannot launch 16-bit application anymore

    - by Nick Bedford
    I'm trying to debug and resolve some issues with a Win32 macro application written C++ however I'm having the strangest issue. I have to launch a 16-bit program and then simulate entering data into and have been using ShellExecute for over two years now. I haven't touched this actual code at all, but now it doesn't work. I'm doing ShellExecute(NULL, "open", exe_path.c_str(), NULL, "", SW_SHOWDEFAULT);. This has worked flawlessly for years but all of sudden, it stopped working. It gives me an ACCESS_DENIED error code. I've Googled and apparently this is a pretty common issue with launching 16-bit apps. The workstation XP SP2 environment hasn't changed at all, and it was actually working until I rebuilt a little while ago (I've rebuilt it before many times). The code is inside a window procedure function and when I take it out and launch the program in the WinMain function it works, but the code has to be in the window procedure... I've tried numerous alternatives but they all give the same issue. The biggest issue with this is it was working then all of a sudden decided it wasn't going to with no change to both code and environment! In fact, it was about half way through testing changes that it thought it'd stop working. Please help as I cannot do anything without the program launching. It's the first step in the code that I'm debugging!

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