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  • HMAC URLs instead of login?

    - by Tres
    In implementing my site (a Rails site if it makes any difference), one of my design priorities is to relieve the user of the need to create yet another username and password while still providing useful per-user functionality. The way I am planning to do this is: User enters information on the site. Information is associated with the user via server-side session. User completes entering information, server sends an access URL via e-mail to the user roughly in the form of: http://siteurl/<user identifier>/<signature: HMAC(secret + salt + user identifier)> User clicks URL, site looks up user ID and salt and computes the HMAC with the server-stored secret and authenticates if the computed HMAC and signature match. My question is: is this a reasonably secure way to accomplish what I'm looking to do? Are there common attacks that would render it useless? Is there a compelling reason to abandon my desire to avoid a username/password? Is there a must-read book or article on the subject? Note that I'm not dealing with credit card numbers or anything exceedingly private, but I would still like to keep the information reasonably secure.

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  • iOS UIImageView dataWithContentsOfURL returning empty

    - by user761389
    I'm trying to display an image from a URL in a UIImageView and I'm seeing some very peculiar results. The bit of code that I'm testing with is below imageURL = @"http://images.shopow.co.uk/image/user_dyn/1073/32/32"; imageURL = @"http://images.shopow.co.uk/assets/profile_images/default/32_32/avatar-male-01.jpg"; NSURL *imageURLRes = [NSURL URLWithString:imageURL]; NSData *imageData = [NSData dataWithContentsOfURL:imageURLRes]; UIImage *image = [UIImage imageWithData:imageData]; NSLog(@"Image Data: %@", imageData); In it's current form I can see data in the output window which is what I'd expect. However if comment out the second imageURL so I'm referencing the first I'm getting empty data and therefore nil is being returned by imageWithData. What is possibly more confusing is that the first image is basically the same as the second but it's been through a PHP processing script. I'm nearly certain that it isn't the script that's causing the issue because if I use this instead imageURL = @"http://images.shopow.co.uk/image/product_dynimg/389620/32/32" the image is displayed and this uses the same image processing script. I'm struggling to find any difference in the images that would cause this to occur. Any help would be appreciated.

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  • IE8: weird border around HTML button element

    - by s427
    I have a button element with a custom background (image+color) and no borders except for a 2px border-bottom (and a bunch of other properties --code below) which renders quite differently in Firefox and in IE8. The problem is, this is a work for a company that uses IE8 as their only browser, so it's important that the button renders well in IE8. Here's a visual comparison between the two: My question here is not about the padding difference (I'm looking into that), but about the weird border that is visible on IE8 in addition to the regular border (border-bottom). Can anyone explain to me where it comes from and how to get rid of it? Thanks in advance. Here is the HTML code: <button class="btn" id="c_edit"> <span>Annuler</span> </button> And here is the CSS: .btn { display: inline-block; margin: 0 0 7px 5px; padding: 0; color: #ddd; font-size: 14px; font-family: FrutigerLTStd55Roman, sans-serif; text-decoration: none; border: none; border-bottom: 2px solid #222; background-color: #999; background-image: url('img/btn_bg.gif'); background-position: 0 bottom; background-repeat: repeat-x; cursor: pointer; transition: all .5s ease-out; } .btn span { display: inline-block; margin: 0; padding: 8px 10px 6px 40px; background-color: transparent; background-position: 4px 0; background-repeat: no-repeat; }

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  • Quantifying the amount of change in a git diff?

    - by Alex Feinman
    I use git for a slightly unusual purpose--it stores my text as I write fiction. (I know, I know...geeky.) I am trying to keep track of productivity, and want to measure the degree of difference between subsequent commits. The writer's proxy for "work" is "words written", at least during the creation stage. I can't use straight word count as it ignores editing and compression, both vital parts of writing. I think I want to track: (words added)+(words removed) which will double-count (words changed), but I'm okay with that. It'd be great to type some magic incantation and have git report this distance metric for any two revisions. However, git diffs are patches, which show entire lines even if you've only twiddled one character on the line; I don't want that, especially since my 'lines' are paragraphs. Ideally I'd even be able to specify what I mean by "word" (though \W+ would probably be acceptable). Is there a flag to git-diff to give diffs on a word-by-word basis? Alternately, is there a solution using standard command-line tools to compute the metric above?

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  • Communication with different social networks, strategy pattern?

    - by bclaessens
    Hi For the last few days I've been thinking how I can solve the following programming problem and find the ideal, flexible programming structure. (note: I'm using Flash as my platform technology but that shouldn't matter since I'm just looking for the ideal design pattern). Our Flash website has multiple situations in which it has to communicate with different social networks (Facebook, Netlog and Skyrock). Now, the communication strategy doesn't have to change multiple times over one "run". The strategy should be picked once (at launch time) for that session. The real problem is the way the communication works between each social network and our website. Some networks force us to ask for a token, others force us to use a webservice, yet another forces us to set up its communication through javascript. The problem becomes more complicated when our website has to run in each network's canvas. Which results in even more (different) ways of communicating. To sum up, our website has to work in the following cases: standalone on the campaign website url (user chooses their favourite network) communicate with netlog OR communicate with facebook OR communicate with skyrock run in a netlog canvas and log in automatically (website checks for netlog parameters) run in a facebook canvas and log in automatically (website checks for facebook params) run in a skyrock canvas and log in automatically (website checks for skyrock params) As you can see, our website needs 6 different ways to communicate with a social network. To be honest, the actual significant difference between all communication strategies is the way they have to connect to their individual network (as stated above in my example). Posting an image, make a comment, ... is the same whether it runs standalone or in the canvas url. WARNING: posting an image, posting a comment DOES differ from network to network. Should I use the strategy pattern and make 6 different communication strategies or is there a better way? An example would be great but isn't required ;) Thanks in advance

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  • Problem with ModelAndView and ModelMap in AnnotationController, Springframework

    - by saltfactory
    I have a question that is a point difference between ModelAndView and ModelMap. I want to maintain modelAndView when requestMethod is "GET" and requestMethod is "POST". My modelAndView saved others. So I made modelAndView return type to "GET", "POST" methods. But, Request lost commandObject, form:errors..., if request return showForm on "POST" because request validation failed. example) private ModelAndView modelAndView; public ControllerTest{ this.modelAndView = new ModelAndView(); } @RequestMapping(method = RequestMethod.GET) public ModelAndView showForm(ModelMap model) { EntityObject entityObject = new EntityObject(); CommandObject commandObject = new CommandObject(); commandObject.setEntityObject(entityObject); model.addAttribute("commandObject", commandObject); this.modelAndView.addObject("id", "GET"); this.modelAndView.setViewName("registerForm"); return this.modelAndView; } @RequestMapping(method = RequestMethod.POST) public ModelAndView submit(@ModelAttribute("commandObject") CommandObject commandObject, BindingResult result, SessionStatus status) { this.commandValidator.validate(commandObject, result); if (result.hasErrors()) { this.modelAndView.addObject("id", "POST"); this.modelAndView.setViewName("registerForm"); return this.modelAndView; } else { this.modelAndView.addObject("id", "after POST"); this.modelAndView.setViewName("success"); } status.setComplete(); return this.modelAndView; }

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  • JSR-299 (CDI) configuration at runtime

    - by nsn
    I need to configure different @Alternatives, @Decorators and @Injectors for different runtime environments (think testing, staging and production servers). Right now I use maven to create three wars, and the only difference between those wars are in the beans.xml files. Is there a better way to do this? I do have @Alternative @Stereotypes for the different environments, but even then I need to alter beans.xml, and they don't work for @Decorators (or do they?) Is it somehow possible to instruct CDI to ignore the values in beans.xml and use a custom configuration source? Because then I could for example read a system property or other environment variable. The application exclusively runs in containers that use Weld, so a weld-specific solution would be ok. I already tried to google this but can't seem to find good search terms, and I asked the Weld-Users-Forums, but to no avail. Someone over there suggested to write my own custom extension, but I can't find any API to actually change the container configuration at runtime. I think it would be possible to have some sort of @ApplicationScoped configuration bean and inject that into all @Decorators which could then decide themselves whether they should be active or not and then in order to configure @Alternatives write @Produces methods for every interface with multiple implementations and inject the config bean there too. But this seems to me like a lot of unnecessary work to essentially duplicate functionality already present in CDI?

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  • OpenGL Mipmapping: how does OpenGL decide on map level?

    - by Droozle
    Hi, I am having trouble implementing mipmapping in OpenGL. I am using OpenFrameworks and have modified the ofTexture class to support the creation and rendering of mipmaps. The following code is the original texture creation code from the class (slightly modified for clarity): glEnable(texData.textureTarget); glBindTexture(texData.textureTarget, (GLuint)texData.textureID); glTexSubImage2D(texData.textureTarget, 0, 0, 0, w, h, texData.glType, texData.pixelType, data); glTexParameteri(texData.textureTarget, GL_TEXTURE_MAG_FILTER, GL_LINEAR); glTexParameteri(texData.textureTarget, GL_TEXTURE_MIN_FILTER, GL_LINEAR); glDisable(texData.textureTarget); This is my version with mipmap support: glEnable(texData.textureTarget); glBindTexture(texData.textureTarget, (GLuint)texData.textureID); gluBuild2DMipmaps(texData.textureTarget, texData.glTypeInternal, w, h, texData.glType, texData.pixelType, data); glTexParameteri(texData.textureTarget, GL_TEXTURE_MAG_FILTER, GL_LINEAR_MIPMAP_LINEAR); glTexParameteri(texData.textureTarget, GL_TEXTURE_MIN_FILTER, GL_LINEAR_MIPMAP_LINEAR); glDisable(texData.textureTarget); The code does not generate errors (gluBuild2DMipmaps returns '0') and the textures are rendered without problems. However, I do not see any difference. The scene I render consists of "flat, square tiles" at z=0. It's basically a 2D scene. I zoom in and out by using "glScale()" before drawing the tiles. When I zoom out, the pixels of the tile textures start to "dance", indicating (as far as I can tell) unfiltered texture look-up. See: http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=b_As2Np3m8A at 25s. My question is: since I do not move the camera position, but only use scaling of the whole scene, does this mean OpenGL can not decide on the appropriate mipmap level and uses the full texture size (level 0)? Paul

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  • Connection Pool Strategy: Good, Bad or Ugly?

    - by Drew
    I'm in charge of developing and maintaining a group of Web Applications that are centered around similar data. The architecture I decided on at the time was that each application would have their own database and web-root application. Each application maintains a connection pool to its own database and a central database for shared data (logins, etc.) A co-worker has been positing that this strategy will not scale because having so many different connection pools will not be scalable and that we should refactor the database so that all of the different applications use a single central database and that any modifications that may be unique to a system will need to be reflected from that one database and then use a single pool powered by Tomcat. He has posited that there is a lot of "meta data" that goes back and forth across the network to maintain a connection pool. My understanding is that with proper tuning to use only as many connections as necessary across the different pools (low volume apps getting less connections, high volume apps getting more, etc.) that the number of pools doesn't matter compared to the number of connections or more formally that the difference in overhead required to maintain 3 pools of 10 connections is negligible compared to 1 pool of 30 connections. The reasoning behind initially breaking the systems into a one-app-one-database design was that there are likely going to be differences between the apps and that each system could make modifications on the schema as needed. Similarly, it eliminated the possibility of system data bleeding through to other apps. Unfortunately there is not strong leadership in the company to make a hard decision. Although my co-worker is backing up his worries only with vagueness, I want to make sure I understand the ramifications of multiple small databases/connections versus one large database/connection pool.

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  • Update Web Reference in Visual Studio

    - by NeilD
    Hi, I have inherited a web site project that makes use of a number of WCF Web Services hosted on a BizTalk server. We have two environments that I need to deploy this project to, with different URLs for the different BizTalk servers. i.e. In the Staging environment, I need to point the services at xx.xx.xx.101 In the Live environment, I need to point them at xx.xx.xx.102, or whatever. Currently, we've got all of the URLs stored in keys in the web.config file, so that we can change them dynamically... Unfortunately this isn't working! If I change the URL in the web.config to something other than what the project was compiled with, I get an error when calling the service: Server did not recognize the value of HTTP Header SOAPAction: xx.xx.xx.101\ServiceName\MethodName I'm told that the only way they've known to deploy this is to update the web.config URLs, change all of the web references in Visual Studio to match, click on "update web reference" for each reference in Visual Studio, and then compile. It's driving me mad! I've written a pre-build NAnt script to go through and replace all instances of the URL found anywhere in the project directory, and even that isn't making any difference. There must be something else being pulled down from the service when I click the "update reference", but I'm new to working with web services, and so I'm not sure what. Does anyone have any ideas? Is there a way to do this programatically? Thanks.

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  • Help with c# event listening and usercontrols

    - by Jen
    OK so I have a page which has a listview on it. Inside the item template of the listview is a usercontrol. This usercontrol is trying to trigger an event so that the hosting page can listen to it. My problem is that the event is not being triggered as the handler is null. (ie. EditDateRateSelected is my handler and its null when debugging) protected void lnkEditDate_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (EditDateRateSelected != null) EditDateRateSelected(Convert.ToDateTime(((LinkButton)frmViewRatesDate.Row.FindControl("lnkEditDate")).Text)); } On the item data bound of my listvew is where I'm adding my event handlers protected void PropertyAccommodationRates1_ItemDataBound(object sender, ListViewItemEventArgs e) { if (e.Item.ItemType == ListViewItemType.DataItem) { UserControls_RatesEditDate RatesViewDate1 = (UserControls_RatesEditDate)e.Item.FindControl("RatesViewDate1"); RatesViewDate1.EditDateRateSelected += new UserControls_RatesEditDate.EditDateRateEventHandler(RatesEditDate1_EditDateRateSelected); RatesViewDate1.PropertyID = (int)Master.PropertyId; if (!String.IsNullOrEmpty(Accommodations1.SelectedValue)) { RatesViewDate1.AccommodationTypeID = Convert.ToInt32(Accommodations1.SelectedValue); } else { RatesViewDate1.AccommodationTypeID = 0; } RatesViewDate1.Rate = (PropertyCMSRate)((ListViewDataItem)e.Item).DataItem; } } My event code all works fine if the control is inside the page and on page load I have the line: RatesEditDate1.EditDateRateSelected += new UserControls_RatesEditDate.EditDateRateEventHandler(RatesEditDate1_EditDateRateSelected); But obviously I need listen for events inside the listviewcontrols. Any advice would be greatly appreciated. I have tried setting EnableViewState to true for my listview but that hasn't made a difference. Is there somewhere else I'm supposed to be wiring up the control handler? Note - apologies if I've got my terminology wrong and I'm referring to delegates as handlers and such :)

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  • Pure CSS3 show/hide full height div with transition

    - by user1898838
    Dear Stackoverflow readers, I've been breaking my head over something I've seen at Tympanus, and I can't figure out how to properly do such a thing. In this link: http://tympanus.net/Tutorials/FullscreenBookBlock/ you can see that the menu is completely hidden, and only visible when you click on an icon. It has a lovely transition, and it basically roughly sums up what I'm trying to accomplish. The only difference with the above example is that I don't want to completely hide this full-height element, and I'd like to accomplish the above effect with a hover instead of having to click a button. So in an ideal world you'd see a vertical bar, and when you hover over that bar (or click on it with your finger if you're on a tablet), it "opens up" and shows you the full content inside the opened div. Now, I can make a decent bit in html5 and css3, but the above explained effect that I'm trying to accomplish has given me serious headaches, hehe. Does anyone happen to know a tutorial I might have missed that does this exact thing? p.s.: I have tried to take apart Tympanus' html/css, but with the page-fold effect that's also implemented in it I can't seem to figure it out, hence my hope for someone here to help me on my way :)

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  • Inline function v. Macro in C -- What's the Overhead (Memory/Speed)?

    - by Jason R. Mick
    I searched Stack Overflow for the pros/cons of function-like macros v. inline functions. I found the following discussion: Pros and Cons of Different macro function / inline methods in C ...but it didn't answer my primary burning question. Namely, what is the overhead in c of using a macro function (with variables, possibly other function calls) v. an inline function, in terms of memory usage and execution speed? Are there any compiler-dependent differences in overhead? I have both icc and gcc at my disposal. My code snippet I'm modularizing is: double AttractiveTerm = pow(SigmaSquared/RadialDistanceSquared,3); double RepulsiveTerm = AttractiveTerm * AttractiveTerm; EnergyContribution += 4 * Epsilon * (RepulsiveTerm - AttractiveTerm); My reason for turning it into an inline function/macro is so I can drop it into a c file and then conditionally compile other similar, but slightly different functions/macros. e.g.: double AttractiveTerm = pow(SigmaSquared/RadialDistanceSquared,3); double RepulsiveTerm = pow(SigmaSquared/RadialDistanceSquared,9); EnergyContribution += 4 * Epsilon * (RepulsiveTerm - AttractiveTerm); (note the difference in the second line...) This function is a central one to my code and gets called thousands of times per step in my program and my program performs millions of steps. Thus I want to have the LEAST overhead possible, hence why I'm wasting time worrying about the overhead of inlining v. transforming the code into a macro. Based on the prior discussion I already realize other pros/cons (type independence and resulting errors from that) of macros... but what I want to know most, and don't currently know is the PERFORMANCE. I know some of you C veterans will have some great insight for me!!

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  • How can I concisely copy multiple SQL rows, with minor modifications?

    - by Steve Jessop
    I'm copying a subset of some data, so that the copy will be independently modifiable in future. One of my SQL statements looks something like this (I've changed table and column names): INSERT Product( ProductRangeID, Name, Weight, Price, Color, And, So, On ) SELECT @newrangeid AS ProductRangeID, Name, Weight, Price, Color, And, So, On FROM Product WHERE ProductRangeID = @oldrangeid and Color = 'Blue' That is, we're launching a new product range which initially just consists of all the blue items in some specified current range, under new SKUs. In future we may change the "blue-range" versions of the products independently of the old ones. I'm pretty new at SQL: is there something clever I should do to avoid listing all those columns, or at least avoid listing them twice? I can live with the current code, but I'd rather not have to come back and modify it if new columns are added to Product. In its current form it would just silently fail to copy the new column if I forget to do that, which should show up in testing but isn't great. I am copying every column except for the ProductRangeID (which I modify), the ProductID (incrementing primary key) and two DateCreated and timestamp columns (which take their auto-generated values for the new row). Btw, I suspect I should probably have a separate join table between ProductID and ProductRangeID. I didn't define the tables. This is in a T-SQL stored procedure on SQL Server 2008, if that makes any difference.

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  • Rationale of C# iterators design (comparing to C++)

    - by macias
    I found similar topic: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/56347/iterators-in-c-stl-vs-java-is-there-a-conceptual-difference Which basically deals with Java iterator (which is similar to C#) being unable to going backward. So here I would like to focus on limits -- in C++ iterator does not know its limit, you have by yourself compare the given iterator with the limit. In C# iterator knows more -- you can tell without comparing to any external reference, if the iterator is valid or not. I prefer C++ way, because once having iterator you can set any iterator as a limit. In other words if you would like to get only few elements instead of entire collection, you don't have to alter the iterator (in C++). For me it is more "pure" (clear). But of course MS knew this and C++ while designing C#. So what are the advantages of C# way? Which approach is more powerful (which leads to more elegant functions based on iterators). What do I miss? If you have thoughts on C# vs. C++ iterators design other than their limits (boundaries), please also answer. Note: (just in case) please, keep the discussion strictly technical. No C++/C# flamewar.

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  • avoiding code duplication in Rails 3 models

    - by Dustin Frazier
    I'm working on a Rails 3.1 application where there are a number of different enum-like models that are stored in the database. There is a lot of identical code in these models, as well as in the associated controllers and views. I've solved the code duplication for the controllers and views via a shared parent controller class and the new view/layout inheritance that's part of Rails 3. Now I'm trying to solve the code duplication in the models, and I'm stuck. An example of one of my enum models is as follows: class Format < ActiveRecord::Base has_and_belongs_to_many :videos attr_accessible :name validates :name, presence: true, length: { maximum: 20 } before_destroy :verify_no_linked_videos def verify_no_linked_videos unless self.videos.empty? self.errors[:base] << "Couldn't delete format with associated videos." raise ActiveRecord::RecordInvalid.new self end end end I have four or five other classes with nearly identical code (the association declaration being the only difference). I've tried creating a module with the shared code that they all include (which seems like the Ruby Way), but much of the duplicate code relies on ActiveRecord, so the methods I'm trying to use in the module (validate, attr_accessible, etc.) aren't available. I know about ActiveModel, but that doesn't get me all the way there. I've also tried creating a common, non-persistent parent class that subclasses ActiveRecord::Base, but all of the code I've seen to accomplish this assumes that you won't have subclasses of your non-persistent class that do persist. Any suggestions for how best to avoid duplicating these identical lines of code across many different enum models?

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  • Valid javascript object property names

    - by hawkettc
    I'm trying to work out what is considered valid for the property name of a javascript object. For example var b = {} b['-^colour'] = "blue"; // Works fine in Firefox, Chrome, Safari b['colour'] = "green"; // Ditto alert(b['-^colour']); // Ditto alert(b.colour); // Ditto for(prop in b) alert(prop); // Ditto //alert(b.-^colour); // Fails (expected) This post details valid javascript variable names, and '-^colour' is clearly not valid (as a variable name). Does the same apply to object property names? Looking at the above I'm trying to work out if b['-^colour'] is invalid, but works in all browsers by quirk, and I shouldn't trust it to work going forward b['-^colour'] is completely valid, but it's just of a form that can only be accessed in this manner - (it's supported so Objects can be used as maps perhaps?) Something else As an aside, a global variable in javascript might be declared at the top level as var abc = 0; but could also be created (as I understand it) with window['abc'] = 0; the following works in all the above browsers window['@£$%'] = "bling!"; alert(window['@£$%']); Is this valid? It seems to contradict the variable naming rules - or am I not declaring a variable there? What's the difference between a variable and an object property name? Cheers, Colin

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  • Use of properties vs backing-field inside owner class

    - by whatispunk
    I love auto-implemented properties in C# but lately there's been this elephant standing in my cubicle and I don't know what to do with him. If I use auto-implemented properties (hereafter "aip") then I no longer have a private backing field to use internally. This is fine because the aip has no side-effects. But what if later on I need to add some extra processing in the get or set? Now I need to create a backing-field so I can expand my getters and setters. This is fine for external code using the class, because they won't notice the difference. But now all of the internal references to the aip are going to invoke these side-effects when they access the property. Now all internal access to the once aip must be refactored to use the backing-field. So my question is, what do most of you do? Do you use auto-implemented properties or do you prefer to always use a backing-field? What do you think about properties with side-effects?

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  • is it better to query database or grab from file? php & mysql

    - by pfunc
    I am keeping a large amount of words in a database that I want to match up articles to. I was thinking that it would just be better to keep these words in an array and grab that array whenever needed instead of querying the database every time (since the words won't be changing that much). Is there much performance difference in doing this? And if I were to do this, how to I write a script that writes the array to a a new php file. I tried writing the array like so: while( $row = mysql_fetch_assoc($query)) { $newArray[] = $row; } $fp = fopen('noWordsArr.php', 'w'); fwrite($fp, $newArray); fclose($fp); But all I get in the other file is "Array". So i figured I could write this and then write have a chron hit up the file every few days or so in case things have changed. But I guess if there is no performance advantage then it prob won't be necessary and I can just query the database every time I need to access the words.

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  • C++ Array vs vector

    - by blue_river
    when using C++ vector, time spent is 718 milliseconds, while when I use Array, time is almost 0 milliseconds. Why so much performance difference? int _tmain(int argc, _TCHAR* argv[]) { const int size = 10000; clock_t start, end; start = clock(); vector<int> v(size*size); for(int i = 0; i < size; i++) { for(int j = 0; j < size; j++) { v[i*size+j] = 1; } } end = clock(); cout<< (end - start) <<" milliseconds."<<endl; // 718 milliseconds int f = 0; start = clock(); int arr[size*size]; for(int i = 0; i < size; i++) { for(int j = 0; j < size; j++) { arr[i*size+j] = 1; } } end = clock(); cout<< ( end - start) <<" milliseconds."<<endl; // 0 milliseconds return 0; }

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  • What are the Limitations for Connecting to an Access Query in Excel

    - by thornomad
    I have an Access 2007 database that has a number of tables, some are fairly large (100,000+ records); I have created a union query to pull some of the same types of data from multiple tables into one large query for pivot table manipulation and reporting. For example: SELECT Language FROM Table1 UNION ALL SELECT Language FROM Table2 UNION ALL SELECT Language FROM Table3; This works. I found, quickly, however, that a union query will not show up when connecting to the datasource from Excel 2007. So, I created a second query to reference the union query. Like so: SELECT * FROM [The Above Union Query]; This query works and it, initially, was accessible from Excel. Time passed, I've added more data. Suddenly, when I connect to my Access database from Excel my query referencing the union has disappeared. MS Access shows no signs of an issue (data displays in Access) and my other non-union queries are showing up in Excel 2007 ... but not the one that references the union. What could be going on? Why did it disappear? I noticed if I switch some of the referenced tables in the union query to a smaller table (with less rows) all of sudden the query appears in Excel again. At least, I think that's what the difference is. I really can't put my finger on why some of the union queries won't show up and some will. Am stumped and need some guidance. Thanks.

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  • Faster Insertion of Records into a Table with SQLAlchemy

    - by Kyle Brandt
    I am parsing a log and inserting it into either MySQL or SQLite using SQLAlchemy and Python. Right now I open a connection to the DB, and as I loop over each line, I insert it after it is parsed (This is just one big table right now, not very experienced with SQL). I then close the connection when the loop is done. The summarized code is: log_table = schema.Table('log_table', metadata, schema.Column('id', types.Integer, primary_key=True), schema.Column('time', types.DateTime), schema.Column('ip', types.String(length=15)) .... engine = create_engine(...) metadata.bind = engine connection = engine.connect() .... for line in file_to_parse: m = line_regex.match(line) if m: fields = m.groupdict() pythonified = pythoninfy_log(fields) #Turn them into ints, datatimes, etc if use_sql: ins = log_table.insert(values=pythonified) connection.execute(ins) parsed += 1 My two questions are: Is there a way to speed up the inserts within this basic framework? Maybe have a Queue of inserts and some insertion threads, some sort of bulk inserts, etc? When I used MySQL, for about ~1.2 million records the insert time was 15 minutes. With SQLite, the insert time was a little over an hour. Does that time difference between the db engines seem about right, or does it mean I am doing something very wrong?

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  • Populating PDF Fields using FDFACX

    - by NWilliams
    I was recently asked to preform some updates to an existing PDF document. The changes required were completed using Adobe Designer (the only tool I have available to me). These changes included alignment, and new text. Note that there were fillable form fields on the forms, and they were left untouched. The saved version of the form was then put into our ASP.NET application, which pre-populates the form fields were applicable (things like name, address etc... things we have in our database). For some reason, the new form does not populate. I've confirmed that the form fields have the correct names, that the actual file (the pdf) that is being pre-populated has the same permissions as others that are working. There are no errors thrown, and no difference in a step through with a working form and a non-working form. This is a legacy project and I have no real experience with the PDF populator they are using ... FDFACX .NET? And can't find a lot of info on it online. Any ideas?

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  • Python coin-toss

    - by Andy
    i am new to Python, and i can't wrap my head around this. I have following function defined: def FlipCoins(num_flips): heads_rounds_won = 0 for i in range(10000): heads = 0 tails = 0 for j in range(num_flips): dice = random.randint(0,1) if dice==1: heads += 1 else: tails += 1 if heads > tails: heads_rounds_won += 1 return heads_rounds_won Here is what it should do (but apparently doesn't): flip a coin num_flip times, count heads and tails, and see if there are more heads than tails. If yes, increment head_rounds_won by 1. Repeat 10000 times. I would assume that head_rounds_won will approximate 5000 (50%). And it does that for odd numbers as input. For example, 3, 5 or 7 will produce about 50%. However, even numbers will produce much lower results, more like 34%. Small numbers especially, with higher even numbers, like for example 800, the difference to 50% is much narrower. Why is this the case? Shouldn't any input produce about 50% heads/tails?

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  • how to programatically compare permissions of login/user in sql server 2005

    - by titanium
    There's a login/user in SQL Server who is having a problem importing accounts in production server. I don't have an idea what method he is doing this. According to the one importing, this import is working fine in development server. But when he did the same import in production it is giving him errors. Below are the errors he is getting for each accounts. 2009-06-05 18:01:05.8254 ERROR [engine-1038] Task [1038:00001 - Members]: Step 1.0 [<Insert step description>]: Task.RunStep(): StoreRow has failed 2009-06-05 18:01:05.9035 ERROR [engine-1038] Task [1038:00001 - Members]: Step 1.0 [<Insert step description>]: Task.RunStep(): StoreRow exception: Exception caught while storing Data. [Microsoft][ODBC SQL Server Driver][SQL Server]'ACCOUNT1' is not a valid login or you do not have permission. Please note that 'ACCOUNT1' is not the real account name. I just changed it for security reason. Using SQL Server Management Studio (SSMS), I viewed/checked the permissions of the user/login who is performing the import from development server and production for comparison. I found no difference. My question is: Is there a way to programmatically query permissions in server and database level of a particular login/user so I can compare/contrast for any differences?

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