Search Results

Search found 8664 results on 347 pages for 'lost with coding'.

Page 285/347 | < Previous Page | 281 282 283 284 285 286 287 288 289 290 291 292  | Next Page >

  • Returning a variable in a public void...

    - by James Rattray
    Hello, I'm abit new to programming Android App's, however I have come across a problem, I can't find a way to make global variables -unlike other coding like php or VB.NET, are global variables possible? If not can someone find a way (and if possible implement the way into the code I will provide below) to get a value from the variable 'songtoplay' so I can use in another Public Void... Here is the code: final Spinner hubSpinner = (Spinner) findViewById(R.id.myspinner); ArrayAdapter adapter = ArrayAdapter.createFromResource( this, R.array.colours, android.R.layout.simple_spinner_item); adapter .setDropDownViewResource(android.R.layout.simple_spinner_dropdown_item); hubSpinner.setAdapter(adapter); // hubSpinner.setOnItemSelectedListener(new OnItemSelectedListener() { public void onItemSelected(AdapterView<?> parentView, View selectedItemView, int position, long id) { //code Object ttestt = hubSpinner.getSelectedItem(); final String test2 = ttestt.toString(); Toast message1 = Toast.makeText(Textbox.this, test2, Toast.LENGTH_LONG); message1.show(); String songtoplay = test2; // Need songtoplay to be available in another 'Public Void' } public void onNothingSelected(AdapterView<?> parentView) { //Code } }); Basically, it gets the value from the Spinner 'hubSpinner' and displays it in a Toast. I then want it to return a value for string variable 'songtoplay' -or find a way to make it global or useable in another Public Void, (Which is will a button, -loading the song to be played) Please help me, Thanks alot. James

    Read the article

  • Automatic testing of GUI related private methods

    - by Stein G. Strindhaug
    When it comes to GUI programming (at least for web) I feel that often the only thing that would be useful to unit test is some of the private methods*. While unit testing makes perfect sense for back-end code, I feel it doesn't quite fit the GUI classes. What is the best way to add automatic testing of these? * Why I think the only methods useful to test is private: Often when I write GUI classes they don't even have any public methods except for the constructor. The public methods if any is trivial, and the constructor does most of the job calling private methods. They receive some data from server does a lot of trivial output and feeds data to the constructor of other classes contained inside it, adding listeners that calls a (more or less directly) calls the server... Most of it pretty trivial (the hardest part is the layout: css, IE, etc.) but sometimes I create some private method that does some advanced tricks, which I definitely do not want to be publicly visible (because it's closely coupled to the implementation of the layout, and likely to change), but is sufficiently complicated to break. These are often only called by the constructor or repeatedly by events in the code, not by any public methods at all. I'd like to have a way to test this type of methods, without making it public or resorting to reflection trickery. (BTW: I'm currently using GWT, but I feel this applies to most languages/frameworks I've used when coding for GUI)

    Read the article

  • C/C++ Control Structure Limitations?

    - by STingRaySC
    I have heard of a limitation in VC++ (not sure which version) on the number of nested if statements (somewhere in the ballpark of 300). The code was of the form: if (a) ... else if (b) ... else if (c) ... ... I was surprised to find out there is a limit to this sort of thing, and that the limit is so small. I'm not looking for comments about coding practice and why to avoid this sort of thing altogether. Here's a list of things that I'd imagine could have some limitation: Number of functions in a scope (global, class, or namespace). Number of expressions in a single statement (e.g., compound conditionals). Number of cases in a switch. Number of parameters to a function. Number of classes in a single hierarchy (either inheritance or containment). What other control structures/language features have limits such as this? Do the language standards say anything about these limits (perhaps minimum requirements for an implementation)? Has anyone run into a particular language limitation like this with a particular compiler/implementation? EDIT: Please note that the above form of if statements is indeed "nested." It is equivalent to: if (a) { //... } else { if (b) { //... } else { if (c) { //... } else { //... } } }

    Read the article

  • Batch Image compression tool for optimizing thousands of images

    - by Daniel Magliola
    Hi all, I'm maintaining a site that has thousands of images that have not been compressed nearly enough. The homepage weighs in at 1.5 Mb currently, and it could easily be way less that half that. I'm looking for some kind of tool that'll take a folder full of JPG pictures and will recompress them to their "optimal" compression value. Obviously, "optimal lossy compression setting" is an oxymoron, but I'm thinking maybe a tool that'll try different levels and compare the outputs to the input, and choose a "sweet spot" between size and destruction? Or even try whether PNG is a better option, many times it is, for "drawing" type stuff. Does anyone of you know any such tool? I'd have lots of fun coding one, but I bet someone already did and will save me 2 days. Alternatively, of course, anything that'll take all pictures in a folder and recompress them with a fixed quality level (say, 40) will also work, it'll just not make my inner nerd as happy, but it'll solve my problem just fine. (Ideally something that can run on Windows, ideally from the command line) Thank you!

    Read the article

  • OO vs Simplicity when it comes to user interaction

    - by Oetzi
    Firstly, sorry if this question is rather vague but it's something I'd really like an answer to. As a project over summer while I have some downtime from Uni I am going to build a monopoly game. This question is more about the general idea of the problem however, rather than the specific task I'm trying to carry out. I decided to build this with a bottom up approach, creating just movement around a forty space board and then moving on to interaction with spaces. I realised that I was quite unsure of the best way of proceeding with this and I am torn between two design ideas: Giving every space its own object, all sub-classes of a Space object so the interaction can be defined by the space object itself. I could do this by implementing different land() methods for each type of space. Only giving the Properties and Utilities (as each property has unique features) objects and creating methods for dealing with the buying/renting etc in the main class of the program (or Board as I'm calling it). Spaces like go and super tax could be implemented by a small set of conditionals checking to see if player is on a special space. Option 1 is obviously the OO (and I feel the correct) way of doing things but I'd like to only have to handle user interaction from the programs main class. In other words, I don't want the space objects to be interacting with the player. Why? Errr. A lot of the coding I've done thus far has had this simplicity but I'm not sure if this is a pipe dream or not for larger projects. Should I really be handling user interaction in an entirely separate class? As you can see I am quite confused about this situation. Is there some way round this? And, does anyone have any advice on practical OO design that could help in general?

    Read the article

  • How to use VBA to colour pie chart

    - by Timon Heinomann
    I have the following code in which the code tries to create a bubble chart with pie charts as the bubbles. As in this version colour themes are used to create a different colour in each pie chart (bulbble) in the function part I have the problem that it works depending on the paths to the colour paletts. Is there an easy way to make the function in a way that it works independently of those paths either by coding a colour for each pie chart segment or by using standardize paths (probably not possible, not preferable). Sub PieMarkers() Dim chtMarker As Chart Dim chtMain As Chart Dim intPoint As Integer Dim rngRow As Range Dim lngPointIndex As Long Dim thmColor As Long Dim myTheme As String Application.ScreenUpdating = False Set chtMarker = ActiveSheet.ChartObjects("chtMarker").Chart Set chtMain = ActiveSheet.ChartObjects("chtMain").Chart Set chtMain = ActiveSheet.ChartObjects("chtMain").Chart Set rngRow = Range(ThisWorkbook.Names("PieChartValues").RefersTo) For Each rngRow In Range("PieChartValues").Rows chtMarker.SeriesCollection(1).Values = rngRow ThisWorkbook.Theme.ThemeColorScheme.Load GetColorScheme(thmColor) chtMarker.Parent.CopyPicture xlScreen, xlPicture lngPointIndex = lngPointIndex + 1 chtMain.SeriesCollection(1).Points(lngPointIndex).Paste thmColor = thmColor + 1 Next lngPointIndex = 0 Application.ScreenUpdating = True End Sub Function GetColorScheme(i As Long) As String Const thmColor1 As String = "C:\Program Files\Microsoft Office\Document Themes 15\Theme Colors\Blue Green.xml" Const thmColor2 As String = "C:\Program Files\Microsoft Office\Document Themes 15\Theme Colors\Orange Red.xml" Select Case i Mod 2 Case 0 GetColorScheme = thmColor1 Case 1 GetColorScheme = thmColor2 End Select End Function The code copies a single chart again and again on the bubbles. So I woudl like to alter the Function (now called Get colourscheme) into a fucntion that assigns a a unqiue rgb colour to each segment of each pie chart

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET, C#: timeout when trying to Transaction.Commit() to database; potential deadlock?

    - by user1843921
    I have a web page that has coding structured somewhat as follows: SqlConnection conX =new SqlConnection(blablabla); conX.Open(); SqlTransaction tran=conX.BeginTransaction(); try{ SqlCommand cmdInsert =new SqlCommand("INSERT INTO Table1(ColX,ColY) VALUES @x,@y",conX); cmdInsert.Transaction=tran; cmdInsert.ExecuteNonQuery(); SqlCommand cmdSelect=new SqlCOmmand("SELECT * FROM Table1",conX); cmdSelect.Transaction=tran; SqlDataReader dtr=cmdSelect.ExecuteReader(); //read stuff from dtr dtr.Close(); cmdInsert=new SqlCommand("UPDATE Table2 set ColA=@a",conX); cmdInsert.Transaction=tran; cmdInsert.ExecuteNonQuery(); //display MiscMessage tran.Commit(); //display SuccessMessage } catch(Exception x) { tran.Rollback(); //display x.Message } finally { conX.Close(); } So, everything seems to work until MiscMessage. Then, after a while (maybe 15-ish seconds?) x.Message pops up, saying that: "Timeout expired. The timeout period elapsed prior to completion of the operation or the server is not responding." So something wrong with my trans.Commit()? The database is not updated so I assume the trans.Rollback works... I have read that deadlocks can cause timeouts...is this problem cause by my SELECT statement selecting from Table1, which is being used by the first INSERT statement? If so, what should I do? If that ain't the problem, what is?

    Read the article

  • 500 Worker Threads, what kind of thread pool?

    - by Submerged
    I am wondering if this is the best way to do this. I have about 500 threads that run indefinitely, but Thread.sleep for a minute when done one cycle of processing. ExecutorService es = Executors.newFixedThreadPool(list.size()+1); for (int i = 0; i < list.size(); i++) { es.execute(coreAppVector.elementAt(i)); //coreAppVector is a vector of extends thread objects } The code that is executing is really simple and basically just this class aThread extends Thread { public void run(){ while(true){ Thread.sleep(ONE_MINUTE); //Lots of computation every minute } } } I do need a separate threads for each running task, so changing the architecture isn't an option. I tried making my threadPool size equal to Runtime.getRuntime().availableProcessors() which attempted to run all 500 threads, but only let 8 (4xhyperthreading) of them execute. The other threads wouldn't surrender and let other threads have their turn. I tried putting in a wait() and notify(), but still no luck. If anyone has a simple example or some tips, I would be grateful! Well, the design is arguably flawed. The threads implement Genetic-Programming or GP, a type of learning algorithm. Each thread analyzes advanced trends makes predictions. If the thread ever completes, the learning is lost. That said, I was hoping that sleep() would allow me to share some of the resources while one thread isn't "learning"

    Read the article

  • Diagnosing IIS Shutdowns

    - by Tom Ritter
    Symptoms: I attach a debugger, I wait a little while, it automatically detaches I watch the event log during normal operation - after a single request comes in, it waits a little bit, the shuts down Disagnosing. I've followed the following steps for logging shutdowns in IIS: http://weblogs.asp.net/scottgu/archive/2005/12/14/433194.aspx http://blogs.msdn.com/tess/archive/2006/08/02/asp-net-case-study-lost-session-variables-and-appdomain-recycles.aspx I know these are working because... What I see in the Event Logs when I change the web.config: The description for Event ID 0 from source ASP.NET 2.0.50727.0 cannot be found. Either the component that raises this event is not installed on your local computer or the installation is corrupted. You can install or repair the component on the local computer. If the event originated on another computer, the display information had to be saved with the event. The following information was included with the event: _shutdownMessage=IIS configuration change HostingEnvironment initiated shutdown CONFIG change CONFIG change HostingEnvironment caused shutdown _shutdownStack= at System.Environment.GetStackTrace(Exception e, Boolean needFileInfo) at System.Environment.get_StackTrace() at System.Web.Hosting.HostingEnvironment.InitiateShutdownInternal() at System.Web.Hosting.HostingEnvironment.InitiateShutdown() at System.Web.Hosting.PipelineRuntime.StopProcessing() the message resource is present but the message is not found in the string/message table But it doesn't help because the mysetery error doesn't tell me anything. I see the same thing as from before I added this extra logging: The description for Event ID 0 from source ASP.NET 2.0.50727.0 cannot be found. Either the component that raises this event is not installed on your local computer or the installation is corrupted. You can install or repair the component on the local computer. If the event originated on another computer, the display information had to be saved with the event. The following information was included with the event: _shutdownMessage=HostingEnvironment initiated shutdown HostingEnvironment caused shutdown _shutdownStack= at System.Environment.GetStackTrace(Exception e, Boolean needFileInfo) at System.Environment.get_StackTrace() at System.Web.Hosting.HostingEnvironment.InitiateShutdownInternal() at System.Web.Hosting.HostingEnvironment.InitiateShutdown() at System.Web.Hosting.PipelineRuntime.StopProcessing() the message resource is present but the message is not found in the string/message table Anyone have any ideas for more debugging?

    Read the article

  • how to make an import library

    - by user295030
    a requirement was sent to me below: API should be in the form of static library. company xxx will link the library into a third party application to prevent any possible exposure of the code(dll) could they mean an import library? An import library is a library that automates the process of loading and using a dynamic library. On Windows, this is typically done via a small static library (.lib) of the same name as the dynamic library (.dll). The static library is linked into the program at compile time, and then the functionality of the dynamic library can effectively be used as if it were a static library. this might be what they might be eluding to.....I am not sure how to make this in vs2008 . Additional facts: I have a static lib that i use in my current application. Now, I have to convert my app that uses that static lib into an import lib so that they can use a third party prog to access the API's they providede me which in turn will use that static lib i am using. I hope I am clearly explaining this. I am just not sure how to go about it in vs2008. I am looking for specific steps to do this. I already have the coding done. Just need to convert it into the form they are asking and I have to provide the API they want. Other than that then I need to create a test prog which will act as that third party prog so I can make sure my import library works.

    Read the article

  • Client Web Browser Behavior When Handling 301 Redirect

    - by Jon Swanson
    The RFC seems to suggest that the client should permanently cache the response: http://www.w3.org/Protocols/rfc2616/rfc2616-sec10.html 10.3.2 301 Moved Permanently The requested resource has been assigned a new permanent URI and any future references to this resource SHOULD use one of the returned URIs. Clients with link editing capabilities ought to automatically re-link references to the Request-URI to one or more of the new references returned by the server, where possible. This response is cacheable unless indicated otherwise. The new permanent URI SHOULD be given by the Location field in the response. Unless the request method was HEAD, the entity of the response SHOULD contain a short hypertext note with a hyperlink to the new URI(s). If the 301 status code is received in response to a request other than GET or HEAD, the user agent MUST NOT automatically redirect the request unless it can be confirmed by the user, since this might change the conditions under which the request was issued. Note: When automatically redirecting a POST request after receiving a 301 status code, some existing HTTP/1.0 user agents will erroneously change it into a GET request. I'm having a hard time finding concrete browser documentation for any major browser that states how they handle these. I've started digging through the source code of firefox, but quickly got lost. Is the following scenario true for which (if any) browsers, and is there definitive documentation for either Firefox or IE that states as much?: First Time Around: 1.1: User enters link to site A, or clicks on a link directed at Site A 1.2: Browser interprets link at Site A, first time, no cache. Sends GET to Site A. 1.2: Site A responds with 301 Redirect to Site B 1.3: Browser sends GET to Site B. Any Subsequent Times Around: 2.2: User clicks on a link directed at Site A 2.2: Browser sees that, due to a past 301 redirect, Site A should now be Site B. 2.3: Without initiating any request whatsoever at Site A, browser initiates GET at Site B.

    Read the article

  • Safe to pass objects to C functions when working in JNI Invocation API?

    - by bubbadoughball
    I am coding up something using the JNI Invocation API. A C program starts up a JVM and makes calls into it. The JNIenv pointer is global to the C file. I have numerous C functions which need to perform the same operation on a given class of jobject. So I wrote helper functions which take a jobject and process it, returning the needed data (a C data type...for example, an int status value). Is it safe to write C helper functions and pass jobjects to them as arguments? i.e. (a simple example - designed to illustrate the question): int getStatusValue(jobject jStatus) { return (*jenv)->CallIntMethod(jenv,jStatus,statusMethod); } int function1() { int status; jobject aObj = (*jenv)->NewObject (jenv, aDefinedClass, aDefinedCtor); jobject j = (*jenv)->CallObjectMethod (jenv, aObj, aDefinedObjGetMethod) status = getStatusValue(j); (*jenv)->DeleteLocalRef(jenv,aObj); (*jenv)->DeleteLocalRef(jenv,j); return status; } Thanks.

    Read the article

  • delete row from result set in web sql with javascript

    - by Kaijin
    I understand that the result set from web sql isn't quite an array, more of an object? I'm cycling through a result set and to speed things up I'd like to remove a row once it's been found. I've tried "delete" and "splice", the former does nothing and the latter throws an error. Here's a piece of what I'm trying to do, notice the delete on line 18: function selectFromReverse(reverseRay,suggRay){ var reverseString = reverseRay.toString(); db.transaction(function (tx) { tx.executeSql('SELECT votecount, comboid FROM counterCombos WHERE comboid IN ('+reverseString+') AND votecount>0', [], function(tx, results){ processSelectFromReverse(results,suggRay); }); }, function(){onError}); } function processSelectFromReverse(results,suggRay){ var i = suggRay.length; while(i--){ var j = results.rows.length; while(j--){ console.log('searching'); var found = 0; if(suggRay[i].reverse == results.rows.item(j).comboid){ delete results.rows.item(j); console.log('found'); found++; break; } } if(found == 0){ console.log('lost'); } } }

    Read the article

  • Please take a stab at this VB.Net Oracle-related sample and help me with String.Format.

    - by Hamish Grubijan
    If the database is not Oracle, it is MS SQl 2008. My task: if Oracle, add two more parameters when calling a stored proc. Oracle and MSFT stored procs are generated; Oracle ones have 3 extra parameters: Vret_val out number, Vparam2 in out number, Vparam3 in out number, ... the rest (The are not actually named Vparam2 and Vparam3, but this should not matter). So, the code for a helper VB.Net class that calls a stored proc: Imports System.Data.Odbc Imports System.Configuration Dim objCon As OdbcConnection = Nothing Dim objAdapter As OdbcDataAdapter Dim cmdCommand As New OdbcCommand Dim objDataTable As DataTable Dim sconnection As String Try sconnection = mConnectionString objAdapter = New OdbcDataAdapter objCon = New OdbcConnection(sconnection) objCon.Open() objAdapter.SelectCommand = cmdCommand objAdapter.SelectCommand.Connection = objCon objAdapter.SelectCommand.CommandType = CommandType.StoredProcedure objAdapter.SelectCommand.CommandTimeout = Globals.mReportTimeOut If Not mIsOracle Then objAdapter.SelectCommand.CommandText = String.Format("{{call {0}}}", spName) Else Dim returnValue As New OdbcParameter returnValue.Direction = ParameterDirection.Output returnValue.ParameterName = "@Vret_val" returnValue.OdbcType = OdbcType.Numeric objAdapter.SelectCommand.Parameters.Add(returnValue) objAdapter.SelectCommand.CommandText = String.Format("{{call {0}(?)}}", spName) End If Try objDataTable = New DataTable(spName) objAdapter.Fill(objDataTable) Catch ex As Exception ... Question: I am puzzled as to what String.Format("{{call {0}(?)}}", spName) does, in particular the (?) part. My understanding of the String.Format is that it will simply replace {0} with spName. The {{, }}, and (?) do throw me off because { reminds me of formatting, (?) hints at some advanced regex use. Unfortunately I am getting little help from a key person who is on vacation without a leash [smart]phone. I am guessing that I simply add 5 more lines for each additional parameter, and change String.Format("{{call {0}(?)}}", spName) to String.Format("{{call {0}(?,?,?)}}", spName). I forgot to mention that I am coding this "blindly" - I have a compiler to help me, but no environment set up to test this. This will be over in a few days, but I need to do my best to try finishing it on time :) Thanks.

    Read the article

  • unique items from an observableArray of object properties

    - by Joe
    I'm trying to extract unique properties from a knockout.js observableArray of objects, to populate a drop menu. Being new to knockout, I'm really struggling with this! I want to iterate over a contacts list, and populate a drop menu with a unique value from each person object within the observableArray. So in my code example below, I wish to populate my drop menu with a list of people 'type' - family, friend etc. Looking on Google, I found a similar function, but it does not return any values, even if I console.log the results? //dummy data more rows in actual code... var people = [ { name: "Contact 1", address: "1, a street, a town, a city, AB12 3CD", tel: "0123456789", email: "[email protected]", type: "family" }, { name: "Contact 2", address: "1, a street, a town, a city, AB12 3CD", tel: "0123456789", email: "[email protected]", type: "friend" } ]; function ContactsViewModel(people) { var self = this; self.contacts = ko.observableArray(people); self.uniqueSelect = ko.dependentObservable(function() { return( ko.utils.arrayGetDistinctValues(self.contacts().type).sort()); }, self); }; ko.applyBindings(new ContactsViewModel()); And HTML template <p>Show me: <select data-bind="options: ContactsViewModel.uniqueSelect"></select></p> Any help appreciated, as a noob I'm lost! Thanks

    Read the article

  • x86_64 assembler: only one call per subroutine?

    - by zneak
    Hello everyone, I decided yesterday to start doing assembler. Most of it is okay (well, as okay as assembler can be), but I'm getting some problems with gas. It seems that I can call functions only once. After that, any subsequent call opcode with the same function name will fail. I must be doing something terribly wrong, though I can't see what. Take this small C function for instance: void path_free(path_t path) { if (path == NULL) return; free(((point_list_t*)path)->points); free(path); } I "translated" it to assembler like that: .globl _path_free _path_free: push rbp mov rbp, rsp cmp rdi, 0 jz byebye push rdi mov rdi, qword ptr [rdi] call _free pop rdi sub rsp, 8 call _free byebye: leave ret This triggers the following error for the second call _free: suffix or operands invalid for ``call''. And if I change it to something else, like free2, everything works (until link time, that is). Assembler code gcc -S gave me looks very similar to what I've done (except it's in AT&T syntax), so I'm kind of lost. I'm doing this on Mac OS X under the x86_64 architecture.

    Read the article

  • svnsync looses revision properties although hook installed

    - by roesslerj
    Hello all! I have a pretty weird problem. We have setup an SVN-Mirror via cronjob (because it needs to go from inside to outside of a firewall, so no post-commit-hook possible) and svnsync. We installed a pre-revprop-hook just as told. Everything seems to work fine, except that it doesn't. E.g. when manually executing the script. # svnsync --non-interactive sync file://<path-to-mirror> --source-username <usr> --source-password <pwd> Committed revision 19817. Copied properties for revision 19817. No error, no complaints. But if checking for the revision properties it says: # svnlook info <path-to-mirror> 0 # svn info -r HEAD file://<path-to-mirror> 2>&1 Path: <root-of-mirror> URL: file://<path-to-mirror> Repository Root: file://<path-to-mirror> Repository UUID: <uid> Revision: 19817 Node Kind: directory Last Changed Rev: 19817 So somehow the author and timestamp information gets lost. But we need that information for our internal processes. Since no error or warning is produced I have absolutely no idea even where to start to look. Everything is local (except for the remote master), so there are no server-logs to look at. Any ideas how I could approach that problem, or even better -- how to solve it? Any ideas appreciated.

    Read the article

  • Shortest acyclic path on directed cyclic graph with negative weights/cycles

    - by Janathan
    I have a directed graph which has cycles. All edges are weighted, and the weights can be negative. There can be negative cycles. I want to find a path from s to t, which minimizes the total weight on the path. Sure, it can go to negative infinity when negative cycles exist. But what if I disallow cycles in the path (not in the original graph)? That is, once the path leaves a node, it can not enter the node again. This surely avoids the negative infinity problem, but surprisingly no known algorithm is found by a search on Google. The closest is Floyd–Warshall algorithm, but it does not allow negative cycles. Thanks a lot in advance. Edit: I may have generalized my original problem too much. Indeed, I am given a cyclic directed graph with nonnegative edge weights. But in addition, each node has a positive reward too. I want to find a simple path which minimizes (sum of edge weights on the path) - (sum of node rewards covered by the path). This can be surely converted to the question that I posted, but some structure is lost. And some hint from submodular analysis suggests this motivating problem is not NP-hard. Thanks a lot

    Read the article

  • iPhone SDK: Switching to one view then back to previous view errors

    - by Nic Hubbard
    I have a UITabBarConroller that I use to switch between 3 different views. This all works perfectly. On one of my tabs, I added a button at the to called "Add", I have added an outlet to this, as well as an IBAction method which looks like the following: // Method used to load up view where we can add a new ride - (IBAction)showAddNewRideView { MyRidesViewController *controller = [[MyRidesViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"AddNewRide" bundle:nil]; controller.modalTransitionStyle = UIModalTransitionStyleCoverVertical; [self presentModalViewController:controller animated:YES]; [controller release]; }//end showAddNewRideView This currently works fine, and loads up my AddNewRide nib file. But, once that view loads, I have a cancel button, which, when clicked, I want to return to the previous view. So, I figured I would just do the reverse of the above, using the following method which would load back my previous nib: - (IBAction)cancelAddingNewRide { MyRidesViewController *controller = [[MyRidesViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"MainWindow" bundle:nil]; controller.modalTransitionStyle = UIModalTransitionStyleCoverVertical; [self presentModalViewController:controller animated:YES]; [controller release]; }//end cancelAddingNewRide But, which trying to load the MainWindow nib, the program crashes, and I get the following error: 2010-05-05 20:24:37.211 Ride[6032:207] *** -[MyRidesViewController cancelAddingNewRide]: unrecognized selector sent to instance 0x501e450 2010-05-05 20:24:37.213 Ride[6032:207] *** Terminating app due to uncaught exception 'NSInvalidArgumentException', reason: '*** -[MyRidesViewController cancelAddingNewRide]: unrecognized selector sent to instance 0x501e450' So, I am a little lost as to why it would work one way, but not the other.

    Read the article

  • Write Null/Nothing value with Databinding

    - by clawson
    I have extended a MaskedTextBox component to add some functionality. The text property of the extended MaskedTextBox is bound to a DateTime? property and the format of binding is set to a time format of "HH:mm:ss" (i.e. 24hr time). So that this masked text box will capture the display a time. The extra functionality I have added is to make the component readonly unless the component is double clicked or the enter button is pressed (the back color of the control helps to inform the users if the component is locked/readonly or not). When the enter button is pressed I also suspend the bindings so that bound data is updated the users input won't be lost. The information is then written back to the value and databindings resumed when the user presses the enter key again. This all works fine up to here, with values written and displayed as would be expected. However, I also want to write the null or nothing value to the DateTime? property if the user hasn't entered any text (or invalid text but let's just stick with no text) when enter key is pressed to submit the new value. Unlike with other valid entries in the MaskedTextBox, with no text entered when i execute: Me.DataBindings("Text").WriteValue() (when 'locking' the MaskedTextBox) it then branches to the bound properties Get method as I step into each line of code in the debugger (as opposed to the Set method with other valid entries) How can I write this null/nothing/"" value to the DateTime? property when no text "" is entered into the MaskedTextBox? Thanks for the help!

    Read the article

  • Testing ASP.NET webservice using NUnit and transferring session state

    - by herbertyeung
    I have a NUnit test class that starts an ASP.NET web service (using Microsoft.VisualStudio.WebHost.Server) which runs on http://localhost:1070 The problem I am having is that I want to create a session state within the NUnit test that is accessible by the ASP.NET web service on localhost:1070. I have done the following, and the session state can be created successfully inside the NUnit Test, but is lost when the web service is invoked: //Create a new HttpContext for NUnit Testing based on: //http://blogs.imeta.co.uk/jallderidge/archive/2008/10/19/456.aspx HttpContext.Current = new HttpContext( new HttpRequest("", "http://localhost:1070/", ""), new HttpResponse( new System.IO.StringWriter())); //Create a new HttpContext.Current for NUnit Testing System.Web.SessionState.SessionStateUtility.AddHttpSessionStateToContext( HttpContext.Current, new HttpSessionStateContainer("", new SessionStateItemCollection(), new HttpStaticObjectsCollection(), 20000, true, HttpCookieMode.UseCookies, SessionStateMode.Off, false)); HttpContext.Current.Session["UserName"] = "testUserName"; testwebService.testMethod(); I want to be able to get the session state created in the NUnit test for Session["UserName"] in the ASP.NET web service: [WebMethod(EnableSession=true)] public int testMethod() { string user; if(Session["UserName"] != null) { user = (string)Session["UserName"]; //Do some processing of the user return 1; } else return 0; } The web.config file has the following configuration for the session state configuration and would like to remain using InProc than rather StateServer Or SQLServer: <sessionState mode="InProc" stateConnectionString="tcpip=127.0.0.1:42424" cookieless="false" timeout="20"/>

    Read the article

  • Execute Stored Procedure from Classic ASP

    - by Jaco Pretorius
    For some fantastic reason I find myself debugging a problem in a Classic ASP page (at least 10 years of my life lost in the last 2 days). I'm trying to execute a stored procedure which contains some OUT parameters. The problem is that one of the OUT parameters is not being populated when the stored procedure returns. I can execute the stored proc from SQL management studio (this is 2008) and all the values are being set and returned exactly as expected. declare @inVar1 varchar(255) declare @inVar2 varchar(255) declare @outVar1 varchar(255) declare @outVar2 varchar(255) SET @inVar2 = 'someValue' exec theStoredProc @inVar1 , @inVar2 , @outVar1 OUT, @outVar2 OUT print '@outVar1=' + @outVar1 print '@outVar2=' + @outVar2 Works great. Fantastic. Perfect. The exact values that I'm expecting are being returned and printed out. Right, since I'm trying to debug a Classic ASP page I copied the code into a VBScript file to try and narrow down the problem. Here is what I came up with: Set Conn = CreateObject("ADODB.Connection") Conn.Open "xxx" Set objCommandSec = CreateObject("ADODB.Command") objCommandSec.ActiveConnection = Conn objCommandSec.CommandType = 4 objCommandSec.CommandText = "theStoredProc " objCommandSec.Parameters.Refresh objCommandSec.Parameters(2) = "someValue" objCommandSec.Execute MsgBox(objCommandSec.Parameters(3)) Doesn't work. Not even a little bit. (Another ten years of my life down the drain) The third parameter is simply NULL - which is what I'm experiencing in the Classic ASP page as well. Could someone shed some light on this? Am I completely daft for thinking that the classic ASP code would be the same as the VBScript code? I think it's using the same scripting engine and syntax so I should be ok, but I'm not 100% sure. The result I'm seeing from my VBScript is the same as I'm seeing in ASP.

    Read the article

  • C# internal VS VBNET Friend

    - by Will Marcouiller
    To this SO question: What is the C# equivalent of friend?, I would personally have answered "internal", just like Ja did among the answers! However, Jon Skeet says that there is no direct equivalence of VB Friend in C#. If Jon Skeet says so, I won't be the one telling otherwise! ;P I'm wondering how can the keyword internal (C#) not be the equivalent of Friend (VBNET) when their respective definitions are: Friend VBNET The Friend (Visual Basic) keyword in the declaration statement specifies that the elements can be accessed from within the same assembly, but not from outside the assembly. [...] internal C# Internal: Access is limited to the current assembly. To my understanding, these definitions mean quite the same to me. Then, respectively, when I'm coding in VB.NET, I use the Friend keyword to specify that a class or a property shall be accessible only within the assembly where it is declared. The same in C#, I use the internal keyword to specify the same. Am I doing something or anything wrong from this perspective? What are the refinements I don't get? Might someone please explain how or in what Friend and internal are not direct equivalences? Thanks in advance for any of your answers!

    Read the article

  • Call Python From PHP And Get Return Code

    - by seaboy
    Hello everyone, I am calling a python script from PHP. The python program has to return some value according to the arguments passed to it. Here is a sample python program, which will give you a basic idea of what i am doing currently: #!/usr/bin/python import sys #get the arguments passed argList = sys.argv #Not enough arguments. Exit with a value of 1. if len(argList) < 3: #Return with a value of 1. sys.exit(1) arg1 = argList[1] arg2 = argList[2] #Check arguments. Exit with the appropriate value. if len(arg1) > 255: #Exit with a value of 4. sys.exit(4) if len(arg2) < 2: #Exit with a value of 8. sys.exit(8) #Do further coding using the arguments------ #If program works successfully, exit with a value of 0 As you can see from the above code, my basic aim is for the python program to return some values (0,1,4,8 etc) depending on the arguments. And then the calling PHP program to access these returned values and do the appropriate operation. Currently i have used "sys.exit(n)", for that purpose. Am i right in using sys.exit, or do I need to use something else? And also what method exists in PHP so that I can access the return code from python? Sorry for the long question, but hopefully it will help in you understanding my dilemma Thanks a ton

    Read the article

  • Vehicle License Plate Detection

    - by Ash
    Hey all Basically for my final project at university, I'm developing a vehicle license plate detection application. Now I consider myself an intermediate programmer, however my mathematics knowledge lacks anything above secondary school, therefore producing detection formulae is basically impossible. I've spend a good amount of time looking up academic papers such as: http://www.scribd.com/doc/266575/Detecting-Vehicle-License-Plates-in-Images http://www.cic.unb.br/~mylene/PI_2010_2/ICIP10/pdfs/0003945.pdf http://www.eurasip.org/Proceedings/Eusipco/Eusipco2007/Papers/d3l-b05.pdf When it comes to the maths, I'm lost. Due to this testing various graphic images proved productive, for example: to However this approach is only catered to that particular image, and if the techniques were applied to different images, I'm sure a different, most likely poorer conversion would occur. I've read about a formula called the bottom hat morphology transform, which according to the first does the following: "Basically, the trans- formation keeps all the dark details of the picture, and eliminates everything else (including bigger dark regions and light regions)." Sadly I can't find much information on this, however the image within the documentation near the end of the report shows it's effectiveness. I'm aware this is complicated and vast, I'd just appreciate a little advice, even in terms of what transformation techniques I should focus on developing, or algorithm regarding edge detection or pixel detection. Few things I need to add Developing in C Sharp Confining the project to UK registration plates only I can basically choose the images to convert as a demonstration Thanks

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 281 282 283 284 285 286 287 288 289 290 291 292  | Next Page >