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  • C#: My callback function gets called twice for every Sent Request

    - by Madi D.
    I've Got a program that uploads/downloads files into an online server,Has a callback to report progress and log it into a textfile, The program is built with the following structure: public void Upload(string source, string destination) { //Object containing Source and destination to pass to the threaded function KeyValuePair<string, string> file = new KeyValuePair<string, string>(source, destination); //Threading to make sure no blocking happens after calling upload Function Thread t = new Thread(new ParameterizedThreadStart(amazonHandler.TUpload)); t.Start(file); } private void TUpload(object fileInfo) { KeyValuePair<string, string> file = (KeyValuePair<string, string>)fileInfo; /* Some Magic goes here,Checking The file and Authorizing Upload */ var ftiObject = new FtiObject () { FileNameOnHDD = file.Key, DestinationPath = file.Value, //Has more data used for calculations. }; //Threading to make sure progress gets callback gets called. Thread t = new Thread(new ParameterizedThreadStart(amazonHandler.UploadOP)); t.Start(ftiObject); //Signal used to stop progress untill uploadCompleted is called. uploadChunkDoneSignal.WaitOne(); /* Some Extra Code */ } private void UploadOP(object ftiSentObject) { FtiObject ftiObject = (FtiObject)ftiSentObject; /* Some useless code to create the uri and prepare the ftiObject. */ // webClient.UploadFileAsync will open a thread that // will upload the file and report // progress/complete using registered callback functions. webClient.UploadFileAsync(uri, "PUT", ftiObject.FileNameOnHDD, ftiObject); } I got a callback that is registered to the Webclient's UploadProgressChanged event , however it is getting called twice per sent request. void UploadProgressCallback(object sender, UploadProgressChangedEventArgs e) { FtiObject ftiObject = (FtiObject )e.UserState; Logger.log(ftiObject.FileNameOnHDD, (double)e.BytesSent ,e.TotalBytesToSend); } Log Output: Filename: C:\Text1.txt Uploaded:1024 TotalFileSize: 665241 Filename: C:\Text1.txt Uploaded:1024 TotalFileSize: 665241 Filename: C:\Text1.txt Uploaded:2048 TotalFileSize: 665241 Filename: C:\Text1.txt Uploaded:2048 TotalFileSize: 665241 Filename: C:\Text1.txt Uploaded:3072 TotalFileSize: 665241 Filename: C:\Text1.txt Uploaded:3072 TotalFileSize: 665241 Etc... I am watching the Network Traffic using a watcher, and only 1 request is being sent. Some how i cant Figure out why the callback is being called twice, my doubt was that the callback is getting fired by each thread opened(the main Upload , and TUpload), however i dont know how to test if thats the cause. Note: The reason behind the many /**/ Comments is to indicate that the functions do more than just opening threads, and threading is being used to make sure no blocking occurs (there a couple of "Signal.WaitOne()" around the code for synchronization)

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  • Changing Data in ListView

    - by legr3c
    Hi In my app I use a ListView to display data from the database. The data changes sometimes, for example when the user applies new filters or changes the sorting method. I use AsyncTask to get the databsase cursor that points to the new data set because sometimes data needs to be loaded from the net which can take some time. What I do now looks something like this: private class updateTask extends AsyncTask<Void, Void, Void> { /* * runs on the UI thread before doInBackground */ @Override protected void onPreExecute(){ // prepare some stuff... } /* * runs in a separate thread * used for time-consuming loading operation */ @Override protected Void doInBackground() { //get new database cursor mCursor = mDbAdapter.getCursor(); return null; } /* * runs on the UI thread after doInBackground */ @Override protected void onPostExecute(Void result){ if(mCursor!=null){ MyActivity.this.startManagingCursor(mCursor); mCursorAdapter = new MyCustomCursorAdapter(MyActivity.this, mCursor); mListView.setAdapter(mCursorAdapter); } } } This works so far but I realize that creating a new CursorAdapter and calling setAdapter on my ListView each time isn't the correct way to do it. Also, after setAdapter the scroll position of the list is set back to the top. I found this post which describes how to do it properly. So now I want to do something like this: onCreate(){ // ... // create the CursorAdapter using null as the initial cursor MyCustomCursorAdapter cursorAdapter = new MyCustomCursorAdapter(this, null); mListView.setAdapter(cursorAdapter); // ... } private class updateTask extends AsyncTask<Void, Void, Void> { /* * runs on the UI thread before doInBackground */ @Override protected void onPreExecute(){ // prepare some stuff... } /* * runs in a separate thread * used for time-consuming loading operation */ @Override protected Void doInBackground() { //get new database cursor mCursor = mDbAdapter.getCursor(); return null; } /* * runs on the UI thread after doInBackground */ @Override protected void onPostExecute(Void result){ // this returns null! MyCustomCursorAdapter cursorAdapter = (MyCustomCursorAdapter)mListView.getAdapter(); Cursor oldCursor = cursorAdapter.getCursor(); if(oldCursor!=null){ MyActivity.this.stopManagingCursor(oldCursor); oldCursor.close(); } if(mCursor!=null){ MyActivity.this.startManagingCursor(mCursor); cursorAdapter.changeCursor(mCursor); } } } This however doesn't work for me because (MyCustomCursorAdapter)mListView.getAdapter(); always returns null. Why does this happen? What am I doing wrong? Edit: Some additional information: my adapter implements SectionIndexer. I don't really think that this has anything to do with my problem but it has caused me some troubles before so I thought I'd mention it.

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  • Debugging a basic OpenGL texture fail? (iphone)

    - by Ben
    Hey all, I have a very basic texture map problem in GL on iPhone, and I'm wondering what strategies there are for debugging this kind of thing. (Frankly, just staring at state machine calls and wondering if any of them is wrong or misordered is no way to live-- are there tools for this?) I have a 512x512 PNG file that I'm loading up from disk (not specially packed), creating a CGBitmapContext, then calling CGContextDrawImage to get bytes out of it. (This code is essentially stolen from an Apple sample.) I'm trying to map the texture to a "quad", with code that looks essentially like this-- all flat 2D stuff, nothing fancy: glEnable(GL_TEXTURE_2D); glTexEnvf(GL_TEXTURE_ENV, GL_TEXTURE_ENV_MODE, GL_MODULATE); glTexParameteri(GL_TEXTURE_2D, GL_TEXTURE_WRAP_S, GL_REPEAT); glTexParameteri(GL_TEXTURE_2D, GL_TEXTURE_WRAP_T, GL_REPEAT); glTexParameteri(GL_TEXTURE_2D, GL_TEXTURE_MAG_FILTER, GL_LINEAR); glTexParameteri(GL_TEXTURE_2D, GL_TEXTURE_MIN_FILTER, GL_LINEAR); glEnableClientState(GL_TEXTURE_COORD_ARRAY); GLfloat vertices[8] = { viewRect.origin.x, viewRect.size.height, viewRect.origin.x, viewRect.origin.y, viewRect.size.width, viewRect.origin.y, viewRect.size.width, viewRect.size.height }; GLfloat texCoords[8] = { 0, 1.0, 0, 0, 1.0, 0, 1.0, 1.0 }; glBindTexture(GL_TEXTURE_2D, myTextureRef); // This was previously bound to glVertexPointer(2, GL_FLOAT , 0, vertices); glTexCoordPointer(2, GL_FLOAT, 0, texCoords); glDrawArrays(GL_TRIANGLE_FAN, 0, 4); glDisableClientState(GL_TEXTURE_COORD_ARRAY); glDisable(GL_TEXTURE_2D); My supposedly textured area comes out just black. I see no debug output from the CG calls to set up the texture. glGetError reports nothing. If I simplify this code block to just draw the verts, but set up a pure color, the quad area lights up exactly as expected. If I clear the whole context immediately beforehand to red, I don't see the red-- which means something is being rendered there, but not the contents of my PNG. What could I be doing wrong? And more importantly, what are the right tools and techniques for debugging this sort of thing, because running into this kind of problem and not being able to "step through it" in a debugger in any meaningful way is a bummer. Thanks!

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  • Serialize problem with cookie

    - by cagin
    Hi there, I want use cookie in my web project. I must serialize my classes. Although my code can seralize an int or string value, it cant seralize my classes. This is my seralize and cookie code : public static bool f_SetCookie(string _sCookieName, object _oCookieValue, DateTime _dtimeExpirationDate) { bool retval = true; try { if (HttpContext.Current.Request[_sCookieName] != null) { HttpContext.Current.Request.Cookies.Remove(_sCookieName); } BinaryFormatter bf = new BinaryFormatter(); MemoryStream ms = new MemoryStream(); bf.Serialize(ms, _oCookieValue); byte[] bArr = ms.ToArray(); MemoryStream objStream = new MemoryStream(); DeflateStream objZS = new DeflateStream(objStream, CompressionMode.Compress); objZS.Write(bArr, 0, bArr.Length); objZS.Flush(); objZS.Close(); byte[] bytes = objStream.ToArray(); string sCookieVal = Convert.ToBase64String(bytes); HttpCookie cook = new HttpCookie(_sCookieName); cook.Value = sCookieVal; cook.Expires = _dtimeExpirationDate; HttpContext.Current.Response.Cookies.Add(cook); } catch { retval = false; } return retval; } And here is one of my classes: [Serializable] public class Tahlil { #region Props & Fields public string M_KlinikKodu{ get; set; } public DateTime M_AlinmaTarihi { get; set; } private List<Test> m_Tesler; public List<Test> M_Tesler { get { return m_Tesler; } set { m_Tesler = value; } } #endregion public Tahlil() {} Tahlil(DataRow _rwTahlil){} } I m calling my Set Cookie method: Tahlil t = new Tahlil(); t.M_AlinmaTarihi = DateTime.Now; t.M_KlinikKodu = "2"; t.M_Tesler = new List<Test>(); f_SetCookie("Tahlil", t, DateTime.Now.AddDays(1)); I cant see cookie in Cookie folder and Temporary Internet Files but if i will call method like that: f_SetCookie("TRY", 5, DateTime.Now.AddDays(1)); I can see cookie. What is the problem? I dont understand. Thank you for your helps.

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  • How to salvage SQL server 2008 query from KILLED/ROLLBACK state without waiting half a day?

    - by littlegreen
    I have a stored procedure that inserts batches of millions of rows, emerging from a certain query, into an SQL database. It has one parameter selecting the batch; when this parameter is omitted, it will gather a list of batches and recursively call itself, in order to iterate over batches. In (pseudo-)code, it looks something like this: CREATE PROCEDURE spProcedure AS BEGIN IF @code = 0 BEGIN ... WHILE @@Fetch_Status=0 BEGIN EXEC spProcedure @code FETCH NEXT ... INTO @code END END ELSE BEGIN -- Disable indexes ... INSERT INTO table SELECT (...) -- Enable indexes ... Now it can happen that this procedure is slow, for whatever reason: it can't get a lock, one of the indexes it uses is misdefined or disabled. In that case, I want to be able kill the procedure, truncate and recreate the resulting table, and try again. However, when I try and kill the procedure, the process frequently oozes into a KILLED/ROLLBACK state from which there seems to be no return. From Google I have learned to do an sp_lock, find the spid, and then kill it with KILL <spid>. But when I try to kill it, it tells me SPID 75: transaction rollback in progress. Estimated rollback completion: 0%. Estimated time remaining: 554 seconds. I did find a forum message hinting that another spid should be killed before the other one can start a rollback. But that didn't work for me either, plus I do not understand, why that would be the case... could it be because I am recursively calling my own stored procedure? (But it should be having the same spid, right?) In any case, my process is just sitting there, being dead, not responding to kills, and locking the table. This is very frustrating, as I want to go on developing my queries, not waiting hours on my server sitting dead while pretending to be finishing a supposed rollback. Is there some way in which I can tell the server not to store any rollback information for my query? Or not to allow any other queries to interfere with the rollback, so that it will not take so long? Or how to rewrite my query in a better way, or how kill the process successfully without restarting the server?

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  • WinForm-style Invoke() in unmanaged C++

    - by Matt Green
    I've been playing with a DataBus-type design for a hobby project, and I ran into an issue. Back-end components need to notify the UI that something has happened. My implementation of the bus delivers the messages synchronously with respect to the sender. In other words, when you call Send(), the method blocks until all the handlers have called. (This allows callers to use stack memory management for event objects.) However, consider the case where an event handler updates the GUI in response to an event. If the handler is called, and the message sender lives on another thread, then the handler cannot update the GUI due to Win32's GUI elements having thread affinity. More dynamic platforms such as .NET allow you to handle this by calling a special Invoke() method to move the method call (and the arguments) to the UI thread. I'm guessing they use the .NET parking window or the like for these sorts of things. A morbid curiosity was born: can we do this in C++, even if we limit the scope of the problem? Can we make it nicer than existing solutions? I know Qt does something similar with the moveToThread() function. By nicer, I'll mention that I'm specifically trying to avoid code of the following form: if(! this->IsUIThread()) { Invoke(MainWindowPresenter::OnTracksAdded, e); return; } being at the top of every UI method. This dance was common in WinForms when dealing with this issue. I think this sort of concern should be isolated from the domain-specific code and a wrapper object made to deal with it. My implementation consists of: DeferredFunction - functor that stores the target method in a FastDelegate, and deep copies the single event argument. This is the object that is sent across thread boundaries. UIEventHandler - responsible for dispatching a single event from the bus. When the Execute() method is called, it checks the thread ID. If it does not match the UI thread ID (set at construction time), a DeferredFunction is allocated on the heap with the instance, method, and event argument. A pointer to it is sent to the UI thread via PostThreadMessage(). Finally, a hook function for the thread's message pump is used to call the DeferredFunction and de-allocate it. Alternatively, I can use a message loop filter, since my UI framework (WTL) supports them. Ultimately, is this a good idea? The whole message hooking thing makes me leery. The intent is certainly noble, but are there are any pitfalls I should know about? Or is there an easier way to do this?

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  • .NET threading: how can I capture an abort on an unstarted thread?

    - by Groxx
    I have a chunk of threads I wish to run in order, on an ASP site running .NET 2.0 with Visual Studio 2008 (no idea how much all that matters, but there it is), and they may have aborted-clean-up code which should be run regardless of how far through their task they are. So I make a thread like this: Thread t = new Thread(delegate() { try { /* do things */ System.Diagnostics.Debug.WriteLine("try"); } catch (ThreadAbortException) { /* cleanup */ System.Diagnostics.Debug.WriteLine("catch"); } }); Now, if I wish to abort the set of threads part way through, the cleanup may still be desirable later on down the line. Looking through MSDN implies you can .Abort() a thread that has not started, and then .Start() it, at which point it will receive the exception and perform normally. Or you can .Join() the aborted thread to wait for it to finish aborting. Presumably you can combine them. http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ty8d3wta(v=VS.80).aspx To wait until a thread has aborted, you can call the Join method on the thread after calling the Abort method, but there is no guarantee the wait will end. If Abort is called on a thread that has not been started, the thread will abort when Start is called. If Abort is called on a thread that is blocked or is sleeping, the thread is interrupted and then aborted. Now, when I debug and step through this code: t.Abort(); // ThreadState == Unstarted | AbortRequested t.Start(); // throws ThreadStartException: "Thread failed to start." // so I comment it out, and t.Join(); // throws ThreadStateException: "Thread has not been started." At no point do I see any output, nor do any breakpoints on either the try or catch block get reached. Oddly, ThreadStartException is not listed as a possible throw of .Start(), from here: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/a9fyxz7d(v=VS.80).aspx (or any other version) I understand this could be avoided by having a start parameter, which states if the thread should jump to cleanup code, and foregoing the Abort call (which is probably what I'll do). And I could .Start() the thread, and then .Abort() it. But as an indeterminate amount of time may pass between .Start and .Abort, I'm considering it unreliable, and the documentation seems to say my original method should work. Am I missing something? Is the documentation wrong? edit: ow. And you can't call .Start(param) on a non-parameterized Thread(Start). Is there a way to find out if a thread is parameterized or not, aside from trial and error? I see a private m_Delegate, but nothing public...

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  • Paypal IPN: how get the POSTs from this class?

    - by sineverba
    I'm using this Class <?php class paypalIPN { //sandbox: private $paypal_url = 'https://www.sandbox.paypal.com/cgi-bin/webscr'; //live site: //private $paypal_url = 'https://www.paypal.com/cgi-bin/webscr'; private $data = null; public function __construct() { $this->data = new stdClass; } public function isa_dispute() { //is it some sort of dispute. return $this->data->txn_type == "new_case"; } public function validate() { // parse the paypal URL $response = ""; $url_parsed = parse_url($this->paypal_url); // generate the post string from the _POST vars aswell as load the // _POST vars into an arry so we can play with them from the calling // script. $post_string = ''; foreach ($_POST as $field=>$value) { $this->data->$field = $value; $post_string .= $field.'='.urlencode(stripslashes($value)).'&'; } $post_string.="cmd=_notify-validate"; // append ipn command $ch = curl_init(); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_URL, $this->paypal_url); //curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_VERBOSE, 1); //keep the peer and server verification on, recommended //(can switch off if getting errors, turn to false) curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_SSL_VERIFYPEER, FALSE); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_SSL_VERIFYHOST, FALSE); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_RETURNTRANSFER,1); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_POST, 1); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_POSTFIELDS, $post_string); $response = curl_exec($ch); if (curl_errno($ch)) { die("Curl Error: " . curl_errno($ch) . ": " . curl_error($ch)); } curl_close($ch); return $response; if (preg_match("/VERIFIED/", $response)) { // Valid IPN transaction. return $this->data; } else { return false; } } } ANd i recall in this mode: public function get_ipn() { $ipn = new paypalIPN(); $result = $ipn->validate(); $logger = new Log('/error.log'); $logger->write(print_r($result)); } But I obtain only "VERIFIED" or "1" (whitout or with the print_r function). I just tried also to return directly the raw curl response with return $response; or return $this->response; or also return $this->parse_string; but everytime I receive only "1" or "VERIFIED"....... Thank you very much

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  • Issue accessing class variable from thread.

    - by James
    Hello, The code below is meant to take an arraylist of product objects as an input, spun thread for each product(and add the product to the arraylist 'products'), check product image(product.imageURL) availability, remove the products without images(remove the product from the arraylist 'products'), and return an arraylist of products with image available. package com.catgen.thread; import java.util.ArrayList; import java.util.Iterator; import java.util.List; import com.catgen.Product; import com.catgen.Utils; public class ProductFilterThread extends Thread{ private Product product; private List<Product> products = new ArrayList<Product>(); public ProductFilterThread(){ } public ProductFilterThread(Product product){ this.product = product; } public synchronized void addProduct(Product product){ System.out.println("Before add: "+getProducts().size()); getProducts().add(product); System.out.println("After add: "+getProducts().size()); } public synchronized void removeProduct(Product product){ System.out.println("Before rem: "+getProducts().size()); getProducts().remove(product); System.out.println("After rem: "+getProducts().size()); } public synchronized List<Product> getProducts(){ return this.products; } public synchronized void setProducts(List<Product> products){ this.products = products; } public void run(){ boolean imageExists = Utils.fileExists(this.product.ImageURL); if(!imageExists){ System.out.println(this.product.ImageURL); removeProduct(this.product); } } public List<Product> getProductsWithImageOnly(List<Product> products){ ProductFilterThread pft = null; try{ List<ProductFilterThread> threads = new ArrayList<ProductFilterThread>(); for(Product product: products){ pft = new ProductFilterThread(product); addProduct(product); pft.start(); threads.add(pft); } Iterator<ProductFilterThread> threadsIter = threads.iterator(); while(threadsIter.hasNext()){ ProductFilterThread thread = threadsIter.next(); thread.join(); } }catch(Exception e){ e.printStackTrace(); } System.out.println("Total returned products = "+getProducts().size()); return getProducts(); } } Calling statement: displayProducts = new ProductFilterThread().getProductsWithImageOnly(displayProducts); Here, when addProduct(product) is called from within getProductsWithImageOnly(), getProducts() returns the list of products, but that's not the case(no products are returned) when the method removeProduct() is called by a thread, because of which the products without images are never removed. As a result, all the products are returned by the module whether or not the contained products have images. What can be the problem here? Thanks in advance. James.

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  • MouseWheel Event Fire

    - by Rahat
    I have a problem on calling my private method on MouseWheel event. In fact my mouse wheel event gets fired properly when i only increment a variable or display something in Title bar etc. But when i want to call a private method, that method gets called only one time which is not the requirement i want to call that method depending on the speed of scroll i.e. when scroll is done one time slowly call the private method one time but when the scroll is done in high speed call the private method more than one time depending on the scroll speed. For further explanation i am placing the sample code which displays the value of i in Title bar and add it in the Listbox control properly depending on the scroll speed but when i want to call the private method more than one time depending upon the scroll speed, that method gets called only one time. public partial class Form1 : Form { ListBox listBox1 = new ListBox(); int i = 0; public Form1() { InitializeComponent(); // Settnig ListBox control properties this.listBox1.Anchor = ((System.Windows.Forms.AnchorStyles)((((System.Windows.Forms.AnchorStyles.Top | System.Windows.Forms.AnchorStyles.Bottom) | System.Windows.Forms.AnchorStyles.Left) | System.Windows.Forms.AnchorStyles.Right))); this.listBox1.FormattingEnabled = true; this.listBox1.Location = new System.Drawing.Point(13, 13); this.listBox1.Name = "listBox1"; this.listBox1.Size = new System.Drawing.Size(259, 264); this.listBox1.TabIndex = 0; // Attaching Mouse Wheel Event this.listBox1.MouseWheel += new MouseEventHandler(Form1_MouseWheel); // Adding Control this.Controls.Add(this.listBox1); } void Form1_MouseWheel(object sender, MouseEventArgs e) { i++; this.Text = i.ToString(); this.listBox1.Items.Add(i.ToString()); // Uncomment the following line to call the private method // this method gets called only one time irrelevant of the // mouse wheel scroll speed. // this.LaunchThisEvent(); } private void Form1_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { this.listBox1.Select(); } private void LaunchThisEvent() { // Display message each time // this method gets called. MessageBox.Show(i.ToString()); } } How to call the private method more than one time depending upon the speed of the mouse wheel scroll?

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  • Why wont my while loop wont take new input (c++)

    - by Van
    I've written a program to get a string input from a user and parse it into tokens and move a robot according to the input. My problem is trying to issue more than one command. The code looks like: void Navigator::manualDrive() { const int bufSize = 42; char uinput[bufSize]; char delim[] = " "; char *token; while(true) { Navigator::parseInstruction(uinput); } } /* parseInstruction(char *c) -- parses cstring instructions received * and moves robot accordingly */ void Navigator::parseInstruction(char * c) { const int bufSize = 42; char uinput[bufSize]; char delim[] = " "; char *token; cout << "Enter your directions below: \n"; cin.ignore(); cin.getline (uinput, bufSize); token=strtok(uinput, delim); if(strcmp("forward", token) == 0) { int inches; token = strtok(NULL, delim); inches = atoi (token); Navigator::travel(inches); } if(strcmp("back",token) == 0) { int inches; token = strtok(NULL, delim); inches = atoi (token); double value = fabs(0.0735 * fabs(inches) - 0.0550); myRobot.backward(1/*speed*/, value/*time*/); } if(strcmp("turn",token) == 0) { int degrees; token = strtok(NULL, delim); if(strcmp("left",token) == 0) { token = strtok(uinput, delim); degrees = atoi (token); double value = fabs(0.0041 * degrees - 0.0523); myRobot.turnLeft(1/*speed*/, value/*time*/); } } if(strcmp("turn",token) == 0) { int degrees; token = strtok(NULL, delim); if(strcmp("right",token) == 0) { token = strtok(uinput, delim); degrees = atoi (token); double value = fabs(0.0041 * degrees - 0.0523); myRobot.turnRight(1/*speed*/, value/*time*/); } } if(strcmp("stop",token) == 0) { myRobot.motors(0,0); } } In the function manualDrive I have a while loop calling the function parseInstruction infinitely. The program outputs "Enter your directions below: " When I give the program instructions it executes them, and then it outputs "enter your directions below: " again and when I input my directions again it does not execute them and outputs "Enter your directions below: " instead. I'm sure this is a very simple fix I'm just very new to c++. So if you could please help me out and tell me why the program only takes the first set of directions. thanks

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  • remove data layer and put into it's own domain

    - by user334768
    I have a SL4 application that uses EF4 & RIA Services. DB is SQL 2008. All is working well. Now I want to put the Database and web services on one domain (A.com) with the web service exposing the same methods available in my working project. (one listed at top of message) Then put a Silverlight application (same one as above) on domain(B.com) and call the web services on A.com. I thought I had a fair understanding of RIA Services. Enough to get the above application working. Now when I say "working" I do mean on my local dev machine. I have yet to deployed as SL4 & .NET 4 application to my hosting site. But I don't think I understand it well enough. I normally create a new business app, add EF then create the RIA DomainService. Add any [Includes] I need, modify my linq queries and run application. And it works. Now I need to break off my data layer and put it on another hosting site (A.com) And put my UI and business logic on another hosting site (B.com) I think I need to do the following : On the Database & web service site: domain(A.com) create application, create EF4, create RIA Services and deploy. At this time, are the methods exposed available as a "WEB SERVICE" to other applications calling by http:// a.com/serviceName.svc address? I think I need to do the following : On the application site : domain(B.com) create a business application (later will need authentication and navigation). How can I create an EF when I don't have access to the database? (I know I do have access but I want know what happens here when I do not have access to the database, but only data provided by a web service) If I can not create an EF how do I create my RIA Service? I hope any one who takes time to help me understands what I'm asking. Sorry so long.

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  • .NET XmlSerializer fails with List<T>

    - by Redshirt
    I'm using a singleton class to save all my settings info. It's first utilized by calling Settings.ValidateSettings(@"C:\MyApp"). The problem I'm having is that 'List Contacts' is causing the xmlserializer to fail to write the settings file, or to load said settings. If I comment out the List<T> then I have no problems saving/loading the xml file. What am I doing wrong? // The actual settings to save public class MyAppSettings { public bool FirstLoad { get; set; } public string VehicleFolderName { get; set; } public string ContactFolderName { get; set; } public List<ContactInfo> Contacts { get { if (contacts == null) contacts = new List<ContactInfo>(); return contacts; } set { contacts = value; } } private List<ContactInfo> contacts; } // The class in which the settings are manipulated public static class Settings { public static string SettingPath; private static MyAppSettings instance; public static MyAppSettings Instance { get { if (instance == null) instance = new MyAppSettings(); return instance; } set { instance = value; } } public static void InitializeSettings(string path) { SettingPath = Path.GetFullPath(path + "\\MyApp.xml"); if (File.Exists(SettingPath)) { LoadSettings(); } else { Instance.FirstLoad = true; Instance.VehicleFolderName = "Cars"; Instance.ContactFolderName = "Contacts"; SaveSettingsFile(); } } // load the settings from the xml file private static void LoadSettings() { XmlSerializer ser = new XmlSerializer(typeof(MyAppSettings)); TextReader reader = new StreamReader(SettingPath); Instance = (MyAppSettings)ser.Deserialize(reader); reader.Close(); } // Save the settings to the xml file public static void SaveSettingsFile() { XmlSerializer ser = new XmlSerializer(typeof(MyAppSettings)); TextWriter writer = new StreamWriter(SettingPath); ser.Serialize(writer, Settings.Instance); writer.Close(); } public static bool ValidateSettings(string initialFolder) { try { Settings.InitializeSettings(initialFolder); } catch (Exception e) { return false; } // Do some validation logic here return true; } } // A utility class to contain each contact detail public class ContactInfo { public string ContactID; public string Name; public string PhoneNumber; public string Details; public bool Active; public int SortOrder; }

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  • Why does WebSharingAppDemo-CEProviderEndToEnd sample still need a client db connection after scope c

    - by Don
    I'm researching a way to build an n-tierd sync solution. From the WebSharingAppDemo-CEProviderEndToEnd sample it seems almost feasable however for some reason, the app will only sync if the client has a live SQL db connection. Can some one explain what I'm missing and how to sync without exposing SQL to the internet? The problem I'm experiencing is that when I provide a Relational sync provider that has an open SQL connection from the client, then it works fine but when I provide a Relational sync provider that has a closed but configured connection string, as in the example, I get an error from the WCF stating that the server did not receive the batch file. So what am I doing wrong? SqlConnectionStringBuilder builder = new SqlConnectionStringBuilder(); builder.DataSource = hostName; builder.IntegratedSecurity = true; builder.InitialCatalog = "mydbname"; builder.ConnectTimeout = 1; provider.Connection = new SqlConnection(builder.ToString()); // provider.Connection.Open(); **** un-commenting this causes the code to work** //create anew scope description and add the appropriate tables to this scope DbSyncScopeDescription scopeDesc = new DbSyncScopeDescription(SyncUtils.ScopeName); //class to be used to provision the scope defined above SqlSyncScopeProvisioning serverConfig = new SqlSyncScopeProvisioning(); .... The error I get occurs in this part of the WCF code: public SyncSessionStatistics ApplyChanges(ConflictResolutionPolicy resolutionPolicy, ChangeBatch sourceChanges, object changeData) { Log("ProcessChangeBatch: {0}", this.peerProvider.Connection.ConnectionString); DbSyncContext dataRetriever = changeData as DbSyncContext; if (dataRetriever != null && dataRetriever.IsDataBatched) { string remotePeerId = dataRetriever.MadeWithKnowledge.ReplicaId.ToString(); //Data is batched. The client should have uploaded this file to us prior to calling ApplyChanges. //So look for it. //The Id would be the DbSyncContext.BatchFileName which is just the batch file name without the complete path string localBatchFileName = null; if (!this.batchIdToFileMapper.TryGetValue(dataRetriever.BatchFileName, out localBatchFileName)) { //Service has not received this file. Throw exception throw new FaultException<WebSyncFaultException>(new WebSyncFaultException("No batch file uploaded for id " + dataRetriever.BatchFileName, null)); } dataRetriever.BatchFileName = localBatchFileName; } Any ideas?

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  • Need Google Map InfoWindow Hyperlink to Open Content in Overlay (Fusion Table Usage)

    - by McKev
    I have the following code established to render the map in my site. When the map is clicked, the info window pops up with a bunch of content including a hyperlink to open up a website with a form in it. I would like to utilize a function like fancybox to open up this link "form" in an overlay. I have read that fancybox doesn't support calling the function from within an iframe, and was wondering if there was a way to pass the link data to the DOM and trigger the fancybox (or another overlay option) in another way? Maybe a callback trick - any tips would be much appreciated! <style> #map-canvas { width:850px; height:600px; } </style> <script type="text/javascript" src="http://maps.google.com/maps/api/js?sensor=true"></script> <script src="http://gmaps-utility-gis.googlecode.com/svn/trunk/fusiontips/src/fusiontips.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> var map; var tableid = "1nDFsxuYxr54viD_fuH7fGm1QRZRdcxFKbSwwRjk"; var layer; var initialLocation; var browserSupportFlag = new Boolean(); var uscenter = new google.maps.LatLng(37.6970, -91.8096); function initialize() { map = new google.maps.Map(document.getElementById('map-canvas'), { zoom: 4, mapTypeId: google.maps.MapTypeId.ROADMAP }); layer = new google.maps.FusionTablesLayer({ query: { select: "'Geometry'", from: tableid }, map: map }); //http://gmaps-utility-gis.googlecode.com/svn/trunk/fusiontips/docs/reference.html layer.enableMapTips({ select: "'Contact Name','Contact Title','Contact Location','Contact Phone'", from: tableid, geometryColumn: 'Geometry', suppressMapTips: false, delay: 500, tolerance: 8 }); ; // Try W3C Geolocation (Preferred) if(navigator.geolocation) { browserSupportFlag = true; navigator.geolocation.getCurrentPosition(function(position) { initialLocation = new google.maps.LatLng(position.coords.latitude,position.coords.longitude); map.setCenter(initialLocation); //Custom Marker var pinColor = "A83C0A"; var pinImage = new google.maps.MarkerImage("http://chart.apis.google.com/chart?chst=d_map_pin_letter&chld=%E2%80%A2|" + pinColor, new google.maps.Size(21, 34), new google.maps.Point(0,0), new google.maps.Point(10, 34)); var pinShadow = new google.maps.MarkerImage("http://chart.apis.google.com/chart?chst=d_map_pin_shadow", new google.maps.Size(40, 37), new google.maps.Point(0, 0), new google.maps.Point(12, 35)); new google.maps.Marker({ position: initialLocation, map: map, icon: pinImage, shadow: pinShadow }); }, function() { handleNoGeolocation(browserSupportFlag); }); } // Browser doesn't support Geolocation else { browserSupportFlag = false; handleNoGeolocation(browserSupportFlag); } function handleNoGeolocation(errorFlag) { if (errorFlag == true) { //Geolocation service failed initialLocation = uscenter; } else { //Browser doesn't support geolocation initialLocation = uscenter; } map.setCenter(initialLocation); } } google.maps.event.addDomListener(window, 'load', initialize); </script>

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  • C# Serialization Surrogate - Cannot access a disposed object

    - by crushhawk
    I have an image class (VisionImage) that is a black box to me. I'm attempting to serialize the image object to file using Serialization Surrogates as explained on this page. Below is my surrogate code. sealed class VisionImageSerializationSurrogate : ISerializationSurrogate { public void GetObjectData(Object obj, SerializationInfo info, StreamingContext context) { VisionImage image = (VisionImage)obj; byte[,] temp = image.ImageToArray().U8; info.AddValue("width", image.Width); info.AddValue("height", image.Height); info.AddValue("pixelvalues", temp, temp.GetType()); } public Object SetObjectData(Object obj, SerializationInfo info, StreamingContext context, ISurrogateSelector selector) { VisionImage image = (VisionImage)obj; Int32 width = info.GetInt32("width"); Int32 height = info.GetInt32("height"); byte[,] temp = new byte[height, width]; temp = (byte[,])info.GetValue("pixelvalues", temp.GetType()); PixelValue2D tempPixels = new PixelValue2D(temp); image.ArrayToImage(tempPixels); return image; } } I've stepped through it to write to binary. It seems to be working fine (file is getting bigger as the images are captured). I tried to test it read the file back in. The values read back in are correct as far as the "info" object is concerned. When I get to the line image.ArrayToImage(tempPixels); It throws the "Cannot access a disposed object" exception. Upon further inspection, the object and the resulting image are both marked as disposed. My code behind the form spawns an "acquisitionWorker" and runs the following code. void acquisitionWorker_LoadImages(object sender, DoWorkEventArgs e) { // This is the main function of the acquisition background worker thread. // Perform image processing here instead of the UI thread to avoid a // sluggish or unresponsive UI. BackgroundWorker worker = (BackgroundWorker)sender; try { uint bufferNumber = 0; // Loop until we tell the thread to cancel or we get an error. When this // function completes the acquisitionWorker_RunWorkerCompleted method will // be called. while (!worker.CancellationPending) { VisionImage savedImage = (VisionImage) formatter.Deserialize(fs); CommonAlgorithms.Copy(savedImage, imageViewer.Image); // Update the UI by calling ReportProgress on the background worker. // This will call the acquisition_ProgressChanged method in the UI // thread, where it is safe to update UI elements. Do not update UI // elements directly in this thread as doing so could result in a // deadlock. worker.ReportProgress(0, bufferNumber); bufferNumber++; } } catch (ImaqException ex) { // If an error occurs and the background worker thread is not being // cancelled, then pass the exception along in the result so that // it can be handled in the acquisition_RunWorkerCompleted method. if (!worker.CancellationPending) e.Result = ex; } } What am I missing here? Why would the object be immediately disposed?

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  • How do I 'globally' catch exceptions thrown in object instances.

    - by SleepyBobos
    I am currently writing a winforms application (C#). I am making use of the Enterprise Library Exception Handling Block, following a fairly standard approach from what I can see. IE : In the Main method of Program.cs I have wired up event handler to Application.ThreadException event etc. This approach works well and handles the applications exceptional circumstances. In one of my business objects I throw various exceptions in the Set accessor of one of the objects properties set { if (value > MaximumTrim) throw new CustomExceptions.InvalidTrimValue("The value of the minimum trim..."); if (!availableSubMasterWidthSatisfiesAllPatterns(value)) throw new CustomExceptions.InvalidTrimValue("Another message..."); _minimumTrim = value; } My logic for this approach (without turning this into a 'when to throw exceptions' discussion) is simply that the business objects are responsible for checking business rule constraints and throwing an exception that can bubble up and be caught as required. It should be noted that in the UI of my application I do explictly check the values that the public property is being set to (and take action there displaying friendly dialog etc) but with throwing the exception I am also covering the situation where my business object may not be used by a UI eg : the Property is being set by another business object for example. Anyway I think you all get the idea. My issue is that these exceptions are not being caught by the handler wired up to Application.ThreadException and I don't understand why. From other reading I have done the Application.ThreadException event and it handler "... catches any exception that occurs on the main GUI thread". Are the exceptions being raised in my business object not in this thread? I have not created any new threads. I can get the approach to work if I update the code as follows, explicity calling the event handler that is wired to Application.ThreadException. This is the approach outlined in Enterprise Library samples. However this approach requires me to wrap any exceptions thrown in a try catch, something I was trying to avoid by using a 'global' handler to start with. try { if (value > MaximumTrim) throw new CustomExceptions.InvalidTrimValue("The value of the minimum..."); if (!availableSubMasterWidthSatisfiesAllPatterns(value)) throw new CustomExceptions.InvalidTrimValue("Another message"); _minimumTrim = value; } catch (Exception ex) { Program.ThreadExceptionHandler.ProcessUnhandledException(ex); } I have also investigated using wiring a handler up to AppDomain.UnhandledException event but this does not catch the exceptions either. I would be good if someone could explain to me why my exceptions are not being caught by my global exception handler in the first code sample. Is there another approach I am missing or am I stuck with wrapping code in try catch, shown above, as required?

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  • T-SQL generated from LINQ to SQL is missing a where clause

    - by Jimmy W
    I have extended some functionality to a DataContext object (called "CodeLookupAccessDataContext") such that the object exposes some methods to return results of LINQ to SQL queries. Here are the methods I have defined: public List<CompositeSIDMap> lookupCompositeSIDMap(int regionId, int marketId) { var sidGroupId = CompositeSIDGroupMaps.Where(x => x.RegionID.Equals(regionId) && x.MarketID.Equals(marketId)) .Select(x => x.CompositeSIDGroup); IEnumerator<int> sidGroupIdEnum = sidGroupId.GetEnumerator(); if (sidGroupIdEnum.MoveNext()) return lookupCodeInfo<CompositeSIDMap, CompositeSIDMap>(x => x.CompositeSIDGroup.Equals(sidGroupIdEnum.Current), x => x); else return null; } private List<TResult> lookupCodeInfo<T, TResult>(Func<T, bool> compLambda, Func<T, TResult> selectLambda) where T : class { System.Data.Linq.Table<T> dataTable = this.GetTable<T>(); var codeQueryResult = dataTable.Where(compLambda) .Select(selectLambda); List<TResult> codeList = new List<TResult>(); foreach (TResult row in codeQueryResult) codeList.Add(row); return codeList; } CompositeSIDGroupMap and CompositeSIDMap are both tables in our database that are represented as objects in my DataContext object. I wrote the following code to call these methods and display the T-SQL generated after calling these methods: using (CodeLookupAccessDataContext codeLookup = new CodeLookupAccessDataContext()) { codeLookup.Log = Console.Out; List<CompositeSIDMap> compList = codeLookup.lookupCompositeSIDMap(5, 3); } I got the following results in my log after invoking this code: SELECT [t0].[CompositeSIDGroup] FROM [dbo].[CompositeSIDGroupMap] AS [t0] WHERE ([t0].[RegionID] = @p0) AND ([t0].[MarketID] = @p1) -- @p0: Input Int (Size = 0; Prec = 0; Scale = 0) [5] -- @p1: Input Int (Size = 0; Prec = 0; Scale = 0) [3] -- Context: SqlProvider(Sql2005) Model: AttributedMetaModel Build: 3.5.30729.1 SELECT [t0].[PK_CSM], [t0].[CompositeSIDGroup], [t0].[InputSID], [t0].[TargetSID], [t0].[StartOffset], [t0].[EndOffset], [t0].[Scale] FROM [dbo].[CompositeSIDMap] AS [t0] -- Context: SqlProvider(Sql2005) Model: AttributedMetaModel Build: 3.5.30729.1 The first T-SQL statement contains a where clause as specified and returns one column as expected. However, the second statement is missing a where clause and returns all columns, even though I did specify which rows I wanted to view and which columns were of interest. Why is the second T-SQL statement generated the way it is, and what should I do to ensure that I filter out the data according to specifications via the T-SQL? Also note that I would prefer to keep lookupCodeInfo() and especially am interested in keeping it enabled to accept lambda functions for specifying which rows/columns to return.

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  • cflock do not throw timeout for same url called in same browser

    - by Pritesh Patel
    I am trying lock block on page test.cfm and below is code written on page. <cfscript> writeOutput("Before lock at #now()#"); lock name="threadlock" timeout="3" type="exclusive" { writeOutput("<br/>started at #now()#"); thread action="sleep" duration="10000"; writeOutput("<br/>ended at #now()#"); } writeOutput("<br/>After lock at #now()#"); </cfscript> assuming my url for page is http://localhost.local/test.cfm and running it on browser in two different tabs. I was expecting one of the url will throw timeout error after 3 second since another url lock it atleast for 10 seconds due to thread sleep. Surprisingly I do not get any timeout error rather second page call run after 10 seconds as first call finish execution. But I am appending some url parameter (e.g. http://localhost.local/test.cfm?q=1) will throw error. Also I am calling same url in different browser then one of the call will throw timeout issue. Is lock based on session and url? Update Here is output for two different cases: Case 1: TAB1 Url: http://localhost.local/test/test.cfm Before lock at {ts '2013-10-18 09:21:35'} started at {ts '2013-10-18 09:21:35'} ended at {ts '2013-10-18 09:21:45'} After lock at {ts '2013-10-18 09:21:45'} TAB2 Url: http://localhost.local/test/test.cfm Before lock at {ts '2013-10-18 09:21:45'} started at {ts '2013-10-18 09:21:45'} ended at {ts '2013-10-18 09:21:55'} After lock at {ts '2013-10-18 09:21:55'} Case 2: TAB1 Url: http://localhost.local/test/test.cfm Before lock at {ts '2013-10-18 09:27:18'} started at {ts '2013-10-18 09:27:18'} ended at {ts '2013-10-18 09:27:28'} After lock at {ts '2013-10-18 09:27:28'} TAB2 Url: http://localhost.local/test/test.cfm? (Added ? at the end) Before lock at {ts '2013-10-18 09:27:20'} A timeout occurred while attempting to lock threadlock. The error occurred in C:/inetpub/wwwroot/test/test.cfm: line 13 11 : 12 : <cfoutput>Before lock at #now()#</cfoutput> 13 : <cflock name="threadlock" timeout="3" type="exclusive"> 14 : <cfoutput><br/>started at #now()#</cfoutput> 15 : <cfthread action="sleep" duration="10000"/> ... Result for case 2 as expected. For case 1, strange thing I just noticed is tab 2 output "Before lock at {ts '2013-10-18 09:21:45'} indicates that whole request start after 10 seconds (means after the complete execution of first tab) when I have fired it in second URL just after 2 seconds of first tabs.

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  • How to perform gui operation in doInBackground method?

    - by jM2.me
    My application reads a user selected file which contains addresses and then displays on mapview when done geocoding. To avoid hanging app the importing and geocoding is done in AsyncTask. public class LoadOverlayAsync extends AsyncTask<Uri, Integer, StopsOverlay> { Context context; MapView mapView; Drawable drawable; public LoadOverlayAsync(Context con, MapView mv, Drawable dw) { context = con; mapView = mv; drawable = dw; } protected StopsOverlay doInBackground(Uri... uris) { StringBuilder text = new StringBuilder(); StopsOverlay stopsOverlay = new StopsOverlay(drawable, context); Geocoder geo = new Geocoder(context, Locale.US); try { File file = new File(new URI(uris[0].toString())); BufferedReader br = new BufferedReader(new FileReader(file)); String line; while ((line = br.readLine()) != null) { StopOverlay stopOverlay = null; String[] tempLine = line.split("~"); List<Address> results = geo.getFromLocationName(tempLine[4] + " " + tempLine[5] + " " + tempLine[7] + " " + tempLine[8], 10); if (results.size() > 0) { Toast progressToast = Toast.makeText(context, "More than one yo", 1000); progressToast.show(); } else if (results.size() == 1) { Address addr = results.get(0); GeoPoint mPoint = new GeoPoint((int)(addr.getLatitude() * 1E6), (int)(addr.getLongitude() * 1E6)); stopOverlay = new StopOverlay(mPoint, tempLine); } if (stopOverlay != null) { stopsOverlay.addOverlay(stopOverlay); } //List<Address> results = geo.getFromLocationName(locationName, maxResults) } } catch (URISyntaxException e) { showErrorToast(e.toString()); //e.printStackTrace(); } catch (FileNotFoundException e) { showErrorToast(e.toString()); //e.printStackTrace(); } catch (IOException e) { showErrorToast(e.toString()); //e.printStackTrace(); } return stopsOverlay; } protected void onProgressUpdate(Integer... progress) { Toast progressToast = Toast.makeText(context, "Loaded " + progress.toString(), 1000); progressToast.show(); } protected void onPostExecute(StopsOverlay so) { //mapView.getOverlays().add(so); Toast progressToast = Toast.makeText(context, "Done geocoding", 1000); progressToast.show(); } protected void showErrorToast(String msg) { Toast Newtoast = Toast.makeText(context, msg, 10000); Newtoast.show(); } } But if geocode fails, I want a dialog popup to let user edit the address. That would require calling on gui method while in doInBackground. What would be a good workaround this?

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  • iPhone: Create a single UIView from multiple clicks

    - by Cuzog
    I'm making a partial overlay modal in my app with the code from “Semi-Modal (Transparent) Dialogs on the iPhone” at ramin.firoozye.com. In doing so, the button that calls the modal is still visible and clickable. I will hide this button when the modal spawns, but I want to be sure if the user clicks very quickly twice, a new modal doesn't come up for each click. What is the best way to check that the modal doesn't already exist when calling it from the button click? You can download the test project here. For those that don't have xcode, the relevant functions are below: I call forth the modal on button click with this: - (IBAction)displayModal:(id)sender { ModalViewController *modalController = [[ModalViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"ModalViewController" bundle:nil]; modalController.view.frame = CGRectOffset(modalController.view.frame, 0, 230); [self showModal:modalController.view]; } Then use this function to animate the custom modal over the current view: - (void)showModal:(UIView*) modalView { UIWindow* mainWindow = (((TestAppDelegate*) [UIApplication sharedApplication].delegate).window); CGPoint middleCenter = modalView.center; CGSize offSize = [UIScreen mainScreen].bounds.size; CGPoint offScreenCenter = CGPointMake(offSize.width / 2.0, offSize.height * 1.5); modalView.center = offScreenCenter; // we start off-screen [mainWindow addSubview:modalView]; // Show it with a transition effect [UIView beginAnimations:nil context:nil]; [UIView setAnimationDuration:0.4]; // animation duration in seconds modalView.center = middleCenter; [UIView commitAnimations]; } Then I dismiss the modal on button click with this: - (IBAction)dismissModal:(id)sender { [self hideModal:self.view]; } And then use these functions to animate the modal offscreen and clean itself up: - (void)hideModal:(UIView*) modalView { CGSize offSize = [UIScreen mainScreen].bounds.size; CGPoint offScreenCenter = CGPointMake(offSize.width / 2.0, offSize.height * 1.5); [UIView beginAnimations:nil context:modalView]; [UIView setAnimationDuration:0.7]; [UIView setAnimationDelegate:self]; [UIView setAnimationDidStopSelector:@selector(hideModalEnded:finished:context:)]; modalView.center = offScreenCenter; [UIView commitAnimations]; } - (void)hideModalEnded:(NSString *)animationID finished:(NSNumber *)finished context:(void *)context { UIView* modalView = (UIView *)context; [modalView removeFromSuperview]; [self release]; } Any help is greatly appreciated!

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  • Unable to decode hex values in javascript tooltip

    - by staudk27
    Hi all, I have quite the process that we go through in order to display some e-mail communications in our application. Trying to keep it as general as possible... -We make a request to a service via XML -Get the XML reply string, send the string to a method to encode any invalid characters as follows: public static String convertUTF8(String value) { char[] chars = value.toCharArray(); StringBuffer retVal = new StringBuffer(chars.length); for (int i = 0; i < chars.length; i++) { char c = chars[i]; int chVal = (int)c; if (chVal > Byte.MAX_VALUE) { retVal.append("&#x").append(Integer.toHexString(chVal)).append(";"); } else { retVal.append(c); } } return retVal.toString(); } We then send that result of a string to another method to remove any other invalid characters: public static String removeInvalidCharacters(String inString) { if (inString == null){ return null; } StringBuffer newString = new StringBuffer(); char ch; char c[] = inString.toCharArray(); for (int i = 0; i < c.length; i++) { ch = c[i]; // remove any characters outside the valid UTF-8 range as well as all control characters // except tabs and new lines if ((ch < 0x00FD && ch > 0x001F) || ch == '\t' || ch == '\n' || ch == '\r') { newString.append(ch); } } return newString.toString(); } This string is then "unmarshal'ed" via the SaxParser The object is then sent back to our Display action which generated the response to the calling jsp/javascript to create the page. The issue is some text can contain characters which can't be processed correctly. The following is eventually rendered on the JSP just fine: <PrvwCommTxt>This is a new test. Have a*&amp;#xc7;&amp;#xb4;)&amp;#xa1;.&amp;#xf1;&amp;#xc7;&amp;#xa1;.&amp;#xf1;*&amp;#xc7;&amp;#xb4;)...</PrvwCommTxt> Which shows up as "This is a new test. Have a*Ç´)¡.ñÇ¡." in the browser. -The following shows up in a tooltip while hovering over the above text: <CommDetails>This is a new test. Have a*Ç´)¡.ñÇ¡.ñ*Ç´)¡.ñ*´)(¡.ñÇ(¡.ñÇ* Wonderful Day!</CommDetails> This then shows up incorrectly when rendered in the tooltip javascript with all the HEX values and not being rendered correctly. Any suggestions on how to make the unknown characters show correctly in javascript?

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  • What are the pros and cons of using manual list iteration vs recursion through fail

    - by magus
    I come up against this all the time, and I'm never sure which way to attack it. Below are two methods for processing some season facts. What I'm trying to work out is whether to use method 1 or 2, and what are the pros and cons of each, especially large amounts of facts. methodone seems wasteful since the facts are available, why bother building a list of them (especially a large list). This must have memory implications too if the list is large enough ? And it doesn't take advantage of Prolog's natural backtracking feature. methodtwo takes advantage of backtracking to do the recursion for me, and I would guess would be much more memory efficient, but is it good programming practice generally to do this? It's arguably uglier to follow, and might there be any other side effects? One problem I can see is that each time fail is called, we lose the ability to pass anything back to the calling predicate, eg. if it was methodtwo(SeasonResults), since we continually fail the predicate on purpose. So methodtwo would need to assert facts to store state. Presumably(?) method 2 would be faster as it has no (large) list processing to do? I could imagine that if I had a list, then methodone would be the way to go.. or is that always true? Might it make sense in any conditions to assert the list to facts using methodone then process them using method two? Complete madness? But then again, I read that asserting facts is a very 'expensive' business, so list handling might be the way to go, even for large lists? Any thoughts? Or is it sometimes better to use one and not the other, depending on (what) situation? eg. for memory optimisation, use method 2, including asserting facts and, for speed use method 1? season(spring). season(summer). season(autumn). season(winter). % Season handling showseason(Season) :- atom_length(Season, LenSeason), write('Season Length is '), write(LenSeason), nl. % ------------------------------------------------------------- % Method 1 - Findall facts/iterate through the list and process each %-------------------------------------------------------------- % Iterate manually through a season list lenseason([]). lenseason([Season|MoreSeasons]) :- showseason(Season), lenseason(MoreSeasons). % Findall to build a list then iterate until all done methodone :- findall(Season, season(Season), AllSeasons), lenseason(AllSeasons), write('Done'). % ------------------------------------------------------------- % Method 2 - Use fail to force recursion %-------------------------------------------------------------- methodtwo :- % Get one season and show it season(Season), showseason(Season), % Force prolog to backtrack to find another season fail. % No more seasons, we have finished methodtwo :- write('Done').

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  • how to increment a javascript variable title that is within a php while loop

    - by steve
    I'm building multiple countdown clocks on one page. The number of countdown clocks varies from day to day so I need to call javascript several times from within "while" code in php to produce different clocks. The following code works but it's based on knowing how many clocks are needed before I start: <script language="javascript" src="countdown.js"></script> <script language="javascript"> var cd1 = new countdown('cd1'); cd1.Div = "clock1"; cd1.TargetDate = "<?php echo "$clocktime"; ?>"; cd1.DisplayFormat = "%%D%% days, %%H%% hours, %%M%% minutes, %%S%% seconds until event AAA happens"; </script> <div id="clockwrapper"><div id="clock1">[clock]</div></div> <script language="javascript" src="countdown.js"></script> <script language="javascript"> var cd2 = new countdown('cd2'); cd2.Div = "clock2"; cd2.TargetDate = "02/01/2011 5:30:30 PM"; cd2.DisplayFormat = "%%D%% days, %%H%% hours, %%M%% minutes, %%S%% seconds until event BBB happens..."; </script> <div id="clockwrapper"><div id="clock2">[clock]</div></div> So if I keep on calling the javascript above (the code with cd1 in it) all previous "cd1" clocks change to the latest clock because it is being overwritten. Somehow I need to call javascript from within my "while" loop in php and have cd1 become cd2, then cd3 so that the clocks work as they're supposed to. How do I go about doing this? I don't know how to call the javascript several times and increment the variable cd1 within the javascript. I tried something like this but couldn't get it to work. $id=mysql_result($result,$i,"id"); while($id){ $cd = ("$cd"."$id"); ?> <script language="javascript" src="countdown.js"></script> <script language="javascript"> var <?php echo "$cd"; ?> = new countdown('<?php echo "$cd"; ?>'); .... </script> <div id="clockwrapper"><div id="<?php echo "$cd"; ?>">[clock]</div></div> <?php $id=mysql_result($result,$i,"id"); } ?> Surely there is some easy way of getting around this that I don't know about. Thanks

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  • PHP echo query result in Class??

    - by Jerry
    Hi all I have a question about PHP Class. I am trying to get the result from Mysql via PHP. I would like to know if the best practice is to display the result inside the Class or store the result and handle it in html. For example, display result inside the Class class Schedule { public $currentWeek; function teamQuery($currentWeek){ $this->currentWeek=$currentWeek; } function getSchedule(){ $connection = mysql_connect(DB_SERVER,DB_USER,DB_PASS); if (!$connection) { die("Database connection failed: " . mysql_error()); } $db_select = mysql_select_db(DB_NAME,$connection); if (!$db_select) { die("Database selection failed: " . mysql_error()); } $scheduleQuery=mysql_query("SELECT guest, home, time, winner, pickEnable FROM $this->currentWeek ORDER BY time", $connection); if (!$scheduleQuery){ die("database has errors: ".mysql_error()); } while($row=mysql_fetch_array($scheduleQuery, MYSQL_NUMS)){ //display the result..ex: echo $row['winner']; } mysql_close($scheduleQuery); //no returns } } Or return the query result as a variable and handle in php class Schedule { public $currentWeek; function teamQuery($currentWeek){ $this->currentWeek=$currentWeek; } function getSchedule(){ $connection = mysql_connect(DB_SERVER,DB_USER,DB_PASS); if (!$connection) { die("Database connection failed: " . mysql_error()); } $db_select = mysql_select_db(DB_NAME,$connection); if (!$db_select) { die("Database selection failed: " . mysql_error()); } $scheduleQuery=mysql_query("SELECT guest, home, time, winner, pickEnable FROM $this->currentWeek ORDER BY time", $connection); if (!$scheduleQuery){ die("database has errors: ".mysql_error()); // create an array } $ret = array(); while($row=mysql_fetch_array($scheduleQuery, MYSQL_NUMS)){ $ret[]=$row; } mysql_close($scheduleQuery); return $ret; // and handle the return value in php } } Two things here: I found that returned variable in php is a little bit complex to play with since it is two dimension array. I am not sure what the best practice is and would like to ask you experts opinions. Every time I create a new method, I have to recreate the $connection variable: see below $connection = mysql_connect(DB_SERVER,DB_USER,DB_PASS); if (!$connection) { die("Database connection failed: " . mysql_error()); } $db_select = mysql_select_db(DB_NAME,$connection); if (!$db_select) { die("Database selection failed: " . mysql_error()); } It seems like redundant to me. Can I only do it once instead of calling it anytime I need a query? I am new to php class. hope you guys can help me. thanks.

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