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  • Adding Insert Row in tableView

    - by user333624
    Hello everyone, I have a tableView that loads its data directly from a Core Data table with a NSFetchedResultsController. I'm not using an intermediate NSMutableArray to store the objects from the fetch results; I basically implemented inside my UITableViewController the protocol method numberOfRowsInSection and it returns the numberOfObjects inside a NSFetchedResultsSectionInfo. id <NSFetchedResultsSectionInfo> sectionInfo = [[fetchedResultsController sections] objectAtIndex:section]; and then I configure the cell content by implementing configureCell:atIndexPath and retrieving object info from the fetchedResultController but right now I have a generic configuration for any object (to avoid complications) cell.textLabel.text = @"categoria"; I also have a NavigationBar with a custom edit button at the right that loads my own selector called customSetEditing. What I'm trying to accomplish is to load an "Insert Cell" at the beginning of the tableView so when I tap it, it creates a new record. This last part is easy to implement the problem is that I dont's seem to be able to load the insert row or any row when I tap on the navigation bar edit button. this is the code for my customSetEditing: - (void) customSetEditing { [super setEditing:YES animated:YES]; [self.tableView setEditing:YES animated:YES]; [[self tableView] beginUpdates]; //[[self tableView] beginUpdates]; UIBarButtonItem *customDoneButtonItem = [[UIBarButtonItem alloc] initWithBarButtonSystemItem:UIBarButtonSystemItemDone target:self action:@selector(customDone)]; [self.navigationItem.rightBarButtonItem release]; self.navigationItem.rightBarButtonItem = customDoneButtonItem; //[categoriasArray insertObject:[NSNull null] atIndex:0]; NSMutableArray *indexPaths = [[NSMutableArray alloc] initWithObjects:[NSIndexPath indexPathForRow:0 inSection:0],nil ]; [self.tableView insertRowsAtIndexPaths:indexPaths withRowAnimation:UITableViewRowAnimationTop]; //[indexPaths release]; [self.tableView reloadData];} Before adding the:[self.tableView reloadData]; I was getting an out of bounds error plus a program crash and although the program is not crashing it is not loading anything. I have seen many examples of similar situations in stackoverflow (by the way is an excellent forum with very helpful and nice people) none of the examples seems to work for me. Any ideas?

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  • Jquery - Loading a page with .load and selector doesn't execute script?

    - by PirateKitten
    I'm trying to load one page into another using the .load() method. This loaded page contains a script that I want to execute when it has finished loading. I've put together a barebones example to demonstrate: Index.html: <html> <head> <title>Jquery Test</title> <script type="text/javascript" src="script/jquery-1.3.2.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $('#nav a').click(function() { $('#contentHolder').load('content.html #toLoad', '', function() {}); return false; }); }); </script> </head> <body> <div id="nav"> <a href="content.html">Click me!</a> </div> <hr /> <div id="contentHolder"> Content loaded will go here </div> </body> </html> Content.html: <div id="toLoad"> This content is from content.html <div id="contentDiv"> This should fade away. </div> <script type="text/javascript"> $('#contentDiv').fadeOut('slow', function() {} ); </script> </div> When the link is clicked, the content should load and the second paragraph should fade away. However it doesn't execute. If I stick a simple alert("") in the script of content.html it doesn't execute either. However, if I do away with the #toLoad selector in the .load() call, it works fine. I am not sure why this is, as the block is clearly in the scope of the #toLoad div. I don't want to avoid using the selector, as in reality the content.html will be a full HTML page, and I'll only want a select part out of it. Any ideas? If the script from content.html was in the .load() callback, it works fine, however I obviously don't want that logic contained within index.html. I could possibly have the callback use .getScript() to load "content.html.js" afterwards and have the logic in there, that seems to work? I'd prefer to keep the script in content.html, if possible, so that it executes fine when loaded normally too. In fact, I might do this anyway, but I would like to know why the above doesn't work.

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  • WPF: Improving Performance for Running on Older PCs

    - by Phil Sandler
    So, I'm building a WPF app and did a test deployment today, and found that it performed pretty poorly. I was surprised, as we are really not doing much in the way of visual effects or animations. I deployed on two machines: the fastest and the slowest that will need to run the application (the slowest PC has an Intel Celeron 1.80GHz with 2GB RAM). The application ran pretty well on the faster machine, but was choppy on the slower machine. And when I say "choppy", I mean the cursor jumped even just passing it over any open window of the app that had focus. I opened the Task Manager Performance window, and could see that the CPU usage jumped whenever the app had focus and the cursor was moving over it. If I gave focus to another (e.g. Excel), the CPU usage went back down after a second. This happened on both machines, but the choppiness was only noticeable on the slower machine. I had very limited time to tinker on the deployment machines, so didn't do a lot of detailed testing. The app runs fine on my development machine, but I also see the CPU spiking up to 10% there, just running the cursor over the window. I downloaded the WPF performance tool from MS and have been tinkering with it (on my dev machine). The docs say this about the "Frame Rate" metric in the Perforator tool: For applications without animation, this value should be near 0. The app is not doing any heavy animation, but the frame rate stays near 50 when the cursor is over any window. The screens I tested on have column headers in a grid that "highlight" and buttons that change color and appearance when scrolled over. Even moving the mouse on blank areas of the windows cause the same Frame rate and CPU usage (doesn't seem to be related to these minor animations). (Also, I am unable to figure out how to get anything but the two default tools--Perforator and Visual Profiler--installed into the WPF performance tool. That is probably a separate question). I also have Redgate's profiling tool, but I'm not sure if that can shed any light on rendering performance. So, I realize this is not an easy thing to troubleshoot without specifics or sample code (which I can't post). My questions are: What are some general things to look for (or avoid) in the code to improve performance? What steps can I take using the WPF performance tool to narrow down the problem? Is the PC spec listed above (Intel Celeron 1.80GHz with 2GB RAM) too slow to be running even vanilla WPF applications?

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  • PHP, MySQL: Display only required parts of my website in sister website

    - by Devner
    Hi all, Now I have my website built on PHP & Mysql. Consider this like a forum. Now when a user posts a reply in my website 1 (ex. www.website1.com), I want to be able to show the starting thread and it's related replies in a sister website of mine. I want to do this in a way that it does not show the rest of the page & other page contents (like logo etc.). I don't think iframe would be a solution because an iframe would embed the whole page and the users visiting my sister website (totally different domain i.e. www.website2.com) would be able to see all the page contents, like logo etc. I want to avoid that. I want to make them see only limited information from website 1 and only the info. that I intend. I hope that makes sense. In a way, you could say that I am trying to replicate my 1 website, and show only a limited part of it. Users browsing 2nd website can post a reply in the 2nd website and it should automatically be posted & visible to the visitors of the website 1. Users of website 1 should not know that a user of website 2 has posted it. They would feel that some user from website 1 has posted it. Do I have to use 2 separate mysql DB or just 1? I think it would be problematic if I am trying to use different DB. I also feel I might have to face DB connectivity issues as I can connect to only 1 DB at a time. It's basically like users of website1.com should feel that they are replying to users of website1.com & users of website2.com should feel that they are replying to users of website2.com. (I need it this way to bridge the gap between them). At the same time I want to make the front end of the websites different so that they don't feel that they are replying to some other users outside the domain. These websites would be under my control and I will have access to the source code at any time. If I need to change the source code, these changes are welcome. Is this really possible? Thank you in advance.

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  • Java replacement for C macros

    - by thkala
    Recently I refactored the code of a 3rd party hash function from C++ to C. The process was relatively painless, with only a few changes of note. Now I want to write the same function in Java and I came upon a slight issue. In the C/C++ code there is a C preprocessor macro that takes a few integer variables names as arguments and performs a bunch of bitwise operations with their contents and a few constants. That macro is used in several different places, therefore its presence avoids a fair bit of code duplication. In Java, however, there is no equivalent for the C preprocessor. There is also no way to affect any basic type passed as an argument to a method - even autoboxing produces immutable objects. Coupled with the fact that Java methods return a single value, I can't seem to find a simple way to rewrite the macro. Avenues that I considered: Expand the macro by hand everywhere: It would work, but the code duplication could make things interesting in the long run. Write a method that returns an array: This would also work, but it would repeatedly result into code like this: long tmp[] = bitops(k, l, m, x, y, z); k = tmp[0]; l = tmp[1]; m = tmp[2]; x = tmp[3]; y = tmp[4]; z = tmp[5]; Write a method that takes an array as an argument: This would mean that all variable names would be reduced to array element references - it would be rather hard to keep track of which index corresponds to which variable. Create a separate class e.g. State with public fields of the appropriate type and use that as an argument to a method: This is my current solution. It allows the method to alter the variables, while still keeping their names. It has the disadvantage, however, that the State class will get more and more complex, as more macros and variables are added, in order to avoid copying values back and forth among different State objects. How would you rewrite such a C macro in Java? Is there a more appropriate way to deal with this, using the facilities provided by the standard Java 6 Development Kit (i.e. without 3rd party libraries or a separate preprocessor)?

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  • When transactionManager is not named "transactionManager" ...

    - by smallufo
    I am trying Spring 3(.0.2.RELEASE) and JPA2 and Hibernate 3.5.1-Final... One thing upsets me is that spring seems only accept a transaction Manager named "transactionManager" If I don't name it "transactionManager" , Spring will throws NoSuchBeanDefinitionException: No bean named 'transactionManager' is defined. Here is my config : <context:component-scan base-package="destiny.data.mining"/> <context:annotation-config/> <bean id="miningEntityManagerFactory" class="org.springframework.orm.jpa.LocalContainerEntityManagerFactoryBean"> <property name="persistenceUnitName" value="mining"/> </bean> <bean id="miningTransactionManager" class="org.springframework.orm.jpa.JpaTransactionManager" > <property name="entityManagerFactory" ref="miningEntityManagerFactory"/> </bean> <tx:advice id="txAdviceMining" transaction-manager="miningTransactionManager"> <tx:attributes> <tx:method name="get*" read-only="true"/> <tx:method name="save*" propagation="REQUIRED"/> <tx:method name="update*" propagation="REQUIRED"/> <tx:method name="delete*" propagation="REQUIRED"/> <tx:method name="*" propagation="SUPPORTS" read-only="true"/> </tx:attributes> </tx:advice> <aop:config> <aop:pointcut id="methods" expression="execution(* destiny.utils.AbstractDao+.*(..))"/> <aop:advisor advice-ref="txAdviceMining" pointcut-ref="methods"/> </aop:config> <tx:annotation-driven transaction-manager="miningTransactionManager"/> In this config , an Entity Manager Factory is not necessarily named "entityManagerFactory" , and "txAdvice" is not necessarily named "txAdvice" , either. But I don't know why on earth Spring requires a transaction manager named "transactionManager" ? Is there any way not to name a transaction manager "transactionManager" ? (I'm running multiple spring config files , so I try my best to avoid name-conflicting) test code : @RunWith(SpringJUnit4ClassRunner.class) @ContextConfiguration(locations={"classpath:mining.xml"}) public class MiningPersonDaoTest { @Inject private EntityManagerFactory miningEntityManagerFactory; @Inject private MiningPersonDao miningPersonDao; @Transactional @Test public void testUpdate() { MiningPerson p = miningPersonDao.get(42L); p.setLocationName("OOXX"); miningPersonDao.update(p); System.out.println(p); } } ii

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  • Refactor a link and an image

    - by Mihail Stoynov
    I have to write an link with an image inside. Instead of explaining, here's the code I have now: <c:if test="${userSession.loggedUser eq null and company.image != null}"> <a onclick="${rich:component('loginPanel')}.show()"> <img src="/download.do?hash=#{company.image.hash}" /> </a> </c:if> <c:if test="${userSession.loggedUser eq null and company.image == null}"> <a onclick="${rich:component('loginPanel')}.show()"> <img src="${request.contextPath}/img/icons/logo_default.jpg" /> </a> </c:if> <c:if test="${userSession.loggedUser ne null and company.image != null}"> <a href="company.xhtml?${company.name}"> <img src="/download.do?hash=#{company.image.hash}" /> </a> </c:if> <c:if test="#{userSession.loggedUser ne null and company.image == null}"> <a href="company.xhtml?${company.name}"> <img src="${request.contextPath}/img/icons/logo_default.jpg" /> </a> </c:if> This code looks awful - there are two exact links with two exact images but combined in all possible combinations. Is there a better way? Is there a way to avoid c:if - it created tables? Update: Bozho proposes: You can replace <c:if and <a with <h:outputLink rendered="#{..}". Apart from that I don't see any other optimization. But it doesn't work. This does not render correctly: <a href=> <h:outputLink rendered="#{..} <h:outputLink rendered="#{..} </a> (the image is outside the anchor) This does render fine: <h:outputLink value=> <h:outputLink rendered="#{..} <h:outputLink rendered="#{..} </a> , but it always adds href and in two of the cases I don't want href when rendered.

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  • Setting background-image with javascript

    - by Mattoe3k
    In chrome, safari, and opera setting the background image to an absolute reference such as: "/images/image.png" changes it to "http://sitepath/images/image.png". It does not do this in firefox. Is there any way to avoid this behavior, or is it written into the browser's javascript engine? Using jquery to set the background-image also does this problem. The problem is that I am posting the HTML to a php script that needs the urls in this specific format. I know that setting the image path relative fixes this, but I can't do that. The only other alternative would be to use a regexp. to convert the urls. Thanks. Test this in firefox, and chrome / webkit browser: <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=utf-8" /> <title>Untitled Document</title> </head> <body> <div style="height:400px;width:400px;background-image:url(/images/images/logo.gif);"> </div> <br /> <br /> <div id="test" style="height:400px;width:400px;"> </div> <script type="text/javascript" src="/javascripts/jquery.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function(){ $("#test").css('background-image',"url(/images/images/logo.gif)"); alert(document.getElementById('test').style.backgroundImage); }); </script> </body> </html>

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  • Error when deploying site of a maven multi module project with FTP

    - by julien
    I have a multi module project. When I launch mvn site:deploy, the deployment of the base module works fine, but it fails to create the directory of the module sites on the FTP server: [INFO] Error uploading site Embedded error: Required directory: '/myremoteftprepository/myproject-mymodule' is missing When I create the missing directory by hand, it works fine, but I would like to avoid that. It is surprising that the deploy command do not create it. Do you how to force this directory creation? Is it a bug in the wagon-ftp plugin? FYI, here is my POM: <build> <extensions> <!-- Enabling the use of FTP --> <extension> <groupId>org.apache.maven.wagon</groupId> <artifactId>wagon-ftp</artifactId> <version>1.0</version> </extension> </extensions> </build> I have chosen to include the javadoc with: <reporting> <plugins> <!-- include javadoc in the site --> <plugin> <groupId>org.apache.maven.plugins</groupId> <artifactId>maven-javadoc-plugin</artifactId> <version>2.8</version> <configuration> <show>public</show> </configuration> </plugin> </plugins> </reporting> and <distributionManagement> <site> <id>site</id> <name>maven site</name> <url>ftp://ftp.blabla.org/myremoteftprepository</url> </site> </distributionManagement> and my settings.xml is good.

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  • Is it possible to use CSS to align these divs/spans in a table-like manner?

    - by Justin L.
    I have <div class='line'> <div class='chord_line'> <span class='chord_block'></span> <span class='chord_block'>E</span> <span class='chord_block'>B</span> <span class='chord_block'>C#m</span> <span class='chord_block'>A</span> </div> <div class='lyric_line'> <span class='lyric_block'></span> <span class='lyric_block'>Just a</span> <span class='lyric_block'>small-town girl</span> <span class='lyric_block'>living in a</span> <span class='lyric_block'>lonely world</span> </div> </div> (Excuse me for not being too familiar with proper css conventions for when to use div/spans) I want to be able to display them so that each chord_block span and lyric_block span is aligned vertically, as if they were left-aligned and on the same row of a table. For example: E B C#m A Just a small-town girl living in a lonely world (There will often be cases where an empty chord block is matched up to non-empty lyric block, and vice-versa.) I'm completely new to using CSS to align things, and have had no real understanding/experience of CSS aside from changing background colors and link styles. Is this possible in CSS? If not, how could the div/class nesting structure be revised to make this possible? I could change the spans to divs if necessary. Some things I cannot use: I can't change the structure to group things by a chord_and_lyric_block div (and have their width stretch to the length of the lyric, and stack them horizontally), because I couldn't really copy/select the lyrical lines continuously in their entirety, which is extremely critical. I'm trying to avoid a table-like solution, because this data is not tabular at all. The chord line and the lyric line are meant to be read as one continuous line, not a set of cells. Also, apart from the design philosophy reasons, I think it might have the same problems as the previous thing bullet point. If this is possible, what div/span attributes should I be using? Can you provide sample css? If this is not possible, can it be done with javascript?

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  • Solution Output Directory

    - by L.E.O
    The project that I'm currently working on is being developed by multiple teams where each team is responsible for different part of the project. They all have set up their own C# projects and solutions with configuration settings specific to their own needs. However, now we need to create another, global solution, which will combine and build all projects into the same output directory. The problem that I have encountered though, is that I have found only one way to make all projects build into the same output directory - I need to modify configurations for all of them. That is what we would like to avoid. We would prefer that all these projects had no knowledge about this "global" solution. Each team must retain possibility to work just with their own sub-solution. One possible workaround is to create a special configuration for all projects just for this "global" solution, but that could create extra problems since now you have to constantly sync this configuration settings with the regular one, used by that specific team. Last thing we want to do is to spend hours trying to figure out why something doesn't work when building under global solution just because of some check box that developers have checked in their configuration, but forgot to do so in the global configuration. So, to simplify, we need some sort of output directory setting or post build event that would only be present when building from that global, all-inclusive solution. Is there any way to achieve this without changing something in projects configurations? Update 1: Some extra details I guess I need to mention: We need this global solution to be as close as possible to what the end user gets when he installs our application, since we intend to use it for debugging of the entire application when we need to figure out which part of the application isn't working before sending this bug to the team working on that part. This means that when building under global solution the output directory hierarchy should be the same as it would be in Program Files after installation, so that if, for example, we have Program Files/MyApplication/Addins folder which contains all the addins developed by different teams, we need the global solution to copy the binaries from addins projects and place them in the output directory accordingly. The thing is, the team developing an addin doest necessary know that it is an addin and that it should be placed in that folder, so they cannot change their relative output directory to be build/bin/Debug/Addins.

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  • What do I need to distribute (keys, certs) for Python w/ SSL-socket connection?

    - by fandingo
    I'm trying to write a generic server-client application that will be able to exchange data amongst servers. I've read over quite a few OpenSSL documents, and I have successfully setup my own CA and created a cert (and private key) for testing purposes. I'm stuck with Python 2.3, so I can't use the standard "ssl" library. Instead, I'm stuck with PyOpenSSL, which doesn't seem bad, but there aren't many documents out there about it. My question isn't really about getting it working. I'm more confused about the certificates and where they need to go. Here are my two programs that do work: Server: #!/bin/env python from OpenSSL import SSL import socket import pickle def verify_cb(conn, cert, errnum, depth, ok): print('Got cert: %s' % cert.get_subject()) return ok ctx = SSL.Context(SSL.TLSv1_METHOD) ctx.set_verify(SSL.VERIFY_PEER|SSL.VERIFY_FAIL_IF_NO_PEER_CERT, verify_cb) # ?????? ctx.use_privatekey_file('./Dmgr-key.pem') ctx.use_certificate_file('Dmgr-cert.pem') # ?????? ctx.load_verify_locations('./CAcert.pem') server = SSL.Connection(ctx, socket.socket(socket.AF_INET, socket.SOCK_STREAM)) server.bind(('', 50000)) server.listen(3) a, b = server.accept() c = a.recv(1024) print(c) Client: from OpenSSL import SSL import socket import pickle def verify_cb(conn, cert, errnum, depth, ok): print('Got cert: %s' % cert.get_subject()) return ok ctx = SSL.Context(SSL.TLSv1_METHOD) ctx.set_verify(SSL.VERIFY_PEER, verify_cb) # ?????????? ctx.use_privatekey_file('/home/justin/code/work/CA/private/Dmgr-key.pem') ctx.use_certificate_file('/home/justin/code/work/CA/Dmgr-cert.pem') # ????????? ctx.load_verify_locations('/home/justin/code/work/CA/CAcert.pem') sock = SSL.Connection(ctx, socket.socket(socket.AF_INET, socket.SOCK_STREAM)) sock.connect(('10.0.0.3', 50000)) a = Tester(2, 2) b = pickle.dumps(a) sock.send("Hello, world") sock.flush() sock.send(b) sock.shutdown() sock.close() I found this information from ftp://ftp.pbone.net/mirror/ftp.pld-linux.org/dists/2.0/PLD/i586/PLD/RPMS/python-pyOpenSSL-examples-0.6-2.i586.rpm which contains some example scripts. As you might gather, I don't fully understand the sections between the " # ????????." I don't get why the certificate and private key are needed on both the client and server. I'm not sure where each should go, but shouldn't I only need to distribute one part of the key (probably the public part)? It undermines the purpose of having asymmetric keys if you still need both on each server, right? I tried alternating removing either the pkey or cert on either box, and I get the following error no matter which I remove: OpenSSL.SSL.Error: [('SSL routines', 'SSL3_READ_BYTES', 'sslv3 alert handshake failure'), ('SSL routines', 'SSL3_WRITE_BYTES', 'ssl handshake failure')] Could someone explain if this is the expected behavior for SSL. Do I really need to distribute the private key and public cert to all my clients? I'm trying to avoid any huge security problems, and leaking private keys would tend to be a big one... Thanks for the help!

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  • how to invoke an activity of a library project from an android apps

    - by Austin
    I have an open source android code that I need to use in my android apps. It has all the source code as well as resource files, manifest files and class path. It can be compiled as a separate android apps. I have constraints for using the open source. 1. I can't change a single line of code. 2. I can't use it as a separate apps. These constraints are non negotiable. What I have done is I have compiled the open source as class library(in Eclipse: Project Properties-Android- Tick check box Is Library). This has resulted in generation of .class files(in bin) for the java files and resource files. This open source has an android activity that i want to open from my application. So I have linked the directory of these sets of class files in the source section of my java build path( in .classpath). I have declared the activity in my manifest file with proper action intent filters. Now when I am trying to call activity from my code, its not working. Cleaning and rebuilding doesn't help. However, if I build the open source project and my apps in the same workspace of eclipse and link the open source in my apps in exact same manner it works fine. I am not able to identify the difference. All settings seems to be same(all files are identical in both the cases). But only in the second case it works. I have tried it as jar file also. I have build the open source as project library and exported it into a jar file(excluding manifest file). But in that case I am getting the following error UNEXPECTED TOP-LEVEL EXCEPTION: java.lang.IllegalArgumentException: already added: .... Conversion to Dalvik format failed with error 1 This I guess is coming because the android library(2.2) has been included twice in my apps( one for building my apps & another for building the open source). I dont know how to avoid this. Cleaning the project doesn't help. What i require is to use the open source and invoking it's activities in my apps without violating the constraints. If i can use the open source as bunch of .class files then great, or else any other way will do fine. Please look into it and let me know. Thanks

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  • CodeIgniter Form Validaton + JS. Form re-population.

    - by solefald
    Hello. I have a from with a checkbox, and depending on the checkbox state 2 different divs are shown. var alias = document.getElementById('alias'); var list = document.getElementById('list'); if(document.getElementById('isList').checked) { alias.style.display = 'none'; list.style.display = 'table-row'; } else { alias.style.display = 'table-row'; list.style.display = 'none'; } Here is the HTML/PHP (relevant) part: <tr id="alias" style="display:table-row;"> <td>' . form_label('Destination:', 'destination') . '</td> <td>' . form_textarea('destination') . '</td> </tr> <tr id="list" style="display:none;"> <td>' . form_label('File Path:', 'list_path') . '</td> <td>' . form_input('list_path') . '</td> </tr> alias div is shown by default on page load, list shown then i click on isList checkbox, and alias is shown again when i click on the checkbox again. This part works great and pretty straight froward. Now, I add CodeIgniter Form Validation plugin, set appropriate rules and set-up validation plugin to re-populate the form with. Without checkbox enabled everything works great. On errors form is re-populated. However, when form is submitted with checkbox enabled, I have an issue. CI's Form Validation plugin re-populates the form, and re-enables the checkbox, but the list div that is supposed to be shown when checkbox enabled is not there, and instead the alias div is shown. Is there any way around this issue? Can i have the list div shown on list validation error? Also, i would like to avoid using JavaScript form validation, and stick with my good old PHP. Thank you in advance. -i

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  • Use multiple inheritance to discriminate useage roles?

    - by Arne
    Hi fellows, it's my flight simulation application again. I am leaving the mere prototyping phase now and start fleshing out the software design now. At least I try.. Each of the aircraft in the simulation have got a flight plan associated to them, the exact nature of which is of no interest for this question. Sufficient to say that the operator way edit the flight plan while the simulation is running. The aircraft model most of the time only needs to read-acess the flight plan object which at first thought calls for simply passing a const reference. But ocassionally the aircraft will need to call AdvanceActiveWayPoint() to indicate a way point has been reached. This will affect the Iterator returned by function ActiveWayPoint(). This implies that the aircraft model indeed needs a non-const reference which in turn would also expose functions like AppendWayPoint() to the aircraft model. I would like to avoid this because I would like to enforce the useage rule described above at compile time. Note that class WayPointIter is equivalent to a STL const iterator, that is the way point can not be mutated by the iterator. class FlightPlan { public: void AppendWayPoint(const WayPointIter& at, WayPoint new_wp); void ReplaceWayPoint(const WayPointIter& ar, WayPoint new_wp); void RemoveWayPoint(WayPointIter at); (...) WayPointIter First() const; WayPointIter Last() const; WayPointIter Active() const; void AdvanceActiveWayPoint() const; (...) }; My idea to overcome the issue is this: define an abstract interface class for each usage role and inherit FlightPlan from both. Each user then only gets passed a reference of the appropriate useage role. class IFlightPlanActiveWayPoint { public: WayPointIter Active() const =0; void AdvanceActiveWayPoint() const =0; }; class IFlightPlanEditable { public: void AppendWayPoint(const WayPointIter& at, WayPoint new_wp); void ReplaceWayPoint(const WayPointIter& ar, WayPoint new_wp); void RemoveWayPoint(WayPointIter at); (...) }; Thus the declaration of FlightPlan would only need to be changed to: class FlightPlan : public IFlightPlanActiveWayPoint, IFlightPlanEditable { (...) }; What do you think? Are there any cavecats I might be missing? Is this design clear or should I come up with somethink different for the sake of clarity? Alternatively I could also define a special ActiveWayPoint class which would contain the function AdvanceActiveWayPoint() but feel that this might be unnecessary. Thanks in advance!

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  • Robust way to save/load objects with dependencies?

    - by mrteacup
    I'm writing an Android game in Java and I need a robust way to save and load application state quickly. The question seems to apply to most OO languages. To understand what I need to save: I'm using a Strategy pattern to control my game entities. The idea is I have a very general Entity class which e.g. stores the location of a bullet/player/enemy and I then attach a Behaviour class that tells the entity how to act: class Entiy { float x; float y; Behavior b; } abstract class Behavior { void update(Entity e); {} // Move about at a constant speed class MoveBehavior extends Behavior { float speed; void update ... } // Chase after another entity class ChaseBehavior extends Behavior { Entity target; void update ... } // Perform two behaviours in sequence class CombineBehavior extends Behavior { Behaviour a, b; void update ... } Essentially, Entity objects are easy to save but Behaviour objects can have a semi-complex graph of dependencies between other Entity objects and other Behaviour objects. I also have cases where a Behaviour object is shared between entities. I'm willing to change my design to make saving/loading state easier, but the above design works really well for structuring the game. Anyway, the options I've considered are: Use Java serialization. This is meant to be really slow in Android (I'll profile it sometime). I'm worried about robustness when changes are made between versions however. Use something like JSON or XML. I'm not sure how I would cope with storing the dependencies between objects however. Would I have to give each object a unique ID and then use these IDs on loading to link the right objects together? I thought I could e.g. change the ChaseBehaviour to store a ID to an entity, instead of a reference, that would be used to look up the Entity before performing the behaviour. I'd rather avoid having to write lots of loading/saving code myself as I find it really easy to make mistakes (e.g. forgetting to save something, reading things out in the wrong order). Can anyone give me any tips on good formats to save to or class designs that make saving state easier?

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  • Techniques for querying a set of object in-memory in a Java application

    - by Edd Grant
    Hi All, We have a system which performs a 'coarse search' by invoking an interface on another system which returns a set of Java objects. Once we have received the search results I need to be able to further filter the resulting Java objects based on certain criteria describing the state of the attributes (e.g. from the initial objects return all objects where x.y z && a.b == c). The criteria used to filter the set of objects each time is partially user configurable, by this I mean that users will be able to select the values and ranges to match on but the attributes they can pick from will be a fixed set. The data sets are likely to contain <= 10,000 objects for each search. The search will be executed manually by the application user base probably no more than 2000 times a day (approx). It's probably worth mentioning that all the objects in the result set are known domain object classes which have Hibernate and JPA annotations describing their structure and relationship. Off the top of my head I can think of 3 ways of doing this: For each search persist the initial result set objects in our database, then use Hibernate to re-query them using the finer grained criteria. Use an in-memory Database (such as hsqldb?) to query and refine the initial result set. Write some custom code which iterates the initial result set and pulls out the desired records. Option 1 seems to involve a lot of toing and froing across a network to a physical Database (Oracle 10g) which might result in a lot of network and disk activity. It would also require the results from each search to be isolated from other result sets to ensure that different searches don't interfere with each other. Option 2 seems like a good idea in principle as it would allow me to do the finer query in memory and would not require the persistence of result data which would only be discarded after the search was complete. Gut feeling is that this could be pretty performant too but might result in larger memory overheads (which is fine as we can be pretty flexible on the amount of memory our JVM gets). Option 3 could be very performant but is something I would like to avoid as any code we write would require such careful testing that the time taken to acheive something flexible and robust enough would probably be prohibitive. I don't have time to prototype all 3 ideas so I am looking for comments people may have on the 3 options above, plus any further ideas I have not considered, to help me decide which idea might be most suitable. I'm currently leaning toward option 2 (in memory database) so would be keen to hear from people with experience of querying POJOs in memory too. Hopefully I have described the situation in enough detail but don't hesitate to ask if any further information is required to better understand the scenario. Cheers, Edd

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  • Avoiding explicit recursion in Haskell

    - by Travis Brown
    The following simple function applies a given monadic function iteratively until it hits a Nothing, at which point it returns the last non-Nothing value. It does what I need, and I understand how it works. lastJustM :: (Monad m) => (a -> m (Maybe a)) -> a -> m a lastJustM g x = g x >>= maybe (return x) (lastJustM g) As part of my self-education in Haskell I'm trying to avoid explicit recursion (or at least understand how to) whenever I can. It seems like there should be a simple non-explicitly recursive solution in this case, but I'm having trouble figuring it out. I don't want something like a monadic version of takeWhile, since it could be expensive to collect all the pre-Nothing values, and I don't care about them anyway. I checked Hoogle for the signature and nothing shows up. The m (Maybe a) bit makes me think a monad transformer might be useful here, but I don't really have the intuitions I'd need to come up with the details (yet). It's probably either embarrassingly easy to do this or embarrassingly easy to see why it can't or shouldn't be done, but this wouldn't be the first time I've used self-embarrassment as a pedagogical strategy. Background: Here's a simplified working example for context: suppose we're interested in random walks in the unit square, but we only care about points of exit. We have the following step function: randomStep :: (Floating a, Ord a, Random a) => a -> (a, a) -> State StdGen (Maybe (a, a)) randomStep s (x, y) = do (a, gen') <- randomR (0, 2 * pi) <$> get put gen' let (x', y') = (x + s * cos a, y + s * sin a) if x' < 0 || x' > 1 || y' < 0 || y' > 1 then return Nothing else return $ Just (x', y') Something like evalState (lastJustM (randomStep 0.01) (0.5, 0.5)) <$> newStdGen will give us a new data point.

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  • Are comonads a good fit for modeling the Wumpus world?

    - by Tim Stewart
    I'm trying to find some practical applications of a comonad and I thought I'd try to see if I could represent the classical Wumpus world as a comonad. I'd like to use this code to allow the Wumpus to move left and right through the world and clean up dirty tiles and avoid pits. It seems that the only comonad function that's useful is extract (to get the current tile) and that moving around and cleaning tiles would not use be able to make use of extend or duplicate. I'm not sure comonads are a good fit but I've seen a talk (Dominic Orchard: A Notation for Comonads) where comonads were used to model a cursor in a two-dimensional matrix. If a comonad is a good way of representing the Wumpus world, could you please show where my code is wrong? If it's wrong, could you please suggest a simple application of comonads? module Wumpus where -- Incomplete model of a world inhabited by a Wumpus who likes a nice -- tidy world but does not like falling in pits. import Control.Comonad -- The Wumpus world is made up of tiles that can be in one of three -- states. data Tile = Clean | Dirty | Pit deriving (Show, Eq) -- The Wumpus world is a one dimensional array partitioned into three -- values: the tiles to the left of the Wumpus, the tile occupied by -- the Wumpus, and the tiles to the right of the Wumpus. data World a = World [a] a [a] deriving (Show, Eq) -- Applies a function to every tile in the world instance Functor World where fmap f (World as b cs) = World (fmap f as) (f b) (fmap f cs) -- The Wumpus world is a Comonad instance Comonad World where -- get the part of the world the Wumpus currently occupies extract (World _ b _) = b -- not sure what this means in the Wumpus world. This type checks -- but does not make sense to me. extend f w@(World as b cs) = World (map world as) (f w) (map world cs) where world v = f (World [] v []) -- returns a world in which the Wumpus has either 1) moved one tile to -- the left or 2) stayed in the same place if the Wumpus could not move -- to the left. moveLeft :: World a -> World a moveLeft w@(World [] _ _) = w moveLeft (World as b cs) = World (init as) (last as) (b:cs) -- returns a world in which the Wumpus has either 1) moved one tile to -- the right or 2) stayed in the same place if the Wumpus could not move -- to the right. moveRight :: World a -> World a moveRight w@(World _ _ []) = w moveRight (World as b cs) = World (as ++ [b]) (head cs) (tail cs) initWorld = World [Dirty, Clean, Dirty] Dirty [Clean, Dirty, Pit] -- cleans the current tile cleanTile :: Tile -> Tile cleanTile Dirty = Clean cleanTile t = t Thanks!

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  • OutOfMemoryError loading Bitmap via DefaultHttpClient

    - by Goddchen
    i have a simple problem: Although i'm using sampleSize properly, my code doesn't even reach the BitmapFactorycode, since DefaultHttpClient is already throwing the exception. Here is my code: DefaultHttpClient client = new DefaultHttpClient(); HttpGet request = new HttpGet(mSongInfo.imageLarge); HttpResponse response = client.execute(request); int sampleSize = 1; while (response.getEntity().getContentLength() / sampleSize / sampleSize > 100 * 1024) { sampleSize *= 2; } BitmapFactory.Options options = new BitmapFactory.Options(); options.inSampleSize = sampleSize; final Bitmap bitmap = BitmapFactory.decodeStream(response .getEntity().getContent(), null, options); And here is the exception: 0 java.lang.OutOfMemoryError: (Heap Size=11463KB, Allocated=7623KB, Bitmap Size=9382KB) 1 at org.apache.http.util.ByteArrayBuffer.<init>(ByteArrayBuffer.java:53) 2 at org.apache.http.impl.io.AbstractSessionInputBuffer.init(AbstractSessionInputBuffer.java:82) 3 at org.apache.http.impl.io.SocketInputBuffer.<init>(SocketInputBuffer.java:98) 4 at org.apache.http.impl.SocketHttpClientConnection.createSessionInputBuffer(SocketHttpClientConnection.java:83) 5 at org.apache.http.impl.conn.DefaultClientConnection.createSessionInputBuffer(DefaultClientConnection.java:170) 6 at org.apache.http.impl.SocketHttpClientConnection.bind(SocketHttpClientConnection.java:106) 7 at org.apache.http.impl.conn.DefaultClientConnection.openCompleted(DefaultClientConnection.java:129) 8 at org.apache.http.impl.conn.DefaultClientConnectionOperator.openConnection(DefaultClientConnectionOperator.java:173) 9 at org.apache.http.impl.conn.AbstractPoolEntry.open(AbstractPoolEntry.java:164) 10 at org.apache.http.impl.conn.AbstractPooledConnAdapter.open(AbstractPooledConnAdapter.java:119) 11 at org.apache.http.impl.client.DefaultRequestDirector.execute(DefaultRequestDirector.java:359) 12 at org.apache.http.impl.client.AbstractHttpClient.execute(AbstractHttpClient.java:555) 13 at org.apache.http.impl.client.AbstractHttpClient.execute(AbstractHttpClient.java:487) 14 at org.apache.http.impl.client.AbstractHttpClient.execute(AbstractHttpClient.java:465) 15 at de.goddchen.android.easysongfinder.fragments.SongFragment$1.run(SongFragment.java:79) 16 at java.lang.Thread.run(Thread.java:1027) As you can see, the code doesn't even reach the part where i check the size (Content-Length) of the image and calculate a proper sample size. I wasn't aware that simply calling DefaultHttpClient.execute(...) will already load the complete content into the memory. Am i doing something wrong? What is the right way to first retrieve the content length and then start reading the content from an InputStream? EDIT To avoid common answers that show how to load images from a URL: i already know how to do that, i have also posted the code above, so why do you keep referencing tutorials on that? I explicitly was very clear about the problem: Why is HttpClient.execute(...)already fetching the whole content and storing it in memory instead of providing a proper ÌnputStreamto me? Please don't post any beginner tutorials on how to load aBitmap`from a URL...

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  • This Android SDK requires Android Developer Toolkit version 22.0.0 or above. Current version is 21.x.x.

    - by user2626673
    Hi i have a problem with my Eclipse and the SDK (i have download and install the latest ADT Bundle for windows ) when i start my eclipse i get this problem : This Android SDK requires Android Developer Toolkit version 22.0.0 or above. Current version is 20.0.0. please update your SDK tools to the latest version i have tried the option : Help - check for updates But with no new update find then i try this one : How to Update your ADT to Latest Version In Eclipse go to Help Install New Software ---> Add inside Add Repository write the Name: ADT (or whatever you want) and Location: https://dl-ssl.google.com/android/eclipse/ after loading you should get Developer Tools and NDK Plugins check both if you want to use the Native Developer Kit (NDK) in the future or check Developer Tool only click Next Finish But i dont have the option to click next to finish (the back , next and finish options are grey ) Then i try this method : Go here download latest version of ADT-22.0.4.zip (*) At Eclipse > Help > Install new software... > Uncheck Contact all update sites during install to find required software (last bottom preference) that will avoid any unwanted delays during install. then at the same screen (top) Click Add > Archive > select downloaded ADT-X.X.X.zip > follow on screen installation steps But had the same problem when it was to finish the installation.. no option to click ''next'' then i try this one : Help – Install New Software in the ADT menu. Type https://dl-ssl.google.com/android/eclipse/site.xml in “Work with:” and Enter. You can see the “Developer Tools” item. Select it and click Next. Click Next one more. Click Finish accepting the terms of the license agreements. Click OK in the “Security Warning” window. Let the installer restart ADT after installing the tools. But and in this option have the same problem as above.. can click the ''next'' to finish http://i30.photobucket.com/albums/c316/caslor_1978/diafora/atdproblem_zps0d141b7b.jpg i check my version and it is the latest but have the problem http://i30.photobucket.com/albums/c316/caslor_1978/diafora/atdproblem2_zps81de6317.jpg How can i fix this problem ? any suggestion? Win7 / 32bit / java SE Development kit7 update 25

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  • C++: Trouble with Pointers, loop variables, and structs

    - by Rosarch
    Consider the following example: #include <iostream> #include <sstream> #include <vector> #include <wchar.h> #include <stdlib.h> using namespace std; struct odp { int f; wchar_t* pstr; }; int main() { vector<odp> vec; ostringstream ss; wchar_t base[5]; wcscpy_s(base, L"1234"); for (int i = 0; i < 4; i++) { odp foo; foo.f = i; wchar_t loopStr[1]; foo.pstr = loopStr; // wchar_t* = wchar_t ? Why does this work? foo.pstr[0] = base[i]; vec.push_back(foo); } for (vector<odp>::iterator iter = vec.begin(); iter != vec.end(); iter++) { cout << "Vec contains: " << iter->f << ", " << *(iter->pstr) << endl; } } This produces: Vec contains: 0, 52 Vec contains: 1, 52 Vec contains: 2, 52 Vec contains: 3, 52 I would hope that each time, iter->f and iter->pstr would yield a different result. Unfortunately, iter->pstr is always the same. My suspicion is that each time through the loop, a new loopStr is created. Instead of copying it into the struct, I'm only copying a pointer. The location that the pointer writes to is getting overwritten. How can I avoid this? Is it possible to solve this problem without allocating memory on the heap?

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  • Problem with character encoding on email sent via PHP?

    - by cosgrove
    Hi everybody, Having some trouble sending properly formatted HTML e-mail from a PHP script. I am running PHP 5.3.0 and Apache 2.2.11 on Windows XP Professional. The output looks like this: Agent Summary for Support on Tuesday April 20 2010=20 Ext. Name Time Volume 137 Agent Name 01:27:25 1 138 =09 00:00:00 0 139 =09 00:00:00 0 You see the =20 and =09 in there? If you look at the HTML you also see = signs being turned into =3D. I figure this is a character encoding issue as I read the following at Wikipedia: ISO-8859-1 and Windows-1252 confusion It is very common to mislabel text data with the charset label ISO-8859-1, even though the data is really Windows-1252 encoded. In Windows-1252, codes between 0x80 and 0x9F are used for letters and punctuation, whereas they are control codes in ISO-8859-1. Many web browsers and e-mail clients will interpret ISO-8859-1 control codes as Windows-1252 characters in order to accommodate such mislabeling but it is not standard behaviour and care should be taken to avoid generating these characters in ISO-8859-1 labeled content. This looks like the problem but I don't know how to fix. My code looks like this: ob_start(); report_queue_summary($yesterday,$yesterday,$first_extension,$last_extension,$queue); $body_report = ob_get_contents(); ob_end_clean(); $body_footer = "This is an automatically generated e-mail."; $message = new Mail_mime(); $html = $body_header.$body_report.$body_footer; $message->setHTMLBody($html); $body = $message->get(); $extraheaders = array("From"=>"***redacted***","To"=>$recipient, "Subject"=>"Agent Summary for $yesterday [$queue]", "Content-type"=>"text/html; charset=iso-8859-1"); $headers = $message->headers($extraheaders); # setup e-mail; $host = "*********"; $port = "26"; $username = "*****"; $password = "*****"; # Send e-mail $smtp = Mail::factory('smtp', array ('host' => $host, 'port' => $port, 'auth' => true, 'username' => $username, 'password' => $password)); $mail = $smtp->send($recipient, $extraheaders, $body); if (PEAR::isError($mail)) { echo("" . $mail->getMessage() . ""); } else { echo("Message successfully sent!"); } Is the problem that I'm using output buffering?

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  • choosing an image locally from http url and serving that image without a server round trip

    - by serverman
    Hi folks I am a complete novice to Flash (never created anything in flash). I am quite familiar with web applications (J2EE based) and have a reasonable expertise in Javascript. Here is my requirement. I want the user to select (via an html form) an image. Normally in the post, this image would be sent to server and may be stored there to be served later. I do not want that. I want to store this image locally and then serve it via HTTP to the user. So, the flow is: 1. Go to the "select image url":mywebsite.com/selectImage Browse the image and select the image This would transfer control locally to some code running on the client (Javascript or flash), which would then store the image locally at some place on the client machine. Go to the "show image url": mywebsite.com/showImage This would eventually result in some client code running on the browser that retrieves the image and renders it (without any server round trips.) I considered the following options: Use HTML5 local storage. Since I am a complete novice to flash, I looked into this. I found that it is fairly straightforward to store and retrieve images in javascript (only strings are allowed but I am hoping storing base64 encoded strings would work at least for small images). However, how do I serve the image via http url that points to my server without a server round trip? I saw the interesting article at http://hacks.mozilla.org/category/fileapi/ but that would work only in firefox and I need to work on all latest browsers (at least the ones supporting HTML5 local storage) Use flash SharedObjects. OK, this would have been good - the only thing is I am not sure where to start. Snippets of actionscripts to do this are scattered everywhere but I do not know how to use those scripts in an actual html page:) I do not need to create any movies or anything - just need to store an image and serve it locally. If I go this route, I would also use it to store other "strings" locally. If you suggest this, please give me the exact steps (could be pointers to other web sites) on how to do this. I would like to avoid paying for any flash development environment software ideally:) Thank you!

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  • What is the most idiomatic way to emulating Perl's Test::More::done_testing?

    - by DVK
    I have to build unit tests for in environment with a very old version of Test::More (perl5.8 with $Test::More::VERSION being '0.80') which predates the addition of done_testing(). Upgrading to newer Test::More is out of the question for practical reasons. And I am trying to avoid using no_tests - it's generally a bad idea not catching when your unit test exits prematurely - say due to some logic not executing when you expected it to. What is the most idiomatic way of running a configurable amount of tests, assuming no no_tests or done_testing() is used? Details: My unit tests usually take the form of: use Test::More; my @test_set = ( [ "Test #1", $param1, $param2, ... ] ,[ "Test #1", $param1, $param2, ... ] # ,... ); foreach my $test (@test_set) { run_test($test); } sub run_test { # $expected_tests += count_tests($test); ok(test1($test)) || diag("Test1 failed"); # ... } The standard approach of use Test::More tests => 23; or BEGIN {plan tests => 23} does not work since both are obviously executed before @tests is known. My current approach involves making @tests global and defining it in the BEGIN {} block as follows: use Test::More; BEGIN { our @test_set = (); # Same set of tests as above my $expected_tests = 0; foreach my $test (@tests) { my $expected_tests += count_tests($test); } plan tests = $expected_tests; } our @test_set; # Must do!!! Since first "our" was in BEGIN's scope :( foreach my $test (@test_set) { run_test($test); } # Same sub run_test {} # Same I feel this can be done more idiomatically but not certain how to improve. Chief among the smells is the duplicate our @test_test declarations - in BEGIN{} and after it. Another approach is to emulate done_testing() by calling Test::More->builder->plan(tests=>$total_tests_calculated). I'm not sure if it's any better idiomatically-wise.

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