Search Results

Search found 8557 results on 343 pages for 'attribute exchange'.

Page 296/343 | < Previous Page | 292 293 294 295 296 297 298 299 300 301 302 303  | Next Page >

  • How to set QNetworkReply properties to get correct NCBI pages?

    - by Claire Huang
    I try to get this following url using the downloadURL function: http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/nuccore/27884304 But the data is not as what we can see through the browser. Now I know it's because that I need to give the correct information such as browser, how can I know what kind of information I need to set, and how can I set it? (By setHeader function??) In VC++, we can use CInternetSession and CHttpConnection Object to get the correct information without setting any other detail information, is there any similar way in Qt or other cross-platform C++ network lib?? (Yes, I need the the cross-platform property.) QNetworkReply::NetworkError downloadURL(const QUrl &url, QByteArray &data) { QNetworkAccessManager manager; QNetworkRequest request(url); request.setHeader(QNetworkRequest::ContentTypeHeader ,"Mozilla/5.0 (Windows; U; Windows NT 6.0; en-US; rv:1.9.1.7) Gecko/20091221 Firefox/3.5.7 (.NET CLR 3.5.30729)"); QNetworkReply *reply = manager.get(request); QEventLoop loop; QObject::connect(reply, SIGNAL(finished()), &loop, SLOT(quit())); loop.exec(); QVariant statusCodeV = reply->attribute(QNetworkRequest::RedirectionTargetAttribute); QUrl redirectTo = statusCodeV.toUrl(); if (!redirectTo.isEmpty()) { if (redirectTo.host().isEmpty()) { const QByteArray newaddr = ("http://"+url.host()+redirectTo.encodedPath()).toAscii(); redirectTo.setEncodedUrl(newaddr); redirectTo.setHost(url.host()); } return (downloadURL(redirectTo, data)); } if (reply->error() != QNetworkReply::NoError) { return reply->error(); } data = reply->readAll(); delete reply; return QNetworkReply::NoError; }

    Read the article

  • Form values in a list item

    - by Tri
    Here is the site mock-up I'm working on for my job: http://dev.arm.gov/~noensie/dqhands/cgi-bin/explorer. I'm still a novice in web developing and I need help with placing form values in a list item to pass on to another page. I'd rather not go in great detail the purpose of this website, but in terms of its basic use, select the parameters in the middle column for a request and add it to the list on the right column by pressing on "add request" button when it appears. After the list have been populated, a user would submit the selected requests, which will direct them to another page based on the requests selected (or added to the list, same thing). That last sentence is where I'm having a problem. Right now, each of request in the list in the right column are <li> elements and I assign them attribute values that needed to be passed on to the next page. I tried inserting a hidden input with same values, but I'm still not sure how to utilize that; I'm not even sure using the hidden input is the correct way. Also the "submit request" button is located outside the <form> block. I was going to utilize javascript and jQuery to enable the button to serialize the values in the <form> block, but I don't know quite how to do that. Go ahead and take a look at my javascript code (index.js) and slay me, or, I mean, my code. It's still pretty elementary and short (~260 lines, that's short right?). I will take any help for this problem (as the matter of fact, if you see any other problems or a better way of implementation of something, go ahead and mention that too); tips, advice, code samples, or whatever else you can contribute, it will be greatly appreciated. Tri

    Read the article

  • Using Javascript to flip flop a textbox's readonly flag

    - by Velika
    I have a frame with several radio buttons where the user is supposed to select the "Category" that his Occupation falls into and then unconditionally also specify his occupation. If the user selects "Retired", the requirement is to prefill "Retired" in the "Specify Occupation" text box and to disable it to prevent it from being changed. The Specify Occupation text box should also no longer be a tab stop. If the user selects a radio button other than Retired the Specify Occupation text box should be enabled and once again in the normal tab sequence. Originally, I was setting and clearing the disabled property on the Specify occupation textbox, then I found out that, upon submitting the form, disabled fields are excluded from the submit and the REQUIRED validator on the Specify Occupation textbox was being raised because the textbox was being blanked out. What is the best way to solve this? My approach below was to mimic a disabled text box by setting/resetting the readonly attribute on the text box and changing the background color to make it appear disabled. (I suppose I should be changing the forecolor instead of teh background color). Nevertheless, my code to make the textbox readonly and to reset it doesn't appear to be working. function OccupationOnClick(sender) { debugger; var optOccupationRetired = document.getElementById("<%= optOccupationRetired.ClientId %>"); var txtSpecifyOccupation = document.getElementById("<%= txtSpecifyOccupation.ClientId %>"); var optOccupationOther = document.getElementById("<%= optOccupationOther.ClientId %>"); if (sender == optOccupationRetired) { txtSpecifyOccupation.value = "Retired" txtSpecifyOccupation.readonly = "readonly"; txtSpecifyOccupation.style.backgroundColor = "#E0E0E0"; txtSpecifyOccupation.tabIndex = -1; } else { if (txtSpecifyOccupation.value == "Retired") txtSpecifyOccupation.value = ""; txtSpecifyOccupation.style.backgroundColor = "#FFFFFF"; txtSpecifyOccupation.readonly = ""; txtSpecifyOccupation.tabIndex = 0; } } Can someone provide a suggest for the best way to handle this scenario and porovide a tweek to the code above to fix the setting/resetting on the readonly property?

    Read the article

  • documenting class attributes

    - by intuited
    I'm writing a lightweight class whose attributes are intended to be publicly accessible, and only sometimes overridden in specific instantiations. There's no provision in the Python language for creating docstrings for class attributes, or any sort of attributes, for that matter. What is the accepted way, should there be one, to document these attributes? Currently I'm doing this sort of thing: class Albatross(object): """A bird with a flight speed exceeding that of an unladen swallow. Attributes: """ flight_speed = 691 __doc__ += """ flight_speed (691) The maximum speed that such a bird can attain. """ nesting_grounds = "Raymond Luxury-Yacht" __doc__ += """ nesting_grounds ("Raymond Luxury-Yacht") The locale where these birds congregate to reproduce. """ def __init__(**keyargs): """Initialize the Albatross from the keyword arguments.""" self.__dict__.update(keyargs) Although this style doesn't seem to be expressly forbidden in the docstring style guidelines, it's also not mentioned as an option. The advantage here is that it provides a way to document attributes alongside their definitions, while still creating a presentable class docstring, and avoiding having to write comments that reiterate the information from the docstring. I'm still kind of annoyed that I have to actually write the attributes twice; I'm considering using the string representations of the values in the docstring to at least avoid duplication of the default values. Is this a heinous breach of the ad hoc community conventions? Is it okay? Is there a better way? For example, it's possible to create a dictionary containing values and docstrings for the attributes and then add the contents to the class __dict__ and docstring towards the end of the class declaration; this would alleviate the need to type the attribute names and values twice. edit: this last idea is, I think, not actually possible, at least not without dynamically building the class from data, which seems like a really bad idea unless there's some other reason to do that. I'm pretty new to python and still working out the details of coding style, so unrelated critiques are also welcome.

    Read the article

  • Can't override "From" address in MailMessage class using .config login credentials

    - by Jeff
    I'm updating some existing code that sends a simple email using .Net's SMTP classes. Sample code is below. The SMTP host is google and login info is contained in the App.config as shown below (obviously not real login info :)). The problem I'm having, and I haven't been able to find any answers Googling, is that I can NOT override the display of the "from" email address that's contained in the "username" attribute off the Network element in the config in the delivered email. In the line below that explicitly sets the From property off the myMailMessage object, that value, "[email protected]" does NOT display when the email is received. It still shows as "[email protected]" from the Network tag. However, the From name "Sparky" does appear in the email. I've tried adding a custom "From" header to the Header property of the myMailMessage but that didn't work either. Is there anyway to login to the smtp server, as shown below using the Network tag credentials, but in the actual email received override the From email address that's displayed? Sample code: MailMessage myMailMessage = new MailMessage(); myMailMessage.Subject = "My New Mail"; myMailMessage.Body = "This is my test mail to check"; myMailMessage.From = new MailAddress("[email protected]", "Sparky"); myMailMessage.To.Add(new MailAddress("[email protected]", "receiver name")); SmtpClient mySmtpClient = new SmtpClient(); mySmtpClient.Send(myMailMessage); in App.config: <system.net> <mailSettings> <smtp deliveryMethod="Network" from="[email protected]"> <network host="smtp.gmail.com" port="587" userName="[email protected]" password="mypassword" defaultCredentials="false"/> </smtp> </mailSettings> </system.net>

    Read the article

  • PHP $_SERVER['HTTP_HOST'] vs. $_SERVER['SERVER_NAME'], am I understanding the man pages correctly?

    - by Jeff
    I did a lot of searching and also read the PHP $_SERVER man page. Do I have this right regarding which to use for my PHP scripts for simple link definitions used throughout my site? $_SERVER['SERVER_NAME'] is based on your web servers' config file (Apache2 in my case), and varies depending on a few directives: (1) VirtualHost, (2) ServerName, (3) UseCanonicalName, etc. $_SERVER['HTTP_HOST'] is based on the request from the client. Therefore, it would seem to me that the proper one to use in order to make my scripts as compatible as possible would be $_SERVER['HTTP_HOST']. Is this assumption correct? Followup comments: I guess I got a little paranoid after reading this article and noting that someone said "they wouldn't trust any of the $_SERVER vars": http://markjaquith.wordpress.com/2009/09/21/php-server-vars-not-safe-in-forms-or-links/ and also: http://www.php.net/manual/en/reserved.variables.server.php (comment: Vladimir Kornea 14-Mar-2009 01:06) Apparently the discussion is mainly about $_SERVER['PHP_SELF'] and why you shouldn't use it in the form action attribute without proper escaping to prevent XSS attacks. My conclusion about my original question above is that it is "safe" to use $_SERVER['HTTP_HOST'] for all links on a site without having to worry about XSS attacks, even when used in forms. Please correct me if I'm wrong.

    Read the article

  • Page_PreRender fires twice on first load in session

    - by awe
    I have an issue when I access the application, I notice that Page_PreRender is fired twice. This only happens the first time in a new session. It does not happen if I refresh the page, or on postbacks. I use .NET framework 3.5 and the built in ajax functionality. I think the problem is not related to img tag with empty src attribute as I have seen other posts has mentioned, because I see this in both FireFox and IE. The posts I saw about this stated that this was not a problem in IE. I have also searched and found no img tags with empty src in the generated page source, so it should not be this. I have also made a simple test page where I have included some of the functionality, and this does not happen. Here I have also tried to reproduce the empty src bug by including <img src="" /> on the page, but this does not trigger this problem. Have anyone any suggestions on what happens? Note: It is the entire page cycle that is firing twice, not just render.

    Read the article

  • BindingList<T> and reflection!

    - by Aren B
    Background Working in .NET 2.0 Here, reflecting lists in general. I was originally using t.IsAssignableFrom(typeof(IEnumerable)) to detect if a Property I was traversing supported the IEnumerable Interface. (And thus I could cast the object to it safely) However this code was not evaluating to True when the object is a BindingList<T>. Next I tried to use t.IsSubclassOf(typeof(IEnumerable)) and didn't have any luck either. Code /// <summary> /// Reflects an enumerable (not a list, bad name should be fixed later maybe?) /// </summary> /// <param name="o">The Object the property resides on.</param> /// <param name="p">The Property We're reflecting on</param> /// <param name="rla">The Attribute tagged to this property</param> public void ReflectList(object o, PropertyInfo p, ReflectedListAttribute rla) { Type t = p.PropertyType; //if (t.IsAssignableFrom(typeof(IEnumerable))) if (t.IsSubclassOf(typeof(IEnumerable))) { IEnumerable e = p.GetValue(o, null) as IEnumerable; int count = 0; if (e != null) { foreach (object lo in e) { if (count >= rla.MaxRows) break; ReflectObject(lo, count); count++; } } } } The Intent I want to basically tag lists i want to reflect through with the ReflectedListAttribute and call this function on the properties that has it. (Already Working) Once inside this function, given the object the property resides on, and the PropertyInfo related, get the value of the property, cast it to an IEnumerable (assuming it's possible) and then iterate through each child and call ReflectObject(...) on the child with the count variable.

    Read the article

  • XSLT Built-in Template Rules for attributes

    - by Martin Smith
    I'm sure that this is an extremely basic question but here goes anyway! I have read that the built in template rule for text and attribute nodes in XSLT is <xsl:template match="text()|@*"> <xsl:value-of select="."/> </xsl:template> However for the source document <?xml version="1.0"?> <booker> <award> <author blah="test">Aravind Adiga</author> <title>The White Tiger</title> <year>2008</year> </award> </booker> And XSLT <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <xsl:stylesheet version="1.0" xmlns:xsl="http://www.w3.org/1999/XSL/Transform"> <xsl:output method="text"/> </xsl:stylesheet> I get the following output applying the transform in Visual Studio. Can someone please explain why I don't see "test" in the output? Aravind Adiga The White Tiger 2008

    Read the article

  • Loop XML including all its children using xpath and SimpleXMLElement

    - by Andersson
    Im having a big xml tree with a simple structure. All I want to do is get a node by its attribute using xpath and loop the children. param1 - correct language param1 & param3 - correct node by its id and the parents id. (Need to use parent id when multiplie id appears. The id is not declared as id in DTD) public function getSubmenuNodesRe($language, $id1,$id2) { $result = $this->xml->xpath("//*[@language='$language']//*[@id='$id1']//menuitem[@id='$id2']/*"); return $result; } This works well, I get the node Im expecting. I having no problems looping the array returned by the xpath query. But when i try to loop childnodes all attributes are gone and many of the methods also. Except getName(). function printNodeName($node) { echo $node->getName(). " - \"" . $node['id']. "\"<br>"; if($node->children()->getName() == "menuitem") { $s = $node->children(); printNodeName($s); } } $result = $xmlNode->getSubmenuNodesRe($_GET['language'], 'foo','bar'); if ($result) { while(list( , $node) = each($result)) { if ($node->getName() == "menuitem") { printNodeName($node); } } } Why is that? only the name will be printed for the $s. Really need help to solve this one, any assistance is deeply appreciated! Thanks for your time.

    Read the article

  • About Data Objects and DAO Design when using Hibernate

    - by X. Ma
    I'm hesitating between two designs of a database project using Hibernate. Design #1. (1) Create a general data provider interface, including a set of DAO interfaces and general data container classes. It hides the underneath implementation. A data provider implementation could access data in database, or an XML file, or a service, or something else. The user of a data provider does not to know about it. (2) Create a database library with Hibernate. This library implements the data provider interface in (1). The bad thing about Design #1 is that in order to hide the implementation details, I need to create two sets of data container classes. One in the general data provider interface - let's call them DPI-Objects, the other set is used in the database library, exclusively for entity/attribute mapping in Hibernate - let's call them H-Objects. In the DAO implementation, I need to read data from database to create H-Objects (via Hibernate) and then convert H-Objects into DPI-Objects. Design #2. Do not create a general data provider interface. Expose H-Objects directly to components that use the database lib. So the user of the database library needs to be aware of Hibernate. I like design #1 more, but I don't want to create two sets of data container classes. Is that the right way to hide H-Objects and other Hibernate implementation details from the user who uses the database-based data provider? Are there any drawbacks of Design #2? I will not implement other data provider in the new future, so should I just forget about the data provider interface and use Design #2? What do you think about this? Thanks for your time!

    Read the article

  • How do I test database-related code with NUnit?

    - by Michael Haren
    I want to write unit tests with NUnit that hit the database. I'd like to have the database in a consistent state for each test. I thought transactions would allow me to "undo" each test so I searched around and found several articles from 2004-05 on the topic: http://weblogs.asp.net/rosherove/archive/2004/07/12/180189.aspx http://weblogs.asp.net/rosherove/archive/2004/10/05/238201.aspx http://davidhayden.com/blog/dave/archive/2004/07/12/365.aspx http://haacked.com/archive/2005/12/28/11377.aspx These seem to resolve around implementing a custom attribute for NUnit which builds in the ability to rollback DB operations after each test executes. That's great but... Does this functionality exists somewhere in NUnit natively? Has this technique been improved upon in the last 4 years? Is this still the best way to test database-related code? Edit: it's not that I want to test my DAL specifically, it's more that I want to test pieces of my code that interact with the database. For these tests to be "no-touch" and repeatable, it'd be awesome if I could reset the database after each one. Further, I want to ease this into an existing project that has no testing place at the moment. For that reason, I can't practically script up a database and data from scratch for each test.

    Read the article

  • Base class deleted before subclass during python __del__ processing

    - by Oddthinking
    Context I am aware that if I ask a question about Python destructors, the standard argument will be to use contexts instead. Let me start by explaining why I am not doing that. I am writing a subclass to logging.Handler. When an instance is closed, it posts a sentinel value to a Queue.Queue. If it doesn't, a second thread will be left running forever, waiting for Queue.Queue.get() to complete. I am writing this with other developers in mind, so I don't want a failure to call close() on a handler object to cause the program to hang. Therefore, I am adding a check in __del__() to ensure the object was closed properly. I understand circular references may cause it to fail in some circumstances. There's not a lot I can do about that. Problem Here is some simple example code: explicit_delete = True class Base: def __del__(self): print "Base class cleaning up." class Sub(Base): def __del__(self): print "Sub-class cleaning up." Base.__del__(self) x = Sub() if explicit_delete: del x print "End of thread" When I run this I get, as expected: Sub-class cleaning up. Base class cleaning up. End of thread If I set explicit_delete to False in the first line, I get: End of thread Sub-class cleaning up. Exception AttributeError: "'NoneType' object has no attribute '__del__'" in <bound method Sub.__del__ of <__main__.Sub instance at 0x00F0B698>> ignored It seems the definition of Base is removed before the x._del_() is called. The Python Documentation on _del_() warns that the subclass needs to call the base-class to get a clean deletion, but here that appears to be impossible. Can you see where I made a bad step?

    Read the article

  • jQuery server ping slowly but surely filling memory?

    - by danspants
    I use the following piece of code to test if our server is running whilst the user is in a page. I've also started adding other functions that grab small amounts of data that are constantly changing and are to be relayed to the user (Files waiting for download, messages, reports etc). I've noticed recently that if I leave any page open (all pages contain the same function), the browser takes up more and more system memory which I can only attribute to this regular task (overnight it reached 1.6 gb). Is there some way of clearing out the data that is being accumulated? Is this normal behaviour? As far as i can tell, every time I call the function it should overwrite the previously retrieved data? function testServer(){ jQuery.ajax({ type:"HEAD", url:"/media/d_arrow_blue.png", error: function(msg) { jQuery.jGrowl("Server Disconnected"); } }); //retrieves count of files awaiting download - move to seperate function jQuery.get("/get_files/",{"type":"count"},function(data) { jQuery("#downloadList").children("div").text(data); }); }; jQuery().doTimeout(6000,function() { testServer(); return true; });

    Read the article

  • A doubt on DOM parser used with Python

    - by fixxxer
    I'm using the following python code to search for a node in an XML file and changing the value of an attribute of one of it's children.Changes are happening correctly when the node is displayed using toxml().But, when it is written to a file, the attributes rearrange themselves(as seen in the Source and the Final XML below). Could anyone explain how and why this happen? Python code: #!/usr/bin/env python import xml from xml.dom.minidom import parse dom=parse("max.xml") #print "Please enter the store name:" for sku in dom.getElementsByTagName("node"): if sku.getAttribute("name") == "store": sku.childNodes[1].childNodes[5].setAttribute("value","Delhi,India") print sku.toxml() xml.dom.ext.PrettyPrint(dom, open("new.xml", "w")) a part of the Source XML: <node name='store' node_id='515' module='mpx.lib.node.simple_value.SimpleValue' config_builder='' inherant='false' description='Configurable Value'> <match> <property name='1' value='point'/> <property name='2' value='0'/> <property name='val' value='Store# 09204 Staten Island, NY'/> <property name='3' value='str'/> </match> </node> Final XML : <node config_builder="" description="Configurable Value" inherant="false" module="mpx.lib.node.simple_value.SimpleValue" name="store" node_id="515"> <match> <property name="1" value="point"/> <property name="2" value="0"/> <property name="val" value="Delhi,India"/> <property name="3" value="str"/> </match> </node>

    Read the article

  • Exception Handling in ASP.NET MVC and Ajax - [HandleException] filter

    - by Graham
    All, I'm learning MVC and using it for a business app (MVC 1.0). I'm really struggling to get my head around exception handling. I've spent a lot of time on the web but not found anything along the lines of what I'm after. We currently use a filter attribute that implements IExceptionFilter. We decorate a base controller class with this so all server side exceptions are nicely routed to an exception page that displays the error and performs logging. I've started to use AJAX calls that return JSON data but when the server side implementation throws an error, the filter is fired but the page does not redirect to the Error page - it just stays on the page that called the AJAX method. Is there any way to force the redirect on the server (e.g. a ASP.NET Server.Transfer or redirect?) I've read that I must return a JSON object (wrapping the .NET Exception) and then redirect on the client, but then I can't guarantee the client will redirect... but then (although I'm probably doing something wrong) the server attempts to redirect but then gets an unauthorised exception (the base controller is secured but the Exception controller is not as it does not inherit from this) Has anybody please got a simple example (.NET and jQuery code). I feel like I'm randomly trying things in the hope it will work Exception Filter so far... public class HandleExceptionAttribute : FilterAttribute, IExceptionFilter { #region IExceptionFilter Members public void OnException(ExceptionContext filterContext) { if (filterContext.ExceptionHandled) { return; } filterContext.Controller.TempData[CommonLookup.ExceptionObject] = filterContext.Exception; if (filterContext.HttpContext.Request.IsAjaxRequest()) { filterContext.Result = AjaxException(filterContext.Exception.Message, filterContext); } else { //Redirect to global handler filterContext.Result = new RedirectToRouteResult(new RouteValueDictionary(new { controller = AvailableControllers.Exception, action = AvailableActions.HandleException })); filterContext.ExceptionHandled = true; filterContext.HttpContext.Response.Clear(); } } #endregion private JsonResult AjaxException(string message, ExceptionContext filterContext) { if (string.IsNullOrEmpty(message)) { message = "Server error"; //TODO: Replace with better message } filterContext.HttpContext.Response.StatusCode = (int)HttpStatusCode.InternalServerError; filterContext.HttpContext.Response.TrySkipIisCustomErrors = true; //Needed for IIS7.0 return new JsonResult { Data = new { ErrorMessage = message }, ContentEncoding = Encoding.UTF8, }; } }

    Read the article

  • Javascript for loop with variable

    - by Jascination
    I'm doing some simple javascript learning at the moment and I'm stuck on how to solve this problem. (the basic form comes from Code Academy). The task is to create 3 rabbit objects, each with a different adjective as an attribute. Then, print describeMyself() for each rabbit. Instead of repeating myself 3 times, I'd like to find a way to solve the problem with a for loop to make it more streamlined/challenging for myself. Here's what I tried: function Rabbit(adjective) { this.adjective = adjective; this.describeMyself = function() { console.log("I am a " + this.adjective + " rabbit"); }; } var rabbit1 = new Rabbit(fluffy); var rabbit2 = new Rabbit(happy); var rabbit3 = new Rabbit(sleepy); for (i=1; i<=3; i++){ ("rabbit"+i).describeMyself(); } Obviously, the ("rabbit"+i).describeMyself() is wrong. I want the loop to create "rabbit1", "rabbit2" and "rabbit3". What's the proper syntax here?

    Read the article

  • Can I use manifests to consume a COM server without specifying its version?

    - by sharptooth
    Two of our programs use the same COM server (also made by us) with the same class ids. Each program when installing copies the COM server files into its folder and regsvr32s the COM server. The problem is how to install the COM server so that the user can install either one or both of our programs into different folders in any order and likely of different versions. Clearly it's impossible without changing the class ids and that's lots of hassle with configurations. Ideally we would like to use manifests for that and go without regsvr32. The problem is every time I read about reg-free COM (for example, here) there's the version attribute in the assemblyIdentity. The version number should change every nightly build and I totally don't like the idea of (automatically) adjusting it. I understand why specifying dependency on a specific version is good, but it's completely useless in our scenarion. Is there a way to write manifests for both the COM server and the consumer so that they don't specify versions and just work with whatever version of the file happens to be in the folder? Also is there a way to restrict the search to the same folder as the consumer?

    Read the article

  • WHy am I unable to add text along with <%# Container.DataItem %> in repeater in user control

    - by Jamie Hartnoll
    I have a User Control which is dynamically placed by CodeBehind as follows: Dim myControl As Control = CType(Page.LoadControl("~/Controls/mainMenu.ascx"), Control) If InStr(Request.ServerVariables("url"), "/Login.aspx") <= 0 Then mainMenu.Controls.Add(myControl) End If As per an example from my previous question on here. Within this Control is a repeater which calls a database to generate values. My Repeater mark-up is as follows <asp:Repeater runat="server" ID="locationRepeater" OnItemDataBound="getQuestionCount"> <ItemTemplate> <p id='locationQuestions' title='<%# Container.DataItem %>' runat='server'></p> </ItemTemplate> </asp:Repeater> The example above works fine, but I want to be able to prepend text to <%# Container.DataItem %> in the title attribute of that <p to print to the browser like this is some text DATA_ITEM_OUTPUT When I try to do that though, it prints this is some text <%# Container.DataItem %> exactly like that, ie, turning <%# Container.DataItem %> into text, NOT the value from the repeater code. It was working fine before I made it into a dynamically inserted control, so I am thinking I might have something being generated in the wrong order, but given that it works without any prepended text, I am stumped to fix it! I'm new to .net and using vb.net, please could someone point me in the right direction?

    Read the article

  • Generating JavaScript in C# and subsequent testing

    - by Codebrain
    We are currently developing an ASP.NET MVC application which makes heavy use of attribute-based metadata to drive the generation of JavaScript. Below is a sample of the type of methods we are writing: function string GetJavascript<T>(string javascriptPresentationFunctionName, string inputId, T model) { return @"function updateFormInputs(value){ $('#" + inputId + @"_SelectedItemState').val(value); $('#" + inputId + @"_Presentation').val(value); } function clearInputs(){ " + helper.ClearHiddenInputs<T>(model) + @" updateFormInputs(''); } function handleJson(json){ clearInputs(); " + helper.UpdateHiddenInputsWithJson<T>("json", model) + @" updateFormInputs(" + javascriptPresentationFunctionName + @"()); " + model.GetCallBackFunctionForJavascript("json") + @" }"; } This method generates some boilerplace and hands off to various other methods which return strings. The whole lot is then returned as a string and written to the output. The question(s) I have are: 1) Is there a nicer way to do this other than using large string blocks? We've considered using a StringBuilder or the Response Stream but it seems quite 'noisy'. Using string.format starts to become difficult to comprehend. 2) How would you go about unit testing this code? It seems a little amateur just doing a string comparison looking for particular output in the string. 3) What about actually testing the eventual JavaScript output? Thanks for your input!

    Read the article

  • PostgreSQL - Error: SQL state: XX000.

    - by rob
    I have a table in Postgres that looks like this: CREATE TABLE "Population" ( "Id" bigint NOT NULL DEFAULT nextval('"population_Id_seq"'::regclass), "Name" character varying(255) NOT NULL, "Description" character varying(1024), "IsVisible" boolean NOT NULL CONSTRAINT "pk_Population" PRIMARY KEY ("Id") ) WITH ( OIDS=FALSE ); And a select function that looks like this: CREATE OR REPLACE FUNCTION "Population_SelectAll"() RETURNS SETOF "Population" AS $BODY$select "Id", "Name", "Description", "IsVisible" from "Population"; $BODY$ LANGUAGE 'sql' STABLE COST 100 Calling the select function returns all the rows in the table as expected. I have a need to add a couple of columns to the table (both of which are foreign keys to other tables in the database). This gives me a new table def as follows: CREATE TABLE "Population" ( "Id" bigint NOT NULL DEFAULT nextval('"population_Id_seq"'::regclass), "Name" character varying(255) NOT NULL, "Description" character varying(1024), "IsVisible" boolean NOT NULL, "DefaultSpeciesId" bigint NOT NULL, "DefaultEcotypeId" bigint NOT NULL, CONSTRAINT "pk_Population" PRIMARY KEY ("Id"), CONSTRAINT "fk_Population_DefaultEcotypeId" FOREIGN KEY ("DefaultEcotypeId") REFERENCES "Ecotype" ("Id") MATCH SIMPLE ON UPDATE NO ACTION ON DELETE NO ACTION, CONSTRAINT "fk_Population_DefaultSpeciesId" FOREIGN KEY ("DefaultSpeciesId") REFERENCES "Species" ("Id") MATCH SIMPLE ON UPDATE NO ACTION ON DELETE NO ACTION ) WITH ( OIDS=FALSE ); and function: CREATE OR REPLACE FUNCTION "Population_SelectAll"() RETURNS SETOF "Population" AS $BODY$select "Id", "Name", "Description", "IsVisible", "DefaultSpeciesId", "DefaultEcotypeId" from "Population"; $BODY$ LANGUAGE 'sql' STABLE COST 100 ROWS 1000; Calling the function after these changes results in the following error message: ERROR: could not find attribute 11 in subquery targetlist SQL state: XX000 What is causing this error and how do I fix it? I have tried to drop and recreate the columns and function - but the same error occurs. Platform is PostgreSQL 8.4 running on Windows Server. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • jsTree: How to create a new ID for the new added node?

    - by marknt15
    Hi, I can normally get the ID of the default tree nodes but my problem is onCreate then jsTree will add a new node but it doesn't have an ID. My question is how can I add an ID to the newly created tree node? What I'm thinking to do is adding the ID HTML attribute to the newly created tree node but how? I need to get the ID of all of the nodes because it will serve as a reference for the node's respective div storage. HTML code: <div class="demo" id="demo_1"> <ul> <li id="phtml_1" class="file"><a href="#"><ins>&nbsp;</ins>Root node 1</a></li> <li id="phtml_2" class="file"><a href="#"><ins>&nbsp;</ins>Root node 2</a></li> </ul> </div> JS code: $("#demo_1").tree({ ui : { theme_name : "apple" }, callback : { onrename : function (NODE, TREE_OBJ) { alert(TREE_OBJ.get_text(NODE)); alert($(NODE).attr('id')); } } }); Cheers, Mark

    Read the article

  • python-iptables: Cryptic error when allowing incoming TCP traffic on port 1234

    - by Lucas Kauffman
    I wanted to write an iptables script in Python. Rather than calling iptables itself I wanted to use the python-iptables package. However I'm having a hard time getting some basic rules setup. I wanted to use the filter chain to accept incoming TCP traffic on port 1234. So I wrote this: import iptc chain = iptc.Chain(iptc.TABLE_FILTER,"INPUT") rule = iptc.Rule() target = iptc.Target(rule,"ACCEPT") match = iptc.Match(rule,'tcp') match.dport='1234' rule.add_match(match) rule.target = target chain.insert_rule(rule) However when I run this I get this thrown back at me: Traceback (most recent call last): File "testing.py", line 9, in <module> chain.insert_rule(rule) File "/usr/local/lib/python2.6/dist-packages/iptc/__init__.py", line 1133, in insert_rule self.table.insert_entry(self.name, rbuf, position) File "/usr/local/lib/python2.6/dist-packages/iptc/__init__.py", line 1166, in new obj.refresh() File "/usr/local/lib/python2.6/dist-packages/iptc/__init__.py", line 1230, in refresh self._free() File "/usr/local/lib/python2.6/dist-packages/iptc/__init__.py", line 1224, in _free self.commit() File "/usr/local/lib/python2.6/dist-packages/iptc/__init__.py", line 1219, in commit raise IPTCError("can't commit: %s" % (self.strerror())) iptc.IPTCError: can't commit: Invalid argument Exception AttributeError: "'NoneType' object has no attribute 'get_errno'" in <bound method Table.__del__ of <iptc.Table object at 0x7fcad56cc550>> ignored Does anyone have experience with python-iptables that could enlighten on what I did wrong?

    Read the article

  • C# Byte[] to Url Friendly String

    - by LorenVS
    Hello, I'm working on a quick captcha generator for a simple site I'm putting together, and I'm hoping to pass an encrypted key in the url of the page. I could probably do this as a query string parameter easy enough, but I'm hoping not too (just because nothing else runs off the query string)... My encryption code produces a byte[], which is then transformed using Convert.ToBase64String(byte[]) into a string. This string, however, is still not quite url friendly, as it can contain things like '/' and '='. Does anyone know of a better function in the .NET framework to convert a byte array to a url friendly string? I know all about System.Web.HttpUtility.UrlEncode() and its equivalents, however, they only work properly with query string parameters. If I url encode an '=' inside of the path, my web server brings back a 400 Bad Request error. Anyways, not a critical issue, but hoping someone can give me a nice solution **EDIT: Just to be absolutely sure exactly what I'm doing with the string, I figured I would supply a little more information. The byte[] that results from my encryption algorithm should be fed through some sort of algorithm to make it into a url friendly string. After this, it becomes the content of an XElement, which is then used as the source document for an XSLT transformation, and is used as a part of the href attribute for an anchor. I don't believe the xslt transformation is causing the issues, since what is coming through on the path appears to be an encoded query string parameter, but causes the HTTP 400 I've also tried HttpUtility.UrlPathEncode() on a base64 string, but that doesn't seem to do the trick either (I still end up with '/'s in my url)**

    Read the article

  • .Net xsd.exe tool doesn't generate all types

    - by Mrchief
    For some reason, MS .Net (v3.5) tool - xsd.exe doesn't generate types when they are not used inside any element. e.g. XSD File (I threw in the complex element to avoid this warning - "Warning: cannot generate classes because no top-level elements with complex type were found."): <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <xs:schema targetNamespace="http://tempuri.org/XMLSchema.xsd" elementFormDefault="qualified" xmlns="http://tempuri.org/XMLSchema.xsd" xmlns:mstns="http://tempuri.org/XMLSchema.xsd" xmlns:xs="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema" > <xs:simpleType name="EnumTest"> <xs:restriction base="xs:string"> <xs:enumeration value="item1" /> <xs:enumeration value="item2" /> <xs:enumeration value="item3" /> </xs:restriction> </xs:simpleType> <xs:complexType name="myComplexType"> <xs:attribute name="Name" use="required" type="xs:string"/> </xs:complexType> <xs:element name="myElem" type="myComplexType"></xs:element> </xs:schema> When i run this thru xsd.exe using xsd /c xsdfile.xsd I don't see EnumTest in the generated cs file. Note; Even though I don't use the enum here, but in my actual project, I have cases like this where we send enum's string value as output. How can I force the xsd tool to include these? Or should I switch to some other tool? I work in Visual Studio 2008.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 292 293 294 295 296 297 298 299 300 301 302 303  | Next Page >