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  • Efficient Method for Preventing Hotlinking via .htaccess

    - by Michael Robinson
    I need to confirm something before I go accuse someone of ... well I'd rather not say. The problem: We allow users to upload images and embed them within text on our site. In the past we allowed users to hotlink to our images as well, but due to server load we unfortunately had to stop this. Current "solution": The method the programmer used to solve our "too many connections" issue was to rename the file that receives and processes image requests (image_request.php) to image_request2.php, and replace the contents of the original with <?php header("HTTP/1.1 500 Internal Server Error") ; ?> Obviously this has caused all images with their src attribute pointing to the original image_request.php to be broken, and is also the wrong code to be sending in this case. Proposed solution: I feel a more elegant solution would be: In .htaccess If the request is for image_request.php Check referrer If referrer is not our site, send the appropriate header If referrer is our site, proceed to image_request.php and process image request What I would like to know is: Compared to simply returning a 500 for each request to image_request.php: How much more load would be incurred if we were to use my proposed alternative solution outlined above? Is there a better way to do this? Our main concern is that the site stays up. I am not willing to agree that breaking all internally linked images is the best / only way to solve this. I refuse to tell our users that because of something WE changed they must now manually change the embed code in all their previously uploaded content.

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  • Parent CSS (jQuery)

    - by Glister
    There is <dl> with padding-top <dl style="padding-top: 150px;"> <dt>text</dt> <dd><img width="150" height="150" src="..." /></dd> <dt>text 2</dt> <dd><img width="150" height="250" src="..." /></dd> <dt>text 3</dt> <dd><img width="150" height="350" src="..." /></dd> </dl> The difference between images - height. Trying to write a script, which will change a height of the <dl>, when <dd> is clicked. Height should be taken from the height attribute of the dd img. Tryed this, but it doesn't work: $("#posters dd").click(function(){ var parent_padding = $(this).find("img").attr("height"); $(this).parent().css({"padding-top":parent_padding}); }); Thanks.

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  • JSF how to temporary disable validators to save draft

    - by Swiety
    I have a pretty complex form with lots of inputs and validators. For the user it takes pretty long time (even over an hour) to complete that, so they would like to be able to save the draft data, even if it violates rules like mandatory fields being not typed in. I believe this problem is common to many web applications, but can't find any well recognised pattern how this should be implemented. Can you please advise how to achieve that? For now I can see the following options: use of immediate=true on "Save draft" button doesn't work, as the UI data would not be stored on the bean, so I wouldn't be able to access it. Technically I could find the data in UI component tree, but traversing that doesn't seem to be a good idea. remove all the fields validation from the page and validate the data programmaticaly in the action listener defined for the form. Again, not a good idea, form is really complex, there are plenty of fields so validation implemented this way would be very messy. implement my own validators, that would be controlled by some request attribute, which would be set for standard form submission (with full validation expected) and would be unset for "save as draft" submission (when validation should be skipped). Again, not a good solution, I would need to provide my own wrappers for all validators I am using. But as you see no one is really reasonable. Is there really no simple solution to the problem?

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  • XmlAttribute/XmlText cannot be used to encode complex type

    - by Conrad C
    I want to serialize a class Ticket into xml. I get the error :"XmlAttribute/XmlText cannot be used to encode complex type" because of my customfield class. This is how the xml for customfields should look like ( the attribute array is nesseray but I don't understand how to create it): <custom_fields type="array"> <custom_field name="Standby Reason" id="6"> <value/> </custom_field> <custom_field name="Close Date" id="84"> Class Ticket public class Ticket { [XmlElement("custom_fields")] public CustomFields Custom_fields { get; set; } Class CustomFields [Serializable] public class CustomFields { [XmlAttribute("array")] public List<CustomField> custom_field { get; set; } Class CustomField [Serializable] public class CustomField { [XmlIgnore] public string Name { get; set; } [XmlElement] public int Id { get; set; } [XmlElement] public string Value { get; set; }

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  • populate textboxs with xml node attributes

    - by Doug
    I have Data.xml: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <data> <album> <slide title="Autum Leaves" description="Leaves from the fall of 1986" source="images/Autumn Leaves.jpg" thumbnail="images/Autumn Leaves_thumb.jpg" /> <slide title="Creek" description="Creek in Alaska" source="images/Creek.jpg" thumbnail="images/Creek_thumb.jpg" /> </album> </data> I'd like to be able to edit the attributes of each Slide node via GridView (that has a "Select" column added.) And so far I have: protected void GridView1_SelectedIndexChanged(object sender, EventArgs e) { int selectedIndex = GridView1.SelectedIndex; LoadXmlData(selectedIndex); } private void LoadXmlData(int selectedIndex) { XmlDocument xmldoc = new XmlDocument(); xmldoc.Load(MapPath(@"..\photo_gallery\Data.xml")); XmlNodeList nodelist = xmldoc.DocumentElement.ChildNodes; XmlNode xmlnode = nodelist.Item(selectedIndex); titleTextBox.Text = xmlnode.Attributes["title"].InnerText; descriptionTextBox.Text = xmlnode.Attributes["description"].InnerText; sourceTextBox.Text = xmlnode.Attributes["source"].InnerText; thumbTextBox.Text = xmlnode.Attributes["thumbnail"].InnerText; The code for LoadXmlData is just a guess on my part - I'm new to working with xml in this way. I'd like have the user to slected the row from the gridview, then populate a set of text boxes with each slide attributed for updating back to the Data.xml file. The error I'm getting is "Object reference not set to an instance of an object" at the line: titleTextBox.Text = xmlnode.Attributes["@title"].InnerText; - so I'm not reaching the attribute "title" of the slide node. Thanks for any ideas you may have.

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  • inserting a form to session raises picklingerror - django

    - by shanyu
    I receive an exception when I add a form to the session: PicklingError: Can't pickle <class 'django.utils.functional.__proxy__'>: attribute lookup django.utils.functional.__proxy__ failed The form includes a few simple fields and has some javascript attached to a widget. It might be that Django forms cannot be pickled at all, but the exception seems to point to unicode lazy translation. To test further, I have also tried to insert only the form errors (an errordict) to the session and received the same error. I appreciate some help here, thanks in advance. EDIT: Here's why I insert a form into the session: I have an app that has a form. This form is rendered by a template tag in another app. When posted, if the form is valid, no problem, I do stuff and redirect to "next". However if it is not valid, I want to go back to the posting page to show errors. Recall that the comments app in this case redirects to an intermediate "hey, please fix the errors" page. I am trying to avoid this, and hence redirect back to the posting page with the form and its errors in the session that the template tag will render.

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  • When is someone else's code I use from the internet "mine"?

    - by robault
    I'm building a library from methods that I've found on the internet. Some are free to use or modify with no requirements, others say that if I leave a comment in the code it's okay to use, others say when I use the code I have to attribute the use of someone's code in my application (in the credits for my app I guess). What I've been doing is reorganizing classes, renaming methods, adding descriptions (code comments), renaming the parameters and names inside the methods to something meaningful, optimizing loops if applicable, changing return types, adding try/catch/throw blocks, adding parameter checks and cleaning up resources in the methods. For example; I didn't come up with the algorithm for blurring a Bitmap but I've taken the basic example of iterating through the pixels and turned it into a decent library method (applying the aforementioned modifications). I understand how to go about building it now myself but I didn't actually hit the keystrokes to make it and I couldn't have come up with it before learning from their example. What about code people get in answers on Stackoverflow or examples from Codeproject? At what point can I drop their requirements because at n% their code became mine? FWIW I intend on using the libraries to create products that I will sell.

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  • In xpath why can I use greater-than symbol > but not less-than <

    - by runrunraygun
    Using c#3 compiled transforms the following seems to work just fine... <xsl:choose> <xsl:when test="$valA > $valB"> <xsl:value-of select="$maxUnder" /> </xsl:when> <xsl:when test="$valA &lt; $valC"> <xsl:value-of select="$maxOver" /> </xsl:when> </xsl:choose> However if i dare use a < in place of &lt; it gives an error... <xsl:choose> <xsl:when test="$valA > $valB"> <xsl:value-of select="$maxUnder" /> </xsl:when> <xsl:when test="$valA < $valC"> <xsl:value-of select="$maxOver" /> </xsl:when> </xsl:choose> System.Xml.XmlException: '<', hexadecimal value 0x3C, is an invalid attribute character. So why is > ok and not < ?

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  • Apply the REL attibute automatically to posts using jQuery

    - by Couto
    Edited: I mean grouping as giving the same REL attibute to all IMGs in the same post, but each post has different REL as the example at the end of this question. So, I need to do the following: <div id="Blog1" class="widget Blog"> <div class="blog-posts hfeed"> <div class="post hentry uncustomized-post-template"> <a name="8829400899632947948"/> <div class="post-body entry-content"> <div id="8829400899632947948"> <div class="separator"> <a imageanchor="1" href="/images/outta.png"> <img src="/images/outta.png"/></a></div></div> <div style="clear: both;"/> </div> <div class="post-footer"> </div></div></div></div> I'm using jQuery and Colorbox. The first two DIVs are posts containers. I need to group the IMGs in each <div class="post hentry uncustomized-post-template"> using the REL attribute, like: 1 - Post 1.1 - IMG - REL="group0" 1.2 - IMG - REL="group0" 1.3 - IMG - REL="group0" 1.4 - IMG - REL="group0" 2 - Post 2.1 - IMG - REL="group1" 3 - Post 3.1 - IMG - REL="group2" 3.2 - IMG - REL="group2" I've tryied HAS, PARENT > CHILDREN and CHILDREN() from jQuery and REL: from Colorbox, but it seems I'm lacking somewhere in logic. Could someone help me?

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  • FILE* issue PPU side code

    - by Cristina
    We are working on a homework on CELL programming for college and their feedback response to our questions is kinda slow, thought i can get some faster answers here. I have a PPU side code which tries to open a file passed down through char* argv[], however this doesn't work it cannot make the assignment of the pointer, i get a NULL. Now my first idea was that the file isn't in the correct directory and i copied in every possible and logical place, my second idea is that maybe the PPU wants this pointer in its LS area, but i can't deduce if that's the bug or not. So... My question is what am i doing wrong? I am working with a Fedora 7 SDK Cell, with Eclipse as an IDE. Maybe my argument setup is wrong tho he gets the name of the file correctly. Code on request: images_t *read_bin_data(char *name) { FILE *file; images_t *img; uint32_t *buffer; uint8_t buf; unsigned long fileLen; unsigned long i; //Open file file = (FILE*)malloc(sizeof(FILE)); file = fopen(name, "rb"); printf("[Debug]Opening file %s\n",name); if (!file) { fprintf(stderr, "Unable to open file %s", name); return NULL; } //....... } Main launch: int main(int argc,char* argv[]) { int i,img_width; int modif_this[4] __attribute__ ((aligned(16))) = {1,2,3,4}; images_t *faces, *nonfaces; spe_context_ptr_t ctxs[SPU_THREADS]; pthread_t threads[SPU_THREADS]; thread_arg_t arg[SPU_THREADS]; //intializare img_width img_width = atoi(argv[1]); printf("[Debug]Img size is %i\n",img_width); faces = read_bin_data(argv[3]); //....... } Thanks for the help.

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  • Binding, Prefixes and generated HTML

    - by Vman
    MVC newbie question re binders. Supposing I have two strongly typed partial actions that happen to have a model attributes with the same name, and are rendered in the same containing page i.e.: Class Friend {string Name {get; set ;} DateTime DOB {get; set ;}} Class Foe {string Name {get; set ;} string ReasonForDislike {get; set ;}} Both partials will have a line: <%= Html.TextBoxFor(model => model.Name) %> And associated controller actions: public ActionResult SaveFriend(Friend friend) public ActionResult SaveFoe(Foe foe) My problem is that both will render on my containing page with the same id (of course, bad for lots of reasons). I’m aware of the [Bind] attribute that allows me add a prefix, resulting in code: public ActionResult SaveFriend([Bind(Prefix = “friend”)] Friend friend) <%= Html.TextBox("friend.Name", Model. Name) %> //Boo, no TextBoxFor :( But this still doesn’t cut it. I can just about tolerate the loss of the strongly typed TextBoxFor helpers but I’ve yet to get clientside validation to work with prefixes: I’ve tried: <%= Html.ValidationMessage("friend.Name") %> ...and every other variant I can think of. I seem to need the model to be aware of the prefix in both directions but bind only applies when mapping the inbound request. It seems (to me) a common scenario but I’m struggling to find examples out there. What am I missing! Thanks in advance.

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  • Advanced tasks using Web.Config transformation

    - by dcadenas
    Does anyone know if there is a way to "transform" specific sections of values instead of replacing the whole value or an attribute? For example, I've got several appSettings entries that specify the Urls for different webservices. These entries are slightly different in the dev environment than the production environment. Some are less trivial than others <!-- DEV ENTRY --> <appSettings> <add key="serviceName1_WebsService_Url" value="http://wsServiceName1.dev.domain.com/v1.2.3.4/entryPoint.asmx" /> <add key="serviceName2_WebsService_Url" value="http://ma1-lab.lab1.domain.com/v1.2.3.4/entryPoint.asmx" /> </appSettings> <!-- PROD ENTRY --> <appSettings> <add key="serviceName1_WebsService_Url" value="http://wsServiceName1.prod.domain.com/v1.2.3.4/entryPoint.asmx" /> <add key="serviceName2_WebsService_Url" value="http://ws.ServiceName2.domain.com/v1.2.3.4/entryPoint.asmx" /> </appSettings> So far, I know I can do something like this in the Web.Release.Config: <add xdt:Locator="Match(key)" xdt:Transform="SetAttributes(value)" key="serviceName1_WebsService_Url" value="http://wsServiceName1.prod.domain.com/v1.2.3.4/entryPoint.asmx" /> <add xdt:Locator="Match(key)" xdt:Transform="SetAttributes(value)" key="serviceName2_WebsService_Url" value="http://ws.ServiceName2.domain.com/v1.2.3.4/entryPoint.asmx" /> However, everytime the Version for that webservice is updated, I would have to update the Web.Release.Config as well, which defeats the purpose of simplfying my web.config updates. I know I could also split that URL into different sections and update them independently, but I rather have it all in one key. I've looked through the available web.config Transforms but nothings seems to be geared towars what I am trying to accomplish. These are the websites I am using as a reference: Vishal Joshi's blog, MSDN Help, and Channel9 video Any help would be much appreciated! -D

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  • ASP.NET MVC Authorize by Group

    - by Jimmo
    I have what seems like a common issue with SaaS applications, but have not seen this question on here anywhere. I am using ASP.NET MVC with Forms Authentication. I have implemented a custom membership provider to handle logic, but have one issue (perhaps the issue is in my mental picture of the system). As with many SaaS apps, Customers create accounts and use the app in a way that looks like they are the only ones present (they only see their items, users, etc.) In reality, there are generic controllers and views presenting data depending on their account. When calling something like ValidateUser, I have access to their affiliation in the User object - what I don't have is the context of the request to which to compare it. As an example, One company called ABC goes to abc.mysite.com Another company called XYZ goes to xyz.mysite.com When an ABC user calls http://abc.mysite.com/product/edit/12 I have an [Authorize] attribute on the Edit method in the ProductController to make sure he is signed in and has sufficient permission to do so. If that same ABC user tried to access http://xyz.mysite.com/product/edit/12 I would not want to validate him in the context of that call. In the ValidateUser of the MembershipProvider, I have the information about the user, but not about the request. I can tell that the user is from ABC, but I cannot tell that the request is for XYZ at that point in the code. How should I resolve this?

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  • Sort a List<T> using query expressions - LINQ C#

    - by Dan Yack
    I have a problem using Linq to order a structure like this : public class Person { public int ID { get; set; } public List<PersonAttribute> Attributes { get; set; } } public class PersonAttribute { public int ID { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } public string Value { get; set; } } A person might go like this: PersonAttribute Age = new PersonAttribute { ID = 8, Name = "Age", Value = "32" }; PersonAttribute FirstName = new PersonAttribute { ID = 9, Name = "FirstName", Value = "Rebecca" }; PersonAttribute LastName = new PersonAttribute { ID = 10, Name = "LastName", Value = "Johnson" }; PersonAttribute Gender = new PersonAttribute { ID = 11, Name = "Gender", Value = "Female" }; I would like to use LINQ projection to sort a list of persons ascending by the person attribute of my choice, for example, sort on Age, or sort on FirstName. I am trying something like string mySortAttribute = "Age" PersonList.OrderBy(p => p.PersonAttribute.Find(s => s.Name == mySortAttribute).Value); But the syntax is failing me. Any clues? Thanks in advance!

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  • Raw types and subtyping

    - by Dmitrii
    We have generic class SomeClass<T>{ } We can write the line: SomeClass s= new SomeClass<String>(); It's ok, because raw type is supertype for generic type. But SomeClass<String> s= new SomeClass(); is correct to. Why is it correct? I thought that type erasure was before type checking, but it's wrong. From Hacker's Guide to Javac When the Java compiler is invoked with default compile policy it performs the following passes: parse: Reads a set of *.java source files and maps the resulting token sequence into AST-Nodes. enter: Enters symbols for the definitions into the symbol table. process annotations: If Requested, processes annotations found in the specified compilation units. attribute: Attributes the Syntax trees. This step includes name resolution, type checking and constant folding. flow: Performs data ow analysis on the trees from the previous step. This includes checks for assignments and reachability. desugar: Rewrites the AST and translates away some syntactic sugar. generate: Generates Source Files or Class Files. Generic is syntax sugar, hence type erasure invoked at 6 pass, after type checking, which invoked at 4 pass. I'm confused.

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  • can i know the Thread runnable class attributes in java?

    - by dori naji
    probability this question have been asked before but i cant find anything in my searching mechanism. I am trying to create a multiple threads, in an array list but i want to retrieve them from an arraylist and filter them by the attribute of w1 i used in my code. any ideas ? w1 = new FirstWorker(ProductsList, OrdersList, s); FirstWorkerThread = new Thread(w1); ThreadArrayList.add(FirstWorkerThread); //I know i cant do the code below but i want to do that how ? for(Thread x : ThreadArrayList){ x.ProductsList } this is FirstWorker class import java.lang.String; import java.util.HashMap; /* * To change this template, choose Tools | Templates and open the template in * the editor. */ /** * * @author Dimitris */ public class FirstWorker extends Thread implements Runnable { private OrderList orderlist; private ProductList productlist; private String Worker; boolean Stop; private int speed = 1000; public FirstWorker(ProductList productlist, OrderList orderlist, String Worker) { this.productlist = productlist; this.orderlist = orderlist; this.Worker = Worker; this.Stop = true; } public void run() { if (Stop == true) { try { Thread.sleep(100); } catch (InterruptedException e) { } while (orderlist.returnLengthofOrder() != 0) { if (Thread.interrupted()) { System.out.println("I am in the thread inturrupt"); // We've been interrupted: no more crunching. return; } if (orderlist.getDone() == true) { } else if (orderlist.getDone() == false) { orderlist.setDoneTrue(); orderlist.Purchased(Worker); orderlist.setDoneFalse(); try { Thread.sleep(this.speed); } catch (InterruptedException e) { return; } } } } } public void setWork() { Stop = false; } public void setSpeed(int speed) { this.speed = speed; } }

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  • How to eliminate duplicate nodes bases on values of multiple attributes?

    - by JayRaj
    Hello All, How can I eliminate duplicate nodes based on values of multiple (more than 1) attributes? Also the attribute names are passed as parameters to the stylesheet. Now I am aware of the Muenchian method of grouping that uses a <xsl:key> element. But I came to know that XSLT 1.0 does not allow paramters/variables in <xsl:key>. Is there another method(s) to achieve duplicate nodes removal? It is fine if it not as efficient as the Munechian method. Update from previus question: XML: <data id = "root"> <record id="1" operator1='xxx' operator2='yyy' operator3='zzz'/> <record id="2" operator1='abc' operator2='yyy' operator3='zzz'/> <record id="3" operator1='abc' operator2='yyy' operator3='zzz'/> <record id="4" operator1='xxx' operator2='yyy' operator3='zzz'/> <record id="5" operator1='xxx' operator2='lkj' operator3='tyu'/> <record id="6" operator1='xxx' operator2='yyy' operator3='zzz'/> <record id="7" operator1='abc' operator2='yyy' operator3='zzz'/> <record id="8" operator1='abc' operator2='yyy' operator3='zzz'/> <record id="9" operator1='xxx' operator2='yyy' operator3='zzz'/> <record id="10" operator1='rrr' operator2='yyy' operator3='zzz'/> </data>

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  • Symfony 1.3: how to force as inline the choices generated by renderLabel()

    - by user248959
    Hi, this line: <li><?php echo $form['genero']->renderLabel() ?></li> is generating <li> <label for="usuario_genero">Genero</label> <ul class="radio_list"> <li> <!-- this li doesn't have any id--> <input type="radio" checked="checked" id="usuario_genero_0" value="0" name="usuario[genero]">&nbsp;<label for="usuario_genero_0">Chico</label> </li> <li> <!-- this li doesn't have any id--> <input type="radio" id="usuario_genero_1" value="1" name="usuario[genero]">&nbsp;<label for="usuario_genero_1">Chica</label> </li> </ul> </li> I'd like to force the choices as inline, but the li's generated don't have the 'id' attribute. What should i do? Regards Javi

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  • Store variables during loop and use in it another template

    - by krisvandenbergh
    Is there a way to store a variable/param during a for-each loop in a sort of array, and use it in another template, namely <xsl:template match="Foundation.Core.Classifier.feature">. All the classname values that appear during the for-each should be stored. How would you implement that in XSLT? Here's my current code. <xsl:for-each select="Foundation.Core.Class"> <xsl:for-each select="Foundation.Core.ModelElement.name"> <xsl:param name="classname"> <xsl:value-of select="Foundation.Core.ModelElement.name"/> </xsl:param> </xsl:for-each> <xsl:apply-templates select="Foundation.Core.Classifier.feature" /> </xsl:for-each> Here's the template in which the classname parameters should be used. <xsl:template match="Foundation.Core.Classifier.feature"> <xsl:for-each select="Foundation.Core.Attribute"> <owl:DatatypeProperty rdf:ID="{Foundation.Core.ModelElement.name}"> <rdfs:domain rdf:resource="$classname" /> </owl:DatatypeProperty> </xsl:for-each> </xsl:template> The input file can be found at http://krisvandenbergh.be/uml_pricing.xml

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  • ClassCleanup in MSTest is static, but the build server uses nunit to run the unit tests. How can i a

    - by Kettenbach
    Hi All, MSTest has a [ClassCleanup()] attribute, which needs to be static as far as I can tell. I like to run through after my unit tests have run,and clean up my database. This all works great, however when I go to our build server and use our Nant build script, it seems like the unit tests are run with NUnit. NUnit doesn't seem to like the cleanup method to be static. It therefore ignores my tests in that class. What can I do to remedy this? I prefer to not use [TestCleanUp()] as that is run after each test. Does anyone have any suggestions? I know [TestCleanup()] aids in decoupling, but I really prefer the [ClassCleanup()] in this situation. Here is some example code. ////Use ClassCleanup to run code after all tests have run [ClassCleanup()] public static void MyFacadeTestCleanup() { UpdateCleanup(); } private static void UpdateCleanup() { DbCommand dbCommand; Database db; try { db = DatabaseFactory.CreateDatabase(TestConstants.DB_NAME); int rowsAffected; dbCommand = db.GetSqlStringCommand("DELETE FROM tblA WHERE biID=@biID"); db.AddInParameter(dbCommand, "biID", DbType.Int64, biToDelete); rowsAffected = db.ExecuteNonQuery(dbCommand); Debug.WriteLineIf(rowsAffected == TestConstants.ONE_ROW, string.Format("biId '{0}' was successfully deleted.", biToDelete)); } catch (SqlException ex) { } finally { dbCommand = null; db = null; biDelete = 0; } } Thanks for any pointers and yes i realize I'm not catching anything. I need to get passed this hurdle first. Cheers, ~ck in San Diego

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  • How do you organise your MVC controller tests?

    - by Andrew Bullock
    I'm looking for tidy suggestions on how people organise their controller tests. For example, take the "add" functionality of my "Address" controller, [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Get)] public ActionResult Add() { var editAddress = new DTOEditAddress(); editAddress.Address = new Address(); editAddress.Countries = countryService.GetCountries(); return View("Add", editAddress); } [RequireRole(Role = Role.Write)] [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] public ActionResult Add(FormCollection form) { // save code here } I might have a fixture called "when_adding_an_address", however there are two actions i need to test under this title... I don't want to call both actions in my Act() method in my fixture, so I divide the fixture in half, but then how do I name it? "When_adding_an_address_GET" and "When_adding_an_address_POST"? things just seems to be getting messy, quickly. Also, how do you deal with stateless/setupless assertions for controllers, and how do you arrange these wrt the above? for example: [Test] public void the_requesting_user_must_have_write_permissions_to_POST() { Assert.IsTrue(this.SubjectUnderTest.ActionIsProtectedByRole(c => c.Add(null), Role.Write)); } This is custom code i know, but you should get the idea, it simply checks that a filter attribute is present on the method. The point is it doesnt require any Arrange() or Act(). Any tips welcome! Thanks

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  • PHP: Post ASPX form that uses 'WebForm_DoPostBackWithOptions' with cUrl

    - by Oliver Cooper
    I am trying to post an ASPX form which uses SharePoint with PHP. Posting data works with standard forms, I just can't seem to get this form working. I did notice an onclick attribute on the submit button: onclick="javascript:WebForm_DoPostBackWithOptions(new WebForm_PostBackOptions("ctl00$PlaceHolderMain$btnSaveTask", "", true, "", "", false, false))" I have never used ASPX and have no idea what this is. It is not an authentication problem or something wrong with the url as it returns the webpage (which contains the form) fine. Here is my PHP code: function add($username, $password){ $data = array( 'ctl00$PlaceHolderSearchArea$ctl01$ctl00' => 'https://keystone.stpeters.sa.edu.au', 'ctl00$PlaceHolderSearchArea$ctl01$ctl04' => '0', 'ctl00$PlaceHolderMain$DateStart$DateStartDate' => '9/05/2012', 'ctl00$PlaceHolderMain$DateDue$DateDueDate' => '10/05/2012', 'ctl00$PlaceHolderMain$Title' => 'test again', 'ctl00$PlaceHolderMain$btnSaveTask' => 'OK', '__spText1' => '', '__spText2' => '' ); $curl_handle = curl_init(); $fullurl = "https://keystone.stpeters.sa.edu.au/_layouts/StPeters.Keystone/MyTasks/MyTaskDetail.aspx?id=0&IsDlg=1"; // $ch = curl_init(); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_HEADER, 0); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_VERBOSE, 1); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_POST, true); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_POSTFIELDS, $data); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_RETURNTRANSFER, true); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_SSL_VERIFYPEER, 0); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_SSL_VERIFYHOST, 0); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_FAILONERROR, 0); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_HTTPAUTH, CURLAUTH_ANY); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_USERPWD, "$username:$password"); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_URL, $fullurl); $returned = curl_exec($ch); curl_close ($ch); return $returned; }

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  • Retrieve OpenId FullName from Google

    - by user294711
    I'm using DotNetOpenAuth lib to work with Google(only) OpenId. And I'm retrieving Email without any problem. But I can't get FullName, it is always null. request.AddExtension(new ClaimsRequest { Email = DemandLevel.Require, FullName = DemandLevel.Require }); ClaimsResponse claimsResponse = relyingPartyResponse.GetExtension<ClaimsResponse>(); if (claimsResponse != null) { var email = claimsResponse.Email; var fullName = claimsResponse.FullName; } I googled this problem and found that: Glad you got it working. Google will not give a full name or nickname for their users. They ONLY give email address, and (I think, but perhaps only on a white list) the timezone. It's not a matter of figuring out how to rig your RP so that it works. Google just won't do it yet. – Andrew Arnott Sep 8 at 14:22 stackoverflow.com/questions/1387438/retrieve-openid-user-information-claims-across-providers But it was in Sep 2009, maybe something was changed from that moment... I've found that in http://code.google.com/apis/accounts/docs/OpenID.html: openid.ax.required -- (required) Specifies the attribute being requested. Valid values include: "country", "email", "firstname", "language", "lastname". To request multiple attributes, set this parameter to a comma-delimited list of attributes. So, my question is how can I get FullName (FirstName, LastName) from Google OpenId?

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  • NoClassDefFoundError without any class name

    - by Safder
    Hello, I am trying to run a java task from ant. I am trying to run the "org.apache.tools.ant.launch.Launcher" class. I keep on getting the "NoClassDefFoundError" without any class name being specified. I am also getting a "ClassNotFoundException" along with that displaying a message "Could not find the main class: . Program will exit". Here's a snippet of the error [java] Exception in thread "main" java.lang.NoClassDefFoundError: [java] Caused by: java.lang.ClassNotFoundException: [java] at java.net.URLClassLoader$1.run(URLClassLoader.java:200) [java] at java.security.AccessController.doPrivileged(Native Method) [java] at java.net.URLClassLoader.findClass(URLClassLoader.java:188) [java] at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClass(ClassLoader.java:307) [java] at sun.misc.Launcher$AppClassLoader.loadClass(Launcher.java:301) [java] at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClass(ClassLoader.java:252) [java] at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClassInternal(ClassLoader.java:320) [java] Could not find the main class: . Program will exit. [java] Java Result: 1 Now I am trying to run an ant class from an ant jar and i specifiy the classpath where this class file resides using the "classpathref" attribute, however I still get this message. I checked the ant jar to check the Manifest and the "main" class is specified properly (it's "org.apache.tools.ant.launch.Launcher") . I have exhausted all my resources. Please help ! ! ! ps: My environment is Eclipse on Ubuntu 9.04

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  • In a bidirectional JPA OneToMany/ManyToOne association, what is meant by "the inverse side of the as

    - by Bytecode Ninja
    In these examples on TopLink JPA Annotation Reference: Example 1-59 @OneToMany - Customer Class With Generics @Entity public class Customer implements Serializable { ... @OneToMany(cascade=ALL, mappedBy="customer") public Set<Order> getOrders() { return orders; } ... } Example 1-60 @ManyToOne - Order Class With Generics @Entity public class Order implements Serializable { ... @ManyToOne @JoinColumn(name="CUST_ID", nullable=false) public Customer getCustomer() { return customer; } ... } It seams to me that the Customer entity is the owner of the association. However, in the explanation for the mappedBy attribute in the same document, it is written that: if the relationship is bidirectional, then set the mappedBy element on the inverse (non-owning) side of the association to the name of the field or property that owns the relationship as Example 1-60 shows. However, if I am not wrong, looks like in the example the mappedBy is actually specified on the owning side of the association, rather than the non-owning side. So my question is basically: In a bidirectional (one-to-many/many-to-one) association, which of the entities is the owner? How can we designate the One side as the owner? How can we designate the Many side as the owner? What is meant by "the inverse side of the association"? How can we designate the One side as the inverse? How can we designate the Many side as the inverse? Thanks in advance.

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