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  • Sometimes Java web app hang

    - by zhongshu
    The web app occasionally get hang for about 30 seconds when user request a web page, the server's CPU and memory usage are ok, and the jstack shows: "http-9999-3" daemon prio=6 tid=0x552f3400 nid=0xf40 runnable [0x578fc000] java.lang.Thread.State: RUNNABLE at org.eclipse.jdt.internal.compiler.parser.Parser.getTypeReference(Parser.java:8354) at org.eclipse.jdt.internal.compiler.parser.Parser.consumeClassHeaderExtends(Parser.java:2125) at org.eclipse.jdt.internal.compiler.parser.Parser.consumeRule(Parser.java:5107) at org.eclipse.jdt.internal.compiler.parser.Parser.parse(Parser.java:9020) at org.eclipse.jdt.internal.compiler.parser.Parser.parse(Parser.java:9251) at org.eclipse.jdt.internal.compiler.parser.Parser.parse(Parser.java:9208) at org.eclipse.jdt.internal.compiler.parser.Parser.dietParse(Parser.java:7864) at org.eclipse.jdt.internal.compiler.Compiler.internalBeginToCompile(Compiler.java:587) at org.eclipse.jdt.internal.compiler.Compiler.beginToCompile(Compiler.java:357) at org.eclipse.jdt.internal.compiler.Compiler.compile(Compiler.java:371) at org.apache.jasper.compiler.JDTCompiler.generateClass(JDTCompiler.java:413) at org.apache.jasper.compiler.Compiler.compile(Compiler.java:317) at org.apache.jasper.compiler.Compiler.compile(Compiler.java:295) at org.apache.jasper.compiler.Compiler.compile(Compiler.java:282) at org.apache.jasper.JspCompilationContext.compile(JspCompilationContext.java:586) at org.apache.jasper.servlet.JspServletWrapper.service(JspServletWrapper.java:317) - locked <0x10a75fc0> (a org.apache.jasper.servlet.JspServletWrapper) at org.apache.jasper.servlet.JspServlet.serviceJspFile(JspServlet.java:342) at org.apache.jasper.servlet.JspServlet.service(JspServlet.java:267) at javax.servlet.http.HttpServlet.service(HttpServlet.java:717) at org.apache.catalina.core.ApplicationFilterChain.internalDoFilter(ApplicationFilterChain.java:290) at org.apache.catalina.core.ApplicationFilterChain.doFilter(ApplicationFilterChain.java:206) at org.apache.catalina.core.ApplicationDispatcher.invoke(ApplicationDispatcher.java:630) at org.apache.catalina.core.ApplicationDispatcher.doInclude(ApplicationDispatcher.java:535) at org.apache.catalina.core.ApplicationDispatcher.include(ApplicationDispatcher.java:472) ...... seems it's related with some jsp files, how to find the root cause? thanks.

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  • Twitpic API from iPhone - pic posted but no URL returned?

    - by Jamie Badman
    This is a weird one... With the help of people here, I've got my iPhone app posting to TwitPic successfully - and when I first got it working, I could see an XML result being returned too... But for some reason over the past two days, the API call seems to succeed - the pic appears on TwitPic - but... the response seems to be empty... Anyone have any ideas? Seen anything similar? The code I use to invoke the API call is: ASIFormDataRequest *request = [[[ASIFormDataRequest alloc] initWithURL:url] autorelease]; [request setData:twitpicImage forKey:@"media"]; [request setPostValue:username forKey:@"username"]; [request setPostValue:password forKey:@"password"]; // Initiate the WebService request [request start]; // Need to find out how I can access the result from this call... /* Result structure should be: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <rsp stat="ok"> <mediaid>abc123</mediaid> <mediaurl>http://twitpic.com/abc123</mediaurl> </rsp> */ // Check for errors if ([[request responseHeaders] objectForKey:@"stat"] != @"ok"){ UIAlertView *errorAlert = [[UIAlertView alloc] initWithTitle:@"TwitPic Submission" message:[[request responseHeaders] objectForKey:@"mediaurl"] delegate:nil cancelButtonTitle:@"OK!" otherButtonTitles:nil]; [errorAlert show]; [errorAlert release]; } NSString *twitpicURL = [[request responseHeaders] objectForKey:@"mediaurl"]; UIAlertView *alert = [[UIAlertView alloc] initWithTitle:@"TwitPic Submission" message:twitpicURL delegate:nil cancelButtonTitle:@"OK!" otherButtonTitles:nil]; I tried just dumping out [request responseString]... that's empty now also. That WAS showing a response, for sure. As always, any help gratefully received. I'll give back once I'm able! Cheers, Jamie.

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  • Android SQLite database gets corrupted

    - by Seu
    There are about 100 people using my Android App right now and every once and while I get a crash report to the server with this stack trace: android.database.sqlite.SQLiteDatabaseCorruptException: database disk image is malformed at android.app.ActivityThread.performLaunchActivity(ActivityThread.java:2596) at android.app.ActivityThread.handleLaunchActivity(ActivityThread.java:2621) at android.app.ActivityThread.access$2200(ActivityThread.java:126) at android.app.ActivityThread$H.handleMessage(ActivityThread.java:1932) at android.os.Handler.dispatchMessage(Handler.java:99) at android.os.Looper.loop(Looper.java:123) at android.app.ActivityThread.main(ActivityThread.java:4595) at java.lang.reflect.Method.invokeNative(Native Method) at java.lang.reflect.Method.invoke(Method.java:521) at com.android.internal.os.ZygoteInit$MethodAndArgsCaller.run(ZygoteInit.java:860) at com.android.internal.os.ZygoteInit.main(ZygoteInit.java:618) at dalvik.system.NativeStart.main(Native Method) Caused by: android.database.sqlite.SQLiteDatabaseCorruptException: database disk image is malformed at android.database.sqlite.SQLiteQuery.native_fill_window(Native Method) at android.database.sqlite.SQLiteQuery.fillWindow(SQLiteQuery.java:75) at android.database.sqlite.SQLiteCursor.fillWindow(SQLiteCursor.java:295) at android.database.sqlite.SQLiteCursor.getCount(SQLiteCursor.java:276) at android.database.AbstractCursor.moveToPosition(AbstractCursor.java:171) at android.database.AbstractCursor.moveToFirst(AbstractCursor.java:248) The result is the app crashing and all the data in the DB being lost. One thing to note is that every time I read or write to the database I get a new SQLiteDatabase and close it as soon as I'm done. I thought this would simplify things, but perhaps that's causing the problem? Is it possible this is just a SQLite bug?

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  • Why does Graphviz fail on gvLayout?

    - by David Brown
    Once again, here I am writing C without really knowing what I'm doing... I've slapped together a simple function that I can call from a C# program that takes a DOT string, an output format, and a file name and renders a graph using Graphviz. #include "types.h" #include "graph.h" #include "gvc.h" #define FUNC_EXPORT __declspec(dllexport) // Return codes #define GVUTIL_SUCCESS 0 #define GVUTIL_ERROR_GVC 1 #define GVUTIL_ERROR_DOT 2 #define GVUTIL_ERROR_LAYOUT 3 #define GVUTIL_ERROR_RENDER 4 FUNC_EXPORT int RenderDot(char * dotData, const char * format, const char * fileName) { Agraph_t * g; // The graph GVC_t * gvc; // The Graphviz context int result; // Result of layout and render operations // Create a new graphviz context gvc = gvContext(); if (!gvc) return GVUTIL_ERROR_GVC; // Read the DOT data into the graph g = agmemread(dotData); if (!g) return GVUTIL_ERROR_DOT; // Layout the graph result = gvLayout(gvc, g, "dot"); if (result) return GVUTIL_ERROR_LAYOUT; // Render the graph result = gvRenderFilename(gvc, g, format, fileName); if (result) return GVUTIL_ERROR_RENDER; // Free the layout gvFreeLayout(gvc, g); // Close the graph agclose(g); // Free the graphviz context gvFreeContext(gvc); return GVUTIL_SUCCESS; } It compiles fine, but when I call it, I get GVUTIL_ERROR_LAYOUT. At first, I thought it might have been how I was declaring my P/Invoke signature, so I tested it from a C program instead, but it still failed in the same way. RenderDot("digraph graphname { a -> b -> c; }", "png", "C:\testgraph.png"); Did I miss something? EDIT If there's a chance it has to do with how I'm compiling the code, here's the command I'm using: cl gvutil.c /I "C:\Program Files (x86)\Graphviz2.26\include\graphviz" /LD /link /LIBPATH:"C:\Program Files (x86)\Graphviz2.26\lib\release" gvc.lib graph.lib cdt.lib pathplan.lib I've been following this tutorial that explains how to use Graphviz as a library, so I linked to the .lib files that it listed.

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  • C# Web Reference and PHP

    - by Louis
    I am attempting to call a Web Service (created in PHP) from my C# application. I have successfully added the Web Reference in Visual Studios, however I cannot figure out exactly how to invoke the call to the web service. I have been following this tutorial: http://sanity-free.org/article25.html however when I try and compile I get a "The type or namespace name 'SimpleService' could not be found". My C# code is as follows: using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.ComponentModel; using System.Data; using System.Drawing; using System.Text; using System.Windows.Forms; using System.IO; namespace inVision_OCR { public partial class Form1 : Form { public Form1() { InitializeComponent(); } private void translateButton_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { // We need to snap the image here somehow . . . // Open up the image and read its contents into a string FileStream file = new FileStream("\\Hard Disk\\ocr_images\\test.jpg", FileMode.Open); StreamReader sr = new StreamReader(file); string s = sr.ReadToEnd(); sr.Close(); // Using SOAP, pass this message to our development server SimpleService svc = new SimpleService(); string s1 = svc.getOCR("test"); MessageBox.Show(s); } } } Any help would be appreciated.

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  • Silverlight - Access the Layout Grid's DataContext in a DataGrid CellTemplate's DataTemplate?

    - by Sudeep
    Hi, I am using Silverlight 3 to develop an application. In my app, I have a layout Grid (named "LayoutGrid") in which I have a DataGrid (named "PART_datagrid") with DataGridTemplateColumns. The LayoutGrid is set a DataContext in which there is a Ladders list as a property. This Ladders list is set as the ItemsSource for the PART_datagrid. <Grid x:Name="LayoutRoot"> <DataGrid x:Name="PART_datagrid" ItemsSource="{Binding Ladders}"> ... <DataGridTemplateColumn> <DataGridTemplateColumn.CellTemplate> <DataTemplate> <Button Name="DeleteLadder" Click.Command="{Binding ElementName=LayoutRoot, Path=DataContext.DeleteLadderCommand}" /> Now in one of the DataGridTemplateColumns I have a button which should invoke a Command thats present in the LayoutGrid's DataContext. So I tried Element-To-Element binding on my DataTemplate button as follows <Button Name="DeleteLadder" Click.Command="{Binding ElementName=LayoutRoot, Path=DataContext.DeleteLadderCommand}" /> But this does not seem to work. What I want to achieve is to handle the event of deletion of a DataGrid row at the parent DataContext level using the command. Can someone pls suggest how do I proceed on this? Thanks in advance...

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  • ORM Persistence by Reachability violates Aggregate Root Boundaries?

    - by Johannes Rudolph
    Most common ORMs implement persistence by reachability, either as the default object graph change tracking mechanism or an optional. Persistence by reachability means the ORM will check the aggregate roots object graph and determines wether any objects are (also indirectly) reachable that are not stored inside it's identity map (Linq2Sql) or don't have their identity column set (NHibernate). In NHibernate this corresponds to cascade="save-update", for Linq2Sql it is the only supported mechanism. They do both, however only implement it for the "add" side of things, objects removed from the aggregate roots graph must be marked for deletion explicitly. In a DDD context one would use a Repository per Aggregate Root. Objects inside an Aggregate Root may only hold references to other Aggregate Roots. Due to persistence by reachability it is possible this other root will be inserted in the database event though it's corresponding repository wasn't invoked at all! Consider the following two Aggregate Roots: Contract and Order. Request is part of the Contract Aggregate. The object graph looks like Contract->Request->Order. Each time a Contractor makes a request, a corresponding order is created. As this involves two different Aggregate Roots, this operation is encapsulated by a Service. //Unit Of Work begins Request r = ...; Contract c = ContractRepository.FindSingleByKey(1); Order o = OrderForRequest(r); // creates a new order aggregate r.Order = o; // associates the aggregates c.Request.Add(r); ContractRepository.SaveOrUpdate(c); // OrderAggregate is reachable and will be inserted Since this Operation happens in a Service, I could still invoke the OrderRepository manually, however I wouldn't be forced to!. Persistence by reachability is a very useful feature inside Aggregate Roots, however I see no way to enforce my Aggregate Boundaries.

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  • Call OpenFileDialog Silverlight from JavaScript

    - by PeterEysermans
    I'm trying to call a function in a Silverlight 4 component to open a file dialog and upload a file to the server. Everything works well within Silverlight but I'd like to call the component from JavaScript. So I call the button click handler from a C#-function which is [ScriptableMember]. I get the following error when calling the function: System.Security.SecurityException: Dialogs must be user-initiated. at System.Windows.Browser.ManagedObjectInfo.Invoke(ManagedObject obj, InvokeType invokeType, String memberName, ScriptParam[] args) at System.Windows.Hosting.ManagedHost.InvokeScriptableMember(IntPtr pHandle, Int32 nMemberID, Int32 nInvokeType, Int32 nArgCount, ScriptParam[] pArgs, ScriptParam& pResult, ExceptionInfo& pExcepInfo) I based my code on the tutorial by Tim Heuer that can be found here: http://www.silverlight.net/learn/videos/silverlight-videos/openfiledialog-and-file-upload/ I understand why the error is thrown, sort of, the 'click' from the user is done in JavaScript and probably is not going through to Silverlight. For Silverlight this is merely a function call. Is this new policy from Silverlight 4? Is it still possible to only use Silverlight behind to screens to upload a file? Any help is appreciated.

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  • Update the Progress bar using winforms c#

    - by karthik
    There is a functionality in my module, where the user can scan the number of serial ports in the system and when the user clicks "Auto scan" button, the code will have to go through each serial port and send a test message and wait for the reply. I am using Progress bar control to show process of autoscan. For which i need to pass the value to "x" and "Y" in my code to update the bar. How can i pass the value since my code is already in a foreach loop for getting the serialports. Y = should pass the value of total number of serial ports X = should iterate through each port and pass the value Hope i am clear with req. private void backgroundWorker1_DoWork(object sender, DoWorkEventArgs e) { string strAckData = ""; foreach (SerialPort sp in comPortsList) { sp.Open(); string sendData = "Auto scan"; sp.Write(sendData); strAckData += "Connection live on port " + sp.ReadExisting() + "\n"; sp.Close(); double dIndex = (double)x; **//How to pass the value here ?** double dTotal = (double)y; **//How to pass the value here ?** double dProgressPercentage = (dIndex / dTotal); int iProgressPercentage = (int)(dProgressPercentage * 100); // update the progress bar backgroundWorker1.ReportProgress(iProgressPercentage); } richTextBox1.Invoke(new MethodInvoker(delegate { richTextBox1.Text = strAckData; })); } private void backgroundWorker1_ProgressChanged(object sender, ProgressChangedEventArgs e) { ProgressBar.Value = e.ProgressPercentage; } private void backgroundWorker1_RunWorkerCompleted(object sender, RunWorkerCompletedEventArgs e) { StatusLabel.Text = "Auto Scan completed"; }

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  • WCF/MSMQ Transport Security with Certificates

    - by user104295
    Hi there, my goal is to secure the communication between MSMQ Queue Managers – I don’t want unknown clients sending messages to my MSMQ server. I have spent many hours now trying to get Transport security working for the net.msmq binding in WCF, where MSMQ is in Workgroup mode and the client and server do not have Active Directory… so I’m using certificates. I have created a new X.509 certificate, called Kristan and put it into the “Trusted people” store on the server and into the My store of Current User of the client. The error I’m getting is: An error occurred while sending to the queue: Unrecognized error -1072824272 (0xc00e0030).Ensure that MSMQ is installed and running. If you are sending to a local queue, ensure the queue exists with the required access mode and authorization. Using smartsniff, I see that there’s no attempted connection with the remote MSMQ, however, it’s an error probably coming from the local queue manager. The stack trace is: at System.ServiceModel.Channels.MsmqOutputChannel.OnSend(Message message, TimeSpan timeout) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.OutputChannel.Send(Message message, TimeSpan timeout) at System.ServiceModel.Dispatcher.OutputChannelBinder.Send(Message message, TimeSpan timeout) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.ServiceChannel.Call(String action, Boolean oneway, ProxyOperationRuntime operation, Object[] ins, Object[] outs, TimeSpan timeout) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.ServiceChannelProxy.InvokeService(IMethodCallMessage methodCall, ProxyOperationRuntime operation) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.ServiceChannelProxy.Invoke(IMessage message) The code:- EndpointAddress endpointAddress = new EndpointAddress(new Uri(endPointAddress)); NetMsmqBinding clientBinding = new NetMsmqBinding(); clientBinding.Security.Mode = NetMsmqSecurityMode.Transport; clientBinding.Security.Transport.MsmqAuthenticationMode = MsmqAuthenticationMode.Certificate; clientBinding.Security.Transport.MsmqProtectionLevel = System.Net.Security.ProtectionLevel.Sign; clientBinding.ExactlyOnce = false; clientBinding.UseActiveDirectory = false; // start new var channelFactory = new ChannelFactory<IAsyncImportApi>(clientBinding, endpointAddress); channelFactory.Credentials.ClientCertificate.SetCertificate("CN=Kristan", StoreLocation.CurrentUser, StoreName.My); The queue is flagged as ‘Authenticated’ on the server. I have checked the effect of this and if I turn off all security in the client send, then I get ‘Signature is invalid’ – which is understandable and shows that it’s definitely looking for a sig. Are there are special ports that I need to check are open for cert-based msmq auth? thanks Kris

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  • SharePoint custom web service consumption problems - HTTP 401: Unauthorized

    - by alekz
    I have a custom web service deployed into WSS 3. It has two web methods. The first one returns the version of the loaded assembly without any invocation of the SharePoint objects. The second returns some basic info about the library, something like: var spLibrary = [find library logic]; return spLibrary.Name+"@"+spLibrary.Url; In the client app I have something like the following: var service = new WebService1(); service.Url = [url]; service.Credentials = System.Net.CredentialCache.DefaultCredentials; service.Method1(); service.Method2(); When the client app runs on the machine where SharePoint is deployed, everything works just fine. When the client app runs on the remote machine (but under the same user) the first method still works, but the second one throws System.Net.WebException: HTTP 401: Unauthorized. I have tried to set credentials manualy (service.Credentials = new System.Net.NetworkCredential(login, password, domain);) but this doesnt help. I've tried to invoke the built in SharePoint web services using a similar scenario, and they work just fine: Sorry for the mistake... Some methods were not working fine without the appropriate privileges. var service = new GroupsService(); service.Url = [url]; service.Credentials = System.Net.CredentialCache.DefaultCredentials; service.SomeMethod();

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  • How to manage Javascript modules in django templates?

    - by John Mee
    Lets say we want a library of javascript-based pieces of functionality (I'm thinking jquery): For example: an ajax dialog a date picker a form validator a sliding menu bar an accordian thingy There are four pieces of code for each: some Python, CSS, JS, & HTML. What is the best way to arrange all these pieces so that: each javascript 'module' can be neatly reused by different views the four bits of code that make up the completed function stay together the css/js/html parts appear in their correct places in the response common dependencies between modules are not repeated (eg: a javascript file in common) x-------------- It would be nice if, or is there some way to ensure that, when called from a templatetag, the templates respected the {% block %} directives. Thus one could create a single template with a block each for CSS, HTML, and JS, in a single file. Invoke that via a templatetag which is called from the template of whichever view wants it. That make any sense. Can that be done some way already? My templatetag templates seem to ignore the {% block %} directives. x-------------- There's some very relevant gasbagging about putting such media in forms here http://docs.djangoproject.com/en/dev/topics/forms/media/ which probably apply to the form validator and date picker examples.

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  • Multiple Conditions in Lambda Expressions at runtime C#

    - by Ryan
    Hi, I would like to know how to be able to make an Expression tree by inputting more than one parameter Example: dataContext.Users.Where(u => u.username == "Username" && u.password == "Password") At the moment the code that I did was the following but would like to make more general in regards whether the condition is OR or AND public Func<TLinqEntity, bool> ANDOnlyParams(string[] paramNames, object[] values) { List<ParameterExpression> paramList = new List<ParameterExpression>(); foreach (string param in paramNames) { paramList.Add(Expression.Parameter(typeof(TLinqEntity), param)); } List<LambdaExpression> lexList = new List<LambdaExpression>(); for (int i = 0; i < paramNames.Length; i++) { if (i == 0) { Expression bodyInner = Expression.Equal( Expression.Property( paramList[i], paramNames[i]), Expression.Constant(values[i])); lexList.Add(Expression.Lambda(bodyInner, paramList[i])); } else { Expression bodyOuter = Expression.And( Expression.Equal( Expression.Property( paramList[i], paramNames[i]), Expression.Constant(values[i])), Expression.Invoke(lexList[i - 1], paramList[i])); lexList.Add(Expression.Lambda(bodyOuter, paramList[i])); } } return ((Expression<Func<TLinqEntity, bool>>)lexList[lexList.Count - 1]).Compile(); } Thanks

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  • How can I get PowerShell Added-Types to use Added Types

    - by Scott Weinstein
    I'm working on a PoSh project that generates CSharp code, and then Add-Types it into memory. The new types use existing types in an on disk DLL, which is loaded via Add-Type. All is well and good untill I actualy try to invoke methods on the new types. Here's an example of what I'm doing: $PWD = "." rm -Force $PWD\TestClassOne* $code = " namespace TEST{ public class TestClassOne { public int DoNothing() { return 1; } } }" $code | Out-File tcone.cs Add-Type -OutputAssembly $PWD\TestClassOne.dll -OutputType Library -Path $PWD\tcone.cs Add-Type -Path $PWD\TestClassOne.dll $a = New-Object TEST.TestClassOne "Using TestClassOne" $a.DoNothing() "Compiling TestClassTwo" Add-Type -Language CSharpVersion3 -TypeDefinition " namespace TEST{ public class TestClassTwo { public int CallTestClassOne() { var a = new TEST.TestClassOne(); return a.DoNothing(); } } }" -ReferencedAssemblies $PWD\TestClassOne.dll "OK" $b = New-Object TEST.TestClassTwo "Using TestClassTwo" $b.CallTestClassOne() Running the above script gives the following error on the last line: Exception calling "CallTestClassOne" with "0" argument(s): "Could not load file or assembly 'TestClassOne,...' or one of its dependencies. The system cannot find the file specified." At AddTypeTest.ps1:39 char:20 + $b.CallTestClassOne <<<< () + CategoryInfo : NotSpecified: (:) [], MethodInvocationException + FullyQualifiedErrorId : DotNetMethodException What am I doing wrong?

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  • Debuging CUDA kernels called from .NET code in VS2008, emulation mode

    - by Danny Varod
    CUDA has an option to compile code in emulation mode, which is supported in the .rules file they provide. I have C# .NET 3.5 SP1 code that calls a native dll, using DllImport, the native dll is compiled via VS2008 using nvcc and its function is to transfer memory from and to CUDA and to invoke CUDA kernels. When the CUDA kernels are correct, everything runs fine, but when there is a bug, I can only step in to the code until the title of the kernels and see the parameters they receive. (I enabled debugging native code in the startup-project's debug options.) I have tried compiling with emulation mode, however I get the CUDA error "mixed device execution" when calling the CUDA memcopy host--device. I tried switching the alloc+dealloc+memcopy with their equivalent non-CUDA versions, but then the same error occurs when invoking the kernels. What did I do wrong in my attempt to using the debug-emulation mode? P.S. I tried this on Vista x64 SP1 + VS2008, with the same solution complied in both x86 and x64, neither worked in emulation mode, both worked in non-emulation mode.

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  • Encrypting using RSA via COM Interop = "The requested operation requires delegation to be enabled on

    - by Mr AH
    Hi Guys, So i've got this little static method in a .Net class which takes a string, uses some stored public key and returns the encrypted version of that key. This is basically so some user entered data can be saved an encrypted, then retrieved and decrypted at a later date. Pretty basic stuff and the unit test works fine. However, part of the application is in classic ASP. This then uses some COM visible version of the class to go off and invoke the method on the real class and return the same string to the COM client (classic ASP). I use this kind of stuff all the time, but in this case we have a major problem. As the method is doing something with RSA keys and has to access certain machine information to do so, we get the error: "The requested operation requires delegation to be enabled on the machine. I've searched around a lot, but can't really understand what this means. I assume I am getting this error on the COM but not the UT because the UT runs as me (Administrator) and classic ASP as IWAM. Anyone know what I need to do to enable IWAM to do this? Or indeed if this is the real problem here?

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  • ArrayAdapter and ListView - ArrayIndexOutOfBoundsException

    - by synic
    I'm really hoping someone can help me out with this one. I've been stuck on it forever. Occasionally, when someone is using my app, it'll force close with this exception: java.lang.ArrayIndexOutOfBoundsException at android.widget.AbsListView$RecycleBin.addScrapView(AbsListView.java:3572) at android.widget.AbsListView.trackMotionScroll(AbsListView.java:2487) at android.widget.AbsListView.onTouchEvent(AbsListView.java:2001) at android.widget.ListView.onTouchEvent(ListView.java:3234) at android.view.View.dispatchTouchEvent(View.java:3709) at android.view.ViewGroup.dispatchTouchEvent(ViewGroup.java:874) at android.view.ViewGroup.dispatchTouchEvent(ViewGroup.java:924) at android.view.ViewGroup.dispatchTouchEvent(ViewGroup.java:924) at android.view.ViewGroup.dispatchTouchEvent(ViewGroup.java:924) at com.android.internal.policy.impl.PhoneWindow$DecorView.superDispatchTouchEvent(PhoneWindow.java:1695) at com.android.internal.policy.impl.PhoneWindow.superDispatchTouchEvent(PhoneWindow.java:1116) at android.app.Activity.dispatchTouchEvent(Activity.java:2068) at com.android.internal.policy.impl.PhoneWindow$DecorView.dispatchTouchEvent(PhoneWindow.java:1679) at android.view.ViewGroup.dispatchTouchEvent(ViewGroup.java:924) at android.view.ViewGroup.dispatchTouchEvent(ViewGroup.java:924) at android.view.ViewGroup.dispatchTouchEvent(ViewGroup.java:924) at android.view.ViewGroup.dispatchTouchEvent(ViewGroup.java:924) at android.view.ViewGroup.dispatchTouchEvent(ViewGroup.java:924) at com.android.internal.policy.impl.PhoneWindow$DecorView.superDispatchTouchEvent(PhoneWindow.java:1695) at com.android.internal.policy.impl.PhoneWindow.superDispatchTouchEvent(PhoneWindow.java:1116) at android.app.Activity.dispatchTouchEvent(Activity.java:2068) at com.android.internal.policy.impl.PhoneWindow$DecorView.dispatchTouchEvent(PhoneWindow.java:1679) at android.view.ViewRoot.handleMessage(ViewRoot.java:1697) at android.os.Handler.dispatchMessage(Handler.java:99) at android.os.Looper.loop(Looper.java:123) at android.app.ActivityThread.main(ActivityThread.java:4568) at java.lang.reflect.Method.invokeNative(Native Method) at java.lang.reflect.Method.invoke(Method.java:521) at com.android.internal.os.ZygoteInit$MethodAndArgsCaller.run(ZygoteInit.java:860) at com.android.internal.os.ZygoteInit.main(ZygoteInit.java:618) at dalvik.system.NativeStart.main(Native Method) However, I cannot figure out why. It's relatively rare, non-reproducable, and the stacktrace is completely unhelpful because it doesn't include any of my code. Is it a bug in Android itself?

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  • C# and F# lambda expressions code generation

    - by ControlFlow
    Let's look at the code, generated by F# for simple function: let map_add valueToAdd xs = xs |> Seq.map (fun x -> x + valueToAdd) The generated code for lambda expression (instance of F# functional value) will looks like this: [Serializable] internal class map_add@3 : FSharpFunc<int, int> { public int valueToAdd; internal map_add@3(int valueToAdd) { this.valueToAdd = valueToAdd; } public override int Invoke(int x) { return (x + this.valueToAdd); } } And look at nearly the same C# code: using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; static class Program { static IEnumerable<int> SelectAdd(IEnumerable<int> source, int valueToAdd) { return source.Select(x => x + valueToAdd); } } And the generated code for the C# lambda expression: [CompilerGenerated] private sealed class <>c__DisplayClass1 { public int valueToAdd; public int <SelectAdd>b__0(int x) { return (x + this.valueToAdd); } } So I have some questions: Why does F#-generated class is not marked as sealed? Why does F#-generated class contains public fields since F# doesn't allows mutable closures? Why does F# generated class has the constructor? It may be perfectly initialized with the public fields... Why does C#-generated class is not marked as [Serializable]? Also classes generated for F# sequence expressions are also became [Serializable] and classes for C# iterators are not.

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  • SMO restore of SQL database doesn't overwrite

    - by Tom H.
    I'm trying to restore a database from a backup file using SMO. If the database does not already exist then it works fine. However, if the database already exists then I get no errors, but the database is not overwritten. The "restore" process still takes just as long, so it looks like it's working and doing a restore, but in the end the database has not changed. I'm doing this in Powershell using SMO. The code is a bit long, but I've included it below. You'll notice that I do set $restore.ReplaceDatabase = $true. Also, I use a try-catch block and report on any errors (I hope), but none are returned. Any obvious mistakes? Is it possible that I'm not reporting some error and it's being hidden from me? Thanks for any help or advice that you can give! function Invoke-SqlRestore { param( [string]$backup_file_name, [string]$server_name, [string]$database_name, [switch]$norecovery=$false ) # Get a new connection to the server [Microsoft.SqlServer.Management.Smo.Server]$server = New-SMOconnection -server_name $server_name Write-Host "Starting restore to $database_name on $server_name." Try { $backup_device = New-Object("Microsoft.SqlServer.Management.Smo.BackupDeviceItem") ($backup_file_name, "File") # Get local paths to the Database and Log file locations If ($server.Settings.DefaultFile.Length -eq 0) {$database_path = $server.Information.MasterDBPath } Else { $database_path = $server.Settings.DefaultFile} If ($server.Settings.DefaultLog.Length -eq 0 ) {$database_log_path = $server.Information.MasterDBLogPath } Else { $database_log_path = $server.Settings.DefaultLog} # Load up the Restore object settings $restore = New-Object Microsoft.SqlServer.Management.Smo.Restore $restore.Action = 'Database' $restore.Database = $database_name $restore.ReplaceDatabase = $true if ($norecovery.IsPresent) { $restore.NoRecovery = $true } Else { $restore.Norecovery = $false } $restore.Devices.Add($backup_device) # Get information from the backup file $restore_details = $restore.ReadBackupHeader($server) $data_files = $restore.ReadFileList($server) # Restore all backup files ForEach ($data_row in $data_files) { $logical_name = $data_row.LogicalName $physical_name = Get-FileName -path $data_row.PhysicalName $restore_data = New-Object("Microsoft.SqlServer.Management.Smo.RelocateFile") $restore_data.LogicalFileName = $logical_name if ($data_row.Type -eq "D") { # Restore Data file $restore_data.PhysicalFileName = $database_path + "\" + $physical_name } Else { # Restore Log file $restore_data.PhysicalFileName = $database_log_path + "\" + $physical_name } [Void]$restore.RelocateFiles.Add($restore_data) } $restore.SqlRestore($server) # If there are two files, assume the next is a Log if ($restore_details.Rows.Count -gt 1) { $restore.Action = [Microsoft.SqlServer.Management.Smo.RestoreActionType]::Log $restore.FileNumber = 2 $restore.SqlRestore($server) } } Catch { $ex = $_.Exception Write-Output $ex.message $ex = $ex.InnerException while ($ex.InnerException) { Write-Output $ex.InnerException.message $ex = $ex.InnerException } Throw $ex } Finally { $server.ConnectionContext.Disconnect() } Write-Host "Restore ended without any errors." }

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  • How can I Fail a WebTest?

    - by craigb
    I'm using Microsoft WebTest and want to be able to do something similar to NUnit's Assert.Fail(). The best i have come up with is to throw new webTestException() but this shows in the test results as an Error rather than a Failure. Other than reflecting on the WebTest to set a private member variable to indicate the failure, is there something I've missed? EDIT: I have also used the Assert.Fail() method, but this still shows up as an error rather than a failure when used from within WebTest, and the Outcome property is read-only (has no public setter). EDIT: well now I'm really stumped. I used reflection to set the Outcome property to Failed but the test still passes! Here's the code that sets the Oucome to failed: public static class WebTestExtensions { public static void Fail(this WebTest test) { var method = test.GetType().GetMethod("set_Outcome", BindingFlags.NonPublic | BindingFlags.Instance); method.Invoke(test, new object[] {Outcome.Fail}); } } and here's the code that I'm trying to fail: public override IEnumerator<WebTestRequest> GetRequestEnumerator() { this.Fail(); yield return new WebTestRequest("http://google.com"); } Outcome is getting set to Oucome.Fail but apparently the WebTest framework doesn't really use this to determine test pass/fail results.

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  • Distinguishing between .NET exception types

    - by Swingline Rage
    For the love of all things holy, how do you distinguish between different "exception flavors" within the predefined .NET exception classes? For example, a piece of code might throw an XmlException under the following conditions: The root element of the document is NULL Invalid chars are in the document The document is too long All of these are thrown as XmlException objects and all of the internal "tell me more about this exception" fields (such as Exception.HResult, Exception.Data, etc.) are usually empty or null. That leaves Exception.Message as the only thing that allows you to distinguish among these exception types, and you can't really depend on it because, you guessed it, the Exception.Message string is glocabilized, and can change when the culture changes. At least that's my read on the documentation. Exception.HResult and Exception.Data are widely ignored across the .NET libraries. They are the red-headed stepchildren of the world's .NET error-handling code. And even assuming they weren't, the HRESULT type is still the worst, downright nastiest error code in the history of error codes. Why we are still looking at HRESULTs in 2010 is beyond me. I mean if you're doing Interop or P/Invoke that's one thing but... HRESULTs have no place in System.Exception. HRESULTs are a wart on the proboscis of System.Exception. But seriously, it means I have to set up a lot of detailed specific error-handling code in order to figure out the same information that should have been passed as part of the exception data. Exceptions are useless if they force you to work like this. What am I doing wrong?

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  • TimoutException occurs over a network but not locally

    - by Gibsnag
    I have a program with three WCF services and when I run them locally (i.e: Server and Clients are all on localhost) everything works. However when I test them across a network I get a TimoutException on two services but not the other. I've disabled the firewalls on all the machines involved in the test. I can both ping the server and access the wsdl "You have created a service" webpage from the client The service that works uses a BasicHttpBinding with streaming and the two which don't work use WSDualHttpBinding. The Services that use WSDualHttpBinding both have CallbackContracts. I apologise for the vagueness of this question but I'm not really sure what code to include or where to even start looking for the solution to this. Non-working bindings: public static Binding CreateHTTPBinding() { var binding = new WSDualHttpBinding(); binding.MessageEncoding = WSMessageEncoding.Mtom; binding.MaxBufferPoolSize = 2147483647; binding.MaxReceivedMessageSize = 2147483647; binding.Security.Mode = WSDualHttpSecurityMode.None; return binding; } Exception Stack Trace: Unhandled Exception: System.TimeoutException: The open operation did not complete within the allotted timeout of 00:01:00. The time allotted to this operation may have been a portion of a longer timeout. Server stack trace: at System.ServiceModel.Channels.ReliableRequestor.ThrowTimeoutException() at System.ServiceModel.Channels.ReliableRequestor.Request(TimeSpan timeout) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.ClientReliableSession.Open(TimeSpan timeout) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.ClientReliableDuplexSessionChannel.OnOpen(TimeSpan timeout) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.CommunicationObject.Open(TimeSpan timeout) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.ServiceChannel.OnOpen(TimeSpan timeout) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.CommunicationObject.Open(TimeSpan timeout) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.ServiceChannel.CallOpenOnce.System.ServiceModel.Channels.ServiceChannel.ICallOnce.Call(ServiceChannel channel, TimeSpan timeout) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.ServiceChannel.CallOnceManager.CallOnce(TimeSpan timeout, CallOnceManager cascade) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.ServiceChannel.EnsureOpened(TimeSpan timeout) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.ServiceChannel.Call(String action, Boolean oneway, ProxyOperationRuntime operation, Object[] ins, Object[] outs, TimeSpan timeout) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.ServiceChannel.Call(String action, Boolean oneway, ProxyOperationRuntime operation, Object[] ins, Object[] outs) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.ServiceChannelProxy.InvokeService(IMethodCallMessage methodCall, ProxyOperationRuntime operation) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.ServiceChannelProxy.Invoke(IMessage message) Exception rethrown at [0]: at System.Runtime.Remoting.Proxies.RealProxy.HandleReturnMessage(IMessage reqMsg, IMessage retMsg) at System.Runtime.Remoting.Proxies.RealProxy.PrivateInvoke(MessageData& msgData, Int32 type) at IDemeService.Register() at DemeServiceClient.Register() at DemeClient.Client.Start() at DemeClient.Program.Main(String[] args)

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  • embedding layout inside each tab? - (each tab has its own activity)

    - by Abhi
    I have started with the HelloTabwidget example and it works fine. Now what I am trying to do is have a layout inside each tab. here is what the code looks like myApp extends TabActivity { TabHost tabHost; onCreate() { setContentView (R.layout.main); tabHost = getTabHost(); TabHost.tabspec spec = tabHost.newTabSpec(..).setIndicator(...). setContent(new Intent().setClass(...)); tabHost.addTab(spec); : } } myTab1Actvity extends Activity { ListView myLV; EditText myET; onCreate() { setcontentView (TAB1_LAYOUT); myLV = findViewById(..); : myLV.setAdapter(aa); myET.setOnKeyListener(....) registerforContextMenu(myLV) } } when I run here is the stack trace ERROR/AndroidRuntime(691): java.lang.NullPointerException ERROR/AndroidRuntime(691): at android.widget.TabHost.dispatchWindowFocusChanged(TabHost.java:295) ERROR/AndroidRuntime(691): at android.view.ViewGroup.dispatchWindowFocusChanged(ViewGroup.java:661) ERROR/AndroidRuntime(691): at android.view.ViewGroup.dispatchWindowFocusChanged(ViewGroup.java:661) ERROR/AndroidRuntime(691): at android.widget.TabHost.dispatchWindowFocusChanged(TabHost.java:295) ERROR/AndroidRuntime(691): at android.view.ViewGroup.dispatchWindowFocusChanged(ViewGroup.java:661) ERROR/AndroidRuntime(691): at android.view.ViewGroup.dispatchWindowFocusChanged(ViewGroup.java:661) ERROR/AndroidRuntime(691): at android.view.ViewGroup.dispatchWindowFocusChanged(ViewGroup.java:661) ERROR/AndroidRuntime(691): at android.view.ViewRoot.handleMessage(ViewRoot.java:1819) ERROR/AndroidRuntime(691): at android.os.Handler.dispatchMessage(Handler.java:99) ERROR/AndroidRuntime(691): at android.os.Looper.loop(Looper.java:123) ERROR/AndroidRuntime(691): at android.app.ActivityThread.main(ActivityThread.java:4363) ERROR/AndroidRuntime(691): at java.lang.reflect.Method.invokeNative(Native Method) ERROR/AndroidRuntime(691): at java.lang.reflect.Method.invoke(Method.java:521) ERROR/AndroidRuntime(691): at com.android.internal.os.ZygoteInit$MethodAndArgsCaller.run(ZygoteInit.java:860) ERROR/AndroidRuntime(691): at com.android.internal.os.ZygoteInit.main(ZygoteInit.java:618) Does the code's flow look OK? basically each Tab has its own activity and each tab has its own layout. It appears that something is wrong in the TabHost - but I am unable to pinpoint it. Any suggestions/Qs you hav e will be very helpful.

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  • MSBuild fails, but building inside Visual Studio works fine

    - by Matt
    C#, .NET 2.0 I have an ASP.NET website in a solution, with 2 other projects (used as library references). When I build (debug or release) in Visual Studio, everything works fine. However, building with MSBuild fails. This build had been working (it's actually invoked via a nAnt task). The only thing that has changed is that I have a new user control whose Type I am referencing in my code behind. The offending code is in my ASPX code behind. MessageAlert is the UserControl: MessageAlert userControl = this.LoadControl("~/UserControls/MessageAlert.ascx") as MessageAlert; userControl.UserMessage = message; this.UserMessages.Controls.Add(userControl); In order to get Visual Studio to recognize the type 'MessageAlert' I had to: 1) Set the ClassName="MessageAlert" in the @Control markup at the top of the user control (because using the auto-generated UserControls_MessageAlert wasn't working either) 2) Register the user control in the markup of my ASPX, using an @Register 3) Add a "using ASP" to the top of my code behind After those steps, I could successfully reference the MessageAlert type in my codebehind from visual studio. But from MSBuild I get "The type or namespace name 'MessageAlert' could not be found (are you missing a using directive or an assembly reference?) " The MSBuild execution is very simple - it points the the very same solution file and sets the configuration property to release. It seems, based on the # of steps I had to go through to get Type references to MessageAlert in Visual Studio, that there is something missing in the MSBuild process. But what? Doesn't Visual Studio in fact invoke MSBuild behind the scenes? Is there a better way to reference a UserControl type in the code behind of an ASPX? EDIT: To clarify, the MessageAlert user control is not in the other referenced assemblies/projects. I mentioned them because, together with the website, the compose the Solution file, which is the same sln file being built by MS Build.

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  • .NET remoting exception: Permission denied: cannot call non-public or static methods remotely.

    - by Vilx-
    I'm writing a program which will allow to load a specific managed .DLL file and play with it. Since I want the ability to unload the .DLL file, I'm creating two AppDomains - one for the app itself, the other for the currently loaded .DLL. Since most of the objects in the loaded .DLL do not serialize well, I'm creating a MarshalByRefObject wrapper class which will keep the object itself in its own AppDomain, and expose some reflection functions to the main application AppDomain. However when I try to invoke a method on the remote object I get stuck with an exception: Permission denied: cannot call non-public or static methods remotely. This is very strange, because I'm not using any non-public or static methods at all. In essence, what I have is: class RemoteObjectWrapper: MarshalByRefObject { private Type SourceType; private object Source; public RemoteObjectWrapper(object source) { if (source == null) throw new ArgumentNullException("source"); this.Source = source; this.SourceType = source.GetType(); } public T WrapValue<T>(object value) { if ( value == null ) return default(T); var TType = typeof(T); if (TType == typeof(RemoteObjectWrapper)) value = new RemoteObjectWrapper(value); return (T)value; } public T InvokeMethod<T>(string methodName, params object[] args) { return WrapValue<T>(SourceType.InvokeMember(methodName, System.Reflection.BindingFlags.FlattenHierarchy | System.Reflection.BindingFlags.Instance | System.Reflection.BindingFlags.InvokeMethod | System.Reflection.BindingFlags.Public, null, this.Source, args)); } } And I get the exception when I try to do: var c = SomeInstanceOfRemoteObjectWrapper.InvokeMethod<RemoteObjectWrapper>("somePublicMethod", "some string parameter"); What's going on here? As far as I can understand, the InvokeMethod method doesn't even get executed, the exception is thrown when I try to run it. Added: To clarify - SomeInstanceOfRemoteObjectWrapper is constructed in the .DLL's AppDomain and then returned to my main AppDomain, The InvokeMethod<T>() is called from my main AppDomain (and I expect it to execute in the .DLL's AppDomain).

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