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  • Open new UserControl in the mainWindows

    - by user287964
    Hi I have this snippet public partial class Window1 : Window { public Window1() { InitializeComponent(); } private void ToggleButton_Checked(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { switch ((sender as Button).Content.ToString()) { case "UserControl 1": AddItemToContainer(new UserControl1()); break; case "UserControl 2": AddItemToContainer(new UserControl2()); break; case "UserControl 3": AddItemToContainer(new UserControl3()); break; default: break; } } void AddItemToContainer(UIElement _myElement) { Grid.SetColumn(_myElement, 1); HostContainer.Children.Add(_myElement); } } } } With this I can open a new userControl in myMainwindow Let’s say something like adding child to myMainWinodw,Now I’m trying to click on a button from my userControl so I open another userControl that take the place of the first one I explain: I have the mainWindows it has 3 button first one to open the first UserControl the second one to open the second userControl and the third to open the last UserControl,imagine that I opened the first UserControl let’s call it UC1, In the UC1 I have a button to open the second userControl (let’s call it UC2) I like that when I clik the button from the UC1 the UC2 is opened and take the place of the UC1 (of course the UC2 is still a child of myMainWinodw) I have alredy try to call the AddItemToContainer methode from other methode but nothing is happened Any suggestion please

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  • What is a good "Error Checking" Pattern (Java)?

    - by Jack
    I'll explain what I mean by input error checking. Say you have a function doSomething(x). If the function completes successfully doSomething does something and returns nothing. However, if there are errors I'd like to be notified. That is what I mean by error checking. I'm looking for, in general, the best way to check for errors. I've thought of the following solutions, each with a potential problem. Flag error checking. If doSomething(x) completes successfully return null. Otherwise, it returns a boolean or an error string. Problem: Side effects. Throwing an exception. Throw an exception if doSomething(x) encounters an error. Problem: If you are performing error checking for parameters only, throwing an IllegalArgumentExceptionseems inappropriate. Validating input prior to function call. If the error checking is only meant for the parameters of the function, then you can call a validator function before calling the doSomething(x) function. Problem: What if a client of the class forgets to call the validator function before calling doSomething(x)? I often encounter this problem and any help or a point in the right direction would be much appreciated.

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  • Understanding Basic Prototyping & Updating Key/Value pairs

    - by JordanD
    First time poster, long time lurker. I'm trying to learn some more advanced features of .js, and have two ojectives based on the pasted code below: I would like to add methods to a parent class in a specific way (by invoking prototype). I intend to update the declared key/value pairs each time I make an associated method call. execMTAction as seen in TheSuper will execute each function call, regardless. This is by design. Here is the code: function TheSuper(){ this.options = {componentType: "UITabBar", componentName: "Visual Browser", componentMethod: "select", componentValue: null}; execMTAction(this.options.componentType, this.options.componentName, this.options.componentMethod, this.options.componentValue); }; TheSuper.prototype.tapUITextView = function(val1, val2){ this.options = {componentType: "UITextView", componentName: val1, componentMethod: "entertext", componentValue: val2}; }; I would like to execute something like this (very simple): theSuper.executeMTAction(); theSuper.tapUITextView("a", "b"); Unfortunately I am unable to overwrite the "this.options" in the parent, and the .tapUITextView method throws an error saying it cannot find executeMTAction. All I want to do, like I said, is to update the parameters in the parent, then have executeMTAction run each time I make any method call. That's it. Any thoughts? I understand this is basic but I'm coming from a long-time procedural career and .js seems to have this weird confluence of oo/procedural that I'm having a bit of difficulty with. Thanks for any input!

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  • Input In Java- How does it work?

    - by Nir Avnon
    Hey guys, with a lot of help from you i was managed to write this nice code (I'm new in it, so kind of exciting.. :) ) And still I have not understand how can I input this code. first of all, I get an this error in the console line (I'm using Eclipse): Exception in thread "main" java.lang.ArrayIndexOutOfBoundsException: 0 at NumberConverter.main(NumberConverter.java:5). What does that mean? I just want to chack whether it works, and I can't call the function/program any how. I used to call in an "old fashion way", like in scheme, to the function that I wrote and see if something happens. How does it work in java? Do we call the program itself? function? what and where do we write? -I want to chack if it works, doesn't matter how, and I'll be glad to know how can I plugin input. Thank you so much! public class NumberConverter{ public static void main(String[] args) { int i = Integer.parseInt(args[0]); toBinary(i); toOctal(i); toHex(i); } public static void toBinary(int int1){ System.out.println(int1 + " in binary is"); System.out.println(Integer.toBinaryString(int1)); } public static void toOctal(int int1){ System.out.println(int1 + " in octal is"); System.out.println(Integer.toOctalString(int1)); } public static void toHex(int int1){ System.out.println(int1 + " in hex is"); System.out.println(Integer.toHexString(int1)); } }

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  • What's the deal with the hidden Throw when catching a ThreadAbortException?

    - by priehl
    I'm going through a book of general c# development, and I've come to the thread abort section. The book says something along the lines that when you call Thread.Abort() on another thread, that thread will throw a ThreadAbortException, and even if you tried to supress it it would automatically rethrow it, unless you did some bs that's generally frowned upon. Here's the simple example offered. using System; using System.Threading; public class EntryPoint { private static void ThreadFunc() { ulong counter = 0; while (true) { try { Console.WriteLine("{0}", counter++); } catch (ThreadAbortException) { // Attempt to swallow the exception and continue. Console.WriteLine("Abort!"); } } } static void Main() { try { Thread newThread = new Thread(new ThreadStart(EntryPoint.ThreadFunc)); newThread.Start(); Thread.Sleep(2000); // Abort the thread. newThread.Abort(); // Wait for thread to finish. newThread.Join(); } catch (Exception e) { Console.WriteLine(e.ToString()); } } } The book says: When your thread finishes processing the abort exception, the runtime implicitly rethrows it at the end of your exception handler. It’s the same as if you had rethrown the exception yourself. Therefore, any outer exception handlers or finally blocks will still execute normally. In the example, the call to Join won’t be waiting forever as initially expected. So i wrapped a try catch around the Thread.Abort() call and set a break point, expecting it to hit this, considering the text says "any outer exception handlers or finally blocks will still execute normally". BUT IT DOES NOT. I'm racking my brain to figure out why. Anyone have any thoughts on why this isn't the case? Is the book wrong? Thanks in advance.

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  • jquery how to determine event triggered with .trigger() or with .event()

    - by Tony_M
    I have a selectbox. <select onchange="javascript:changePropertyDropdown('3','0','0','1',this.value,'80','50'); hideCart()" size="1" class="inputbox" id="property_id_prd_3_0_1" name="property_id_prd_3_0_1[]"> <option selected="selected" value="0">Select an option</option> <option value="1">38</option> <option value="2">40</option> <option value="3">42</option> <option value="4">43</option> </select> and some button which triggered change event for selectbox : $('div.attribute_wrapper select').bind('cascadeSelect',function(e, pAttr){ $(this).val(pAttr); }); Call it like this (prodAttr come with ajax): $('div.productImgGallery img').click(function(){ $('div.attribute_wrapper select').trigger('change'); }; $('div.attribute_wrapper select').change(function(){ $(this).trigger('cascadeSelect',prodAttr); }); When i call it like this, hideCart() function fires too. I need to call function changePropertyDropdown() only whith .trigger(), and changePropertyDropdown() + hideCart() on change event. How can i do this ?

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  • Turn based synchronization between threads

    - by Amarus
    I'm trying to find a way to synchronize multiple threads having the following conditions: * There are two types of threads: 1. A single "cyclic" thread executing an infinite loop to do cyclic calculations 2. Multiple short-lived threads not started by the main thread * The cyclic thread has a sleep duration between each cycle/loop iteration * The other threads are allowed execute during the inter-cycle sleep of the cyclic thread: - Any other thread that attempts to execute during an active cycle should be blocked - The cyclic thread will wait until all other threads that are already executing to be finished Here's a basic example of what I was thinking of doing: // Somewhere in the code: ManualResetEvent manualResetEvent = new ManualResetEvent(true); // Allow Externally call CountdownEvent countdownEvent = new CountdownEvent(1); // Can't AddCount a CountdownEvent with CurrentCount = 0 void ExternallyCalled() { manualResetEvent.WaitOne(); // Wait until CyclicCalculations is having its beauty sleep countdownEvent.AddCount(); // Notify CyclicCalculations that it should wait for this method call to finish before starting the next cycle Thread.Sleep(1000); // TODO: Replace with actual method logic countdownEvent.Signal(); // Notify CyclicCalculations that this call is finished } void CyclicCalculations() { while (!stopCyclicCalculations) { manualResetEvent.Reset(); // Block all incoming calls to ExternallyCalled from this point forward countdownEvent.Signal(); // Dirty workaround for the issue with AddCount and CurrentCount = 0 countdownEvent.Wait(); // Wait until all of the already executing calls to ExternallyCalled are finished countdownEvent.Reset(); // Reset the CountdownEvent for next cycle. Thread.Sleep(2000); // TODO: Replace with actual method logic manualResetEvent.Set(); // Unblock all threads executing ExternallyCalled Thread.Sleep(1000); // Inter-cycles delay } } Obviously, this doesn't work. There's no guarantee that there won't be any threads executing ExternallyCalled that are in between manualResetEvent.WaitOne(); and countdownEvent.AddCount(); at the time the main thread gets released by the CountdownEvent. I can't figure out a simple way of doing what I'm after, and almost everything that I've found after a lengthy search is related to producer/consumer synchronization which I can't apply here.

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  • .net remoting - Better solution to wait for a service to initialize ?

    - by CitizenInsane
    Context I have a client application (which i cannot modify, i.e. i only have the binary) that needs to run from time to time external commands that depends on a resource which is very long to initialize (about 20s). I thus decided to initialize this resource once for all in a "CommandServer.exe" application (single instance in the system tray) and let my client application call an intermediate "ExecuteCommand.exe" program that uses .net remoting to perform the operation on the server. The "ExecuteCommand.exe" is in charge for starting the server on first call and then leave it alive to speed up further commands. The service: public interface IMyService { void ExecuteCommand(string[] args); } The "CommandServer.exe" (using WindowsFormsApplicationBase for single instance management + user friendly splash screen during resource initializations): private void onStartupFirstInstance(object sender, StartupEventArgs e) { // Register communication channel channel = new TcpServerChannel("CommandServerChannel", 8234); ChannelServices.RegisterChannel(channel, false); // Register service var resource = veryLongToInitialize(); service = new MyServiceImpl(resource); RemotingServices.Marshal(service, "CommandServer"); // Create icon in system tray notifyIcon = new NotifyIcon(); ... } The intermediate "ExecuteCommand.exe": static void Main(string[] args) { startCommandServerIfRequired(); var channel = new TcpClientChannel(); ChannelServices.RegisterChannel(channel, false); var service = (IMyService)Activator.GetObject(typeof(IMyService), "tcp://localhost:8234/CommandServer"); service.RunCommand(args); } Problem As the server is very long to start (about 20s to initialize the required resources), the "ExecuteCommand.exe" fails on service.RunCommand(args) line because the server is yet not available. Question Is there a elegant way I can tune the delay before to receive "service not available" when calling service.RunCommand ? NB1: Currently I'm working around the issue by adding a mutex in server to indicate for complete initiliazation and have "ExecuteCommand.exe" to wait for this mutex before to call service.RunCommand. NB2: I have no background with .net remoting, nor WCF which is recommended replacer. (I chose .net remoting because this looked easier to set-up for this single shot issue in running external commands).

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  • JQuery to PHP function and back Ajaxed

    - by Xaris
    Hi all, i have a set of php function that i want to call on different events mostly onclick with jquery async (ajax). The first function is called on load $(document).ready(function() { $("#div2").hide('slow'); $("#div1").empty().html('<img src="ajax-loader.gif" />'); $.ajax( { type: "POST", url: "WebFunctions.php", data: {'func':'1'}, success: function(html) { $("#div1").show('slow').html(html) } }); The Data: {'func':'1'} -- is a switch statement on the php side switch($_POST['func']) { case '1': getParents(); break; case '2': getChilds(params); break; case '3': getChildObjects(params); break; default: } "This functions are calls to a soap server" <-- irrelevant. So when that function finishes i get an array which contains IDs and Names. I echo the names but i want the ID for reference so when i click on the echoed name i can call an other php function with parameter the ID of the name... How do i get rid of the switch statement?? How do i call properly php functions and pass params to it??? How can i save this IDs so when i click on an item with that id an other php function is called?? Plz feel free to ask any question, any answer is welcome :)

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  • android: ending activity from tab

    - by Jin
    I have 3 classes, let's call them 1, 2, and 3. Class 1 extends TabActivity and organizes the whole tab thing, Class 2 and 3 are just two separate tabs each with some lines of text. I call Class 1 from another activity using startActivityForResult. I then added an optionsMenu in class 2, and when user clicks the optionMenu, the following code is carried out: @Override public boolean onMenuItemSelected(int featureId, MenuItem item) { Intent i = new Intent(); switch(item.getItemId()) { case Result.NEXT_ID: i.putExtra(Result.PAGE_REQUEST, NEXT); setResult(RESULT_OK, i); finish(); break; case Result.PREV_ID: i.putExtra(Result.PAGE_REQUEST, PREV); setResult(RESULT_OK, i); finish(); } return super.onMenuItemSelected(featureId, item); } In my parent class (the class that called 1 to begin with), in its onActivityResult function, I want to get the data from the extras. However, the intent is always null, and I can't figure out why. When I call finish() on class 2, is it calling some other function in class 1? Do I have to transfer the intent data somehow?

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  • Can't declare an abstract method private....

    - by Zombies
    I want to do this, yet I can't. Here is my scenario and rational. I have an abstract class for test cases that has an abstract method called test(). The test() method is to be defined by the subclass; it is to be implemented with logic for a certain application, such as CRMAppTestCase extends CompanyTestCase. I don't want the test() method to be invoked directly, I want the super class to call the test() method while the sub class can call a method which calls this (and does other work too, such as setting a current date-time right before the test is executed for example). Example code: public abstract class CompanyTestCase { //I wish this would compile, but it cannot be declared private private abstract void test(); public TestCaseResult performTest() { //do some work which must be done and should be invoked whenever //this method is called (it would be improper to expect the caller // to perform initialization) TestCaseResult result = new TestCaseResult(); result.setBeginTime(new Date()); long time = System.currentTimeMillis(); test(); //invoke test logic result.setDuration(System.currentTimeMillis() - time); return result; } } Then to extend this.... public class CRMAppTestCase extends CompanyTestCase { public void test() { //test logic here } } Then to call it.... TestCaseResult result = new CRMAppTestCase().performTest();

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  • Vim: How do I tell where a function is defined? (

    - by sixtyfootersdude
    I just installed macvim yesterday and I installed vim latex today. One of the menu items is calling a broken fuction (TeX-Suite -> view). When I click on the menu-time it makes this call: :silent! call Tex_ViewLatex() Question: Where can I find that function? Is there some way to figure out where it is defined? Just for curiosity sake I removed the silent part and ran this: :call Tex_ViewLatex() Which produces: Error detected while processing function Tex_ViewLaTeX: line 34: E121: Undefined variable: s:viewer E116: Invalid arguments for function strlen(s:viewer) E15: Invalid expression: strlen(s:viewer) line 39: E121: Undefined variable: appOpt E15: Invalid expression: 'open '.appOpt.s:viewer.' $*.'.s:target line 79: E121: Undefined variable: execString E116: Invalid arguments for function substitute(execString, '\V$*', mainfname, 'g' ) E15: Invalid expression: substitute(execString, '\V$*', mainfname, 'g') line 80: E121: Undefined variable: execString E116: Invalid arguments for function Tex_Debug line 82: E121: Undefined variable: execString E15: Invalid expression: 'silent! !'.execString Press ENTER or type command to continue I suspect that if I could see the source function I could figure out what inputs are bad or what it is looking for. Thanks.

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  • Async webmethod without timeout

    - by phenevo
    Hi, I need a console app which will calling webmethod. It must be asynchronous and without timeout (we don't know how much time takes this method to deal with task. Is it good way: [WebMethod] [SoapDocumentMethod(OneWay = true)] ??

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  • Calling member functions dynamically

    - by user652511
    I'm pretty sure it's possible to call a class and its member function dynamically in Delphi, but I can't quite seem to make it work. What am I missing? // Here's a list of classes (some code removed for clarity) moClassList : TList; moClassList.Add( TClassA ); moClassList.Add( TClassB ); // Here is where I want to call an object's member function if the // object's class is in the list: for i := 0 to moClassList.Count - 1 do if oObject is TClass(moClassList[i]) then with oObject as TClass(moClassList[i]) do Foo(); I get an undeclared identifier for Foo() at compile. Clarification/Additional Information: What I'm trying to accomplish is to create a Change Notification system between business classes. Class A registers to be notified of changes in Class B, and the system stores a mapping of Class A - Class B. Then, when a Class B object changes, the system will call a A.Foo() to process the change. I'd like the notification system to not require any hard-coded classes if possible. There will always be a Foo() for any class that registers for notification. Maybe this can't be done or there's a completely different and better approach to my problem. By the way, this is not exactly an "Observer" design pattern because it's not dealing with objects in memory. Managing changes between related persistent data seems like a standard problem to be solved, but I've not found very much discussion about it. Again, any assistance would be greatly appreciated. Jeff

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  • How To Send thousands of javaMails simultaneously ?

    - by ylazez
    greetings all i am building a web app(smth like a forums) that will need to send thousands of emails simultaneously i think that it would be such a big load on the app to handle sending the emails, so i want to use another service or framework to handle sending the emails in asynchronous way so that there will be no load on the app, maybe JMS , i don't know, please suggest me a good solution.

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  • How to output multiple rows from an SQL query using the mysqli object

    - by Jonathan
    Assuming that the mysqli object is already instantiatied (and connected) with the global variable $mysql, here is the code I am trying to work with. class Listing { private $mysql; function getListingInfo($l_id = "", $category = "", $subcategory = "", $username = "", $status = "active") { $condition = "`status` = '$status'"; if (!empty($l_id)) $condition .= "AND `L_ID` = '$l_id'"; if (!empty($category)) $condition .= "AND `category` = '$category'"; if (!empty($subcategory)) $condition .= "AND `subcategory` = '$subcategory'"; if (!empty($username)) $condition .= "AND `username` = '$username'"; $result = $this->mysql->query("SELECT * FROM listing WHERE $condition") or die('Error fetching values'); $this->listing = $result->fetch_array() or die('could not create object'); foreach ($this->listing as $key => $value) : $info[$key] = stripslashes(html_entity_decode($value)); endforeach; return $info; } } there are several hundred listings in the db and when I call $result-fetch_array() it places in an array the first row in the db. however when I try to call the object, I can't seem to access more than the first row. for instance: $listing_row = new Listing; while ($listing = $listing_row-getListingInfo()) { echo $listing[0]; } this outputs an infinite loop of the same row in the db. Why does it not advance to the next row? if I move the code: $this->listing = $result->fetch_array() or die('could not create object'); foreach ($this->listing as $key => $value) : $info[$key] = stripslashes(html_entity_decode($value)); endforeach; if I move this outside the class, it works exactly as expected outputting a row at a time while looping through the while statement. Is there a way to write this so that I can keep the fetch_array() call in the class and still loop through the records?

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  • Complicated API issue with calling assemblies dynamically?

    - by Stefanos Tses
    I have an interesting challenge that I'm wondering if anyone here can give me some direction. I'm writing a .Net windows forms application that runs on a network and uses an SQL Server to save and pull data. I want to offer a mini "plugin" API, where developers can build their own assemblies and implement a specific interface (IDataManipulate). These assemblies then can be used by my application to call the interface functions and do something. I can create assemblies using my API, copy the file to a folder in my local hard drive and configure my application to use Reflection to call a specific function from the implemented interface (IDataManipulate.Execute). The problem: Since the application will be installed in multiple workstations in the network, is impossible to copy the plugin dlls the users will create to each machine. Solutions I tried: Solution 1 Copy the API dll to a network share. Problem: Requires AllowPartiallyTrustedCallersAttribute, which requires .Net singing, which I can't force from my users. Solution 2 (preferred) Serialize the dll object, save it to the database, deserialize it and call IDataManipulate.Execute. Problem: After deserialization, I try cast it to a IDataManipulate object but returns an error looking for the actual dll file. Solution 3 Save the dll bytes as byte[] to the database and recreate the dll at the local PC every time the user starts my application. Problem: Dll may have dependencies, which I don't know if I can detect. Any suggestions will be greatly appreciated. Thanks

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  • SQL Server Connection Timeout C#

    - by Termin8tor
    First off I'd like to let everyone know I have searched my particular problem and can't seem to find what's causing my problem. I have an SQL Server 2008 instance running on a network machine and a client I have written connecting to it. To connect I have a small segment of code that establishes a connection to an sql server 2008 instance and returns a DataTable populated with the results of whatever query I run against the server, all pretty standard stuff really. Anyway the issue is, whenever I open my program and call this method, upon the first call to my method, regardless as to what I've set my Connection Timeout value as in the connection string, it takes about 15 seconds and then times out. Bizarrely though the second or third call I make to the method will work without a problem. I have opened up the ports for SQL Server on the server machine as outlined in this article: How to Open firewall ports for SQL Server and verified that it is correctly configured. Can anyone see a particular problem in my code? string _connectionString = "Server=" + @Properties.Settings.Default.sqlServer + "; Initial Catalog=" + @Properties.Settings.Default.sqlInitialCatalog + ";User Id=" + @Properties.Settings.Default.sqlUsername + ";Password=" + @Properties.Settings.Default.sqlPassword + "; Connection Timeout=1"; private DataTable ExecuteSqlStatement(string command) { using (SqlConnection conn = new SqlConnection(_connectionString)) { try { conn.Open(); using (SqlDataAdapter adaptor = new SqlDataAdapter(command, conn)) { DataTable table = new DataTable(); adaptor.Fill(table); return table; } } catch (SqlException e) { throw e; } } } The SqlException that is caught at my catch is : "Timeout expired. The timeout period elapsed prior to completion of the operation or the server is not responding." This occurs at the conn.Open(); line in the code snippet I have included. If anyone has any ideas that'd be great!

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  • Please help me with a Power shell Script which rearranges Paths.

    - by Hamish Grubijan
    Hi, I have both Sybase and MSFT SQL Servers installed. There is a time when Sybase interferes with MS SQL because they have they have some overlapping commands. So, I need two scripts: A) When runs, script A backs up the current path, grabs all paths that contain sybase or SYBASE or SyBASE (you get the point) in them and move them all at the very end of the path, while preserving the order. B) When it runs, script B restores the path from back-up. Both script a and script b should affect the path immediately. So, if a.bat that calls patha.ps1, pathb.ps1 looks like so: @REM Old path here call patha.ps1 @REM At this point the effective path should be different. call pathb.ps1 @REM Effective old path again Please let me know if this does not make sense. I am not sure if call command is the best one to use. I have never used P.S. before. I can try to formulate the same thing in Python (I know S.O. users tend to ask for "What have you tried so far"). Well, at this point I am VERY slow at writing anything in Power Shell language. Please help.

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  • How to stop calling the Activity again when device orientation is changed??

    - by user1460323
    My app uses Barcode Scanner. I want to launch the scanner when I open the app so I have it in the onCreate method. The problem is that if I have it like that, when I turn the device it calls again onCreate and calls another scanner. Also I have the first activity that calls the scanner. it has a menu so if he user presses back, it goes to that menu. If I turn the screen on that menu, it goes to barcode scanner again. To solve it I have a flag that indicates if it is the first time I call the scanner, if it's not I don't call it again. Now the problem is that if I go out of the app and go in again it doesn't go to the scanner, it goes to the menu, becasuse is not the first time I call it. Any ideas?? Is there a way to change the flag when I go out of my main activity or any other solution?? My code. private static boolean first = true; public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.main); integrator = new IntentIntegrator(this); if (first) { first = false; integrator.initiateScan(); } }

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  • How can I dynamically define the named route in a :partial in rails?

    - by Angela
    I have the following partial. It can be called from three different times in a view as follows: <%= render :partial => "contact_event", :collection => @contacts, :locals => {:event => email} %> Second time: <%= render :partial => "contact_event", :collection => @contacts, :locals => {:event => call} %> Third time: <%= render :partial => "contact_event", :collection => @contacts, :locals => {:event => letter} %> In each instance, call, email, letter refer to a specific instance of a Model Call, Email, or Letter. Here is the content of the partial "contact_event": <%= link_to_remote "Skip #{event} Remote", :url => skip_contact_email_url(contact_event, event), :update => "update-area-#{contact_event.id}-#{event.id}" %> <span id='update-area-<%="#{contact_event.id}-#{event.id}"%>'> </span> </p> My challenge: skip_contact_email_url only works when the event refers to an email. How can I dynamically define skip_contact_email_url to be skip_contact_letter_url if the local variable is letter? Even better, how can I have a single named route that would do the appropriate action?

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  • ffmpeg async io?

    - by ronag
    Anyone know if ffmpeg does asynchronous file io? That is, the input file is read in a separate thread as to avoid io blocking the processing thread? Basically what I want to figure out is whether or not i need to do calls to "av_read_frame" inside a separate thread (to avoid blocking) or if ffmpeg alrdy handles this issue? How might I figure this out? I've tried downloading the ffmpeg source but haven't been able to find anything useful.

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