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  • Get notified/receive explicit intents when an activity starts

    - by qtips
    Hi, I am developing an application than gets notified when an activity chosen by a user is started. For this to work, the best approach would be to register a broadcastreceiver for ACTION_MAIN explicit intents, which as far as I know doesn't work (because these intents have specific targets). Another, probably less efficient approach, is to use the system ActivityManager and poll on the getRunningTask() which returns a list of all running tasks at the moment. The polling can be done by a background service. By monitoring the changes in this list, I can see whether an activity is running or not, so that my application can get notified. The downside is ofcourse the polling. I have not tried this yet, but I think that this last approach will probably work. Does anyone know of a better approach(es) or suggestions which are less intensive?

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  • LLVM Clang 5.0 explicit in copy-initialization error

    - by kevzettler
    I'm trying to compile an open source project on OSX that has only been tested on Linux. $: g++ -v Configured with: --prefix=/Applications/Xcode.app/Contents/Developer/usr --with-gxx-include-dir=/usr/include/c++/4.2.1 Apple LLVM version 5.0 (clang-500.2.79) (based on LLVM 3.3svn) Target: x86_64-apple-da I'm trying to compile with the following command line options g++ -MMD -Wall -std=c++0x -stdlib=libc++ -Wno-sign-compare -Wno-unused-variable -ftemplate-depth=1024 -I /usr/local/Cellar/boost/1.55.0/include/boost/ -g -O3 -c level.cpp -o obj-opt/level.o I am seeing several errors that look like this: ./square.h:39:70: error: chosen constructor is explicit in copy-initialization int strength = 0, double flamability = 0, map<SquareType, int> constructions = {}, bool ticking = false); The project states the following are requirements for the Linux setup. How can I confirm I'm making that? gcc-4.8.2 git libboost 1.5+ with libboost-serialize libsfml-dev 2+ (Ubuntu ppa that contains libsfml 2: ) freeglut-dev libglew-dev

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  • Type casting Collections using Conversion Operators

    - by Vyas Bharghava
    The below code gives me User-defined conversion must convert to or from enclosing type, while snippet #2 doesn't... It seems that a user-defined conversion routine must convert to or from the class that contains the routine. What are my alternatives? Explicit operator as extension method? Anything else? public static explicit operator ObservableCollection<ViewModel>(ObservableCollection<Model> modelCollection) { var viewModelCollection = new ObservableCollection<ViewModel>(); foreach (var model in modelCollection) { viewModelCollection.Add(new ViewModel() { Model = model }); } return viewModelCollection; } Snippet #2 public static explicit operator ViewModel(Model model) { return new ViewModel() {Model = model}; } Thanks in advance!

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  • problem with for xml explicit clause in sql server 2005

    - by harrycode
    I am using for xml explicit clause in sql to send table data as xml from sql to asp.net page. I have created a stored procedure when i run store procedure in sql mgmt studio my xml is same as expected. But when I fetch It in asp.net then Xml returned is broken into two rows if xml exceeds certain character limit. I want result to be in single row. I am unable to figure out why single xml string is broken into two rows. please help

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  • UDK "Error, Accessing a member of _'s within class through a context expression requires explicit 'O

    - by Ricket
    I get the following error in the UDK Frontend when I try to make my project: C:\UDK\UDK-2010-03\Development\Src\FixIt\Classes\ZInteraction.uc(58) : Error, Accessing a member of GameUISceneClient's within class through a context expression requires explicit 'Outer' The class ZInteraction extends Interaction. Line 58 is: GetSceneClient().ConsoleCommand("KEYNAME"@Key); What is the problem here? I am still investigating and I will update as I find out more. edit: Tried fixing the line up as class'UIRoot'.static.GetSceneClient().ConsoleCommand("KEYNAME"@Key); - no change.

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  • Inheriting from ViewPage forces explicit casting of model in view

    - by Martin Hansen
    I try to inhering from ViewPage as shown in this question http://stackoverflow.com/questions/370500/inheriting-from-viewpage But I get a Compiler Error Message: CS1061: 'object' does not contain a definition for 'Spot' and no extension method 'Spot' accepting a first argument of type 'object' could be found (are you missing a using directive or an assembly reference?) My viewpage, normally I can do Model.ChildProperty(Spot) when I inherit from ViewPage directly, so I do that here too. But it fails. <%@ Page Language="C#" Inherits="Company.Site.ViewPageBase<WebSite.Models.SpotEntity>" %> <h1><%= Html.Encode(Model.Spot.Title) %></h1> To get it working correctly I have to do like this: <%@ Page Language="C#" Inherits="Company.Site.ViewPageBase<WebSite.Models.SpotEntity>" %> <h1><%= Html.Encode(((WebSite.Models.SpotEntity)Model).Spot.Title) %></h1> Here is my classes: namespace Company.Site { public class ViewPageBase<TModel> : Company.Site.ViewPageBase where TModel:class { private ViewDataDictionary<TModel> _viewData; [System.Diagnostics.CodeAnalysis.SuppressMessage("Microsoft.Usage", "CA2227:CollectionPropertiesShouldBeReadOnly")] public new ViewDataDictionary<TModel> ViewData { get { if (_viewData == null) { SetViewData(new ViewDataDictionary<TModel>()); } return _viewData; } set { SetViewData(value); } } protected override void SetViewData(ViewDataDictionary viewData) { _viewData = new ViewDataDictionary<TModel>(viewData); base.SetViewData(_viewData); } } public class ViewPageBase : System.Web.Mvc.ViewPage { } } So how do I get it to work without the explicit cast?

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  • C++: Explicit DLL Loading: First-chance Exception on non "extern C" functions

    - by Shiftbit
    I am having trouble importing my C++ functions. If I declare them as C functions I can successfully import them. When explicit loading, if any of the functions are missing the extern as C decoration I get a the following exception: First-chance exception at 0x00000000 in cpp.exe: 0xC0000005: Access violation. DLL.h: extern "C" __declspec(dllimport) int addC(int a, int b); __declspec(dllimport) int addCpp(int a, int b); DLL.cpp: #include "DLL.h" int addC(int a, int b) { return a + b; } int addCpp(int a, int b) { return a + b; } main.cpp: #include "..DLL/DLL.h" #include <stdio.h> #include <windows.h> int main() { int a = 2; int b = 1; typedef int (*PFNaddC)(int,int); typedef int (*PFNaddCpp)(int,int); HMODULE hDLL = LoadLibrary(TEXT("../Debug/DLL.dll")); if (hDLL != NULL) { PFNaddC pfnAddC = (PFNaddC)GetProcAddress(hDLL, "addC"); PFNaddCpp pfnAddCpp = (PFNaddCpp)GetProcAddress(hDLL, "addCpp"); printf("a=%d, b=%d\n", a,b); printf("pfnAddC: %d\n", pfnAddC(a,b)); printf("pfnAddCpp: %d\n", pfnAddCpp(a,b)); //EXCEPTION ON THIS LINE } getchar(); return 0; } How can I import c++ functions for dynamic loading? I have found that the following code works with implicit loading by referencing the *.lib, but I would like to learn about dynamic loading. Thank you to all in advance.

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  • Explicit script end tag always converted to self-closing

    - by Jonas
    I'm using xslt to transform xml to an aspx file. In the xslt, I have a script tag to include a jquery.js file. To get it to work with IE, the script tag must have an explicit closing tag. For some reason, this doesn't work with xslt below. <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <xsl:stylesheet version="1.0" xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml" xmlns:xsl="http://www.w3.org/1999/XSL/Transform" xmlns:msxsl="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:xslt" exclude-result-prefixes="msxsl" xmlns:asp="remove"> <xsl:output method="html"/> <xsl:template match="/"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head> <title>TEST</title> <script type="text/javascript" src="jquery-1.2.6.js"></script> But if I change the script tag as shown below, it works. <script type="text/javascript" src="jquery-1.2.6.js"> // <![CDATA[ // ]]> </script> I thought that the <xsl:output method="html" /> would do the trick, but it doesn't seem to work? /Jonas

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  • Explicit localization problem

    - by X-Dev
    when trying to translate the confirmation message to Norwegian i get the following error: Cannot have more than one binding on property 'OnClientClick' on 'System.Web.UI.WebControls.LinkButton'. Ensure that this property is not bound through an implicit expression, for example, using meta:resourcekey. i use Explicit localization in the following manner: <asp:LinkButton ID="lnkMarkInvoiced" runat="server" OnClick="lnkMarkInvoiced_OnClick" OnClientClick="<%# Resources: lnkMarkInvoicedResource.OnClientClick%>" Visible="False" CssClass="stdtext" meta:resourcekey="lnkMarkInvoicedResource" ></asp:LinkButton> here's the local resource file entry: <data name="lnkMarkInvoicedResource.OnClientClick" xml:space="preserve"> <value>return confirm('Er du sikker?');</value> if i remove the meta attribute i get the English text(default). how do i get the Norwegian text appearing without resorting to using the code behind? Update: removing the meta attribute prevents the exception from occurring but the original problem still exists. I can't get the Norwegian text to show. only the default English text shows. Another Update: I know this question is getting old but i still can't get the Norwegian text to display. If anyone has some tips please post a response.

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  • safe placement new & explicit destructor call

    - by uray
    this is an example of my codes: ` template <typename T> struct MyStruct { T object; } template <typename T> class MyClass { MyStruct<T>* structPool; size_t structCount; MyClass(size_t count) { this->structCount = count; this->structPool = new MyStruct<T>[count]; for( size_t i=0 ; i<count ; i++ ) { //placement new to call constructor new (&this->structPool[i].object) T(); } } ~MyClass() { for( size_t i=0 ; i<this->structCount ; i++ ) { //explicit destructor call this->structPool[i].object.~T(); } delete[] this->structPool; } } ` my question is, is this a safe way to do? do I make some hidden mistake at some condition? will it work for every type of object (POD and non-POD) ?

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  • C++ explicit template specialization of templated constructor of templated class

    - by Victor Liu
    I have a class like template <class T> struct A{ template <class U> A(U u); }; I would like to write an explicit specialization of this for a declaration like A<int>::A(float); In the following test code, if I comment out the specialization, it compiles with g++. Otherwise, it says I have the wrong number of template parameters: #include <iostream> template <class T> struct A{ template <class U> A(T t, U *u){ *u += U(t); } }; template <> template <> A<int>::A<int,float>(int t, float *u){ *u += U(2*t); } int main(){ float f = 0; int i = 1; A<int>(i, &f); std::cout << f << std::endl; return 0; }

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  • Linq-to-XML explicit casting in a generic method

    - by vlad
    I've looked for a similar question, but the only one that was close didn't help me in the end. I have an XML file that looks like this: <Fields> <Field name="abc" value="2011-01-01" /> <Field name="xyz" value="" /> <Field name="tuv" value="123.456" /> </Fields> I'm trying to use Linq-to-XML to get the values from these fields. The values can be of type Decimal, DateTime, String and Int32. I was able to get the fields one by one using a relatively simple query. For example, I'm getting the 'value' from the field with the name 'abc' using the following: private DateTime GetValueFromAttribute(IEnumerable<XElement> fields, String attName) { return (from field in fields where field.Attribute("name").Value == "abc" select (DateTime)field.Attribute("value")).FirstOrDefault() } this is placed in a separate function that simply returns this value, and everything works fine (since I know that there is only one element with the name attribute set to 'abc'). however, since I have to do this for decimals and integers and dates, I was wondering if I can make a generic function that works in all cases. this is where I got stuck. here's what I have so far: private T GetValueFromAttribute<T>(IEnumerable<XElement> fields, String attName) { return (from field in fields where field.Attribute("name").Value == attName select (T)field.Attribute("value").Value).FirstOrDefault(); } this doesn't compile because it doesn't know how to convert from String to T. I tried boxing and unboxing (i.e. select (T) (Object) field.Attribute("value").Value but that throws a runtime Specified cast is not valid exception as it's trying to convert the String to a DateTime, for instance. Is this possible in a generic function? can I put a constraint on the generic function to make it work? or do I have to have separate functions to take advantage of Linq-to-XML's explicit cast operators?

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  • How to remove the explicit dependencies to other projects' libraries in Eclipse launch configuration

    - by euluis
    In Eclipse it is possible to create launch configurations in a project, specifying the runtime dependencies from another project. A problem I found was that if you have a multiple project workspace, being possible that each project has its own libraries, it is easy to add explicit dependencies in a secondary project to libraries that are of another project and therefore subject to change. An example of this problem follows: proj1 +-- src +-- lib +-- jar1-v1.0.jar +-- jar2-v1.0.jar proj2 +-- src +-- proj2-tests.launch I don't have a dependency from the code in proj2/src to the libraries in proj1/lib. Nevertheless, I do have a dependency from proj2/src to proj1/src, although since there is an internal dependency in the code in proj1/src to its libraries jar1-v1.0.jar and jar2.v1.0.jar, I have to add a dependency in proj2-tests.launch to the libraries in proj1/lib. This translates to the following ugly lines in proj2-tests.launch: <listEntry value="<?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8" standalone="no"?> <runtimeClasspathEntry path="3" projectName="proj1" type="1"/> "/> <listEntry value="<?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8" standalone="no"?> <runtimeClasspathEntry internalArchive="/proj1/lib/jar1-v1.0.jar" path="3" type="2"/> "/> <listEntry value="<?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8" standalone="no"?> <runtimeClasspathEntry internalArchive="/proj1/lib/jar2-v1.0.jar" path="3" type="2"/> "/> This wouldn't be a big problem if there wasn't the need from time to time to evolve the software, upgrade the libraries and etc. Consider the common need to upgrade the libraries jar1-v1.0.jar and jar2-v1.0.jar to their versions v1.1. Consider that you have about 10 projects in one workspace, having about 5 libraries each and about 4 launch configurations. You get a maintenance overhead in doing a simple upgrade of a library, which normally must imply changes in files for which there wasn't the need for. Or maybe I'm doing something wrong... What I would like to state is proj2 depends on proj1 and on its libraries and having this translated to simply that in the *.launch files. Is that possible?

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  • Avoiding explicit recursion in Haskell

    - by Travis Brown
    The following simple function applies a given monadic function iteratively until it hits a Nothing, at which point it returns the last non-Nothing value. It does what I need, and I understand how it works. lastJustM :: (Monad m) => (a -> m (Maybe a)) -> a -> m a lastJustM g x = g x >>= maybe (return x) (lastJustM g) As part of my self-education in Haskell I'm trying to avoid explicit recursion (or at least understand how to) whenever I can. It seems like there should be a simple non-explicitly recursive solution in this case, but I'm having trouble figuring it out. I don't want something like a monadic version of takeWhile, since it could be expensive to collect all the pre-Nothing values, and I don't care about them anyway. I checked Hoogle for the signature and nothing shows up. The m (Maybe a) bit makes me think a monad transformer might be useful here, but I don't really have the intuitions I'd need to come up with the details (yet). It's probably either embarrassingly easy to do this or embarrassingly easy to see why it can't or shouldn't be done, but this wouldn't be the first time I've used self-embarrassment as a pedagogical strategy. Background: Here's a simplified working example for context: suppose we're interested in random walks in the unit square, but we only care about points of exit. We have the following step function: randomStep :: (Floating a, Ord a, Random a) => a -> (a, a) -> State StdGen (Maybe (a, a)) randomStep s (x, y) = do (a, gen') <- randomR (0, 2 * pi) <$> get put gen' let (x', y') = (x + s * cos a, y + s * sin a) if x' < 0 || x' > 1 || y' < 0 || y' > 1 then return Nothing else return $ Just (x', y') Something like evalState (lastJustM (randomStep 0.01) (0.5, 0.5)) <$> newStdGen will give us a new data point.

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  • Why does Scala require functions to have explicit return type?

    - by garbage collection
    I recently began learning to program in Scala, and it's been fun so far. I really like the ability to declare functions within another function which just seems to intuitive thing to do. One pet peeve I have about Scala is the fact that Scala requires explicit return type in its functions. And I feel like this hinders on expressiveness of the language. Also it's just difficult to program with that requirement. Maybe it's because I come from Javascript and Ruby comfort zone. But for a language like Scala which will have tons of connected functions in an application, I cannot conceive how I brainstorm in my head exactly what type the particular function I am writing should return with recursions after recursions. This requirement of explicit return type declaration on functions, do not bother me for languages like Java and C++. Recursions in Java and C++, when they did happen, often were dealt with 2 to 3 functions max. Never several functions chained up together like Scala. So I guess I'm wondering if there is a good reason why Scala should have the requirement of functions having explicit return type?

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  • Explicit Type Conversion and Multiple Simple Type Specifiers

    - by James McNellis
    To value initialize an object of type T, one would do something along the lines of one of the following: T x = T(); T x((T())); My question concerns types specified by a combination of simple type specifiers, e.g., unsigned int: unsigned int x = unsigned int(); unsigned int x((unsigned int())); Visual C++ 2008 and Intel C++ Compiler 11.1 accept both of these without warnings; Comeau 4.3.10.1b2 and g++ 3.4.5 (which is, admittedly, not particularly recent) do not. According to the C++ standard (C++03 5.2.3/2, expr.type.conv): The expression T(), where T is a simple-type-specifier (7.1.5.2) for a non-array complete object type or the (possibly cv-qualified) void type, creates an rvalue of the specified type, which is value-initialized 7.1.5.2 says, "the simple type specifiers are," and follows with a list that includes unsigned and int. Therefore, given that in 5.2.3/2, "simple-type-specifier" is singular, and unsigned and int are two type specifiers, are the examples above that use unsigned int invalid? (and, if so, the followup is, is it incorrect for Microsoft and Intel to support said expressions?) This question is more out of curiosity than anything else; for all of the types specified by a combination of multiple simple type specifiers, value initialization is equivalent to zero initialization. (This question was prompted by comments in response to this answer to a question about initialization).

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  • Can I avoid explicit 'self'?

    - by bguiz
    I am fairly new to Python and trying to pick it up, so please forgive if this question has a very obvious answer! I have been learning Python by following some pygame tutorials. Therein I found extensive use of the keyword self, and coming from a primarily Java background, I find that I keep forgetting to type self. For example, instead of self.rect.centerx I would type rect.centerx, because, to me, rect is already a member variable of the class. The Java parallel I can think of for this situation is having to prefix all references to member variables with this. Am I stuck prefixing all member variables with self, or is there a way to declare them that would allow me to avoid having to do so? Even if what I am suggesting isn't "pythonic", I'd still like to know if it is possible. I have taken a look at these related SO questions, but they don't quite answer what I am after: Python - why use “self” in a class? Why do you need explicitly have the “self” argument into a Python method?

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  • Why do properties require explicit typing during compilation?

    - by ctpenrose
    Compilation using property syntax requires the type of the receiver to be known at compile time. I may not understand something, but this seems like a broken or incomplete compiler implementation considering that Objective-C is a dynamic language. The property "comment" is defined with: @property (nonatomic, retain) NSString *comment; and synthesized with: @synthesize comment; "document" is an instance of one of several classes which conform to: @protocol DocumentComment <NSObject> @property (nonatomic, retain) NSString *comment; @end and is simply declared as: id document; When using the following property syntax: stringObject = document.comment; the following error is generated by gcc: error: request for member 'comment' in something not a structure or union However, the following equivalent receiver-method syntax, compiles without warning or error and works fine, as expected, at run-time: stringObject = [document comment]; I don't understand why properties require the type of the receiver to be known at compile time. Is there something I am missing? I simply use the latter syntax to avoid the error in situations where the receiving object has a dynamic type. Properties seem half-baked.

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  • Fluent NHibernate - Cascade delete a child object when no explicit parent->child relationship exists

    - by John Price
    I've got an application that keeps track of (for the sake of an example) what drinks are available at a given restaurant. My domain model looks like: class Restaurant { public IEnumerable<RestaurantDrink> GetRestaurantDrinks() { ... } //other various properties } class RestaurantDrink { public Restaurant Restaurant { get; set; } public Drink { get; set; } public string DrinkVariety { get; set; } //"fountain drink", "bottled", etc. //other various properties } class Drink { public string Name { get; set; } public string Manufacturer { get; set; } //other various properties } My db schema is (I hope) about what you'd expect; "RestaurantDrinks" is essentially a mapping table between Restaurants and Drinks with some extra properties (like "DrinkVariety" tacked on). Using Fluent NHibernate to set up mappings, I've set up a "HasMany" relationship from Restaurants to RestaurantDrinks that causes the latter to be deleted when its parent Restaurant is deleted. My question is, given that "Drink" does not have any property on it that explicitly references RestaurantDrinks (the relationship only exists in the underlying database), can I set up a mapping that will cause RestaurantDrinks to be deleted if their associated Drink is deleted? Update: I've been trying to set up the mapping from the "RestaurantDrink" end of things using References(x => x.Drink) .Column("DrinkId") .Cascade.All(); But this doesn't seem to work (I still get an FK violation when deleting a Drink).

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  • http(/* argument here */) How is this Object (Http) being used without an explicit or implicit meth

    - by Randin
    In the example for coding with Json using Databinder Dispatch Nathan uses an Object (Http) without a method, shown here: import dispatch._ import Http._ Http("http://www.fox.com/dollhouse/" >>> System.out ) How is he doing this? Thank you for all of the answers unfortunatly I was not specific enough... It looks like it is simply passing an argument to a constructor of class or companion object Http. In another example, I've seen another form: http = new Http http(/* argument here */) Is this valid Scala? I guess it must be, because the author is a Scala expert. But it makes no sense to me. Actions are usually performed by invoking methods on objects, whether explicitly as object.doSomething() or implicitly as object = something (using the apply() method underneath the syntactic sugar). All I can think of is that a constructor is being used to do something in addition to constructing an object. In other words, it is having side effects, such as in this case going off and doing something on the web.

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  • explicit template instantiations

    - by user323422
    see following code and please clear doubts1. as ABC is template why it not showing error when we put defination of ABC class member function in test.cpp 2.if i put test.cpp code in test.h and remve 2 , then it working fine. // test.h template <typename T> class ABC { public: void foo( T& ); void bar( T& ); }; // test.cpp template <typename T> void ABC<T>::foo( T& ) {} // definition template <typename T> void ABC<T>::bar( T& ) {} // definition template void ABC<char>::foo( char & ); // 1 template class ABC<char>; // 2 // main.cpp #include "test.h" int main() { ABC<char> a; a.foo(); // valid with 1 or 2 a.bar(); // link error if only 1, valid with 2 }

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  • Any HTTP proxies with explicit, configurable support for request/response buffering and delayed conn

    - by Carlos Carrasco
    When dealing with mobile clients it is very common to have multisecond delays during the transmission of HTTP requests. If you are serving pages or services out of a prefork Apache the child processes will be tied up for seconds serving a single mobile client, even if your app server logic is done in 5ms. I am looking for a HTTP server, balancer or proxy server that supports the following: A request arrives to the proxy. The proxy starts buffering in RAM or in disk the request, including headers and POST/PUT bodies. The proxy DOES NOT open a connection to the backend server. This is probably the most important part. The proxy server stops buffering the request when: A size limit has been reached (say, 4KB), or The request has been received completely, headers and body Only now, with (part of) the request in memory, a connection is opened to the backend and the request is relayed. The backend sends back the response. Again the proxy server starts buffering it immediately (up to a more generous size, say 64KB.) Since the proxy has a big enough buffer the backend response is stored completely in the proxy server in a matter of miliseconds, and the backend process/thread is free to process more requests. The backend connection is immediately closed. The proxy sends back the response to the mobile client, as fast or as slow as it is capable of, without having a connection to the backend tying up resources. I am fairly sure you can do 4-6 with Squid, and nginx appears to support 1-3 (and looks like fairly unique in this respect). My question is: is there any proxy server that empathizes these buffering and not-opening-connections-until-ready capabilities? Maybe there is just a bit of Apache config-fu that makes this buffering behaviour trivial? Any of them that it is not a dinosaur like Squid and that supports a lean single-process, asynchronous, event-based execution model? (Siderant: I would be using nginx but it doesn't support chunked POST bodies, making it useless for serving stuff to mobile clients. Yes cheap 50$ handsets love chunked POSTs... sigh)

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  • explicit copy constructor or implicit parameter by value

    - by R Samuel Klatchko
    I recently read (and unfortunately forgot where), that the best way to write operator= is like this: foo &operator=(foo other) { swap(*this, other); return *this; } instead of this: foo &operator=(const foo &other) { foo copy(other); swap(*this, copy); return *this; } The idea is that if operator= is called with an rvalue, the first version can optimize away construction of a copy. So when called with a rvalue, the first version is faster and when called with an lvalue the two are equivalent. I'm curious as to what other people think about this? Would people avoid the first version because of lack of explicitness? Am I correct that the first version can be better and can never be worse?

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