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  • iPhone SDK: Rendering a CGLayer into an image object

    - by codemercenary
    Hi all, I am trying to add a curved border around an image downloaded and to be displayed in a UITableViewCell. In the large view (ie one image on the screen) I have the following: productImageView = [[UIImageView alloc] initWithImage:[UIImage imageNamed:product.image]]; [productImageView setAlpha:0.4]; productImageView.frame = CGRectMake(10.0, 30.0, 128.0, 128.0); CALayer *roundedlayer = [productImageView layer]; [roundedlayer setMasksToBounds:YES]; [roundedlayer setCornerRadius:7.0]; [roundedlayer setBorderWidth:2.0]; [roundedlayer setBorderColor:[[UIColor darkGrayColor] CGColor]]; [self addSubview:productImageView]; In the table view cell, to get it to scroll fast, an image needs to be drawn in the drawRect method of a UIView which is then added to a custom cell. so in drawRect - (void)drawRect:(CGRect)rect { ... point = CGPointMake(boundsX + LEFT_COLUMN_OFFSET, UPPER_ROW_TOP); //CALayer *roundedlayer = [productImageView layer]; //[roundedlayer setMasksToBounds:YES]; //[roundedlayer setCornerRadius:7.0]; //[roundedlayer setBorderWidth:2.0]; //[roundedlayer setBorderColor:[[UIColor darkGrayColor] CGColor]]; //[productImageView drawRect:CGRectMake(boundsX + LEFT_COLUMN_OFFSET, UPPER_ROW_TOP, IMAGE_WIDTH, IMAGE_HEIGHT)]; // [productImageView.image drawInRect:CGRectMake(boundsX + LEFT_COLUMN_OFFSET, UPPER_ROW_TOP, IMAGE_WIDTH, IMAGE_HEIGHT)]; So this works well, but if I remove the comment and try to show the rounded CA layer the scrolling goes really slow. To fix this I suppose I would have to render this image context into a different image object, and store this in an array, then set this image as something like: productImageView.image = (UIImage*)[imageArray objectAtIndex:indexPath.row]; My question is "How do I render this layer into an image?" TIA.

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  • JSF 2 Annotations with Websphere 7 (JEE5, JAVA 1.6)

    - by gerges
    Hey all, I'm currently writing a simple JSF 2 app for WAS 7. When I define the bean via the faces-config.xml, everything works great <managed-bean> <managed-bean-name>personBean</managed-bean-name> <managed-bean-class>com.prototype.beans.PersonBean</managed-bean-class> <managed-bean-scope>request</managed-bean-scope> </managed-bean> When I try to use the annotations below instead, the app failes. package com.prototype.beans; import javax.faces.bean.ManagedBean; import javax.faces.bean.RequestScoped; @ManagedBean(name="personBean") @RequestScoped public class PersonBean { .... } I've set the WAS classloader to Parent Last, and verified in the logs that Mojarra 2.x is loading. [5/17/10 10:46:59:399 CDT] 00000009 config I Initializing Mojarra 2.0.2 (FCS b10) for context '/JSFPrototype' However, when I try to use the app (which had worked with XML based config) I see the following [5/17/10 10:48:08:491 CDT] 00000016 lifecycle W /pages/inputname.jsp(16,7) '#{personBean.personName}' Target Unreachable, identifier 'personBean' resolved to null org.apache.jasper.el.JspPropertyNotFoundException: /pages/inputname.jsp(16,7) '#{personBean.personName}' Target Unreachable, identifier 'personBean' resolved to null Anyone know whats going wrong?

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  • Null Reference getting REMOTE_ADDR

    - by Josh
    I have an ASMX web service running under IIS7 in classic mode. This service has the following code: try { env.ExternalIP = HttpContext.Current.Request.ServerVariables["REMOTE_ADDR"]; } catch (Exception ex) { LogWriter.WriteError(ex); env.ExternalIP="000.000.000.000"; } This results in the following stack trace. I only modified the names of usercode call stack here to protect the innocent: Message: An Exception of type: NullReferenceException occured in method: GetAdditionalServerVar ExceptionMsg: Object reference not set to an instance of an object. ===Stack Trace=== at System.Web.Hosting.ISAPIWorkerRequestInProc.GetAdditionalServerVar(Int32 index) at System.Web.Hosting.ISAPIWorkerRequestInProc.GetServerVariable(String name) at System.Web.HttpRequest.AddServerVariableToCollection(String name) at System.Web.HttpRequest.FillInServerVariablesCollection() at System.Web.HttpServerVarsCollection.Populate() at System.Web.HttpServerVarsCollection.Get(String name) at System.Collections.Specialized.NameValueCollection.get_Item(String name) at MyService.MyMethod() I'm at a loss here as this is very basic plain vanilla code. EDIT This gets even stranger. I have added some basic code just wondering what server variables I can get at this point. This fails with the same exception when I try and get all the keys: System.NullReferenceException: Object reference not set to an instance of an object. at System.Web.Hosting.ISAPIWorkerRequestInProc.GetAdditionalServerVar(Int32 index) at System.Web.Hosting.ISAPIWorkerRequestInProc.GetServerVariable(String name) at System.Web.HttpRequest.AddServerVariableToCollection(String name) at System.Web.HttpRequest.FillInServerVariablesCollection() at System.Web.HttpServerVarsCollection.Populate() at System.Web.HttpServerVarsCollection.get_AllKeys() at MyService.MyHelper() When I was looking at the framework code looks like this could happen when the array which caches the server variables isn't populated and it looks like this occurs when there a null pointer to some Context...which seems like a fairly core piece of the framework code. I suppose it's time to burn up one of our support tickets with Microsoft.

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  • UIImagePickerController Save to Disk then Load to UIImageView

    - by Harley Gagrow
    Hi, I have a UIImagePickerController that saves the image to disk as a png. When I try to load the PNG and set a UIImageView's imageView.image to the file, it is not displaying. Here is my code: (void)imagePickerController:(UIImagePickerController *)picker didFinishPickingMediaWithInfo:(NSDictionary *)info { UIImage *image = [info objectForKey:UIImagePickerControllerOriginalImage]; NSData *imageData = UIImagePNGRepresentation(image); // Create a file name for the image NSDateFormatter *dateFormatter = [[NSDateFormatter alloc] init]; [dateFormatter setTimeStyle:NSDateFormatterShortStyle]; [dateFormatter setDateStyle:NSDateFormatterShortStyle]; NSString *imageName = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"photo-%@.png", [dateFormatter stringFromDate:[NSDate date]]]; [dateFormatter release]; // Find the path to the documents directory NSArray *paths = NSSearchPathForDirectoriesInDomains(NSDocumentDirectory, NSUserDomainMask, YES); NSString *documentsDirectory = [paths objectAtIndex:0]; // Now we get the full path to the file NSString *fullPathToFile = [documentsDirectory stringByAppendingPathComponent:imageName]; // Write out the data. [imageData writeToFile:fullPathToFile atomically:NO]; // Set the managedObject's imageLocation attribute and save the managed object context [self.managedObject setValue:fullPathToFile forKey:@"imageLocation"]; NSError *error = nil; [[self.managedObject managedObjectContext] save:&error]; [self dismissModalViewControllerAnimated:YES]; } Then here is how I try to load it: self.imageView.backgroundColor = [UIColor lightGrayColor]; self.imageView.frame = CGRectMake(10, 10, 72, 72); if ([self.managedObject valueForKey:@"imageLocation"] != nil) { NSLog(@"Trying to load the imageView with: %@", [self.managedObject valueForKey:@"imageLocation"]); UIImage *image = [[UIImage alloc] initWithContentsOfFile:[self.managedObject valueForKey:@"imageLocation"]]; self.imageView.image = image; } else { self.imageView.image = [UIImage imageNamed:@"no_picture_taken.png"]; } I get the message that it's trying to load the imageView in the debugger, but the image is never displayed in the imageView. Can anyone tell me what I've got wrong here? Thanks a bunch.

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  • Send Data Using the WebRequest Class to DotNetOpenAuth website

    - by Denis
    I am trying to send data to DotNetOpenAuth website as described here http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/debx8sh9.aspx Sender receive (500) Internal Server Error. The same code for blank website without DotNetOpenAuth works fine. Should I tweak something? Here is an exception: System.ArgumentNullException was unhandled by user code Message="Value cannot be null.\r\nParameter name: key" Source="mscorlib" ParamName="key" StackTrace: at System.ThrowHelper.ThrowArgumentNullException(ExceptionArgument argument) at System.Collections.Generic.Dictionary`2.Insert(TKey key, TValue value, Boolean add) at System.Collections.Generic.Dictionary`2.Add(TKey key, TValue value) at DotNetOpenAuth.OAuth.ChannelElements.OAuthChannel.ReadFromRequestCore(HttpRequestInfo request) in c:\BuildAgent\work\7ab20c0d948e028f\src\DotNetOpenAuth\OAuth\ChannelElements\OAuthChannel.cs:line 145 at DotNetOpenAuth.Messaging.Channel.ReadFromRequest(HttpRequestInfo httpRequest) in c:\BuildAgent\work\7ab20c0d948e028f\src\DotNetOpenAuth\Messaging\Channel.cs:line 372 at DotNetOpenAuth.OAuth.ServiceProvider.ReadRequest(HttpRequestInfo request) in c:\BuildAgent\work\7ab20c0d948e028f\src\DotNetOpenAuth\OAuth\ServiceProvider.cs:line 222 Exception occurs on last line of the code: private void context_AuthenticateRequest(object sender, EventArgs e) { // Don't read OAuth messages directed at the OAuth controller or else we'll fail nonce checks. if (this.IsOAuthControllerRequest()) { return; } if (HttpContext.Current.Request.HttpMethod != "HEAD") { // workaround: avoid involving OAuth for HEAD requests. IDirectedProtocolMessage incomingMessage = OAuthServiceProvider.ServiceProvider.ReadRequest(new HttpRequestInfo(this.application.Context.Request));

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  • C#: How to force "calling" a method from the main thread by signaling in some way from another thread

    - by Fire-Dragon-DoL
    Sorry for long title, I don't know even the way on how to express the question I'm using a library which run a callback from a different context from the main thread (is a C Library), I created the callback in C# and when gets called I would like to just raise an event. However because I don't know what will be inside the event, I would like to find a way to invoke the method without the problem of locks and so on (otherwise the third party user will have to handle this inside the event, very ugly) Are there any way to do this? I can be totally on the wrong way but I'm thinking about winforms way to handle different threads (the .Invoke thing) Otherwise I can send a message to the message loop of the window, but I don't know a lot about message passing and if I can send "custom" messages like this Example: private uint lgLcdOnConfigureCB(int connection, System.IntPtr pContext) { OnConfigure(EventArgs.Empty); return 0U; } this callback is called from another program which I don't have control over, I would like to run OnConfigure method in the main thread (the one that handles my winform), how to do it? Or in other words, I would like to run OnConfigure without the need of thinking about locks

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  • Quartz.NET trigger not firing

    - by billy_bob_the
    i am using Quartz.NET in my ASP.NET web application. i put the following code in a button click handler to make sure that it executes (for testing purposes): Quartz.ISchedulerFactory factory = new Quartz.Impl.StdSchedulerFactory(); Quartz.IScheduler scheduler = factory.GetScheduler(); Quartz.JobDetail job = new Quartz.JobDetail("job", null, typeof(BackupJob)); Quartz.Trigger trigger = Quartz.TriggerUtils.MakeDailyTrigger(8, 30); // i edit this each time before compilation (for testing purposes) trigger.StartTimeUtc = Quartz.TriggerUtils.GetEvenSecondDate(DateTime.UtcNow); trigger.Name = "trigger"; scheduler.ScheduleJob(job, trigger); scheduler.Start(); here's "BackupJob": public class BackupJob : IJob { public BackupJob() { } public void Execute(JobExecutionContext context) { NSG.BackupJobStart(); } } my question: why is "BackupJobStart()" not firing? i've used similar code before and it worked fine. EDIT: @Andy White, i would have it in Application_Start in Global.asax. this doesn't work which is why i moved it to a button click handler to narrow down the problem.

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  • Time flies like an arrow demo in WinForms

    - by Benjol
    Looking at the Reactive Extensions for javascript demo on Jeff Van Gogh's blog, I thought I'd give it a try in C#/Winforms, but it doesn't seem to work so well. I just threw this into the constructor of a form (with the Rx framework installed and referenced): Observable.Context = SynchronizationContext.Current; var mousemove = Observable.FromEvent<MouseEventArgs>(this, "MouseMove"); var message = "Time flies like an arrow".ToCharArray(); for(int i = 0; i < message.Length; i++) { var l = new Label() { Text = message[i].ToString(), AutoSize = true, TextAlign = ContentAlignment.MiddleCenter }; int closure = i; mousemove .Delay(closure * 150) .Subscribe(e => { l.Left = e.EventArgs.X + closure * 15 + 10; l.Top = e.EventArgs.Y; //Debug.WriteLine(l.Text); }); Controls.Add(l); } When I move the mouse, the letters seem to get moved in a random order, and if I uncomment the Debug line, I see multiple events for the same letter... Any ideas? I've tried Throttle, but it doesn't seem to make any difference. Am I just asking too much of WinForms to move all those labels around? (Cross posted on Rx Forum)

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  • Cannot see named Silverlight control in code

    - by Alexandra
    In my first few hours with Silverlight 3, as an avid WPF user, I am greatly disappointed at the many things it doesn't support. This seems like an odd issue to me and it's so generic that I cannot find anything online about it. I have the following XAML: <controls:TabControl x:Name="workspacesTabControl" Grid.Row="1" Background="AntiqueWhite" ItemsSource="{Binding Workspaces, ElementName=_root}"/> However, I cannot see the workspacesTabControl in code-behind. I thought maybe IntelliSense is just being mean and tried to go ahead and compile it anyway, but got an error: Error 1 The name 'workspacesTabControl' does not exist in the current context How do I access controls in code-behind? EDIT: I realized I've pasted the wrong error - I have two controls inside the UserControl called workspacesTabControl and menuStrip. I cannot get to either one of them by their name in the code-behind. Just in case, here is the XAML for the menuStrip: <controls:TreeView Grid.ColumnSpan="2" Height="100" x:Name="menuStrip" ItemContainerStyle="{StaticResource MenuStripStyle}" ItemsSource="{Binding Menu, ElementName=_root}"/> EDIT AGAIN: I'm not sure if this is helpful, but I've taken a look at the InitializeComponent() code and here's what I saw: [System.Diagnostics.DebuggerNonUserCodeAttribute()] public void InitializeComponent() { if (_contentLoaded) { return; } _contentLoaded = true; System.Windows.Application.LoadComponent(this, new System.Uri("/SapphireApplication;component/SapphireMain.xaml", System.UriKind.Relative)); } It seems that it simply loads the XAML when it runs (not before or during compilation) so the menuStrip and workspacesTabControl names don't actually get registered anywhere (as they usually are in WPF/win Forms). Could that attribute be a problem? And where do I get rid of this requirement for all the future UserControls I make?

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  • How to set the tableview's top using contentinset property while being at the bottom of the table

    - by neha
    Hi all, I'm having a tableview with 20 rows and 250 as their rowheight. While I'm at the bottom of the tableview, I want to shift the tableview upwards by 65px. I tried doing self.tableView.contentInset = UIEdgeInsetsMake(-65.0f, 0.0f, 0.0f, 0.0f); Also self.tableView.contentInset = UIEdgeInsetsMake((4633.0f - 65.0f), 0.0f, 0.0f, 0.0f); where 4633.0f is my contentoffset.y, but with no success. When the last cell is pulled upwards, I'm showing a view below the last cell with an activity indicator on it to depict that more data is getting loaded. I need to keep that view visible for 2 seconds so I want to push the tableview cells up and after that I want to bring the tableview to its original position and reset the view below that. I'm doing this [UIView beginAnimations:nil context:NULL]; [UIView setAnimationDuration:0.2]; // self.tableView.contentInset = UIEdgeInsetsMake((4633.0f - 65.0f), 0.0f, 0.0f, 0.0f); self.tableView.contentInset = UIEdgeInsetsMake(- 65.0f, 0.0f, 0.0f, 0.0f); [UIView commitAnimations]; and then calling a function to reset it back as self.tableView.contentInset = UIEdgeInsetsMake(0.0f, 0.0f, 0.0f, 0.0f); Can anybody please suggest how to do it? Thanx in advance.

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  • iPhone SDK : UIImageView - Collapsing animation

    - by chris.o.
    Hi All, I'm trying to animating across the screen a horizontal bar with a color gradient. For simplicity, I chose to make a png of the fully extended bar, assign it to a UIImageView, and (attempt to) animate resizing of it using a UIView animation. The problem is that in the "closed" state of the Image, the portion of the image showing is not the part that I want. The image is arranged so that from L to R, a white to red color gradient occurs. The right side (about 20 pixels) is solid red and is the part I want to show when the bar is "collapsed". I'm trying to extend the image out by about 100 pixels to its full width. I referenced the "Buy Now" button example for my code as it seemed relevant" http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1669804/uibutton-appstore-buy-button-animation My code: [UIView beginAnimations:@"barAnimation" context:nil]; [UIView setAnimationDuration:0.6]; CGRect barFrame = bookBar.bounds; if (fExtendBar) { barFrame.origin.x -= 100; barFrame.size.width += 100; } else { barFrame.origin.x += 100; barFrame.size.width -= 100; } bookBar.frame = barFrame; [UIView commitAnimations]; I feel like this should be possible, maybe by setting an "offsetOfImage" to display in the UIImageView, but I can't seem to make it work. Also, I've noticed that the behavior is kind of consistent with what happens in Interface Builder when you resize an image. Then again, I would think there would be a way to override this behavior programmatically. Any suggestions (including other approaches) are welcome. Thanks, chris.o.

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  • Structuring projects & dependencies of large winforms applications in C#

    - by Benjol
    UPDATE: This is one of my most-visited questions, and yet I still haven't really found a satisfactory solution for my project. One idea I read in an answer to another question is to create a tool which can build solutions 'on the fly' for projects that you pick from a list. I have yet to try that though. How do you structure a very large application? Multiple smallish projects/assemblies in one big solution? A few big projects? One solution per project? And how do you manage dependencies in the case where you don't have one solution. Note: I'm looking for advice based on experience, not answers you found on Google (I can do that myself). I'm currently working on an application which has upward of 80 dlls, each in its own solution. Managing the dependencies is almost a full time job. There is a custom in-house 'source control' with added functionality for copying dependency dlls all over the place. Seems like a sub-optimum solution to me, but is there a better way? Working on a solution with 80 projects would be pretty rough in practice, I fear. (Context: winforms, not web) EDIT: (If you think this is a different question, leave me a comment) It seems to me that there are interdependencies between: Project/Solution structure for an application Folder/File structure Branch structure for source control (if you use branching) But I have great difficulty separating these out to consider them individually, if that is even possible. I have asked another related question here.

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  • WCF sending the same exception even if the service endpoint address is valid

    - by ALexr111
    Hi, I'm running into a really strange problem with WCF. I need to implement some recovery behavior for WCF service if not reachable endpoint IP address received or service can not bind. The flow is simple if the application fail on exception on service creation it terminate it and request from user another IP address and perform another attempt to create the service. (The code snippet below). If the address is not valid I get "A TCP error (10049: The requested address is not valid in its context) occurred while listening on IP Endpoint=.121.10.11.11" exception, but for any reason if I try the second attempt with valid address I've got the same exception with wrong IP address from previous attempt. Here is a code: ServiceHost service = null; try { Uri[] uris = { new Uri(Constants.PROTOCOL + "://" + address + ":" + port) }; service = new ServiceHost(typeof(IRemoteService), uris); NetTcpBinding tcpBinding = WcfTcpRemoteServicesManager.LessLimitedNewNetTcpBinding(int.MaxValue, int.MaxValue, int.MaxValue); ServiceEndpoint ep = service.AddServiceEndpoint(implementedContract.FullName, tcpBinding, serviceName); var throttle = service.Description.Behaviors.Find<ServiceThrottlingBehavior>(); if (throttle == null) { throttle = new ServiceThrottlingBehavior { MaxConcurrentCalls = Constants.MAX_CONCURRENT_CALLS, MaxConcurrentSessions = Constants.MAX_CONCURRENT_SESSIONS, MaxConcurrentInstances = Constants.MAX_CONCURRENT_INSTANCES }; service.Description.Behaviors.Add(throttle); } service.Open(); } catch (Exception e) { _debugLog.WriteLineMessage( "Failed to open or create service exception. Exception message:" + e.Message); if (service!=null) { try { service.Close(); } catch (Exception) { service.Abort(); service.Close(); throw e; } } } Thanks

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  • Problem with Json Date format when calling cross-domain proxy

    - by Christo Fur
    I am using a proxy service to allow my client side javascript to talk to a service on another domain The proxy is a simple ashx file with simply gets the request and forwards it onto the service on the other domain : using (var sr = new System.IO.StreamReader(context.Request.InputStream)) { requestData = sr.ReadToEnd(); } string data = HttpUtility.UrlDecode(requestData); using (var client = new WebClient()) { client.BaseAddress = serviceUrl; client.Headers.Add("Content-Type", "application/json"); response = client.UploadString(new Uri(webserviceUrl), data); } The client javascript calling this proxy looks like this function TestMethod() { $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "/custommodules/configuratorproxyservice.ashx?m=TestMethod", contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", data: JSON.parse('{"testObj":{"Name":"jo","Ref":"jones","LastModified":"\/Date(-62135596800000+0000)\/"}}'), dataType: "json", success: AjaxSucceeded, error: AjaxFailed }); function AjaxSucceeded(result) { alert(result); } function AjaxFailed(result) { alert(result.status + ' - ' + result.statusText); } } This works fine until I have to pass a date. At which point I get a Bad Request error when the proxy tries to call the service I did have this working at one point but have now lost it. Have tried using JSON.Parse on the object before sending. and JSON.Stringify, but no joy anyone got any ideas what I am missing

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  • How to return DropDownList selections dynamically in C#?

    - by salvationishere
    This is probably a simple question but I am developing a web app in C# with DropDownList. Currently it is working for just one DropDownList. But now that I modified the code so that number of DropDownLists that should appear is dynamic, it gives me error; "The name 'ddl' does not exist in the current context." The reason for this error is that there a multiple instances of 'ddl' = number of counters. So how do I instead return more than one 'ddl'? Like what return type should this method have instead? And how do I return these values? Reason I need it dynamic is I need to create one DropDownList for each column in whatever Adventureworks table they select. private DropDownList CreateDropDownLists() { for (int counter = 0; counter < NumberOfControls; counter++) { DropDownList ddl = new DropDownList(); SqlDataReader dr2 = ADONET_methods.DisplayTableColumns(targettable); ddl.ID = "DropDownListID" + (counter + 1).ToString(); int NumControls = targettable.Length; DataTable dt = new DataTable(); dt.Load(dr2); ddl.DataValueField = "COLUMN_NAME"; ddl.DataTextField = "COLUMN_NAME"; ddl.DataSource = dt; ddl.ID = "DropDownListID 1"; ddl.SelectedIndexChanged += new EventHandler(ddlList_SelectedIndexChanged); ddl.DataBind(); ddl.AutoPostBack = true; ddl.EnableViewState = true; //Preserves View State info on Postbacks //ddlList.Style["position"] = "absolute"; //ddl.Style["top"] = 80 + "px"; //ddl.Style["left"] = 0 + "px"; dr2.Close(); } return ddl; }

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  • Draw to offscreen renderbuffer in OpenGL ES (iPhone)

    - by David Ensminger
    I'm trying to create an offscreen render buffer in OpenGL ES on the iPhone. I've created the buffer like this: glGenFramebuffersOES(1, &offscreenFramebuffer); glBindFramebufferOES(GL_FRAMEBUFFER_OES, offscreenFramebuffer); glGenRenderbuffersOES(1, &offscreenRenderbuffer); glBindRenderbufferOES(GL_RENDERBUFFER_OES, offscreenRenderbuffer); glFramebufferRenderbufferOES(GL_FRAMEBUFFER_OES, GL_COLOR_ATTACHMENT0_OES, GL_RENDERBUFFER_OES, offscreenRenderbuffer); But I'm confused on how to render the storage. Apple's documentation says to use the EAGLContext renderBufferStorage:fromDrawable: method, but this seems to only work for one render buffer (the main one being displayed). If I use the normal OpenGL function glRenderBufferStorageOES, then I can't seem to get it to display. Here's the code: // this is in the initialization section: glRenderbufferStorageOES(GL_RENDERBUFFER_OES, GL_RGB8_OES, backingWidth, backingHeight); // and this is when I'm trying to draw to it and display it: glBindFramebufferOES(GL_FRAMEBUFFER_OES, offscreenFramebuffer); GLfloat vc[] = { 0.0f, 0.0f, 0.0f, 10.0f, 10.0f, 10.0f, 0.0f, 0.0f, 0.0f, -10.0f, -10.0f, -10.0f, }; glLoadIdentity(); glEnableClientState(GL_VERTEX_ARRAY); glVertexPointer(3, GL_FLOAT, 0, vc); glDrawArrays(GL_LINES, 0, 4); glDisableClientState(GL_VERTEX_ARRAY); glBindRenderbufferOES(GL_RENDERBUFFER_OES, offscreenRenderbuffer); [context presentRenderbuffer:GL_RENDERBUFFER_OES]; Doing it this way, nothing is displayed on the screen. However, if I switch out the references to "offscreen...Buffer" to the buffers that were created with the renderBufferStorage method, it works fine. Any suggestions?

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  • How to force two process to run on the same CPU?

    - by kovan
    Context: I'm programming a software system that consists of multiple processes. It is programmed in C++ under Linux. and they communicate among them using Linux shared memory. Usually, in software development, is in the final stage when the performance optimization is made. Here I came to a big problem. The software has high performance requirements, but in machines with 4 or 8 CPU cores (usually with more than one CPU), it was only able to use 3 cores, thus wasting 25% of the CPU power in the first ones, and more than 60% in the second ones. After many research, and having discarded mutex and lock contention, I found out that the time was being wasted on shmdt/shmat calls (detach and attach to shared memory segments). After some more research, I found out that these CPUs, which usually are AMD Opteron and Intel Xeon, use a memory system called NUMA, which basically means that each processor has its fast, "local memory", and accessing memory from other CPUs is expensive. After doing some tests, the problem seems to be that the software is designed so that, basically, any process can pass shared memory segments to any other process, and to any thread in them. This seems to kill performance, as process are constantly accessing memory from other processes. Question: Now, the question is, is there any way to force pairs of processes to execute in the same CPU?. I don't mean to force them to execute always in the same processor, as I don't care in which one they are executed, altough that would do the job. Ideally, there would be a way to tell the kernel: If you schedule this process in one processor, you must also schedule this "brother" process (which is the process with which it communicates through shared memory) in that same processor, so that performance is not penalized.

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  • How to use drag and drop within a UIScrollView

    - by user249488
    I am trying to drag and drop UIViews within a UIScrollView. I'd like the UIScrollView to scroll if I drag a UIView so that it intersects the top or bottom of the ScrollView. If it touches the top, it should scroll up. If it touches the bottom, it should scroll down. Once the UIView is moved such that it is no longer intersecting the top or bottom, the scrolling should stop. The first approach I tried was to start an NSTimer whenever I detected that the UIView intersected with the top or bottom of the scrollview. The timer would scroll the UIScrollView bit by bit until it was invalidated. This resulted in very jerky scrolling, since there is no way to predict when the timers will fire. My current approach is to simply scroll all the way to the top or bottom of the ScrollView, like this: [UIView beginAnimations:nil context:NULL]; [UIView setAnimationCurve:UIViewAnimationCurveEaseInOut]; [UIView setAnimationDuration:1.0]; [self.parentScrollview setContentOffset:newOffset animated:NO]; [UIView commitAnimations]; In order to stop scrolling, I try to determine the position of the touch in the touchesMoved: delegate, and use that to calculate the contentOffset to use for the scrollView. The problem is, when I try to get the location in the view via [[touches anyObject] locationInView:self], I get the final end location, rather than the current location. I'm guessing that's because the contentOffset on the scrollView is set immediately. Is there a way to get the actual location of a touch in a situation like this? Or any other way to set the contentOffset when I interrupt the scrolling animation?

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  • Disable Razors default .cshtml handler in a ASP.NET Web Application

    - by mythz
    Does anyone know how to disable the .cshtml extension completely from an ASP.NET Web Application? In essence I want to hijack the .cshtml extension and provide my own implementation based on a RazorEngine host, although when I try to access the page.cshtml directly it appears to be running under an existing WebPages razor host that I'm trying to disable. Note: it looks like its executing .cshtml pages under the System.Web.WebPages.Razor context as the Microsoft.Data Database is initialized. I don't even have any Mvc or WebPages dlls referenced, just System.Web.dll and a local copy of System.Web.Razor with RazorEngine.dll I've created a new ASP.NET Web .NET 4.0 Application and have tried to clear all buildProviders and handlers as seen below: <system.web> <httpModules> <clear/> </httpModules> <compilation debug="true" targetFramework="4.0"> <buildProviders> <clear/> </buildProviders> </compilation> <httpHandlers> <clear/> <add path="*" type="MyHandler" verb="*"/> </httpHandlers> </system.web> <system.webServer> <modules runAllManagedModulesForAllRequests="true"> <clear/> </modules> <handlers> <clear/> <add path="*" name="MyHandler" type="MyHandler" verb="*" preCondition="integratedMode" resourceType="Unspecified" allowPathInfo="true" /> </handlers> </system.webServer> Although even with this, when I visit any page.cshtml page it still bypasses My wildcard handler and tries to execute the page itself. Basically I want to remove all traces of .cshtml handlers/buildProviders/preprocessing so I can serve the .cshtml pages myself, anyone know how I can do this?

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  • FileNotFoundException, altough the XML file should be deployed

    - by Bernhard V
    Hi, I've got problems starting my WAR application on a local JBoss. After two other EARs are deployed and the TomcatDeployer begins deploying the WAR, I'm getting the following error message: 2010-04-28 10:01:56,605 ERROR [org.jboss.ejb.plugins.LogInterceptor] [] [main] EJBException in method: public abstract at.sozvers.stp.zpv.ejb.lea.rwsuc.EJBLeaRegelwerkSuchenRemote at.sozvers.stp.zpv.ejb.lea.rwsuc.EJBLeaRegelwerkSuchenHome.create() throws javax.ejb.CreateException,java.rmi.RemoteException, causedBy: javax.ejb.EJBException: org.springframework.beans.factory.access.BootstrapException: Unable to initialize group definition. Group resource name [classpath*:applicationContext.xml], factory key [contextService]; nested exception is org.springframework.beans.factory.BeanCreationException: Error creating bean with name 'contextService' defined in URL [jar:file:/C:/ta30/nutzb/jboss-4.2.3.GA.ZPV/server/default/deploy/deploy.last/zpv-app-web-frontend-1.0-SNAPSHOT.war/WEB-INF/lib/zpv-comp-ejb-modules-1.0-SNAPSHOT-client.jar!/applicationContext.xml]: Instantiation of bean failed; nested exception is org.springframework.beans.BeanInstantiationException: Could not instantiate bean class [org.springframework.context.support.ClassPathXmlApplicationContext]: Constructor threw exception; nested exception is org.springframework.beans.factory.BeanDefinitionStoreException: IOException parsing XML document from class path resource [at/sozvers/stp/zpv/dao/ContextBasic.xml]; nested exception is java.io.FileNotFoundException: class path resource [at/sozvers/stp/zpv/dao/ContextBasic.xml] cannot be opened because it does not exist The sad thing is that the resource at/sozvers/stp/zpv/dao/ContextBasic.xml actually is placed in a JAR in one of my EAR files which should be deployed before the WAR. And at least I get a message that the deployment of the EAR has been successful. I also looked into the JAR with my file archiver and the ContextBasic.xml is indeed there at the right place. Is there a way for me to get sure that the JAR, not the EAR as a whole, is really deployed to the JBoss? I'm already starting to lose my head about this issue. Thank you. Bernhard

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  • Indentation annoyance with CSS in Vim

    - by Johan Sahlén
    I've moved from TextMate to Vim lately, and am really liking the switch. However, I have an itch regarding the way Vim handles indentation within curly braces using the CSS syntax. I use simple_pairs.vim, which may or may not have something to do with my problem, but I don't think so, as things work fine in PHP, JavaScript, etc. Let me explain… I generally group my CSS rules by context using indentation, like so: ul#nav { margin: 10px; } ul#nav li { float: left; margin-right: 4px; } That means when I type my ul#nav li rule, followed by { (which inserts a corresponding } automatically) and hit enter, I want the closing brace to be at the same indentation level as the ul#…, but instead I get something like this: ul#nav { margin: 10px; } ul#nav li { } So I have to indent the extra step(s) manually. Like I said, doing the same thing in PHP, JavaScript, etc, works fine. Does anyone know how I can fix this? I don't understand enough of Vim's syntax definition files for me to be able to figure out what in the PHP syntax file makes it work, and port it over to the CSS one… Thanks.

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  • SVM Classification - minimum number of input sets for each class

    - by Amol Joshi
    Im trying to build an app to detect images which are advertisements from the webpages. Once I detect those Ill not be allowing those to be displayed on the client side. From the help that I got here in stackoverflow, I thought SVM is the best approach to my aim. So, I have coded SVM and an SMO myself. The dataset which I have got from UCI data repository has 3280 instances ( Link to Dataset- http://archive.ics.uci.edu/ml/datasets/Internet+Advertisements )where around 400 of them are from class representing Advertisement images and rest of them representing non-advertisement images. Right now Im taking the first 2800 input sets and training the SVM. But after looking at the accuracy rate I realised that most of those 2800 input sets are from non-advertisement image class. So Im getting very good accuracy for that class. So what can I do here? About how many input set shall I give to SVM to train and how many of them for each class? Thanks. Cheers. ( Basically made a new question because the context was different from my previous question. http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1991113/optimization-of-neural-network-input-data )

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  • JEE6 Global JNDI Name and Maven Deployment

    - by wobblycogs
    I'm having some problems with the global JNDI names of my EJB resources which is (or at least will) cause my JNDI look ups to fail. The project is being developed on Netbeans and is a standard Maven Web Application. When my application is deployed to GF3.0 the application name is set to something like: com.example_myapp_war_1.0-SNAPSHOT which is all well and good from Netbeans point of view because it ensures the name is unique but it also means all the EJBs get global names such as this: java:global/com.example_myapp_war_1.0-SNAPSHOT/CustomerService This, of course, is going to cause problems because every time the version changes all the global names change (I've tested this by changing the version and the names indeed changed). The name is being generated from the POM file and it's a concatenation of: <groupId>com.example</groupId> <artifactId>myapp</artifactId> <packaging>war</packaging> <version>1.0-SNAPSHOT</version> Up until now I've got away with just injecting all the resources using @EJB but now I need to access the CustomerService EJB from a JSF Converter so I'm doing a JNDI look up like this: try { Context ctx = new InitialContext(); CustomerService customerService = (CustomerService)ctx.lookup( "java:global/com.example_myapp_war_1.0-SNAPSHOT/CustomerService" ); return customerService.get(submittedValue); } catch( Exception e ) { logger.error( "Failed to convert customer.", e ); return null; } which will clearly break when the application is properly released and the module name changes. So, the million dollar question: how can I set the modle name in maven or how do I recover the module name so that I can programatically build the JNDI name at runtile. I've tried setting it in the web.xml file as suggested by that link but it was ignored. I think I'd rather build the name at runtime as that means there is less scope for screw ups when the application is deployed. Many thanks for any help, I've been tearing my hair out all day on this.

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  • Forms authentication in Silverlight

    - by Matt
    I have a website using forms authentication. Everything runs sweet their. I've got a Silverlight app that uses Duplex messaging to talk to a WCF service. I'd like to be able to authenticate users in my service. I realize that by doing this <serviceHostingEnvironment aspNetCompatibilityEnabled="true" /> that my service would then have access to the HttpContext.Current context and I could easily authenticate a user. But herein lies the problem. aspNetCompatibilityEnabled="true" combined with Duplex messaging results in very, very, very slow communication between silverlight and the website (10 seconds or more). Unless I have a configuration wrong, I'm going to assume that this is a bug in WCF / Silverlight. So basically I'm looking for a workaround. One idea I wanted to try was to read the ASPSESSID cookie from the browser and send that value over the wire. But I don't know what to do with the cookie on the service side. Is there some way to authenticate a user by sending their cookie data over duplex messaging?

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  • Stop event bubbling in Javascript

    - by Kartik Rao
    I have a html structure like : <div onmouseover="enable_dropdown(1);" onmouseout="disable_dropdown(1);"> My Groups <a href="#">(view all)</a> <ul> <li><strong>Group Name 1</strong></li> <li><strong>Longer Group Name 2</strong></li> <li><strong>Longer Group Name 3</strong></li> </ul> <hr /> Featured Groups <a href="#">(view all)</a> <ul> <li><strong>Group Name 1</strong></li> <li><strong>Longer Group Name 2</strong></li> <li><strong>Longer Group Name 3</strong></li> </ul> </div> I want the onmouseout event to be triggered only from the main div, not the 'a' or 'ul' or 'li' tags within the div! My onmouseout function is as follows : function disable_dropdown(d) { document.getElementById(d).style.visibility = "hidden"; } Can someone please tell me how I can stop the event from bubbling up? I tried the solutions (stopPropogation etc) provided on other sites, but I'm not sure how to implement them in this context. Any help will be appreciated. Thanks a lot!

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