Search Results

Search found 28957 results on 1159 pages for 'single instance'.

Page 310/1159 | < Previous Page | 306 307 308 309 310 311 312 313 314 315 316 317  | Next Page >

• drupal themes: .info file: how do I add more than 1 css file / js file to my theme?

  - by egarcia

  I'm creating a new Drupal theme. Until now, I only needed to include a single css file and a single js file. So my theme.info file had something like this: stylesheets[all][] = css/style.css scripts[] = js/script.js Now I must include jquery and jquery-ui in order to use a calendar date. These come with 2 new javascript files, and 1 additonal css file that I must add to the site. The calendar input form is going to be used in all pages (on a side block) so it is ok for me to load the extra css/javascript on all pages. I think the easiest thing would be to reference them on the .info file itself. At first I tried to just put them there with separate spaces: stylesheets[all][] = css/style.css css/ui-lightness/jquery-ui-1.8.1.custom.css scripts[] = js/jquery-1.4.2.min.js js/jquery-ui-1.8.1.custom.min.js js/reservations.js I emptied drupal's cache and... none of them loaded. I then tried separating each file with a comma, and flushing the cache again. Same result. I've browsed some drupal pages, but could not find how to add several javascript/css files on one theme (they always seem to add just 1 of each). So, how do I include several css/javascript files on the .info file?

  Read the article

• Visual Studio Unit Test failure to start

  - by swmi

  Hi, I am having an issue when starting the tests under debug mode in Visual Studio 2008 Team Test where it gives the following error: "Failed to queue test run '{user@machinename}': Object reference not set to an instance of an object." I googled for the error but no joy. Don't even understand what it means as it is too brief. Has anyone come across this? Note that I can run tests fine if I am not debugging and I get the same error irrespective of the test I run. Thank you, Swati ETA: Being new to Visual Studio Team Test, I didn't know there was a better exception log then what I was seeing. Anyhow, here it is: <Exception> System.NullReferenceException: Object reference not set to an instance of an object. at Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.TestCaseManagement.QualityToolsPackage. ShowToolWindow [T](T&amp; toolWindow, String errorMessage, Boolean show) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.TestCaseManagement.QualityToolsPackage. OpenTestResultsToolWindow() at Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.TestCaseManagement.SolutionIntegrationManager. DebugTarget(DebugInfo debugInfo, Boolean prepareEnvironment) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.TestManagement.DebugProcessLauncher.Launch( String exeFileName, String args, String workingDir, EventHandler processExitedHandler, Process&amp; process) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.TestManagement.LocalControllerProxy.StartProcess( TestRun run) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.TestManagement.LocalControllerProxy.RestartProcess( TestRun run) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.TestManagement.LocalControllerProxy.PrepareProcess( TestRun run) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.TestManagement.LocalControllerProxy. InitializeController(TestRun run) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.TestManagement.ControllerProxy.QueueTestRunWorker( Object state) </Exception>

  Read the article

• Disadvantages of MySQL Row Locking

  - by Nyxynyx

  I am using row locking (transactions) in MySQL for creating a job queue. Engine used is InnoDB. SQL Query START TRANSACTION; SELECT * FROM mytable WHERE status IS NULL ORDER BY timestamp DESC LIMIT 1 FOR UPDATE; UPDATE mytable SET status = 1; COMMIT; According to this webpage, The problem with SELECT FOR UPDATE is that it usually creates a single synchronization point for all of the worker processes, and you see a lot of processes waiting for the locks to be released with COMMIT. Question: Does this mean that when the first query is executed, which takes some time to finish the transaction before, when the second similar query occurs before the first transaction is committed, it will have to wait for it to finish before the query is executed? If this is true, then I do not understand why the row locking of a single row (which I assume) will affect the next transaction query that would not require reading that locked row? Additionally, can this problem be solved (and still achieve the effect row locking does for a job queue) by doing a UPDATE instead of the transaction? UPDATE mytable SET status = 1 WHERE status IS NULL ORDER BY timestamp DESC LIMIT 1

  Read the article

• Where do I put javaassist code?

  - by DutrowLLC

  I have an application running on google app engine. I'm using restlets and I have a couple of layers set up including the restlet layer, the model layer, the business layer, and the data layer. I'm attempting to use javaassist to modify some classes, but I'm unsure where to actually put the code. I tried to put the code in the static initialization block: public class Person { String firstName; String getFirstName(){return null;} static{ ClassPool pool = ClassPool.getDefault(); try { CtClass CtPerson = pool.get("Person"); CtMethod CtGetFirstName = CtPerson.getDeclaredMethod("GetFirstName"); CtGetFirstName.setBody("return firstName;"); CtPerson.toClass(); } catch (Exception e) { e.printStackTrace(); } } } ...but that resulted in this error: javassist.CannotCompileException:.....attempted duplicate class definition...". I guess it makes sense that I can't edit the class file in the middle of its generation. I know the code works because I was able to run it correctly by simply putting it in a location that would run when I sent the program a command. (accessed a Restlet resource). The code ran fine if an instance of the class had not already been instantiated, however once I instantiated an instance of the affected class, the javaassist code failed. I assume I need to put this code somewhere that it will only run either: once after the program starts, directly before a class is instantiated for the first time, or even better, during compile time.

  Read the article

• Access modifiers - Property on business objects - getting and setting

  - by Mike

  Hi, I am using LINQ to SQL for the DataAccess layer. I have similar business objects to what is in the data access layer. I have got the dataprovider getting the message #23. On instantiation of the message, in the message constructor, it gets the MessageType and makes a new instance of MessageType class and fills in the MessageType information from the database. Therefore; I want this to get the Name of the MessageType of the Message. user.Messages[23].MessageType.Name I also want an administrator to set the MessageType user.Messages[23].MessageType = MessageTypes.LoadType(3); but I don't want the user to publicly set the MessageType.Name. But when I make a new MessageType instance, the access modifier for the Name property is public because I want to set that from an external class (my data access layer). I could change this to property to internal, so that my class can access it like a public variable, and not allow my other application access to modify it. This still doesn't feel right as it seems like a public property. Are public access modifiers in this situation bad? Any tips or suggestions would be appreciated. Thanks.

  Read the article

• C++ Program Flow: Sockets in an Object and the Main Function

  - by jfm429

  I have a rather tricky problem regarding C++ program flow using sockets. Basically what I have is this: a simple command-line socket server program that listens on a socket and accepts one connection at a time. When that connection is lost it opens up for further connections. That socket communication system is contained in a class. The class is fully capable of receiving the connections and mirroring the data received to the client. However, the class uses UNIX sockets, which are not object-oriented. My problem is that in my main() function, I have one line - the one that creates an instance of that object. The object then initializes and waits. But as soon as a connection is gained, the object's initialization function returns, and when that happens, the program quits. How do I somehow wait until this object is deleted before the program quits? Summary: main() creates instance of object Object listens Connection received Object's initialization function returns main() exits (!) What I want is for main() to somehow delay until that object is finished with what it's doing (aka it will delete itself) before it quits. Any thoughts?

  Read the article

• JDBC call not executing

  - by dbyrne

  I am working on one of the DAOs for a medium sized web application. Unfortunately, it contains very convoluted logic, and makes hundreds of JDBC stored proc calls in loops. This is out of my control. I am working on a method inside the DAO which makes a single JDBC call. The simplified version of what this method looks like is this: DriverManager.registerDriver(new com.sybase.jdbc2.jdbc.SybDriver()); Connection con = DriverManager.getConnection((String)connectionDetails.get("DATABASE_URL") (String)connectionDetails.get("USERID"), (String)connectionDetails.get("PASSWORD")); String sqlToExecute = "{call " + STORED_PROC + "(?,?,?,?,?,?,?,?,?,?,?,?,?,?,?)}"; CallableStatement stmt = con.prepareCall(sqlToExecute); //Maybe I should try calling clearParameters here? stmt.setString(1,someData); //....Set of parameters.... if (!stmt.execute()) { //execute method never returns false } stmt.close(); Its pretty much a textbook JDBC call. All this stored proc does is insert a single row. Here is where things get crazy: This code works when you run it through a debugger line by line, but fails when you run it "full speed". Not only does it fail, but it doesn't throw any exception! The execute method always returns true. It just breezes right through the JDBC call without inserting a row to the database. If you go through the log files, copy the stored proc call and run it manually, it works (just like it does in debug mode). Whats strange is that the rest of the DAO, with all its hundreds of looped stored proc calls, works fine. My thinking is that Connection or CallableStatement is caching some value behind the scenes that is screwing things up. Has anyone ever seen anything like this before? A JDBC call failing with no exceptions? I know it will be impossible to provide a complete solution to this without seeing the whole application, I am just looking for suggestions on possible issues to investigate.

  Read the article

• Render multiple Form instances

  - by vorpyg

  I have a simple application where users are supposed to bet on outcome of a match. A match consists of two teams, a result and a stake. Matches with teams are created in the Django admin, and participants are to fill in result and stake. The form must be generated dynamically, based on the matches in the database. My idea is to have one (Django) Form instance for each match and pass these instances to the template. It works fine when I do it from django shell, but the instances aren't rendered when I load my view. The form looks like this: class SuggestionForm(forms.Form): def __init__(self, *args, **kwargs): try: match = kwargs.pop('match') except KeyError: pass super(SuggestionForm, self).__init__(*args, **kwargs) label = match self.fields['result'] = forms.ChoiceField(label=label, required=True, choices=CHOICES, widget=forms.RadioSelect()) self.fields['stake'] = forms.IntegerField(label='', required=True, max_value=50, min_value=10, initial=10) My (preliminary) view looks like this: def suggestion_form(request): matches = Match.objects.all() form_collection = {} for match in matches: f = SuggestionForm(request.POST or None, match=match) form_collection['match_%s' % match.id] = f return render_to_response('app/suggestion_form.html', { 'forms': form_collection, }, context_instance = RequestContext(request) ) My initial thought was that I could pass the form_collection to the template and the loop throught the collection like this, but id does not work: {% for form in forms %} {% for field in form %} {{ field }} {% endfor %} {% endfor %} (The output is actually the dict keys with added spaces in between each letter - I've no idea why…) It works if I only pass one Form instance to the template and only runs the inner loop. Suggestions are greatly appreciated.

  Read the article

• XSLT: Add namespace to root element

  - by Ingrid

  I need to change namespaces in the root element as follows: input document: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8" standalone="yes"?> <foo xsi:schemaLocation="urn:isbn:1-931666-22-9 http://www.loc.gov/ead/ead.xsd" xmlns:ns2="http://www.w3.org/1999/xlink" xmlns="urn:isbn:1-931666-22-9" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance"> desired output: <foo audience="external" xsi:schemaLocation="urn:isbn:1-931666-22-9 http://www.loc.gov/ead/ead.xsd" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns:xlink="http://www.w3.org/1999/xlink" xmlns="urn:isbn:1-931666-22-9"> I was trying to do it as I copy over the whole document and before I give any other transformation instructions, but the following doesn't work: <xsl:template match="* | processing-instruction() | comment()"> <xsl:copy copy-namespaces="no"> <xsl:for-each select="."> <xsl:attribute name="audience" select="'external'"/> <xsl:namespace name="xlink" select="'http://www.w3.org/1999/xlink'"/> </xsl:for-each> <xsl:apply-templates/> <xsl:copy-of select="@*"/> <xsl:apply-templates/> </xsl:copy> </xsl:template> Thanks for any advice!

  Read the article

• master pages, form pages, form runat=server > all onclick methods on master page?

  - by b0x0rz

  the problem i have is that i have multiple nested master pages: level 1: global (header, footer, login, navigation, etc...) level 2: specific (search pages, account pages, etc...) level 3: the page itself now, since only one form can have runat=server, i put the form at global page (so i can handle things like login, feedback, etc...). now with this solution i'd have to also put the for example level 3 (see above) methods, such as search also on the level 1 master page, but this will lead to this page being heavy (for development) with code from all places, even those that are used on a single page only (change email form for example). is there any way to delegate such methods (for example: ChangeEMail) from level 1 (global masterpage) to level 3 (the single page itself). to be even more clear: i want to NOT have to have the method ChangeEMail on the global master page code behind, but would like to 'MOVE' it somehow to the only page that will actually use it. the reason why it currently has to be on the global master is that global master has form runat=server and there can be only one of those per aspx page. this way it will be easier (more logical) to structure the code. thnx (hope i explained it correctly) have searched but did not find any general info on handling this case, usualy the answer is: have all the methods on the master page, but i don't like it. so ANY way of moving it to the specific page would be awesome. thnx

  Read the article

• Java/JAXB: Accessing property of object in a list

  - by Mark Lewis

  Hello Using JAXB I've created a series of classes which represent my XML schema. Validating against the schema an XML file has thus become a 'tree' of java objects representing the XML. Now I'd like to access, delete and add an object of one the created types in my tree. If I've got classes' methods arranged like this: RootType class has: public List<FQType> getFq() { // and setter return fq; } FQType class has: public RemapType getRemap() { // and setter return remap; } RemapType class has: public String getSource() { // and setter return source; } What's the most concise way to code reading and writing of the 'source' member of a RemapType instance in an FQType instance with, say, fqtypeID=1, in an array of type RootType (in which RootType instances also each have rootID)? Currently I'm using a for loop Iterator in which is an if rootID = mySelectedRootID. In the if I nest a second for loop Iterator over the contained FQType instances and in that a second if fqTypeID = mySelectedFQTypeID. IE for loop iterator/if statement pairs to recognise the object of desire. With all the bells and whistles this way is nearly 15 lines of code to access a data type - can I do this in one line? Thanks

  Read the article

• Reading Unicode files line by line C++

  - by Roger Nelson

  What is the correct way to read Unicode files line by line in C++? I am trying to read a file saved as Unicode (LE) by Windows Notepad. Suppose the file contains simply the characters A and B on separate lines. In reading the file byte by byte, I see the following byte sequence (hex) : FE FF 41 00 0D 00 0A 00 42 00 0D 00 0A 00 So 2 byte BOM, 2 byte 'A', 2byte CR , 2byte LF, 2 byte 'B', 2 byte CR, 2 byte LF . I tried reading the text file using the following code: std::wifstream file("test.txt"); file.seekg(2); // skip BOM std::wstring A_line; std::wstring B_line; getline(file,A_line); // I get "A" getline(file,B_line); // I get "\0B" I get the same results using operator instead of getline file >> A_line; file >> B_line; It appears that the single byte CR character is is being consumed only as the single byte. or CR NULL LF is being consumed but not the high byte NULL. I would expect wifstream in text mode would read the 2byte CR and 2byte LF. What am I doing wrong? It does not seem right that one should have to read a text file byte by byte in binary mode just to parse the new lines.

  Read the article

• Advice needed: cold backup for SQL Server 2008 Express?

  - by Mikey Cee

  What are my options for achieving a cold backup server for SQL Server Express instance running a single database? I have an SQL Server 2008 Express instance in production that currently represents a single point of failure for my application. I have a second physical box sitting at the installation that is currently doing nothing. I want to somehow replicate my database in near real time (a little bit of data loss is acceptable) to the second box. The database is very small and resources are utilized very lightly. In the case that the production server dies, I would manually reconfigure my application to point to the backup server instead. Although Express doesn't support log shipping, I am thinking that I could manually script a poor man's version of it, where I use batch files to take the logs and copy them across the network and apply them to the second server at 5 minute intervals. Does anyone have any advice on whether this is technically achievable, or if there is a better way to do what I am trying to do? Note that I want to avoid having to pay for the full version of SQL Server and configure mirroring as I think it is an overkill for this application. I understand that other DB platforms may present suitable options (eg. a MySQL Cluster), but for the purposes of this discussion, let's assume we have to stick to SQL Server.

  Read the article

• how to implement enhanced session handling in PHP

  - by praksant

  Hi, i'm working with sessions in PHP, and i have different applications on single domain. Problem is, that cookies are domain specific, and so session ids are sent to any page on single domain. (i don't know if there is a way to make cookies work in different way). So Session variables are visible in every page on this domain. I'm trying to implement custom session manager to overcome this behavior, but i'm not sure if i'm thinking about it right. I want to completely avoid PHP session system, and make a global object, which would store session data and on the end of script save it to database. On first access i would generate unique session_id and create a cookie On the end of script save session data with session_id, timestamps for start of session and last access, and data from $_SERVER, such as REMOTE_ADDR, REMOTE_PORT, HTTP_USER_AGENT. On every access chceck database for session_id sent in cookie from client, check IP, Port and user agent (for security) and read data into session variable (if not expired). If session_id expired, delete from database. That session variable would be implemented as singleton (i know i would get tight coupling with this class, but i don't know about better solution). I'm trying to get following benefits: Session variables invisible in another scripts on the same server and same domain Custom management of session expiration Way to see open sessions (something like list of online users) i'm not sure if i'm overlooking any disadvantages of this solution. Is there any better way? Thank you!!

  Read the article

• Visual Studio - Edit source code located in a database

  - by mfeingold

  I am building something similar to Server Explorer for Apache CouchDB. One of the things necessary is to be able to edit CouchDB view definitions which in CouchDB are JavaScript functions. How can I trick Visual Studio into using my object to retrieve and save the content of the JavaScript function but still use the rest of it - I am happy with editor itself and have no intention of writing my own Editor/Language Service, etc. The latter would be much bigger effort than what this project warrants Edit After more digging I am still stuck. Here is what I know: IVsUIShellOpenDocument interface provides a method OpenStandardEditor which can be used to open the standard Visual Studio editor. As one of the parameters this method takes a Pointer to the IUnknown interface of the document data object. This object is supposed to implement several interfaces described in many places all over the MSDN. Visual Studio SDK also provides a 'sample' implementation of the document data object VsTextBufferClass. I can create an instance of this class and when I pass the pointer to the instance to the OpenStandardEditor I can see my editor and it seems to work ok. When I try to implement my own class implementing the same interfaces (IVsTextBuffer, VsTextBuffer, IVsTextLines) OpenStandardEditor method returns success, but VS bombs out on call editor.Show() with an access violation. My suspicion is that VsTextBufferClass also implements some other interface(s) but not in C# way but rather in the good old COM way. I just do not know which one(s). Any thoughts?

  Read the article

• How should I organize complex SQL views in Rails?

  - by Benjamin Oakes

  I manage a research database with Ruby on Rails. The data that is entered is primarily used by scientists who prefer to have all the relevant information for a study in one single massive table for use in their statistics software of choice. I'm currently presenting it as CSV, as it's very straightforward to do and compatible with the tools people want to use. I've written many views (the SQL kind, not the Rails HTML/ERB kind) to make the output they expect a reality. Some of these views are quite large and have a fair amount of complexity behind them. I wrote them in SQL because there are many calculations and comparisons that are more easily done with SQL. They're currently loaded into the database straight from a file named views.sql. To get the requested data, I do a select * from my_view;. The views.sql file is getting quite large. Part of the problem is that we're still figuring out what the data we collect means, so there's a lot of changes being made to the views all the time -- and a ton of them are being created. Many of them need to be repeatable. I've recently run into issues organizing and testing these views. Rails works great for user interface stuff and business logic, but I'm not aware of much existing structure for handling the reporting we require. Some options I've thought of: Should I move them into the most relevant models somehow? Several of the views interact with each other, which makes this situation more complex than just doing a single find_by_sql, so I don't know if they should only be part of the model. Perhaps they should be treated as a "view" in the MVC sense? (That is, they could be moved into app/views/ and live alongside the HTML, perhaps as files named something like my_view.csv.sql which return CSV.) How would you deal with a complex reporting problem like this?

  Read the article

• Comparing all properties of an object using expression trees

  - by stringargs

  Hi, I'm trying to write a simple generator that uses an expression tree to dynamically generate a method that compares all properties of an instance of a type to the properties of another instance of that type. This works fine for most properties, like int an string, but fails for DateTime? (and presumably other nullable value types). The method: static Delegate GenerateComparer(Type type) { var left = Expression.Parameter(type, "left"); var right = Expression.Parameter(type, "right"); Expression result = null; foreach (var p in type.GetProperties()) { var leftProperty = Expression.Property(left, p.Name); var rightProperty = Expression.Property(right, p.Name); var equals = p.PropertyType.GetMethod("Equals", new[] { p.PropertyType }); var callEqualsOnLeft = Expression.Call(leftProperty, equals, rightProperty); result = result != null ? (Expression)Expression.And(result, callEqualsOnLeft) : (Expression)callEqualsOnLeft; } var method = Expression.Lambda(result, left, right).Compile(); return method; } On a DateTime? property it fails with: Expression of type 'System.Nullable`1[System.DateTime]' cannot be used for parameter of type 'System.Object' of method 'Boolean Equals(System.Object)' OK, so it finds an overload of Equals that expects object. So why can't I pass a DateTime? into that, as it's convertible to object? If I look at Nullable<T>, it indeed has an override of Equals(object o). PS: I realize that this isn't a proper generator yet as it can't deal with null values, but I'll get to that :)

  Read the article

• What are the common compliance standards for software products?

  - by Jay

  This is a very generic question about software products. I would like to know what compliance standards are applicable to any software product. I know that question gives away nothing. So, here is an example to what I am referring to. CiSecurity Security Certification/Compliance lists out products ceritified by them to be compliant to the standards published at their website, i.e, cisecurity.org. Compliance could be as simple as answering a questionnaire for your product and approved by a thirdparty like cisecurity or it could apply to your whole organization, for instance, PCI-DSS compliance. I would be very interested in knowing the standards that products you know/designed/created, comply to. To give you the context behind this question: I am the developer of a data-masking tool. The said tool helps mask onscreen html text in a banking web application using filters. So, for instance, if the bank application lists out user information with ssn, my product when integrated with the banking product, automatically identifies ssn pattern and masks it into a pre-defined format.So, I have my product marketing team wanting more buzz words like compliance to be able to sell it to more banking clients. Hence, understanding "compliances that apply to products" is a key research item for me at this point. By which I meant, security compliances. Appreciate all your help and suggestions.

  Read the article

• Iterating Over <select> Using jQuery + Multi Select

  - by Kezzer

  This isn't quite as straight forward as one may think. I'm using a plugin called jQuery MultiSelect and multiple <select options using XSLT as follows: <xsl:for-each select="RootField"> <select id="{RootField}" multiple="multiple" size="3"> <option value=""></option> <xsl:for-each select="ChildField"> <option value="{ChildField}"><xsl:value-of select="ChildField"/></option> </xsl:for-each> </select> </xsl:for-each> The accompanying JavaScript is as follows: var selects = document.getElementsByTagName("select"); $.each(selects, function() { $(this).multiSelect(); }); This allows me to apply the multiSelect(); function to every single <select on the page. The behaviour is quite strange, every other <select is being changed into the dropdown list (all the even ones anyway). I can't see anything wrong in my JavaScript to cause this issue as it would iterate over every single one. To make it more clear, the only lists that have that JavaScript applied to it are ones in position 2, 4, 6 and 8 (out of the 9 which are on the page). Any ideas?

  Read the article

• XAttribute Generating strange namespaces

  - by Adam Driscoll

  I'm constructing an XElement with a couple attributes that have different namespaces. The code looks like this: var element = new XElement("SynchronousCommand", new XAttribute("{wcm}action", "add"), new XAttribute("{ns}id", Guid.NewGuid()), new XElement... ); The XML that is generated looks like this: <unattend xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns:xsd="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema" xmlns="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:unattend"> <SynchronousCommand d5p1:action="add" d5p2:id="c0f5fc6d-d407-4d3d-8a05-d84236cca2fb" xmlns:d5p2="ns" xmlns:d5p1="wcm"> ... </SynchronousCommand> </unattend> I'm just wondering if the auto-generated d5p2 is valid and why it is doing this. According to the XML standards here it seems like it would be valid. But why is it not: <unattend xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns:xsd="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema" xmlns="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:unattend"> <SynchronousCommand wcm:action="add" ns:id="c0f5fc6d-d407-4d3d-8a05-d84236cca2fb" > To generate the XML I'm doing this: public class unattend { public List<XElement> Any {get;} } var unattend = new unattend(); unattend.Add(element); serializer.Serialize(xmlWriter, unattend);

  Read the article

• What is the IoC / "Springy" way to handle MVP in GWT? (Hint, probably not the Spring Roo 1.1 way)

  - by Ehrann Mehdan

  This is the Spring Roo 1.1 way of doing a factory that returns a GWT Activity (Yes, Spring Framework) public Activity getActivity(ProxyPlace place) { switch (place.getOperation()) { case DETAILS: return new EmployeeDetailsActivity((EntityProxyId<EmployeeProxy>)place.getProxyId(), requests, placeController, ScaffoldApp.isMobile() ? EmployeeMobileDetailsView.instance() : EmployeeDetailsView.instance()); case EDIT: return makeEditActivity(place); case CREATE: return makeCreateActivity(); } throw new IllegalArgumentException("Unknown operation " + place.getOperation()); } It seems to me that we just went back hundred of years if we use a switch case with constants to make a factory. Now this is official auto generated Spring roo 1.1 with GWT / GAE integration, I kid you not I can only assume this is some executives empty announcements because this is definitly not Spring It seems VMWare and Google were too fast to get something out and didn't quite finish it, isn't it? Am I missing something or this is half baked and by far not the way Spring + GWT MVP should work? Do you have a better example of how Spring, GWT (2.1 MVP approach) and GAE should connect? I would hate to do all the plumbing of managing history and activities like this. (no annotations? IOC?) I also would hate to reinvent the wheel and write my own Spring enhancement just to find someone else did the same, or worse, find out that SpringSource and Google will release roo 1.2 soon and make it right

  Read the article

• Why Does Private Access Remain Non-Private in .NET Within a Class?

  - by AMissico

  While cleaning some code today written by someone else, I changed the access modifier from Public to Private on a class variable/member/field. I expected a long list of compiler errors that I use to "refactor/rework/review" the code that used this variable. Imagine my surprise when I didn't get any errors. After reviewing, it turns out that another instance of the Class can access the private members of another instance declared within the Class. Totally unexcepted. Is this normal? I been coding in .NET since the beginning and never ran into this issue, nor read about it. I may have stumbled onto it before, but only "vaguely noticed" and move on. Can anyone explain this behavoir to me? Am I doing something wrong? I found this behavior in both C# and VB.NET. The code seems to take advantage of the ability to access private variables. Sincerely, Totally Confused Class Foo Private _int As Integer Private _foo As Foo Private _jack As Jack Private _fred As Fred Public Sub SetPrivate() _foo = New Foo _foo._int = 3 'TOTALLY UNEXPECTED _jack = New Jack '_jack._int = 3 'expected compile error because Foo doesn't know Jack _fred = New Fred '_fred._int = 3 'expected compile error because Fred hides from Foo End Sub Private Class Fred Private _int As Integer End Class End Class Class Jack Private _int As Integer End Class

  Read the article

• How do I reference my MainViewController from another class?

  - by todd412

  Hi, I am building an iPhone Utility app that uses UIImageView to display an animation. Within the MainViewController's viewDidLoad() method, I am creating an instance of a CustomClass, and then setting up the animations: - (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; cc = [CustomClass new]; NSArray * imageArray = [[NSArray alloc] initWithObjects: [UIImage imageNamed:@"image-1-off.jpg"], [UIImage imageNamed:@"image-2-off.jpg"], [UIImage imageNamed:@"image-3-off.jpg"], [UIImage imageNamed:@"image-4-off.jpg"], nil]; offSequence = [[UIImageView alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectMake(0, 0, 320, 480)]; offSequence.animationImages = imageArray; offSequence.animationDuration = .8; offSequence.contentMode = UIViewContentModeBottomLeft; [self.view addSubview:offSequence]; [offSequence startAnimating]; } That works fine. However, I would like to be able to move all the above code that sets up the UIImageView into my CustomClass. The problem is in the second to last line: [self.view addSubview:offSequence]; I basically need to replace 'self' with a reference to the MainControllerView, so I can call addSubview from within my CustomClass. I tried creating an instance var of CustomClass called mvc and a setter method that takes a reference to the MainViewController as an argument as such: - (void) setMainViewController: (MainViewController *) the_mvc { mvc = the_mvc; } And then I called it within MainViewController like so: [cc setMainController:MainViewController:self]; But this yields all sorts of errors which I can post here, but it strikes me that I may be overcomplicating this. Is there an easier way to reference the MainViewController that instanatiated my CustomClass?

  Read the article

• Model-binding an object from the repository by several keys

  - by Anton

  Suppose the following route: {region}/{storehouse}/{controller}/{action} These two parameters region and storehouse altogether identify a single entity - a Storehouse. Thus, a bunch of controllers are being called in the context of some storehouse. And I'd like to write actions like this: public ActionResult SomeAction(Storehouse storehouse, ...) Here I can read your thoughts: "Write custom model binder, man". I do. However, the question is How to avoid magic strings within custom model binder? Here is my current code: public class StorehouseModelBinder : IModelBinder { readonly IStorehouseRepository repository; public StorehouseModelBinder(IStorehouseRepository repository) { this.repository = repository; } public object BindModel(ControllerContext controllerContext, ModelBindingContext bindingContext) { var region = bindingContext.ValueProvider.GetValue("region").AttemptedValue; var storehouse = bindingContext.ValueProvider.GetValue("storehouse").AttemptedValue; return repository.GetByKey(region, storehouse); } } If there was a single key, bindingContext.ModelName could be used... Probably, there is another way to supply all the actions with a Storehouse object, i.e. declaring it as a property of the controller and populating it in the Controller.Initialize.

  Read the article

• Using ASP.NET session state with Silverlight (PRISM)

  - by Jon Andersen

  Hi, The scenario: I have a PRISM application developed in Silverlight (4), and I'm using a ASP.NET server side application to host several web-services (which, in turn, accesses WCF-services, but that's not really important here). The Silverlight application must be able to call the web services cross-domain (meaning that the web services isn't necessarily on the same server hosting the silverlight application). The Silverlight application consists of several modules, each accessing the ASP.NET web-services. I do not have much experience with Silverlight and PRISM, but as far as I can see, this is not a very unusual scenario... The problem: My challange is, that when 2 different modules access the web-services, I get 2 new sessions on the web-server. I would have thought that since both modules live on the same HTML-page (and then also in the same browser session), they would get the same session on the web-server...? I have tried to make the web-service Proxy-client globally available in the container (using Unity), by registering an instance (using Container.RegisterInstance), and then getting this instance whenever a module needs to make a web-service call (using Container.Resolve), but this doesn't seem to help. However, any calls made within the same module always gets the same session on the server. Can anyone see what I'm missing here...? Thanks! Jon

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 306 307 308 309 310 311 312 313 314 315 316 317  | Next Page >