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  • Return value of a JQuery autocomplete using an array of objects as its source

    - by user2920430
    In a JQuery autocomplete which uses an array of objects as its source, can I display the label in the INPUT and later access the value? The default behavior is that the value is displayed in the INPUT after selection. In this case the values represent indexes to unique keys in rows in a table. <!doctype html> <html lang="en"> <head> <meta charset="utf-8"> <title>autocomplete demo</title> <link rel="stylesheet" href="http://code.jquery.com/ui/1.10.3/themes/smoothness/jquery-ui.css"> <script src="http://code.jquery.com/jquery-1.9.1.js"></script> <script src="http://code.jquery.com/ui/1.10.3/jquery-ui.js"></script> </head> <body> <label for="autocomplete">Select a programming language: </label> <input id="autocomplete"> <script> $( "#autocomplete" ).autocomplete({ source: [ { label:"c++", value:1 }, { label: "java", value:2 }, { label: "javascript", value:3 } ] }); </script> </body> </html>

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  • SYN receives RST,ACK very frequently

    - by user1289508
    Hi Socket Programming experts, I am writing a proxy server on Linux for SQL Database server running on Windows. The proxy is coded using bsd sockets and in C, and it is working just fine. When I use a database client (written in JAVA, and running on a Linux box) to fire queries (with a concurrency of 100 or more) directly to the Database server, not experiencing connection resets. But through my proxy I am experiencing many connection resets. Digging deeper I came to know that connection from 'DB client' to 'Proxy' always succeeds but when the 'Proxy' tries to connect to the DB server the connection fails, due to the SYN packet getting RST,ACK. That was to give some background. The question is : Why does sometimes SYN receives RST,ACK? 'DB client(linux)' to 'Server(windows)' ---- Works fine 'DB client(linux) to 'Proxy(Linux)' to 'Server(windows)' ----- problematic I am aware that this can happen in "connection refused" case but this definitely is not that one. SYN flooding might be another scenario, but that does not explain fine behavior while firing to Server directly. I am suspecting some socket option setting may be required, that the client does before connecting and my proxy does not. Please put some light on this. Any help (links or pointers) is most appreciated. Additional info: Wrote a C client that does concurrent connections, which takes concurrency as an argument. Here are my observations: - At 5000 concurrency and above, some connects failed with 'connection refused'. - Below 2000, it works fine. But the actual problem is observed even at a concurrency of 100 or more. Note: The problem is time dependent sometimes it never comes at all and sometimes it is very frequent and DB client (directly to server) works fine at all times .

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  • Strange bug with PHP on Windows 7

    - by chessweb
    This is the configuration: Windows 7 Home Premium, XAMPP 1.7.3 (Apache 2.2.14 , PHP 5.3.1), Firefox 3.6 This is the PHP-code in a file named 'test.php' in htdocs: <?php echo('04556-8978765'); ?> On http://localhost/test.php I would expect to see the string 04556-8978765 in the browser. This is not what happens, though. The string appears for a short time and then it disappears altogether. Firebug shows an empty body-tag. However, when I look at page source, the string is there alright. When I change the string in the echo-statement to e.g. 4556-8978765, everything is fine. Internet Explorer 8 does not show this strange behavior. I could not reproduce this with the same Apache/PHP/Firefox configuration on Windows XP. '04556-8978765' is by no means unique. The couple '02065-96047' and '02065-9604' behave exactly the same. Can anybody reproduce this and offer an explanation as to what is going on? PS: If you can not see the string '04556-8978765' in the echo-statement above, look at this post with IE8.

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  • Inconsistent canvas drawing in Android browser

    - by user2943466
    In putting together a small canvas app I've stumbled across a weird behavior that only seems to occur in the default browser in Android. When drawing to a canvas that has the globalCompositeOperation set to 'destination-out' to act as the 'eraser' tool, Android browser sometimes acts as expected, sometimes does not update the pixels in the canvas at all. the setup: context.clearRect(0,0, canvas.width, canvas.height); context.drawImage(img, 0, 0, canvas.width, canvas.height); context.globalCompositeOperation = 'destination-out'; draw a circle to erase pixels from the canvas: context.fillStyle = '#FFFFFF'; context.beginPath(); context.arc(x,y,25,0,TWO_PI,true); context.fill(); context.closePath(); a small demo to illustrate the issue can be seen here: http://gumbojuice.com/files/source-out/ and the javascript is here: http://gumbojuice.com/files/source-out/js/main.js this has been tested in multiple desktop and mobile browsers and behaves as expected. On Android native browser after refreshing the page sometimes it works, sometimes nothing happens. I've seen other hacks that move the canvas by a pixel in order to force a redraw but this is not an ideal solution.. Thanks all.

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  • c# combobox autocomplete like method

    - by Willem T
    Ihave been looking for an LIKE autocompletion mode. can anyone help me with this. When i enter a text in the combobox, the database should be asked for the data. all that goes well. But then i want my combobox to behave like the Suggest mode, but it doesn't work. I Tried this: cursorPosition = txtNaam.SelectionStart; string query = "SELECT bedr_naam FROM tblbedrijf WHERE bedr_naam LIKE '%" + txtNaam.Text + "%'"; DataTable table = Global.db.Select(query); txtNaam.Items.Clear(); for (int i = 0; i < table.Rows.Count; i++) { txtNaam.Items.Add(table.Rows[i][0].ToString()); } Cursor.Current = Cursors.Default; txtNaam.Select(cursorPosition, 0); But the behavior that this function creates is off it doesnt work like the suggest mode its a bit buggy. Can anyone help me to get it working properly Thanks

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  • SetMatrix() does not copy all values to HLSL

    - by Tili
    Hi, I want to use the contents of a vector of D3DXMatrices to my shader. m_pLightMatrices->SetMatrixArray(&currentLightMatrices[0].m[0][0],0,numLights); As we know the internals of a vector this poses no problems (as it is just a dynamic array). Now when I access this matrix in hlsl to fill up a struct I get this strange behavior: struct LightTest { float3 LightPos; float LightRange; float4 LightDiffuse; float3 LightAtt; }; float4x4 currentLight = gLights[0]; LightTest lt; lt.LightPos = currentLight._m00_m01_m02; //{0,0,0} lt.LightDiffuse = currentLight[1].rgba; //{0,0,0,0} lt.LightRange = currentLight._m03; //this gives me a value lt.LightAtt = currentLight[2].xyz; //{0,0,0} While debugging I see that my matrix is nicely filled with the variables I want. When I try to hardcode check what is in the struct I get all zero's, except the LightRange. As you can see I tried different methods of accessing the float4x4 but without any other results. Why oh why is hlsl not copying all my variables ?

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  • Are there concurrency problems when using -performSelector:withObject:afterDelay: ?

    - by mystify
    For example, I often use this: [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:someDelay]; Now, lets say I call this 10 times to perform at the exact same delay, like: [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; - (void)doSomethingAfterDelay:(id)someObject { /* access an array, read stuff, write stuff, do different things that would suffer in multithreaded environments .... all operations are nonatomic! */ } I have observed pretty strange behavior when doing things like this. For my understanding, this method schedules a timer to fire on the current thread, so in this case the main thread. But since it doesn't create new threads, it actually should not be possible to run into concurrency problems, right?

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  • Are there concurrency problems when using -performSelector:withObject:afterDelay: ?

    - by mystify
    For example, I often use this: [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:someDelay]; Now, lets say I call this 10 times to perform at the exact same delay, like: [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; - (void)doSomethingAfterDelay:(id)someObject { /* access an array, read stuff, write stuff, do different things that would suffer in multithreaded environments .... all operations are nonatomic! */ } I have observed pretty strange behavior when doing things like this. For my understanding, this method schedules a timer to fire on the current thread, so in this case the main thread. But since it doesn't create new threads, it actually should not be possible to run into concurrency problems, right?

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  • ASP.NET MVC3 ValueProvider drops string input to a double property

    - by Daniel Koverman
    I'm attempting to validate the input of a text box which corresponds to a property of type double in my model. If the user inputs "foo" I want to know about it so I can display an error. However, the ValueProvider is dropping the value silently (no errors are added to the ModelState). In a normal submission, I fill in "2" for the text box corresponding to myDouble and submit the form. Inspecting controllerContext.HttpContext.Request.Form shows that myDouble=2, among other correct inputs. bindingContext.ValueProvider.GetValue("myDouble") == 2, as expected. The bindingContext.ModelState.Count == 6 and bindingContext.ModelState["myDouble"].Errors.Count == 0. Everything is good and the model binds as expected. Then I fill in "foo" for the text box corresponding to myDouble and submitted the form. Inspecting controllerContext.HttpContext.Request.Form shows that myDouble=foo, which is what I expected. However, bindingContext.ValueProvider.GetValue("myDouble") == null and bindingContext.ModelState.Count == 5 (The exact number isn't important, but it's one less than before). Looking at the ValueProvider, is as if myDouble was never submitted and the model binding occurs as if it wasn't. This makes it difficult to differentiate between a bad input and no input. Is this the expected behavior of ValueProvider? Is there a way to get ValueProvider to report when conversion fails without implementing a custom ValueProvider? Thanks!

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  • Need help managing MySql connections

    - by David Jenings
    I'm having trouble finding a clear explanation of connection pooling. I'm building an app using the .NET connector I downloaded from mysql.com. The app only needs one db connection but will be running simultaneously on about 6 machines on my network. Normally, I'd create the connection at startup and just leave it. But I'm seeing lots of posts from people who say that's bad practice. Also I'm concerned about timeouts. My app will run 24/7 and there may be extended periods without database activity. I'm leaning toward the following: using (MySqlConnection conn = new MySqlConnection(connStr)) { conn.Open(); // use connection } But I'm not sure I understand what's going on in the background. Is this actually closing the connection and allowing gc to kill the object, or is there a built in pooling behavior that preserves the object and redelivers it the next time I try to create one? I certainly don't want the app reauthenticating across the network every time I hit the database. Can anyone offer me some advise?

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  • Should a "script" tag be allowed to remove itself?

    - by Nischal
    We've been having a discussion at our workplace on this with some for and some against the behavior. Wanted to hear views from you guys : <html> <body> <div> Test! <script> document.body.removeChild(document.getElementsByTagName('div')[0]); </script> </div> </body> </html> Should the above script work and do what it's supposed to do? First, let's see what's happening here : I have a javascript that's inside the <div> element. This javascript will delete the child node within body which happens to hold the div inside which the script itself exists. Now, the above script works fine in Firefox, Opera and IE8. But IE6 and IE7 give an alert saying they cannot open the page. Let's not debate on how IE should have handled this (they've accepted it as a bug and hence fixed it in IE8). The point here is since the 'SCRIPT' tag itself is a part of DOM, should it be allowed to do something like this? Should it even exist after such an operation? Edit: Firefox, Opera, IE9 etc. do not remove the 'script' tag if I run the above code. But, document.getElementsByTagName('script').length returns 0! To understand what I mean, add alert(document.getElementsByTagName('script').length); before and after document.body.removeChild(document.getElementsByTagName('div')[0]); in the code above.

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  • getting active records to display as a plist

    - by phil swenson
    I'm trying to get a list of active record results to display as a plist for being consumed by the iphone. I'm using the plist gem v 3.0. My model is called Post. And I want Post.all (or any array or Posts) to display correctly as a Plist. I have it working fine for one Post instance: [http://pastie.org/580902][1] that is correct, what I would expect. To get that behavior I had to do this: class Post < ActiveRecord::Base def to_plist attributes.to_plist end end However, when I do a Post.all, I can't get it to display what I want. Here is what happens: http://pastie.org/580909 I get marshalling. I want output more like this: [http://pastie.org/580914][2] I suppose I could just iterate the result set and append the plist strings. But seems ugly, I'm sure there is a more elegant way to do this. I am rusty on Ruby right now, so the elegant way isn't obvious to me. Seems like I should be able to override ActiveRecord and make result-sets that pull back more than one record take the ActiveRecord::Base to_plist and make another to_plist implementation. In rails, this would go in environment.rb, right?

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  • Modify url in browser using javascript?

    - by user246114
    Hi, Is it possible to change the url in the user's browser without actually loading a page, using javascript? I don't think it is (could lead to unwanted behavior), I'm in a situation where this would be convenient though: I have a web app which displays reports generated by users. Layout roughly looks like: ----------------------------------------------------------- Column 1 | Column 2 ----------------------------------------------------------- Report A | Report B | Currently selected report contents here. Report C | right now the user would be looking at a url like: www.mysite.com/user123 To see the above page. When the user clicks the report names in column 1, I load the contents of that report in column 2 using ajax. This is convenient for the user, but the url in their browser remains unchanged. The users want to copy the url for a report to share with friends, so I suppose I could provide a button to generate a url for them, but it would just be more convenient for them to have it already as the url in their browser, something like: www.mysite.com/user123/reportb the alternate is to not load the contents of the report in column 2 using ajax, but rather a full page refresh. This would at least have a linkable url ready for the user in their url bar, but not as convenient as using ajax. Thanks

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  • Using a single texture image unit with multiple sampler uniforms

    - by bcrist
    I am writing a batching system which tracks currently bound textures in order to avoid unnecessary glBindTexture() calls. I'm not sure if I need to keep track of which textures have already been used by a particular batch so that if a texture is used twice, it will be bound to a different TIU for the second sampler which requires it. Is it acceptable for an OpenGL application to use the same texture image unit for multiple samplers within the same shader stage? What about samplers in different shader stages? For example: Fragment shader: ... uniform sampler2D samp1; uniform sampler2D samp2; void main() { ... } Main program: ... glActiveTexture(GL_TEXTURE0); glBindTexture(GL_TEXTURE_2D, tex_id); glUniform1i(samp1_location, 0); glUniform1i(samp2_location, 0); ... I don't see any reason why this shouldn't work, but what about if the shader program also included a vertex shader like this: Vertex shader: ... uniform sampler2D samp1; void main() { ... } In this case, OpenGL is supposed to treat both instances of samp1 as the same variable, and exposes a single location for them. Therefore, the same texture unit is being used in the vertex and fragment shaders. I have read that using the same texture in two different shader stages counts doubly against GL_MAX_COMBINED_TEXTURE_IMAGE_UNITS but this would seem to contradict that. In a quick test on my hardware (HD 6870), all of the following scenarios worked as expected: 1 TIU used for 2 sampler uniforms in same shader stage 1 TIU used for 1 sampler uniform which is used in 2 shader stages 1 TIU used for 2 sampler uniforms, each occurring in a different stage. However, I don't know if this is behavior that I should expect on all hardware/drivers, or if there are performance implications.

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  • OnEditorActionListener called twice with same eventTime on SenseUI keyboard

    - by ydant
    On just one phone I am testing on (HTC Incredible, Android 2.2, Software 3.21.605.1), I am experiencing the following behavior. The onEditorAction event handler is being called twice (immediately) when the Enter key on the Sense UI keyboard is pressed. The KeyEvent.getEventTime() is the same for both times the event is called, leading me to this work-around: protected void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { [...] EditText text = (EditText)findViewById(R.id.txtBox); text.setOnEditorActionListener(new OnEditorActionListener() { private long lastCalled = -1; public boolean onEditorAction(TextView v, int actionId, KeyEvent event) { if ( event.getEventTime() == lastCalled ) { return false; } else { lastCalled = event.getEventTime(); handleNextButton(v); return true; } } }); [...] } The EditText is defined as: <EditText android:layout_width="150sp" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:id="@+id/txtBox" android:imeOptions="actionNext" android:capitalize="characters" android:singleLine="true" android:inputType="textVisiblePassword|textCapCharacters|textNoSuggestions" android:autoText="false" android:editable="true" android:maxLength="6" /> On all other devices I've tested on, the action button is properly labeled "Next" and the event is only called a single time when that button is pressed. Is this a bug in Sense UI's keyboard, or am I doing something incorrectly? Thank you for any assistance.

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  • Must JsUnit Cases Reside Under the Same Directory as JsUnit?

    - by chernevik
    I have installed JsUnit and a test case as follows: /home/chernevik/Programming/JavaScript/jsunit /home/chernevik/Programming/JavaScript/jsunit/testRunner.html /home/chernevik/Programming/JavaScript/jsunit/myTests/lineTestAbs.html /home/chernevik/Programming/JavaScript/lineTestAbs.html When I open the test runner in a browser as a file, and test lineTestAbs.html from the jsunit/myTests directory, it passes. When I test the same file from the JavaScript directory, the test runner times out, asking if the file exists or is a test page. Questions: Am I doing something wrong here, or is this the expected behavior? Is it possible to put test cases in a different directory structure, and if so what is the proper path reference to to JsUnitCore.js? Would JsUnit behave differently if the files were retrieved from an HTTP server? <html> <head> <title>Test Page line(m, x, b)</title> <script language="JavaScript" src="/home/chernevik/Programming/JavaScript/jsunit/app/jsUnitCore.js"></script> <script language="JavaScript"> function line(m, x, b) { return m*x + b; } function testCalculationIsValid() { assertEquals("zero intercept", 10, line(5, 2, 0)); assertEquals("zero slope", 5, line(0, 2, 5)); assertEquals("at x = 10", 25, line(2, 10, 5)); } </script> </head> <body> This pages tests line(m, x, b). </body> </html>

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  • C# / this. and List<T>

    - by user3533030
    I am having trouble understanding how to initialize a List of objects and use it with methods inside of a class. I understand the mechanics of the List, but not how to initialize it inside a method and use it later. For example, I want to have a class that creates the List when it is constructed. Then, I want to use a method of that class to add elements to the list. The elements in the list are objects defined by the SolidWorks API. So, to construct the List, I used... public class ExportPoints : Exporter { public List<SldWorks.SketchPoint> listOfSketchPoints; public ExportPoints(SldWorks.SldWorks swApp, string nameSuffix) : base(swApp, nameSuffix) { List<SldWorks.SketchPoint> listOfSketchPoints = new List<SldWorks.SketchPoint>(); } public void createListOfFreePoints() { try { [imagine more code here] this.listOfSketchPoints.Add(pointTest); } catch (Exception e) { Debug.Print(e.ToString()); return; } } This fails during execution as if the listOfSketchPoints was never initialized as a List. So, I tried a hack and this worked: public ExportPoints(SldWorks.SldWorks swApp, string nameSuffix) : base(swApp, nameSuffix) { List<SldWorks.SketchPoint> listOfSketchPoints = new List<SldWorks.SketchPoint>(); this.listOfSketchPoints = listOfSketchPoints; } This approach creates the behavior that I want. However, it seems that I lack some understanding as to why this is necessary. Shouldn't it be possible to "initialize" a List that is a property of your object with a constructor? Why would you need to create the list, then assign the pointer of that new List to your property?

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  • C++ const-reference semantics?

    - by Kristoffer
    Consider the sample application below. It demonstrates what I would call a flawed class design. #include <iostream> using namespace std; struct B { B() : m_value(1) {} long m_value; }; struct A { const B& GetB() const { return m_B; } void Foo(const B &b) { // assert(this != &b); m_B.m_value += b.m_value; m_B.m_value += b.m_value; } protected: B m_B; }; int main(int argc, char* argv[]) { A a; cout << "Original value: " << a.GetB().m_value << endl; cout << "Expected value: 3" << endl; a.Foo(a.GetB()); cout << "Actual value: " << a.GetB().m_value << endl; return 0; } Output: Original value: 1 Expected value: 3 Actual value: 4 Obviously, the programmer is fooled by the constness of b. By mistake b points to this, which yields the undesired behavior. My question: What const-rules should you follow when designing getters/setters? My suggestion: Never return a reference to a member variable if it can be set by reference through a member function. Hence, either return by value or pass parameters by value. (Modern compilers will optimize away the extra copy anyway.)

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  • Gmail Sync on Android phone

    - by sunocky
    Android has the Gmail push features, which means the new message arrives in the mailbox without checking or refreshing the mailbox. As I understand, the sync processes are like these: 1) User turns on the sync 2) There will be a alert msg and the sync flag in the Gmail DB of this device will be True 3) When a new email reach the Gmail Server, it will check if the device sync value, if it's True then send the email OK, here, I don't quite understand how exactly does it work, For a WiFi and cell signal connection, does the phone has a TCP socket open keep listening to the Gmail Server, or when a new email arrives the Server send a SMS alert to the phone, and then it will open the data channel to fetch the email? Are the two ways of connections have different approaches? And second question is which method is the priority one? Say when you are in the middle of receiving data(emails), and suddenly the phone connect to a wireless network, will the data socket be closed and then reopened for the WiFi one? What's the behavior for the case when carrier's data channel and WiFi flips? I have also downloaded the source code, anyone knows which part should I be looking into in order to solves my questions? I found a folder called "email" inside the folder "package", should I be looking at its code? I know I asked quite some questions here, I'd appreciate if you know the answer for any of them, thanks very much!

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  • How to make a piece of WPF content take up the entire application window

    - by Bojin Li
    I'm working on an application that contains a number of content areas. I want to implement a behavior such that in response to user input, any of these content areas can be toggled to fit the entire application window, and optionally back to its original position again. I experimented with several approaches and none of them seem optimal for me. Here's what I tried to do: Use the ClipToBoundsProperty on the content I want to make "Full Screen": Doesn't work because only the CanvasPanel seems to fully respect this property. The application need to be localized so I would really like to avoid the CanvasPanel. Use a Grid and collapse the other content areas, such that only the one I want to see is visible, hence taking up the entire screen: This will probably work but doesn't seem easy to implement nor maintain. The "Full Screen" content area could be several levels deep, for example residing inside a Tabcontrol, so I would have to hide the tab headers too etc. Reconstruct the content area in a separate view and display it while hiding the rest: Seems easy enough to do with DataTemplates and my ViewModel objects, but any GUI/View only states are not preserved using this approach. Somehow "lift" the GUI/View I want to "Full Screen" into the separate view and display it while hiding the rest: I don't know how to do this or even if this is possible. Anyway if anyone knows a better approach I would love to know about it. Thanks a lot!

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  • WPF Calling a custom command on a custom control (from a viewmodel?)

    - by user190615
    I want to take a snap of the visual tree of a custom wpf control when the user clicks a button in a toolbar. The control is bound to a viewmodel. I have a BitmapSource dp in the custom control holding the snapped image which is bound to a property on my VM. The BitmapSource dp on the control is updated via a custom command on the control. I've tied the toolbar button's command to call the controls command which updates the BitmapSource. Now the problem is the end result I want is when the user clicks the button, the control updates its image and then the vm offers to save this image. I cant wrap my mind around an mvvm way of doing this. One inelegant solution is that control fires an event after the image is updated which is routed to the viewmodel as a command(command behavior) but then if i want to do something else with the image on some other button click, all the commands bound to the events will fire. All thoughts appreciated. EDIT The command on the control is a RoutedCommand and the commands in my vm are Prism delegate commands.

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  • Looking for PyQt4 embeddable terminal widget

    - by redShadow
    I wrote an application that, among other things, launches some "backend" processes to do some stuff. These subprocesses are very likely to fail or have unexpected behavior since they have to operate in quite hard conditions, so I prefer to give full control over them to the operator. NOTE: I am running these processes using a subprocess module based class instead of QProcess to have some more control functionality over the running process. At the moment, I'm using a QPlainTextEdit widget to which I append standard output/error from the subprocess, plus some buttons to quickly send some common signals (INT, STOP, CONT, KILL, ..), but: In some cases it would be useful to send some input too. Although it could be done with a text input box, I would prefer using something more "professional" Of course, there is no direct way to interpret special control characters, such as color codes, cursor movement, etc.. I had to implement an auto-scroll management of the console, but it is not guaranteed 100% to work nicely (sometimes the scroll locking doesn't work as expected, etc.) So: does anyone know something I could use to accomplish these needs? I found qtermwidget but it seems more oriented on handling a shell process (and the Python bindings seems to let you run /bin/bash only) by itself than communicating with an already existing process I/O.

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  • Writing all the html of a document with jquery instead of in the page body?

    - by Robert
    I'm a UI person currently working on a web application, where most of the people I work with are back end developers. I'm currently at a disagreement with them about whether or not the above is a prudent thing to do. This application doe use quite a bit of JavaScript, and wouldn't even work without it unfortunately. This being the case, One of the back end developers that I'm working with is claiming that pages could and even SHOULD be build completely with JavaScript or jquery. This caught me completely off guard. We're talking about div tags, lists, background images and text here. I'm trying to explain to him that this isn't the right way to do things at all, and from a best practices perspective: content(html) should be separate from presentation(css), and behavior(script etc.). I know that it's possible to write html in jquery, although I haven't done it, but am I wrong in my thinking that this isn't the way things should be done. Is it even possible to write ALL the code with jquery? would love to hear any thoughts either way, as I will be discussing this with him again tomorrow.

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  • android service using SystemClock.elapsedRealTime() instead of SystemClock.uptimeMillis() works in emulator but not in samsung captivate ?

    - by Aleadam
    First question here in stackoverflow :) I'm running a little android 2.2 app to log cpu frequency usage. It is set up as a service that will write the data every 10 seconds using a new thread. The code for that part is very basic (see below). It works fine, except that it would not keep track of time while the phone is asleep (which, I know, is the expected behavior). Thus, I changed the code to use SystemClock.elapsedRealTime() instead. Problem is, in emulator both commands are equivalent, but in the phone the app will start the thread but it will never execute the mHandler.postAtTime command. Any advice regarding why this is happening or how to overcome the issue is greatly appreciated. PS: stopLog() is not being called. That's not the problem. mUpdateTimeTask = new Runnable() { public void run() { long millis = SystemClock.uptimeMillis() - mStartTime; int seconds = (int) (millis / 1000); int minutes = seconds / 60; seconds = seconds % 60; String freq = readCPU (); if (freq == null) Toast.makeText(CPU_log_Service.this, "CPU frequency is unreadable.\nPlease make sure the file has read rights.", Toast.LENGTH_LONG).show(); String str = new String ((minutes*60 + seconds) + ", " + freq + "\n"); if (!writeLog (str)) stopLog(); mHandler.postAtTime(this, mStartTime + (((minutes * 60) + seconds + 10) * 1000)); }}; mStartTime = SystemClock.uptimeMillis(); mHandler.removeCallbacks(mUpdateTimeTask); mHandler.postDelayed(mUpdateTimeTask, 100);

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  • Is it possible to reference remote content from chrome.manifest? (XULRunner)

    - by siemaa
    Hi, I have a xulrunner application and I've been trying to reference remote content from chrome.manifest file. Tt's an application for the company I work in; it's run on a number of computers (most of them are used by other employees as well) as a kind of an internet monitoring service. The problem I'd like to solve is this: updating the code of such application usually requires me to manually copy the modified files to every computer that the application is running on (I've had no luck trying to make automatic updates via xulrunner platform). This process has become very tedious. What I'd like to have is a web server, where all of the xul and js files would be accessible, so that every application could reference them from there. This would require me only to update the code on that server, and the applications (when restarted) would automatically get the latest code. What I managed to do: I can reference js scripts from a xul file using http based urls and everything works fine (I can use local, binary components etc.), although the xul file has to be local - that I'd like to change. But when I write in chrome.manifest a line like: content my_app http://path/to/app/files/ and then use the line in default/preferences/pref.js pref("toolkit.defaultChromeURI", "chrome://my_app/content/my_app.xul"); it just opens a console window (to test I manually run the application with the -console option) and no code gets executed. The file can be downloaded remotely using wget so I guess this isn't the web server issue. The applications work on Windows machines. Is there some kind of security issue causing such behavior or am I doing something wrong? Is it even possible to register remote, http based content as chrome?

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