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  • UITableViewCell: how to verify the kind of accessoryType in all cells?

    - by R31n4ld0_
    Hello, Guys. I have a UITableView in that some cells are marked with UITableViewCellAccessoryCheckmark at the initialization of the view. When the user selects another row, I have to check if the maximum number of selected rows was achieved before. To do that, I used the code bellow: - (NSInteger)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView numberOfSelectedRowsInSection:(NSInteger)section{ NSInteger numberOfRows = [self tableView:tableView numberOfRowsInSection:section]; NSInteger numberOfSelectedRows = 0; for (int i = 0; i < numberOfRows; i++) { UITableViewCell *otherCell = [tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:[NSIndexPath indexPathForRow:i inSection:section]]; if (otherCell.accessoryType == UITableViewCellAccessoryCheckmark) { numberOfSelectedRows++; } } return numberOfSelectedRows; } If my number of rows is, as example, 20, the variable numberOfRows is setted correctly with 20. Lets say that 13 rows already are marked with UITableViewCellAccessoryCheckmark. So, numberOfSelectedRows should be 13 after the loop, but only the marked and VISIBLE cells are considered. So, if I have 9 cells showed and 7 are marked, the numberOfSelectedRows returns 7 instead of 13 (but the for iterate 20 times, as expected). Is this a correct behavior of UITableView or it is a bug of iPhone simulator? Thanks in advance.

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  • Potential Django Bug In QuerySet.query?

    - by Mike
    Disclaimer: I'm still learning Django, so I might be missing something here, but I can't see what it would be... I'm running Python 2.6.1 and Django 1.2.1. (InteractiveConsole) >>> from myproject.myapp.models import * >>> qs = Identifier.objects.filter(Q(key="a") | Q(key="b")) >>> print qs.query SELECT `app_identifier`.`id`, `app_identifier`.`user_id`, `app_identifier`.`key`, `app_identifier`.`value` FROM `app_identifier` WHERE (`app_identifier`.`key` = a OR `app_identifier`.`key` = b ) >>> Notice that it doesn't put quotes around "a" or "b"! Now, I've determined that the query executes fine. So, in reality, it must be doing so. But, it's pretty annoying that printing out the query prints it wrong. Especially if I did something like this... >>> qs = Identifier.objects.filter(Q(key=") AND") | Q(key="\"x\"); DROP TABLE `app_identifier`")) >>> print qs.query SELECT `app_identifier`.`id`, `app_identifier`.`user_id`, `app_identifier`.`key`, `app_identifier`.`value` FROM `app_identifier` WHERE (`app_identifier`.`key` = ) AND OR `app_identifier`.`key` = "x"); DROP TABLE `app_identifier` ) >>> Which, as you can see, not only creates completely malformed SQL code, but also has the seeds of a SQL injection attack. Now, obviously this wouldn't actually work, for quite a number of reasons (1. The syntax is all wrong, intentionally, to show the oddity of Django's behavior. 2. Django won't actually execute the query like this, it will actually put quotes and slashes and all that in there like it's supposed to). But, this really makes debugging confusing, and it makes me wonder if something's gone wrong with my Django installation. Does this happen for you? If so/not, what version of Python and Django do you have? Any thoughts?

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  • C++ new memory allocation fragmentation

    - by tamulj
    I was trying to look at the behavior of the new allocator and why it doesn't place data contiguously. My code: struct ci { char c; int i; } template <typename T> void memTest() { T * pLast = new T(); for(int i = 0; i < 20; ++i) { T * pNew = new T(); cout << (pNew - pLast) << " "; pLast = pNew; } } So I ran this with char, int, ci. Most allocations were a fixed length from the last, sometimes there were odd jumps from one available block to another. sizeof(char) : 1 Average Jump: 64 bytes sizeof(int): 4 Average Jump: 16 sizeof(ci): 8 (int has to be placed on a 4 byte align) Average Jump: 9 Can anyone explain why the allocator is fragmenting memory like this? Also why is the jump for char so much larger then ints and a structure that contains both an int and char.

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  • Moving checkmarks in checkbox lists after page reload - Firefox only

    - by DaveS
    I'm getting some strange behavior in Firefox whenever I put checkboxes inside a list (ol, ul, dl), and then dynamically insert buttons above the list. If I start with a something simple list like this: <dl class="c"> <dt><label for="a1"><input type="checkbox" id="a1" />one</label></dt> <dt><label for="a2"><input type="checkbox" id="a2" />two</label></dt> <dt><label for="a3"><input type="checkbox" id="a3" />three</label></dt> </dl> and add some jQuery like this: $(document).ready(function(){ var a = $('<button type="button">a</button>'); var b = $('<button type="button">b</button>'); $('<div/>').append(a).append(b).insertBefore($('.c')); }); ...then open it in Firefox, it looks fine at first. But check the first checkbox, reload the page, and the check-mark jumps to the second box. Reload again, and it jumps to the third. Reload yet again, and no checkboxes are left checked. If I leave out one of the buttons by dropping one of the append calls, it's fine. If I change the buttons to divs or something similar, it's fine. If I replace the dl tag with a div (and get rid of the dt tags), it's fine. But I need both buttons, and the checkboxes have to be in a list for what I'm trying to build. Does anybody know what's causing this?

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  • How can I set paperclip's storage mechanism based on the current Rails environment?

    - by John Reilly
    I have a rails application that has multiple models with paperclip attachments that are all uploaded to S3. This app also has a large test suite that is run quite often. The downside with this is that a ton of files are uploaded to our S3 account on every test run, making the test suite run slowly. It also slows down development a bit, and requires you to have an internet connection in order to work on the code. Is there a reasonable way to set the paperclip storage mechanism based on the Rails environment? Ideally, our test and development environments would use the local filesystem storage, and the production environment would use S3 storage. I'd also like to extract this logic into a shared module of some kind, since we have several models that will need this behavior. I'd like to avoid a solution like this inside of every model: ### We don't want to do this in our models... if Rails.env.production? has_attached_file :image, :styles => {...}, :storage => :s3, # ...etc... else has_attached_file :image, :styles => {...}, :storage => :filesystem, # ...etc... end Any advice or suggestions would be greatly appreciated! :-)

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  • Strange bug with PHP on Windows 7

    - by chessweb
    This is the configuration: Windows 7 Home Premium, XAMPP 1.7.3 (Apache 2.2.14 , PHP 5.3.1), Firefox 3.6 This is the PHP-code in a file named 'test.php' in htdocs: <?php echo('04556-8978765'); ?> On http://localhost/test.php I would expect to see the string 04556-8978765 in the browser. This is not what happens, though. The string appears for a short time and then it disappears altogether. Firebug shows an empty body-tag. However, when I look at page source, the string is there alright. When I change the string in the echo-statement to e.g. 4556-8978765, everything is fine. Internet Explorer 8 does not show this strange behavior. I could not reproduce this with the same Apache/PHP/Firefox configuration on Windows XP. '04556-8978765' is by no means unique. The couple '02065-96047' and '02065-9604' behave exactly the same. Can anybody reproduce this and offer an explanation as to what is going on? PS: If you can not see the string '04556-8978765' in the echo-statement above, look at this post with IE8.

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  • Inconsistent canvas drawing in Android browser

    - by user2943466
    In putting together a small canvas app I've stumbled across a weird behavior that only seems to occur in the default browser in Android. When drawing to a canvas that has the globalCompositeOperation set to 'destination-out' to act as the 'eraser' tool, Android browser sometimes acts as expected, sometimes does not update the pixels in the canvas at all. the setup: context.clearRect(0,0, canvas.width, canvas.height); context.drawImage(img, 0, 0, canvas.width, canvas.height); context.globalCompositeOperation = 'destination-out'; draw a circle to erase pixels from the canvas: context.fillStyle = '#FFFFFF'; context.beginPath(); context.arc(x,y,25,0,TWO_PI,true); context.fill(); context.closePath(); a small demo to illustrate the issue can be seen here: http://gumbojuice.com/files/source-out/ and the javascript is here: http://gumbojuice.com/files/source-out/js/main.js this has been tested in multiple desktop and mobile browsers and behaves as expected. On Android native browser after refreshing the page sometimes it works, sometimes nothing happens. I've seen other hacks that move the canvas by a pixel in order to force a redraw but this is not an ideal solution.. Thanks all.

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  • iPhone rotation woes

    - by skooter500
    I have been spending many frustrating hours trying to get rotations working on the iPhone version of Tunepal. Firstly, I have a tab bar controller, with a navigation controller controlling each of the views. I actually only want one of my views to be able to rotate and that is the TuneDisplay. I have a subclassed the UITabBarController and overridden theshouldAutorotateToInterfaceOrientation: (BOOL)shouldAutorotateToInterfaceOrientation:(UIInterfaceOrientation) interfaceOrientation { if (self.selectedViewController != nil) { return [self.selectedViewController shouldAutorotateToInterfaceOrientation:interfaceOrientation]; } else { return (interfaceOrientation == UIInterfaceOrientationPortrait); } } In each of the view controllers for each of the tabs I have overridden the method and returned YES for each orientation I want to support. All well and good and everything works as it should. If I try and do a rotation on a tab that doesn’t support the rotation, nothing happens. The problem occurs if I move from a tab thats rotated to a tab that isnt supposed to support that rotation. The new tab is displayed rotated too! Screenshots for all this are included here: http://tunepal.wordpress.com/2010/04/20/rotation-woes/ Is there any way I can make it rotate back to portrait on tapping the tab? I have tried the unsupported setOrientation trick, but firstly it doesnt work correctly and secondly I received a warning from Apple for including it in my last build. If (as I suspect) there is no way to limit this behavior: How do I make the microphone image scale when I rotate the device? How do I make the buttons and the progress bar expand to fit the witdh of the toolbar? Also, one of the tabs that rotates ok has a table, with a search bar. The first time I rotate to the right or to the left, I get a black bar to the right of the search bar. If I subsequently rotate back and rotate again, the bar disappears! I have enabled the struts and springs things on the search bar in the interface builder and it looks like it should behave correctly. Any ideas about how to fix this? Ideas, feedback much appreciated Bryan

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  • iPhone producing strange results on 'if' statement

    - by Rob
    I have a UIPicker where the user inputs a specified time (i.e. 13:00, 13:01, 13:02, etc.) - which determines their score. Once they hit the button an alert comes up with the score that is determined through this 'if-else' statement. Everything seems to work great MOST of the time - but I am getting some erratic behavior. This is the code: //Gets my value from the UIPicker and then converts it into a format that can be used in the 'if' statement. NSInteger runRow = [runTimePicker selectedRowInComponent:2]; NSString *runSelected = [runTimePickerData objectAtIndex:runRow]; NSString *runSelectedFixed = [runSelected stringByReplacingOccurrencesOfString:@":" withString:@"."]; //The actual 'if' statment. if ([runSelectedFixed floatValue] <= 13.00) { runScore = 100; } else if ([runSelectedFixed floatValue] <= 13.06) { runScore = 99; } else if ([runSelectedFixed floatValue] <= 13.12) { runScore = 97; } else if ([runSelectedFixed floatValue] <= 13.18) { runScore = 96; } else if ([runSelectedFixed floatValue] <= 13.24) { runScore = 94; } else if ([runSelectedFixed floatValue] <= 13.30) { runScore = 93; } else if ([runSelectedFixed floatValue] <= 13.36) { runScore = 92; } else if ([runSelectedFixed floatValue] <= 13.42) { runScore = 90; } else if ([runSelectedFixed floatValue] <= 13.48) { runScore = 89; } else if ([runSelectedFixed floatValue] <= 13.54) { runScore = 88; } Now, when I test the program, I will get the expected result when I choose '13:00' which is '100'. I also get the expected result of '99' when I choose all of the times between '13:01 and 13:05'. BUT, when I choose '13:06' it gives me a score of '97'. I also get a score of '97' on '13:07 through 13:12' - which is the desired result. Why would I get a '97' right on '13:12' but not get a '99' right on '13:06'???? Could this be a memory leak or something???

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  • getting active records to display as a plist

    - by phil swenson
    I'm trying to get a list of active record results to display as a plist for being consumed by the iphone. I'm using the plist gem v 3.0. My model is called Post. And I want Post.all (or any array or Posts) to display correctly as a Plist. I have it working fine for one Post instance: [http://pastie.org/580902][1] that is correct, what I would expect. To get that behavior I had to do this: class Post < ActiveRecord::Base def to_plist attributes.to_plist end end However, when I do a Post.all, I can't get it to display what I want. Here is what happens: http://pastie.org/580909 I get marshalling. I want output more like this: [http://pastie.org/580914][2] I suppose I could just iterate the result set and append the plist strings. But seems ugly, I'm sure there is a more elegant way to do this. I am rusty on Ruby right now, so the elegant way isn't obvious to me. Seems like I should be able to override ActiveRecord and make result-sets that pull back more than one record take the ActiveRecord::Base to_plist and make another to_plist implementation. In rails, this would go in environment.rb, right?

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  • SetMatrix() does not copy all values to HLSL

    - by Tili
    Hi, I want to use the contents of a vector of D3DXMatrices to my shader. m_pLightMatrices->SetMatrixArray(&currentLightMatrices[0].m[0][0],0,numLights); As we know the internals of a vector this poses no problems (as it is just a dynamic array). Now when I access this matrix in hlsl to fill up a struct I get this strange behavior: struct LightTest { float3 LightPos; float LightRange; float4 LightDiffuse; float3 LightAtt; }; float4x4 currentLight = gLights[0]; LightTest lt; lt.LightPos = currentLight._m00_m01_m02; //{0,0,0} lt.LightDiffuse = currentLight[1].rgba; //{0,0,0,0} lt.LightRange = currentLight._m03; //this gives me a value lt.LightAtt = currentLight[2].xyz; //{0,0,0} While debugging I see that my matrix is nicely filled with the variables I want. When I try to hardcode check what is in the struct I get all zero's, except the LightRange. As you can see I tried different methods of accessing the float4x4 but without any other results. Why oh why is hlsl not copying all my variables ?

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  • How to make a piece of WPF content take up the entire application window

    - by Bojin Li
    I'm working on an application that contains a number of content areas. I want to implement a behavior such that in response to user input, any of these content areas can be toggled to fit the entire application window, and optionally back to its original position again. I experimented with several approaches and none of them seem optimal for me. Here's what I tried to do: Use the ClipToBoundsProperty on the content I want to make "Full Screen": Doesn't work because only the CanvasPanel seems to fully respect this property. The application need to be localized so I would really like to avoid the CanvasPanel. Use a Grid and collapse the other content areas, such that only the one I want to see is visible, hence taking up the entire screen: This will probably work but doesn't seem easy to implement nor maintain. The "Full Screen" content area could be several levels deep, for example residing inside a Tabcontrol, so I would have to hide the tab headers too etc. Reconstruct the content area in a separate view and display it while hiding the rest: Seems easy enough to do with DataTemplates and my ViewModel objects, but any GUI/View only states are not preserved using this approach. Somehow "lift" the GUI/View I want to "Full Screen" into the separate view and display it while hiding the rest: I don't know how to do this or even if this is possible. Anyway if anyone knows a better approach I would love to know about it. Thanks a lot!

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  • Modify url in browser using javascript?

    - by user246114
    Hi, Is it possible to change the url in the user's browser without actually loading a page, using javascript? I don't think it is (could lead to unwanted behavior), I'm in a situation where this would be convenient though: I have a web app which displays reports generated by users. Layout roughly looks like: ----------------------------------------------------------- Column 1 | Column 2 ----------------------------------------------------------- Report A | Report B | Currently selected report contents here. Report C | right now the user would be looking at a url like: www.mysite.com/user123 To see the above page. When the user clicks the report names in column 1, I load the contents of that report in column 2 using ajax. This is convenient for the user, but the url in their browser remains unchanged. The users want to copy the url for a report to share with friends, so I suppose I could provide a button to generate a url for them, but it would just be more convenient for them to have it already as the url in their browser, something like: www.mysite.com/user123/reportb the alternate is to not load the contents of the report in column 2 using ajax, but rather a full page refresh. This would at least have a linkable url ready for the user in their url bar, but not as convenient as using ajax. Thanks

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  • Are there concurrency problems when using -performSelector:withObject:afterDelay: ?

    - by mystify
    For example, I often use this: [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:someDelay]; Now, lets say I call this 10 times to perform at the exact same delay, like: [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; - (void)doSomethingAfterDelay:(id)someObject { /* access an array, read stuff, write stuff, do different things that would suffer in multithreaded environments .... all operations are nonatomic! */ } I have observed pretty strange behavior when doing things like this. For my understanding, this method schedules a timer to fire on the current thread, so in this case the main thread. But since it doesn't create new threads, it actually should not be possible to run into concurrency problems, right?

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  • Are there concurrency problems when using -performSelector:withObject:afterDelay: ?

    - by mystify
    For example, I often use this: [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:someDelay]; Now, lets say I call this 10 times to perform at the exact same delay, like: [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; - (void)doSomethingAfterDelay:(id)someObject { /* access an array, read stuff, write stuff, do different things that would suffer in multithreaded environments .... all operations are nonatomic! */ } I have observed pretty strange behavior when doing things like this. For my understanding, this method schedules a timer to fire on the current thread, so in this case the main thread. But since it doesn't create new threads, it actually should not be possible to run into concurrency problems, right?

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  • Is it possible to reference remote content from chrome.manifest? (XULRunner)

    - by siemaa
    Hi, I have a xulrunner application and I've been trying to reference remote content from chrome.manifest file. Tt's an application for the company I work in; it's run on a number of computers (most of them are used by other employees as well) as a kind of an internet monitoring service. The problem I'd like to solve is this: updating the code of such application usually requires me to manually copy the modified files to every computer that the application is running on (I've had no luck trying to make automatic updates via xulrunner platform). This process has become very tedious. What I'd like to have is a web server, where all of the xul and js files would be accessible, so that every application could reference them from there. This would require me only to update the code on that server, and the applications (when restarted) would automatically get the latest code. What I managed to do: I can reference js scripts from a xul file using http based urls and everything works fine (I can use local, binary components etc.), although the xul file has to be local - that I'd like to change. But when I write in chrome.manifest a line like: content my_app http://path/to/app/files/ and then use the line in default/preferences/pref.js pref("toolkit.defaultChromeURI", "chrome://my_app/content/my_app.xul"); it just opens a console window (to test I manually run the application with the -console option) and no code gets executed. The file can be downloaded remotely using wget so I guess this isn't the web server issue. The applications work on Windows machines. Is there some kind of security issue causing such behavior or am I doing something wrong? Is it even possible to register remote, http based content as chrome?

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  • Need help managing MySql connections

    - by David Jenings
    I'm having trouble finding a clear explanation of connection pooling. I'm building an app using the .NET connector I downloaded from mysql.com. The app only needs one db connection but will be running simultaneously on about 6 machines on my network. Normally, I'd create the connection at startup and just leave it. But I'm seeing lots of posts from people who say that's bad practice. Also I'm concerned about timeouts. My app will run 24/7 and there may be extended periods without database activity. I'm leaning toward the following: using (MySqlConnection conn = new MySqlConnection(connStr)) { conn.Open(); // use connection } But I'm not sure I understand what's going on in the background. Is this actually closing the connection and allowing gc to kill the object, or is there a built in pooling behavior that preserves the object and redelivers it the next time I try to create one? I certainly don't want the app reauthenticating across the network every time I hit the database. Can anyone offer me some advise?

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  • How can I bind the same dependency to many dependents in Ninject?

    - by Mike Bantegui
    Let's I have three interfaces: IFoo, IBar, IBaz. I also have the classes Foo, Bar, and Baz that are the respective implementations. In the implementations, each depends on the interface IContainer. So for the Foo (and similarly for Bar and Baz) the implementation might read: class Foo : IFoo { private readonly IDependency Dependency; public Foo(IDependency dependency) { Dependency = dependency; } public void Execute() { Console.WriteLine("I'm using {0}", Dependency.Name); } } Let's furthermore say I have a class Container which happens to contain instances of the IFoo, IBar and IBaz: class Container : IContainer { private readonly IFoo _Foo; private readonly IBar _Bar; private readonly IBaz _Baz; public Container(IFoo foo, IBar bar, IBaz baz) { _Foo = foo; _Bar = bar; _Baz = baz; } } In this scenario, I would like the implementation class Container to bind against IContainer with the constraint that the IDependency that gets injected into IFoo, IBar, and IBaz be the same for all three. In the manual way, I might implement it as: IDependency dependency = new Dependency(); IFoo foo = new Foo(dependency); IBar bar = new Bar(dependency); IBaz baz = new Baz(dependency); IContainer container = new Container(foo, bar, baz); How can I achieve this within Ninject? Note: I am not asking how to do nested dependencies. My question is how I can guarantee that a given dependency is the same among a collection of objects within a materialized service. To be extremely explicit, I understand that Ninject in it's standard form will generate code that is equivalent to the following: IContainer container = new Container(new Foo(new Dependency()), new Bar(new Dependency()), new Baz(new Dependency())); I would not like that behavior.

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  • Should a "script" tag be allowed to remove itself?

    - by Nischal
    We've been having a discussion at our workplace on this with some for and some against the behavior. Wanted to hear views from you guys : <html> <body> <div> Test! <script> document.body.removeChild(document.getElementsByTagName('div')[0]); </script> </div> </body> </html> Should the above script work and do what it's supposed to do? First, let's see what's happening here : I have a javascript that's inside the <div> element. This javascript will delete the child node within body which happens to hold the div inside which the script itself exists. Now, the above script works fine in Firefox, Opera and IE8. But IE6 and IE7 give an alert saying they cannot open the page. Let's not debate on how IE should have handled this (they've accepted it as a bug and hence fixed it in IE8). The point here is since the 'SCRIPT' tag itself is a part of DOM, should it be allowed to do something like this? Should it even exist after such an operation? Edit: Firefox, Opera, IE9 etc. do not remove the 'script' tag if I run the above code. But, document.getElementsByTagName('script').length returns 0! To understand what I mean, add alert(document.getElementsByTagName('script').length); before and after document.body.removeChild(document.getElementsByTagName('div')[0]); in the code above.

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  • Gmail Sync on Android phone

    - by sunocky
    Android has the Gmail push features, which means the new message arrives in the mailbox without checking or refreshing the mailbox. As I understand, the sync processes are like these: 1) User turns on the sync 2) There will be a alert msg and the sync flag in the Gmail DB of this device will be True 3) When a new email reach the Gmail Server, it will check if the device sync value, if it's True then send the email OK, here, I don't quite understand how exactly does it work, For a WiFi and cell signal connection, does the phone has a TCP socket open keep listening to the Gmail Server, or when a new email arrives the Server send a SMS alert to the phone, and then it will open the data channel to fetch the email? Are the two ways of connections have different approaches? And second question is which method is the priority one? Say when you are in the middle of receiving data(emails), and suddenly the phone connect to a wireless network, will the data socket be closed and then reopened for the WiFi one? What's the behavior for the case when carrier's data channel and WiFi flips? I have also downloaded the source code, anyone knows which part should I be looking into in order to solves my questions? I found a folder called "email" inside the folder "package", should I be looking at its code? I know I asked quite some questions here, I'd appreciate if you know the answer for any of them, thanks very much!

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  • Unnecessary Redundancy with Tables.

    - by Stacey
    My items are listed as follows; This is just a summary of course. But I'm using a method shown for the "Detail" table to represent a type of 'inheritence', so to speak - since "Item" and "Downloadable" are going to be identical except that each will have a few additional fields relevant only to them. My question is in this design pattern. This sort of thing appears many, many times in our projects - is there a more intelligent way to handle it? I basically need to normalize the tables as much as possible. I'm extremely new to databases and so this is all very confusing to me. There are 5 items. Awards, Items, Purchases, Tokens, and Downloads. They are all very, very similar, except each has a few pieces of data relevant only to itself. I've tried to use a declaration field (like an enumerator 'Type' field) in conjunction with nullable columns, but I was told that is a bad approach. What I have done is take everything similar and place it in a single table, and then each type has its own table that references a column in the 'base' table. The problem occurs with relationships, or junctions. Linking all of these back to a customer. Each type takes around 2 additional tables to properly junction all of the data together- and as such, my database is growing very, very large. Is there a smarter practice for this kind of behavior? Item ID | GUID Name | varchar(64) Product ID | GUID Name | varchar(64) Store | GUID [ FK ] Details | GUID [FK] Downloadable ID | GUID Name | varchar(64) Url | nvarchar(2048) Details | GUID [FK] Details ID | GUID Price | decimal Description | text Peripherals [ JUNCTION ] ID | GUID Detail | GUID [FK] Store ID | GUID Addresses | GUID Addresses ID | GUID Name | nvarchar(64) State | int [FK] ZipCode | int Address | nvarchar(64) State ID | int Name | varchar(32)

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  • Must JsUnit Cases Reside Under the Same Directory as JsUnit?

    - by chernevik
    I have installed JsUnit and a test case as follows: /home/chernevik/Programming/JavaScript/jsunit /home/chernevik/Programming/JavaScript/jsunit/testRunner.html /home/chernevik/Programming/JavaScript/jsunit/myTests/lineTestAbs.html /home/chernevik/Programming/JavaScript/lineTestAbs.html When I open the test runner in a browser as a file, and test lineTestAbs.html from the jsunit/myTests directory, it passes. When I test the same file from the JavaScript directory, the test runner times out, asking if the file exists or is a test page. Questions: Am I doing something wrong here, or is this the expected behavior? Is it possible to put test cases in a different directory structure, and if so what is the proper path reference to to JsUnitCore.js? Would JsUnit behave differently if the files were retrieved from an HTTP server? <html> <head> <title>Test Page line(m, x, b)</title> <script language="JavaScript" src="/home/chernevik/Programming/JavaScript/jsunit/app/jsUnitCore.js"></script> <script language="JavaScript"> function line(m, x, b) { return m*x + b; } function testCalculationIsValid() { assertEquals("zero intercept", 10, line(5, 2, 0)); assertEquals("zero slope", 5, line(0, 2, 5)); assertEquals("at x = 10", 25, line(2, 10, 5)); } </script> </head> <body> This pages tests line(m, x, b). </body> </html>

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  • How can I load a div in rails in response to clicks on another div?

    - by mmr
    I'm very new to Rails (and web) programming, so I'm not even sure what technology I should be looking for for this. I've downloaded and run through the first five chapters of the Rails tutorial, but now have a very simple request. On the left hand side of a web page, I will have a table. If the user clicks on an element in that table, I want to have the right hand side of the page show something new. I already have a page to display the table, viz: <div class="center hero-unit"> <div class="container"> <h2>2012 Yearly Report</h2> <div class="row-fluid"> <div class="span12"> <div class="span4"> <table border="1"> </table> </div> <div class="span6"> <!-- load stuff here based on what someone clicks on in the table --> </div> </div> </div> </div> </div> And I'm using bootstrap layouts to display everything. I just don't understand how to change the contents of the 'span6' div based on user behavior in 'span4'.

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  • Kill process started with System.Diagnostic.Process.Start("FileName")

    - by PedroC88
    Hello; I am trying to create an app that will perform actions on specific times (much like the Windows Task Scheduler). I am currently using Process.Start() to lunch the file (or exe) required by the task. I am initiating a process by calling a file (an .mp3) and the process starts WMP (since it is the default application), so far so good. Now I wan't to kill that process. I know that it is normal behavior for the Process.Start(string, string) to return nothing (null in C#) in this case. So I am asking how can i close WMP when I called it through Process.Start(string, string)?? Edit: Please note that I am not opening WMP directly with Process.Start() and this is the line with which I run the process: VB: Me._procs.Add(Process.Start(Me._procInfo)) C#: this._procs.Add(Process.Start(this._procInfo)) _procInfo is a ProcessStartInfo instance. _procInfo.FileName is "C:\route\myFile.mp3". That is why WMP opens. In any case, all of the Start() methods, except for the instance-one which returns a boolean, return nothing (null in C#), because WMP is not the process that was directly created (please note that WMP is run and the song does play).

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  • WPF Calling a custom command on a custom control (from a viewmodel?)

    - by user190615
    I want to take a snap of the visual tree of a custom wpf control when the user clicks a button in a toolbar. The control is bound to a viewmodel. I have a BitmapSource dp in the custom control holding the snapped image which is bound to a property on my VM. The BitmapSource dp on the control is updated via a custom command on the control. I've tied the toolbar button's command to call the controls command which updates the BitmapSource. Now the problem is the end result I want is when the user clicks the button, the control updates its image and then the vm offers to save this image. I cant wrap my mind around an mvvm way of doing this. One inelegant solution is that control fires an event after the image is updated which is routed to the viewmodel as a command(command behavior) but then if i want to do something else with the image on some other button click, all the commands bound to the events will fire. All thoughts appreciated. EDIT The command on the control is a RoutedCommand and the commands in my vm are Prism delegate commands.

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