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  • MVC design for archived data view

    - by Hemant Tank
    Implementation of a standard archive process in ASP.Net MVC. Backend SQL Server 2005 We've an existing web app built in MVC. We've an Entity "Claim" and it has some child entities like ClaimDetails, Files, etc... A pretty standard setup in DB. Each entity has its own table and are linked via FK. Now, we need to have an "Archive" feature in web app which will allow admin to archive a Claim and its child entities. An archived Claim shud become readonly when visited again. Here're some points on which I need your valued opinion - To keep it simple and scalable (for a few million records) for now we plan to simply add a bit field "Archived" to the Claim table in db. And change the behavior accordingly in the web app. We've a 'Manage claim' page which renders a bunch of diff views for Claim and its child entities. Now, for a readonly view we can either use the same views or have a separate set of views. What do you suggest? At controller level, we can identify archived claim and select which view to render. At model level, though it'd be great to be able to use the same model used for Manage Claim - but it might not get us the "text" of some lookup fields. For example, Claim.BrandId is rendered as a dropdown in Manage claim (requires only BrandId) but for readonly view we need 'BrandText'. Any existing ref or architecture level example would be great. Here's my prev SO post but its more about db level changes: Design a process to archive data (SQL Server 2005) Thank you.

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  • ASP.NET 2.0 in Virtual Trying to Use SQL State Server

    - by user251660
    We have IIS 6 running on a W2003 Server. The root web site is running a v1.1 site. Under this site we have a virtual running a v2.0 site (with a separate application pool). The web.config for the root site is using SQL as its state server and has a 1.1 SQL state server database installed. The 2.0 virtual web.config does not need state and its web.config has no reference to a state server. When we attempt to call the virtual we receive this error message. "Unable to use SQL Server because ASP.NET version 2.0 Session State is not installed on the SQL server. Please install ASP.NET Session State SQL Server version 2.0 or above. This issue is currently only occurring on one web server. The rest are able to run the 2.0 virtual application. I also notice that if we call the 2.0 virtual with the IP address it does not generate the error, however if we call it with the host header name it generates the error (this behavior is only on the 1 web server with the error, all the others can be called with either the ip or host header without error). As an additional note the root and virtual are running with SSL. My theory is that the virtual 2.0 application is inheriting the 1.1 web.config state server entry from the root and when it looks at the state server it sees it as a 1.1 version and reports the error that it needs a 2.0 state server. I however cannot understand why the other servers are not behaving in this matter. All of the servers are on the same OS service pack as well as the same version of .net framework. Any ideas? Thanks

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  • Find whether a particular cell of a table has an img tag

    - by SilentPro
    I am generating a table dynamically using Django. The same table template is used to generate a variety of tables depending on the data supplied. In one scenario a particular column contains image tags. Since my table is editable (using jquery) the image cell also becomes editable and removes my content. I want some special behavior on double click of such cells like say upload an image. How do I accomplish this with a jquery? My script for making the table editable is given below. $(function() { $("td").dblclick(function() { var OriginalContent = $(this).text(); $(this).addClass("cellEditing"); $(this).html("<input type='text' value='" + OriginalContent + "' />"); $(this).children().first().focus(); $(this).children().first().keypress(function(e) { if (e.which == 13) { var newContent = $(this).val(); $(this).parent().text(newContent); $(this).parent().removeClass("cellEditing"); } }); $(this).children().first().blur(function() { $(this).parent().text(OriginalContent); $(this).parent().removeClass("cellEditing"); }); }); });

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  • Silverlight Binding - Binds when item is added but doesn't get updates.

    - by dw
    Hello, I'm sorta at a loss to why this doesn't work considering I got it from working code, just added a new level of code, but here's what I have. Basically, when I bind the ViewModel to a list, the binding picks up when Items are added to a collection. However, if an update occurs to the item that is bound, it doesn't get updated. Basically, I have an ObservableCollection that contains a custom class with a string value. When that string value gets updated I need it to update the List. Right now, when I debug, the list item does get updated correctly, but the UI doesn't reflect the change. If I set the bound item to a member variable and null it out then reset it to the right collection it will work, but not desired behavior. Here is a mockup of the code, hopefully someone can tell me where I am wrong. Also, I've tried implementing INofityPropertyChanged at every level in the code below. public class Class1 { public string ItemName; } public class Class2 { private Class2 _items; private Class2() //Singleton { _items = new ObservableCollection<Class1>(); } public ObservableCollection<Class1> Items { get { return _items; } internal set { _items = value; } } } public class Class3 { private Class2 _Class2Instnace; private Class3() { _Class2Instnace = Class2.Instance; } public ObservableCollection<Class1> Items2 { get {return _Class2Instnace.Items; } } } public class MyViewModel : INofityPropertyChanged { private Class3 _myClass3; private MyViewModel() { _myClass3 = new Class3(); } private BindingItems { get { return _myClass3.Items2; } // Binds when adding items but not when a Class1.ItemName gets updated. } }

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  • Using block around a static/singleton resource reference

    - by byte
    This is interesting (to me anyway), and I'd like to see if anyone has a good answer and explanation for this behavior. Say you have a singleton database object (or static database object), and you have it stored in a class Foo. public class Foo { public static SqlConnection DBConn = new SqlConnection(ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["BAR"].ConnectionString); } Then, lets say that you are cognizant of the usefulness of calling and disposing your connection (pretend for this example that its a one-time use for purposes of illustration). So you decide to use a 'using' block to take care of the Dispose() call. using (SqlConnection conn = Foo.DBConn) { conn.Open(); using (SqlCommand cmd = new SqlCommand()) { cmd.Connection = conn; cmd.CommandType = System.Data.CommandType.StoredProcedure; cmd.CommandText = "SP_YOUR_PROC"; cmd.ExecuteNonQuery(); } conn.Close(); } This fails, with an error stating that the "ConnectionString property is not initialized". It's not an issue with pulling the connection string from the app.config/web.config. When you investigate in a debug session you see that Foo.DBConn is not null, but contains empty properties. Why is this?

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  • UITableViewRowAnimationBottom doesn't work for last row

    - by GendoIkari
    I've come across a very similar question here: Inserting row to end of table with UITableViewRowAnimationBottom doesn't animate., though no answers have been given. His code was also a little different than mine. I have an extremely simple example, built from the Navigation application template. NSMutableArray *items; - (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; items = [[NSMutableArray array] retain]; self.navigationItem.rightBarButtonItem = [[[UIBarButtonItem alloc] initWithBarButtonSystemItem:UIBarButtonSystemItemAdd target:self action:@selector(addItem)] autorelease]; } - (void)addItem{ [items insertObject:@"new" atIndex:0]; [self.tableView insertRowsAtIndexPaths:[NSArray arrayWithObject:[NSIndexPath indexPathForRow:0 inSection:0]] withRowAnimation:UITableViewRowAnimationBottom]; } - (NSInteger)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView numberOfRowsInSection:(NSInteger)section { return items.count; } - (UITableViewCell *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { static NSString *CellIdentifier = @"Cell"; UITableViewCell *cell = [tableView dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier:CellIdentifier]; if (cell == nil) { cell = [[[UITableViewCell alloc] initWithStyle:UITableViewCellStyleDefault reuseIdentifier:CellIdentifier] autorelease]; } cell.textLabel.text = [items objectAtIndex:indexPath.row]; return cell; } - (void)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView commitEditingStyle:(UITableViewCellEditingStyle)editingStyle forRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { if (editingStyle == UITableViewCellEditingStyleDelete) { [items removeObjectAtIndex:indexPath.row]; [tableView deleteRowsAtIndexPaths:[NSArray arrayWithObject:indexPath] withRowAnimation:UITableViewRowAnimationBottom]; } } The problem is, when I either insert or delete the very last row in the table, the animation doesn't work at all; the row just appears or disappears instantly. This only happens with UITableViewRowAnimationBottom, but that's the animation that makes the most sense for creating or deleting table cells in this way. Is this a bug in Apple's framework? Or does it do this on purpose? Would it make sense to add an extra cell to the count, and then setup this cell so that it looks like it's not there at all, just to get around this behavior?

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  • Catching exception in Main() method

    - by Corvin
    Consider the following simple application: a windows form created by a "new C# windows application" sequence in VS that was modified in a following way: public static void Main() { Application.EnableVisualStyles(); Application.SetCompatibleTextRenderingDefault(false); try { Application.Run(new Form1()); } catch (Exception ex) { MessageBox.Show("An unexpected exception was caught."); } } Form1.cs contains the following modifications: private void Form1_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { throw new Exception("Error"); } If I press F5 in IDE, then, as I expect, I see a message box saying that exception was caught and the application quits. If I go to Debug(or Release)/bin and launch the executable, I see the standard "Unhandled exception" window, meaning that my exception handler doesn't work. Obviously, that has something to do with exception being thrown from a different thread that Application.Run is called from. But the question remains - why the behavior differs depending on whether the application has been run from IDE or from command line? What is the best practice to ensure that no exceptions remain unhandled in the application?

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  • @dynamic property needs setter with multiple behaviors

    - by ambertch
    I have a class that contains multiple user objects and as such has an array of them as an instance variable: NSMutableArray *users; The tricky part is setting it. I am deserializing these objects from a server via Objective Resource, and for backend reasons users can only be returned as a long string of UIDs - what I have locally is a separate dictionary of users keyed to UIDs. Given the string uidString of comma separated UIDs I override the default setter and populate the actual user objects: @dynamic users; - (void)setUsers:(id)uidString { users = [NSMutableArray arrayWithArray: [[User allUsersDictionary] objectsForKeys:[(NSString*)uidString componentsSeparatedByString:@","]]]; } The problem is this: I now serialize these to database using SQLitePO, which stores these as the array of user objects, not the original string. So when I retrieve it from database the setter mistakenly treats this array of user objects as a string! Where I actually want to adjust the setter's behavior when it gets this object from DB vs. over the network. I can't just make the getter serialize back into a string without tearing up large code that reference this array of user objects, and I tried to detect in the setter whether I have a string or an array coming in: if ([uidString respondsToSelector:@selector(addObject)]) { // Already an array, so don't do anything - just assign users = uidString but no success... so I'm kind of stuck - any suggestions? Thanks in advance!

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  • iOS 7: Best way to implement an textview that presents previous input but is easy to clear

    - by Frank R.
    I'm porting a Mac app to the iPhone and I've run into an unexpected problem. On the Mac there's a text field that is automatically pre-selected (= first responder) when a dialog shows up. The text field shows the text you entered in the field the last time and the text is pre-selected so that if you just start typing it gets cleared away. If you want to edit the existing text instead you just hit the forwards or backwards arrow. On the iPhone this behavior seems very hard to implement. The text view shows up with the old text and I can even get it to pre-select but whatever I do the result is not quite right. When I use [aTextView setMarkedText: myText selectedRange: newRange]; the text does show up as marked and if I just start typing the old text goes away. However there's no equivalent to the cursor keys on iOS, so I cannot NOT erase the text.. which is hardly the point. What kind of iOS idiom would be appropriate for giving the option to either edit or overwrite existing text? Best regards, Frank

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  • How to catch unintentional function interpositioning with GCC?

    - by SiegeX
    Reading through my book Expert C Programming, I came across the chapter on function interpositioning and how it can lead to some serious hard to find bugs if done unintentionally. The example given in the book is the following: my_source.c mktemp() { ... } main() { mktemp(); getwd(); } libc mktemp(){ ... } getwd(){ ...; mktemp(); ... } According to the book, what happens in main() is that mktemp() (a standard C library function) is interposed by the implementation in my_source.c. Although having main() call my implementation of mktemp() is intended behavior, having getwd() (another C library function) also call my implementation of mktemp() is not. Apparently, this example was a real life bug that existed in SunOS 4.0.3's version of lpr. The book goes on to explain the fix was to add the keyword static to the definition of mktemp() in my_source.c; although changing the name altogether should have fixed this problem as well. This chapter leaves me with some unresolved questions that I hope you guys could answer: Should our software group adopt the practice of putting the keyword static in front of all functions that we don't want to be exposed? Does GCC have a way to warn about function interposition? We certainly don't ever intend on this happening and I'd like to know about it if it does. Can interposition happen with functions introduced by static libraries? Thanks for the help.

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  • Custom ASP.net UserControl List<T> Property, having trouble setting declaratively

    - by Chris McCall
    I'm developing a custom UserControl to inject JQuery hotkeys into a page declaratively on the server side. Here's the control (the important parts anyway): [AspNetHostingPermission(SecurityAction.Demand, Level = AspNetHostingPermissionLevel.Minimal), AspNetHostingPermission(SecurityAction.InheritanceDemand, Level = AspNetHostingPermissionLevel.Minimal), DefaultProperty("HotKeys"), ParseChildren(true, "HotKeys"), ToolboxData("<{0}:HotKeysControl runat=\"server\"> </{0}:HotKeysControl>")] public partial class HotKeysControl : System.Web.UI.WebControls.WebControl { private string crlf = Environment.NewLine; public List<HotKey> _HotKeys; public HotKeysControl() { if (_HotKeys == null) { _HotKeys = new List<HotKey>(); } // if I uncomment this line, script is injected into the page // _HotKeys.Add(new HotKey("ctrl+r","thisControl")); } [ Category("Behavior"), Description("The hotkeys collection"), DesignerSerializationVisibility( DesignerSerializationVisibility.Content), Editor(typeof(HotKeyCollectionEditor), typeof(UITypeEditor)), PersistenceMode(PersistenceMode.InnerDefaultProperty) ] public List<HotKey> HotKeys { set { _HotKeys = value; } get { return _HotKeys; } } Here's the .aspx code: <%@ Register Assembly="MyCompany.ProductName.WebControls" Namespace="MyCompany.ProductName.WebControls" TagPrefix="uc" %> ... <uc:HotKeysControl ID="theHotkeys" runat="server" Visible="false"> <uc:HotKey ControlName="firstControl" KeyCode="ctrl+1" /> <uc:HotKey ControlName="thirdControl" KeyCode="ctrl+2" /> </uc:HotKeysControl> Nothing happens, as if no HotKeys objects are being added to the property collection. What Am I doing wrong? If I uncomment out the line above and "manually" add items, it works. It's something about how I'm declaratively adding hotkeys to the page. Any ideas?

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  • How to specify generic method type parameters partly

    - by DNNX
    I have an extension method like below: public static T GetValueAs<T, R>(this IDictionary<string, R> dictionary, string fieldName) where T : R { R value; if (!dictionary.TryGetValue(fieldName, out value)) return default(T); return (T)value; } Currently, I can use it in the following way: var dictionary = new Dictionary<string, object(); //... var list = dictionary.GetValueAs<List<int, object("A"); // this may throw ClassCastException - this is expected behavior; It works pretty fine, but the second type parameter is really annoying. Is it possible in C# 4.0 rewrite GetValueAs is such a way that the method will still be applicable to different types of string-keyed dictionaries AND there will be no need to specify second type parameter in the calling code, i.e. use var list = dictionary.GetValueAs<List<int("A"); or at least something like var list = dictionary.GetValueAs<List<int, ?("A"); instead of var list = dictionary.GetValueAs<List<int, object("A");

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  • Question About Fk refrence in The Collection

    - by Ahmed
    Hi , i have 2 entities : ( person ) & (Address) with follwing mapping : <class name="Adress" table="Adress" lazy="false"> <id name="Id" column="Id"> <generator class="native" /> </id> <many-to-one name="Person" class="Person"> <column name="PersonId" /> </many-to-one> </class> <class name="Person" table="Person" lazy="false"> <id name="PersonId" column="PersonId"> <generator class="native" /> </id> <property name="Name" column="Name" type="String" not-null="true" /> <set name="Adresses" lazy="true" inverse="true" cascade="save-update"> <key> <column name="PersonId" /> </key> <one-to-many class="Adress" /> </set> </class> my propblem is that when i set Adrees.Person with new object of person ,The collection person.Adresses doesn't update itself . should i update every end role of the association to be updated in the two both? another thing : if i updated the Fk manually like this : Adress.PersonId it doesn't break or change association. does this is Nhibernte behavior ? thanks in advance , i am waiting for your experiencies

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  • jQuery code works for console but not in-page.

    - by justSteve
    I have a form element defined as: <div class="field"> <div class="name"> <label for="User_LastName"> Last name: <span class="asterisk">*</span></label> </div> <div class="value"> <%= Html.TextBox("User.LastName", Model.LastName)%> <%= Html.ValidationMessage("User.LastName")%> </div> </div> and a jQuery selector that is supposed to detect when the input gets focus and highlight the parent: $("input").focus(function() { //watching for an event where an input form comes into focus $(this) .parent() .addClass("curFocus") .children("div") .toggle(); }); If i paste this code into firebug's console - things work as planned. However, i'm running this from a 'RenderPartial' .net mvc page. Other jQuery code sitting within the same $(document).ready(function() { block work correctly. The form uses html helpers to generate the inputs which might complicate the process somewhat - but even so... i'm seeing correct behavior when that code's in console but not in a 'real-time' page. How do i troubleshoot this?

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  • nservicebus deleting subscription record after inserting it?

    - by Justin Holbrook
    I have been playing with nservicebus for a few weeks now and since everything was going well on my local machine I decided to try to set up a test environment and work on deployment. I am using the generic host that comes with nservicebus and was using the nservicebus.Integration profile when running locally, but would like to use Nservicebus.Production in the test environment. I set up a sql server 2008 database, made changes to my app.config and everything seemed to work fine. But after a few attempts, I noticed messages were not being picked up by my subscriber. I checked the subscription table and it was empty. Upon examination of the logs I noticed the following: 2010-05-06 15:07:57,416 [1] DEBUG NHibernate.Persister.Entity.AbstractEntityPers ister [(null)] <(null) - Insert 0: INSERT INTO [Subscription] (SubscriberEndpo int, MessageType) VALUES (?, ?) 2010-05-06 15:07:57,416 [1] DEBUG NHibernate.Persister.Entity.AbstractEntityPers ister [(null)] <(null) - Update 0: 2010-05-06 15:07:57,416 [1] DEBUG NHibernate.Persister.Entity.AbstractEntityPers ister [(null)] <(null) - Delete 0: DELETE FROM [Subscription] WHERE Subscriber Endpoint = ? AND MessageType = ? Why would it insert then delete my subscription right afterwards? To try to rule out a nhibernate dialect issue I tried switching my subscription storage to an oracle 10g database. It behaved exactly the same, it worked the first 2 times, then I started seeing my subscriptions being deleted right after they were inserted. Any ideas what is causing this behavior?

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  • Strange befaviour of spring transaction support for JPA + Hibernate +@Transactional annotation

    - by abovesun
    I found out really strange behavior on relatively simple use case, probably I can't understand it because of not deep knowledges of spring @Transactional nature, but this is quite interesting. I have simple User dao that extends spring JpaDaoSupport class and contains standard save method: @Transactional public User save(User user) { getJpaTemplate().persist(user); return user; } If was working fine until I've add new method to same class: User getSuperUser(), this method should return user with isAdmin == true, and if there is no super user in db, method should create one. Thats how it was looking like: public User createSuperUser() { User admin = null; try { admin = (User) getJpaTemplate().execute(new JpaCallback() { public Object doInJpa(EntityManager em) throws PersistenceException { return em.createQuery("select u from UserImpl u where u.admin = true").getSingleResult(); } }); } catch (EmptyResultDataAccessException ex) { User admin = new User('login', 'password'); admin.setAdmin(true); save(admin); // THIS IS THE POINT WHERE STRANGE THING COMING OUT } return admin; } As you see code is strange forward and I was very confused when found out that no transaction was created and committed on invocation of save(admin) method and no new user wasn't actually created despite @Transactional annotation. In result we have situation: when save() method invokes from outside of UserDAO class - @Transactional annotation counted and user successfully created, but if save() invokes from inside of other method of the same dao class - @Transactional annotation ignored. Here how I was change save() method to force it always create transaction. public User save(User user) { getJpaTemplate().execute(new JpaCallback() { public Object doInJpa(EntityManager em) throws PersistenceException { em.getTransaction().begin(); em.persist(user); em.getTransaction().commit(); return null; } }); return user; } As you see I manually invoke begin and commit. Any ideas?

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  • How to unselect checkbox in chrome browser

    - by hudi
    in my wicket application I have 3 checkbox in form: add(new CheckBox("1").setOutputMarkupId(true)); add(new CheckBox("2").setOutputMarkupId(true)); add(new CheckBox("3").setOutputMarkupId(true)); form also contain behavior which unselect checboxes add(new AjaxEventBehavior("onclick") { private static final long serialVersionUID = 1L; @Override protected void onEvent(AjaxRequestTarget target) { List<Component> components = new ArrayList<Component>(); if (target.getLastFocusedElementId() != null) { if (target.getLastFocusedElementId().equals("1")) { components.add(get("2")); components.add(get("3")); } else if (target.getLastFocusedElementId().equals("2")) { components.add(get("1")); } else if (target.getLastFocusedElementId().equals("3")) { components.add(get("1")); } for (Component component : components) { component.setDefaultModelObject(null); target.add(component); } } } }); this works good on mozilla browser but in chrome this doesnt work. How I can improve to work this on chrome too ? UPDATE problem is in: target.getLastFocusedElementId() in mozilla this return what I want but in chrome it always return null but I dont know wh UPDATE 2 google chrome has bug in focus element: http://code.google.com/p/chromium/issues/detail?id=1383&can=1&q=window.focus%20type%3aBug&colspec=ID%20Stars%20Pri%20Area%20Type%20Status%20Summary%20Modified%20Owner so I need to do this in other way

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  • Is there anything on a local network or desktop environment that could effect JScript execution?

    - by uku
    I know this sounds odd. The JS on my project functions perfectly, except when the web site is accessed using computers at one specific company. To make things even more difficult, the JS fails only about 50% of the time when run from that company. The JS failure occurs with FireFox, Chrome, and IE. I have tested this myself using FF and Chrome on a thumb drive. The browsers on my thumb always display my project site perfectly, except when run from a computer on said company's network where they fail at the same rate as the installed browsers. My JS is using jQuery and making some Ajax calls. The Ajax calls are where the failure is occurring. To diagnose the problem I created a logging function for my Ajax calls and recorded success and failure. Over a one month period, there were only a handful of failures (about 1%) from all access points other than this company. Oddly enough, the Ajax calls in the logging function are not failing. There is nothing exotic there - Just Win XP SP3. I have never noticed any other unusual behavior from their network. The company is a division of a mega ISP and is on their corporate network. Any other suggestions for troubleshooting would be welcome.

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  • Is there a better way to keep track of session variable creation/access throughout different pages?

    - by Brandon
    Here's what I am working on. At my website I have multiple processes with each one containing multiple steps. Now in one of the processes, there is an error checking routine executed before proceeding to the next step of that process. A session var is set indicating the error status and it will either redirect back to the referrer or display the next page's contents. Now this kind of functionality, I believe, is common throughout web development. The issue that is occurring is that session vars are left around and are not being cleaned up properly. At times this introduces undesired behavior. My website is growing and I find that I am requiring more and more session vars to keep track of different system and error states. So I was thinking about creating a kind of "session variable keeper" to keep track of session var usage. The idea is fairly simple. It will have the notion of a context (e.g. registration process) and allow access to a predefined set of session vars within that context. In addition, the var and context will be paired with an action to proceed to some form of event handling. So if you haven't noticed I'm new to web development. Any thoughts or comments on the idea that I am proposing would be greatly appreciated. The back-end is written in PHP/MySQL.

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  • PHP loop hanging/interspersed/threaded through HTML

    - by sandyv
    I can't figure out how to say what I'm talking about which is a big part of why I'm stuck. In PHP I often see code like this html <?php language construct that uses brackets { some code; ?> more html <?php some more code; } ?> rest of html Is there any name for this? Having seen this lead me to try it out so here is a concrete example whose behavior doesn't make sense to me <div id="content"> <ul id="nav"> <?php $path = 'content'; $dir = dir($path); while(false !== ($file = $dir->read())) { if(preg_match('/.+\.txt/i', $file)) { echo "<li>$file</li>"; ?> </ul> <?php echo file_get_contents($path . '/' . $file); } } ?> </div> Which outputs roughly <div><ul><li></li></ul><li></li>...</div> instead of <div><ul><li></li>...</ul></div> which is what I thought would happen and what I want to happen.

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  • Work with AJAX response with DOM methods

    - by Stomped
    I'm retrieving an entire HTML document via AJAX - and that works fine. But I need to extract certain parts of that document and do things with them. Using a framework (jquery, mootools, etc) is not an option. The only solution I can think of is to grab the body of the HTML document with a regex (yes, I know, terrible) ie. <body>(.*)</body> put that into the current page's DOM in a hidden element, and work with it from there. Is there an easier/better way? Update I've done some testing, and inserting an entire HTML document into a created element behaves a bit differently across browsers I've tested. For example: FF3.5: keeps the contents of the HEAD and BODY tags IE7 / Safari4: Only includes what's between ... Opera 10.10: Keeps HEAD and everything inside it, Keeps contents of BODY The behavior of IE7 and Safari are ideal, but different browsers are doing this differently. Since I'm loading a predetermined HTML document I think I'm going to use the regEx to grab what I want and insert it into a DOM element - unless someone has other suggestions.

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  • HTML5 on iPhone Safari - data stored by localStorage does not always persist. Why?

    - by Aerodyne
    Hi, I write a simple iPhone web app using HTML5's localStorage. Tests on a 2G device show that data stored using localStorage does not persist after the Safari process is killed although the opened Safari windows are remembered. The data is also lost in a case where I am on a different site on a different Safari window, then I change the window to where the web app in subject is shown. When Safari loads the page it automatically refreshes the page. Then the data is lost. This is a simple test code: <html> <head> <meta name="viewport" content="height=device-height, width=device-width, initial-scale=1.0, maximum-scale=1.0, user-scalable=no" /> </head> <body> <script> alert("1:" + localStorage.getItem("test")); localStorage.setItem("test", "123"); alert("2:" + localStorage.getItem("test")); </script> </body> As far as I understand the data should persist! Can anyone shed some light on this behavior? What should I do to get the persistence to work? Thanks! Tom.

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  • File upload fails when user is authenticated. Using IIS7 Integrated mode.

    - by Nikkelmann
    These are the user identities my website tells me that it uses: Logged on: NT AUTHORITY\NETWORK SERVICE (Can not write any files at all) and Not logged on: WSW32\IUSR_77 (Can write files to any folder) I have a ASP.NET 4.0 website on a shared hosting IIS7 web server running in Integrated mode with 32-bit applications support enabled and MSSQL 2008. Using classic mode is not an option since I need to secure some static files and I use Routing. In my web.config file I have set the following: <system.webServer> <modules runAllManagedModulesForAllRequests="true" /> </system.webServer> My hosting company says that Impersonation is enabled by default on machine level, so this is not something I can change. I asked their support and they referred me to this article: http://www.codinghub.net/2010/08/differences-between-integrated-mode-and.html Citing this part: Different windows identity in Forms authentication When Forms Authentication is used by an application and anonymous access is allowed, the Integrated mode identity differs from the Classic mode identity in the following ways: * ServerVariables["LOGON_USER"] is filled. * Request.LogognUserIdentity uses the credentials of the [NT AUTHORITY\NETWORK SERVICE] account instead of the [NT AUTHORITY\INTERNET USER] account. This behavior occurs because authentication is performed in a single stage in Integrated mode. Conversely, in Classic mode, authentication occurs first with IIS 7.0 using anonymous access, and then with ASP.NET using Forms authentication. Thus, the result of the authentication is always a single user-- the Forms authentication user. AUTH_USER/LOGON_USER returns this same user because the Forms authentication user credentials are synchronized between IIS 7.0 and ASP.NET. A side effect is that LOGON_USER, HttpRequest.LogonUserIdentity, and impersonation no longer can access the Anonymous user credentials that IIS 7.0 would have authenticated by using Classic mode. How do I set up my website so that it can use the proper identity with the proper permissions? I've looked high and low for any answers regarding this specific problem, but found nil so far... I hope you can help!

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  • What could trigger a change of http status to 500 on the client's end?

    - by VexedPanda
    We have a PHP web application that posts data to itself, and either displays an updated page based on that data, or redirects to another page. An example of this is a script with a paged list on it, where clicking on the Next link causes a post to the same page, which then returns an updated version of the page showing the new set of list items. One client is reporting that IE is displaying friendly error messages when the page updates itself instead of the correct behavior of displaying the updated page. Turning friendly error messages off "corrects" this problem, and displays the updated page normally, indicating no actual server error occurred. When testing from any location other than this client's our web app does not produce any http error statuses, and in this specific situation only produces 200 statuses. (According to Fiddler.) What could be interfering with the HTTP POST and changing the response's http status code to 500 (or another code that would trigger friendly errors in IE)? Are there certain proxies or other network tools that could be misconfigured or buggy in this manner? Is there any way we can alter our application (apart from avoiding posts to the same script, which is not feasible) to get around this misbehavior?

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  • How do you hide a Swing Popup when you click somewhere else.

    - by Casey Watson
    I have a Popup that is shown when a user clicks on a button. I would like to hide the popup when any of the following events occur: The user clicks somewhere else in the application. (The background panel for example) The user minimizes the application. The JPopupMenu has this behavior, but I need more than just JMenuItems. The following code block is a simplified illustration to demonstrate the current usage. import java.awt.*; import java.awt.event.ActionEvent; import javax.swing.*; public class PopupTester extends JFrame { public static void main(String[] args) { final PopupTester popupTester = new PopupTester(); popupTester.setLayout(new FlowLayout()); popupTester.setSize(300, 100); popupTester.add(new JButton("Click Me") { @Override protected void fireActionPerformed(ActionEvent event) { Point location = getLocationOnScreen(); int y = (int) (location.getY() + getHeight()); int x = (int) location.getX(); JLabel myComponent = new JLabel("Howdy"); Popup popup = PopupFactory.getSharedInstance().getPopup(popupTester, myComponent, x, y); popup.show(); } }); popupTester.add(new JButton("No Click Me")); popupTester.setVisible(true); popupTester.setDefaultCloseOperation(JFrame.EXIT_ON_CLOSE); } }

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