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  • iPhone SDK Programming - Working with a variable across 2 views

    - by SD
    I have what I hope is a fairly simple question about using the value from a variable across 2 views. I’m new to the iPhone SDK platform and the Model/View/Controller methodology. I’ve got background in VB.Net, some Php, but mostly SQL, so this is new ground for me. I’m building an app that has 3 views. For simplicity’s sake, I’ll call them View1, View2, View3. On View1 I have an NSString variable that I’ve declared in View1.h, and synthesized in View1.m. I’ll call it String1. View1.m uses a UITextField to ask the user for their name and then sets the value of String1 to that name (i.e. "Bill"). I would now like to use the value of String1 in View2. I'm not doing anything other than displaying the value ("Bill"), in a UILabel object in View2. Can someone tell me what the easiest way to accomplish that is? Many thanks in advance….

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  • WCF: get generic type object (e.g. MyObject<T>) from remote machine

    - by Aaron
    I have two applications that are communicating through WCF. On the server the following object exists: public class MyObject<T> { ... public Entry<T> GetValue() } Where Entry<T> is another object with T Data as a public property. T could be any number of types (string, double, etc) On the client I have ClientObject<T> that needs to get the value of Data from the server (same type). Since I'm using WCF, I have to define my ServiceContract as an interface, and I can't have ClientObject<T> call Entry<T> GetMyObjectValue (string Name) which calls GetValue on the correct MyObject<T> because my interface isn't aware of the type information. I've tried implementing separate GetValue functions (GetMyObjectValueDouble, GetMyObjectValueString) in the interface and then have ClientObject determine the correct one to call. However, Entry<T> val = (Entry<T>)GetMyObjectValueDouble(...); doesn't work because it's not sure about the type information. How can I go about getting a generic object over WCF with the correct type information? Let me know if there are other details I can provide. Thanks!

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  • Will this cause a problem with different runtimes with DLL?

    - by Milo
    My gui application supports polymorphic timed events so that means that the user calls new, and the gui calls delete. This can create a problem if the runtimes are incompatible. So I was told a proposed solution would be this: class base; class Deallocator { void operator()(base* ptr) { delete ptr; } } class base { public: base(Deallocator dealloc) { m_deleteFunc = dealloc; } ~base() { m_deleteFunc(this); } private: Deallocator m_deleteFunc; } int main { Deallocator deletefunc; base baseObj(deletefunc); } While this is a good solution, it does demand that the user create a Deallocator object which I do not want. I was however wondering if I provided a Deallocator to each derived class: eg class derived : public base { Deallocator dealloc; public: Derived() : base(dealloc); { } }; I think this still does not work though. The constraint is that: The addTimedEvent() function is part of the Widget class which is also in the dll, but it is instanced by the user. The other constraint is that some classes which derive from Widget call this function with their own timed event classes. Given that "he who called new must call delete" what could work given these constraints? Thanks

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  • Catching the return of main function before it deallocates resources

    - by EpsilonVector
    I'm trying to implement user threads in Linux kernel 2.4, and I ran into something problematic and unexpected. Background: a thread basically executes a single function and dies, except that when I call thread_create for the first time it must turn main() into a thread as well (by default it is not a thread until the first call, which is also when all the related data structures are allocated). Since a thread executes a function and dies, we don't need to "return" anywhere with it, but we do need to save the return value to be reclaimed later with thread_join, so the hack I came up with was: when I allocate the thread stack I place a return address that points to a thread_return_handler function, which deallocates the thread, makes it a zombie, and saves its return value for later. This works for "just run a function and die" threads, but is very problematic with the main thread. Since it actually is the main function, if it returns before the other threads finish the normal return mechanism kicks in, and deallocates all the shared resources, thus screwing up all the running threads. I need to keep it from doing that. Any ideas on how it can be done?

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  • XML digital signature interface

    - by yeekang
    I am trying to call a WebService and it requires me to prepare an XML digital signature interface. I came across this website and it shows how to sign an XML document. My problem now is that I do not create the XML document myself. My code is as follows: string myResult; GenericWS.ServicesService a = new GenericWS.ServicesService(); GenericWS.Service2 b = new GenericWS.Service2(); b.Something = "3"; X509Certificate cert = X509Certificate.CreateFromCertFile("C:\\somepath\\somecert.cer"); a.ClientCertificates.Add(cert); ServicePointManager.ServerCertificateValidationCallback = delegate (object s, X509Certificate certificate, X509Chain chain, SslPolicyErrors sslPolicyErrors) { return true; }; myResult= a.WSRequest(b).WSReturnValue.ToString(); Label1.Text = myResult; Basically, the WSRequest() will generate the body of the SOAP message. However, in order to sign the SOAP message, I need to pass in the XML file that needs to be signed. I tried to serialize the object and cast it as XML and pass it into the signature interface but I do not have another method that I can invoke to call the webmethod. Is there any other solution?

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  • WCF hosting: Can access svc file but cannot go to wsdl link

    - by Impulse
    Hello, I have a WCF service that is hosted in IIS 7.5. I have two servers, one for test and one for production. The service works fine on test server, but on the production server I have the following error. When I access the address http//..../service.svc I can see the default page that says: You have created a service. To test this service, you will need to create a client and use it to call the service. You can do this using the svcutil.exe tool from the command line with the following syntax: svcutil.exe http://..../service.svc?wsdl This will generate a configuration file and a code file that contains the client class. Add the two files to your client application and use the generated client class to call the Service. But when I click the wsdl link, I cannot go to the wsdl page. It returns me to this default web page without any errors. I am suspecting a network/firewall authorization error but does anybody have an experience like this one? All IIS settings are the same for test and production servers. Thank you, Best Regards.

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  • Centralizing Messagebox handling for application

    - by DRapp
    I'm wondering how others deal with trying to centralize MessageBox function calling. Instead of having long text embedded all over the place in code, in the past (non .net language), I would put system and application base "messagebox" type of messages into a database file which would be "burned" into the executable, much like a resource file in .Net. When a prompting condition would arise, I would just do call something like MBAnswer = MyApplication.CallMsgBox( IDUserCantDoThat ) then check the MBAnswer upon return, such as a yes/no/cancel or whatever. In the database table, I would have things like what the messagebox title would be, the buttons that would be shown, the actual message, a special flag that automatically tacked on a subsequent standard comment like "Please contact help desk if this happens.". The function would call the messagebox with all applicable settings and just return back the answer. The big benefits of this was, one location to have all the "context" of messages, and via constants, easier to read what message was going to be presented to the user. Does anyone have a similar system in .Net to do a similar approach, or is this just a bad idea in the .Net environment.

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  • Execute JavaScript from within a C# assembly

    - by ScottKoon
    I'd like to execute JavaScript code from within a C# assembly and have the results of the JavaScript code returned to the calling C# code. It's easier to define things that I'm not trying to do: I'm not trying to call a JavaScript function on a web page from my code behind. I'm not trying to load a WebBrowser control. I don't want to have the JavaScript perform an AJAX call to a server. What I want to do is write unit tests in JavaScript and have then unit tests output JSON, even plain text would be fine. Then I want to have a generic C# class/executible that can load the file containing the JS, run the JS unit tests, scrap/load the results, and return a pass/fail with details during a post-build task. I think it's possible using the old ActiveX ScriptControl, but it seems like there ought to be a .NET way to do this without using SilverLight, the DLR, or anything else that hasn't shipped yet. Anyone have any ideas? update: From Brad Abrams blog namespace Microsoft.JScript.Vsa { [Obsolete("There is no replacement for this feature. Please see the ICodeCompiler documentation for additional help. http://go.microsoft.com/fwlink/?linkid=14202")] Clarification: We have unit tests for our JavaScript functions that are written in JavaScript using the JSUnit framework. Right now during our build process, we have to manually load a web page and click a button to ensure that all of the JavaScript unit tests pass. I'd like to be able to execute the tests during the post-build process when our automated C# unit tests are run and report the success/failure alongside of out C# unit tests and use them as an indicator as to whether or not the build is broken.

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  • Updating table row by given id with jQuery

    - by fabrik
    Hello all! I need to update a specific table row (via tr id="unique_key") after a successful AJAX call. HTML fragment: <a name=\"p{$product_id}\" class=\"tr{$product_id}\"></a> <tr id="p{product_id}" class="item-row"> <td><h3>{product_id}</h3><a rel="facebox" href="ajax_url">{product_name}</a></td> <td>{image_information}</td> <td>{image_sortiment}</td> <td>{product_status}</td> </tr> Javascript: // AJAX Call success: function(msg){ $('#p' + prod_id).remove(); $('.tr' + prod_id).after(msg); $('#p' + prod_id + ' a[rel*=facebox]').facebox(); } ... What happens: The table row removed Anchors grouped into one single row (not before their <tr>'s) so my 'hook' disappears AJAX result inserted over the whole table (after my 'hook' but still a wrong place) What's wrong with my idea? How can i force jQuery to 'overwrite' the required table row?

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  • Array of Arrays - writing to File problem

    - by iFloh
    Hi, and again my array of arrays ... I try to improve my app performance by buffering arrays on file for later reuse. I have an NSMutableArray that contains about 30 NSMutableArrays with NSNumber, NSDate and NSString Objects. I try to write the file using this call: bool result = [myArray writeToFile:[fileMethods getFullPath:[NSString stringWithFormat:@"iEts%@.arr", [aDate shortDateString]]] atomically:NO]; = result = FALSE. The Path method is: + (NSString *) getFullPath:(NSString *)forFileName { NSArray *paths = NSSearchPathForDirectoriesInDomains(NSDocumentDirectory, NSUserDomainMask, YES); NSString *documentsDirectory = [paths objectAtIndex:0]; return [documentsDirectory stringByAppendingPathComponent:forFileName]; } and the aDate call returns a shortDateString with ddMMyy. The NSLog NSLog(@"%@", [fileMethods getFullPath:[NSString stringWithFormat:@"iEts%@.arr", [aDate shortDateString]]]); on the path generation returns: /Users/me/Library/Application Support/iPhone Simulator/User/Applications/86729620-EC1D-4C10-A799-0C638BB27933/Documents/iEts010510.arr FURTHER: It must have something to do with the Array of Arrays, since I also write 3 further simple arrays (containing NSStrings) that all succeed. The Array of Arrays gets generated using the addObject method Any ideas what could cause the trouble?

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  • How to combine two separate unrelated Git repositories into one with single history timeline

    - by Antony
    I have two unrelated (not sharing any ancestor check in) Git repositories, one is a super repository which consists a number of smaller projects (Lets call it repository A). Another one is just a makeshift local Git repository for a smaller project (lets call it repository B). Graphically, it would look like this A0-B0-C0-D0-E0-F0-G0-HEAD (repo A) A0-B0-C0-D0-E0-F0-G0-HEAD (remote/master bare repo pulled & pushed from repo A) A1-B1-C1-D1-E1-HEAD (repo B) Ideally, I would really like to merge repo B into repo A with a single history timeline. So it would appear that I originally started project in repo A. Graphically, this would be the ideal end result A0-A1-B1-B0-D1-C0-D0-E0-F0-G0-E1-H(from repo B)-HEAD (new repo A) A0-A1-B1-B0-D1-C0-D0-E0-F0-G0-E1-H(from repo B)-HEAD (remote/master bare repo pulled & pushed from repo A) I have been doing some reading with submodules and subtree (Pro Git is a pretty good book by the way), but both of them seem to cater solution towards maintaining two separate branch with sub module being able to pull changes from upstream and subtree being slightly less headache. Both solution require additional and specialized git commands to handle check ins and sync between master and sub tree/module branch. Both solution also result in multiple time-lines (with --squash you even get 3 timelines with subtree). The closest solution from SO seems to talk about "graft", but is that really it? The goal is to have a single unified repository where I can pull/push check-ins, so that there are no more repo B, just repo A in the end.

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  • Access is denied. Javascript error on request to secured page

    - by ihorko
    On SomePage.aspx page by javascript (XMLHttpRequest) I call SecuredPage.aspx used next code: var httpRequest = GetXmlHttp(); var url = "https://myhost.com/SecuredPage.aspx"; var params = "param1=" + document.getElementById('param1').value + "&param2=" + document.getElementById('param2').value; httpRequest.open("POST", url, true); httpRequest.setRequestHeader("Content-Type", "application/x-www-form-urlencoded"); httpRequest.onreadystatechange = function() { //Call a function when the state changes. if (httpRequest.readyState == 4 && httpRequest.status == 200) { alert(httpRequest.responseText); } } httpRequest.send(params); // HERE ACCESS IS DENIED //--------------------------------------------- function GetXmlHttp() { var xmlhttp = false; if (window.XMLHttpRequest) { xmlhttp = new XMLHttpRequest(); } else if (window.ActiveXObject) // code for IE { try { xmlhttp = new ActiveXObject("Msxml2.XMLHTTP"); } catch (e) { try { xmlhttp = new ActiveXObject("Microsoft.XMLHTTP"); } catch (E) { xmlhttp = false; } } } return xmlhttp; } It throws Access is denied error. if send to http (http://myhost.com/SecuredPage.aspx), it works fine. How is it possible to resolve that problem. Thanks!

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  • help me refactor iteration over a generic collection

    - by Biswanath
    Hi, I am working with a generic data structure, say MyGeneric<Type>. There is a case where I have to iterate over all the values it holds The code I am trying to do. for ( all the keys in myGeneric ) { // do lot of stuff here } Now the generic can hold base type as double and string and it can hold some user-defined type also. There is a particular situation where I have to some specific work depending upon the type of the generic. so the final code block looks something like this for( all the keys in myGeneric ) { if key is type foo then //do foo foo else if key is of type bar //do bar bar } Now, as complexity sensitive as I am I do not like to have an if condition in the for loop. So the next solution I did was if myGeneric is of type foo call fooIterator(myGeneric) if myGenric is of type bar call barItetrator(myGeneric) function FooIterator() { // ..... // foo work //...... } function BarItetrator() { // ..... // bar work //...... } Then again when somebody sees my code then I am quite sure that they will shout where is the "refactoring". What is the ideal thing to do in this situation ? Thanks.

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  • Member function overloading/template specialization issue

    - by Ferruccio
    I've been trying to call the overloaded table::scan_index(std::string, ...) member function without success. For the sake of clarity, I have stripped out all non-relevant code. I have a class called table which has an overloaded/templated member function named scan_index() in order to handle strings as a special case. class table : boost::noncopyable { public: template <typename T> void scan_index(T val, std::function<bool (uint recno, T val)> callback) { // code } void scan_index(std::string val, std::function<bool (uint recno, std::string val)> callback) { // code } }; Then there is a hitlist class which has a number of templated member functions which call table::scan_index(T, ...) class hitlist { public: template <typename T> void eq(uint fieldno, T value) { table* index_table = db.get_index_table(fieldno); // code index_table->scan_index<T>(value, [&](uint recno, T n)->bool { // code }); } }; And, finally, the code which kicks it all off: hitlist hl; // code hl.eq<std::string>(*fieldno, p1.to_string()); The problem is that instead of calling table::scan_index(std::string, ...), it calls the templated version. I have tried using both overloading (as shown above) and a specialized function template (below), but nothing seems to work. After staring at this code for a few hours, I feel like I'm missing something obvious. Any ideas? template <> void scan_index<std::string>(std::string val, std::function<bool (uint recno, std::string val)> callback) { // code }

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  • RIA Service - without database?

    - by Heko
    Helo! I need to write a RIA service to call Java webservices from Silverlight 3.0 app. I'm testing how stuff works and in my Web app I have a MyData class which has 2 properties (int ID, string Text): namespace SilverlightApplication1.Web { public class MyData { [Key] public int ID { get; set; } public string Text { get; set; } } } Then I wrote simple DomainService: [EnableClientAccess()] public class MyService : DomainService { public IQueryable<MyData> GetMyData(string Url) { // here I will call my WebService List<MyData> result = new List<MyData>(); result.Add(new MyData { ID = 1, Text = Url }); return result.AsQueryable(); } } } How can I get data into my SL app? Now I have this: namespace SilverlightApplication1 { public partial class MainPage : UserControl { public MainPage() { InitializeComponent(); MyContext context = new MyContext(); } } } I called and load but nothink worsk (exceptions, or nulls)... I had Invoke annotation but MyData is not TEntity and I can't use Strings or other simple types as well... :/ I'm reading and reading posts and nothing works like it should.. Any help would be really appreciated. Thank you!

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  • Specific template for the first element.

    - by Kalinin
    I have a template: <xsl:template match="paragraph"> ... </xsl:template> I call it: <xsl:apply-templates select="paragraph"/> For the first element I need to do: <xsl:template match="paragraph[1]"> ... <xsl:apply-templates select="."/><!-- I understand that this does not work --> ... </xsl:template> How to call <xsl:apply-templates select="paragraph"/> (for the first element paragraph) from the template <xsl:template match="paragraph[1]">? So far that I have something like a loop. I solve this problem so (but I do not like it): <xsl:for-each select="paragraph"> <xsl:choose> <xsl:when test="position() = 1"> ... <xsl:apply-templates select="."/> ... </xsl:when> <xsl:otherwise> <xsl:apply-templates select="."/> </xsl:otherwise> </xsl:choose> </xsl:for-each>

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  • Is Safari on iOS 6 caching $.ajax results?

    - by user1684978
    Since the upgrade to iOS 6, we are seeing Safari's web view take the liberty of caching $.ajax calls. This is in the context of a PhoneGap application so it is using the Safari WebView. Our $.ajax calls are POST methods and we have cache set to false {cache:false}, but still this is happening. We tried manually adding a timestamp to the headers but it did not help. We did more research and found that Safari is only returning cached results for web services that have a function signature that is static and does not change from call to call. For instance, imagine a function called something like: getNewRecordID(intRecordType) This function receives the same input parameters over and over again, but the data it returns should be different every time. Must be in Apple's haste to make iOS 6 zip along impressively they got too happy with the cache settings. Has anyone else seen this behavior on iOS 6? If so, what exactly is causing it? The workaround that we found was to modify the function signature to be something like this: getNewRecordID(intRecordType, strTimestamp) and then always pass in a timestamp parameter as well, and just discard that value on the server side. This works around the issue. I hope this helps some other poor soul who spends 15 hours on this issue like I did!

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  • WCF consumed as WebService adds a boolean parameter?

    - by Martín Marconcini
    I've created the default WCF Service in VS2008. It's called "Service1" public class Service1 : IService1 { public string GetData( int value ) { return string.Format("You entered: {0}", value); } public CompositeType GetDataUsingDataContract( CompositeType composite ) { if ( composite.BoolValue ) { composite.StringValue += "Suffix"; } return composite; } } It works fine, the interface is IService1: [ServiceContract] public interface IService1 { [OperationContract] string GetData( int value ); [OperationContract] CompositeType GetDataUsingDataContract( CompositeType composite ); // TODO: Add your service operations here } This is all by default; Visual Studio 2008 created all this. I then created a simple Winforms app to "test" this. I added the Service Reference to my the above mentioned service and it all works. I can instanciate and call myservice1.GetData(100); and I get the result. But I was told that this service will have to be consumed by a Winforms .NET 2.0 app via Web Services, so I proceeded to add the reference to a new Winforms .NET 2.0 application created from scratch (only one winform called form1). This time, when adding the "web reference", it added the typical "localhost" one belonging to webservices; the wizard saw the WCF Service (running on background) and added it. When I tried to consume this, I found out that the GetData(int) method, was now GetData(int, bool). Here's the code private void button1_Click( object sender, EventArgs e ) { localhost.Service1 s1 = new WindowsFormsApplication2.localhost.Service1(); Console.WriteLine(s1.GetData(100, false)); } Notice the false in the GetData call? I don't know what that parameter is or where did that come from, it is called "bool valueSpecified". Does anybody know where this is coming from? Anything else I should do to consume a WCF Service as a WebService from .NET 2.0? (winforms).

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  • For each result in MySQL query, push to array (complicated)

    - by Dylan Taylor
    Okay, here's what I'm trying to do. I am running a MySQL query for the most recent posts. For each of the returned rows, I need to push the ID of the row to an array, then within that ID in the array, I need to add more data from the rows. A multi-dimensional array. Here's my code thus far. $query = "SELECT * FROM posts ORDER BY id DESC LIMIT 10"; $result = mysql_query($query); while($row = mysql_fetch_array($result)){ $id = $row["id"]; $post_title = $row["title"]; $post_text = $row["text"]; $post_tags = $row["tags"]; $post_category = $row["category"]; $post_date = $row["date"]; } As you can see I haven't done anything with arrays yet. Here's an ideal structure I'm looking for, just incase you're confused. The master array I guess you could call it. We'll just call this array $posts. Within this array, I have one array for each row returned in my MySQL query. Within those arrays there is the $post_title, $post_text, etc. How do I do this? I'm so confused.. an example would be really appreciated. -Dylan

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  • Stuck on scrolling GtkViewPort to end.

    - by PP
    I am adding one GtkVBox to GtkViewPort. And I am doing scrolling for GtkViewPort based on two Up/Down Buttons. I need to display last item in VBox as we do in Message Chat Screens (Message Chat list displays/adds newest chat message at bottom of the list) i doing exact thing. so for scrolling at the bottom of the GtkViewPort i am doing in the map event call back. GtkAdjustment* adjustment; adjustment = gtk_viewport_get_vadjustment(GTK_VIEWPORT(viewport_list)); gtk_adjustment_set_value(adjustment, gtk_adjustment_get_upper(adjustment)); So this works perfectly fine. it displays newest added widget in Vbox at the end. on some external events I add new Widgets to my VBox and call above code again to display these newly added widgets. on first add it does not scroll at all but on 2nd add to VBOX it scroll upto 2nd last Widget in the list. Why this might be happening. It there another way of scrolling GtkViewPort to the end? Thanks for reading :)

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  • Wordpress Admin Panel Code Input

    - by Wes
    I've got a wordpress admin panel for one of my themes and one of the boxes has an input for some code to drive google adsense. when I put the code into the box and call it with my php tags the code comes out like this: <script type="\&quot;text/javascript\&quot;"><!-- google_ad_client = \"pub-9295546347478163\"; /* Leaderboard 5/17/2010 */ google_ad_slot = \"7593465074\"; google_ad_width = 728; google_ad_height = 90; //--> </script> <script type="\&quot;text/javascript\&quot;" src="%5C%22http://pagead2.googlesyndication.com/pagead/show_ads.js%5C%22"> </script> Which I assume is a feature to stop SQL injections. How can I call pure code form a box? This is how I currently have that textbox setup. array( "name" => "Code for Top ad", "desc" => "Enter the HTML that will drive the banner ad for the page header", "id" => $shortname."_headerAd", "type" => "textarea"), and then echo it out with this: <?php echo get_option('lifestyle_headerAd'); ?>

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  • StructureMap Open Generic Types

    - by Shane Fulmer
    I have the following classes: public interface IRenderer<T> { string Render(T obj); } public class Generic<T> { } public class SampleGenericRenderer<T> : IRenderer<Generic<T>> { public string Render(Generic<T> obj) { throw new NotImplementedException(); } } I would like to be able to call StructureMap with ObjectFactory.GetInstance<IRenderer<Generic<string>>>(); and receive SampleGenericRenderer<string>. I'm currently using the following registration and receiving this error when I call GetInstance. "Unable to cast object of type 'ConsoleApplication1.SampleGenericRenderer'1[ConsoleApplication1.Generic'1[System.String]]' to type 'ConsoleApplication1.IRenderer'1[ConsoleApplication1.Generic'1[System.String]]'." public class CoreRegistry : Registry { public CoreRegistry() { Scan(assemblyScanner => { assemblyScanner.AssemblyContainingType(typeof(IRenderer<>)); assemblyScanner.AddAllTypesOf(typeof(IRenderer<>)); assemblyScanner.ConnectImplementationsToTypesClosing(typeof(IRenderer<>)); }); } } Is there any way to configure StructureMap so that it creates SampleGenericRenderer<string> instead of SampleGenericRenderer<Generic<string>>?

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  • C++/Qt - Memory allocation question

    - by HardCoder1986
    Hello! I recently started investigating Qt for myself and have the following question: Suppose I have some QTreeWidget* widget. At some moment I want to add some items to it and this is done via the following call: QList<QTreeWidgetItem*> items; // Prepare the items QTreeWidgetItem* item1 = new QTreeWidgetItem(...); QTreeWidgetItem* item2 = new QTreeWidgetItem(...); items.append(item1); items.append(item2); widget->addTopLevelItems(items); So far it looks ok, but I don't actually understand who should control the objects' lifetime. I should explain this with an example: Let's say, another function calls widget->clear();. I don't know what happens beneath this call but I do think that memory allocated for item1 and item2 doesn't get disposed here, because their ownage wasn't actually transfered. And, bang, we have a memory leak. The question is the following - does Qt have something to offer for this kind of situation? I could use boost::shared_ptr or any other smart pointer and write something like shared_ptr<QTreeWidgetItem> ptr(new QTreeWidgetItem(...)); items.append(ptr.get()); but I don't know if the Qt itself would try to make explicit delete calls on my pointers (which would be disastrous since I state them as shared_ptr-managed). How would you solve this problem? Maybe everything is evident and I miss something really simple?

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  • Parsing large txt files in ruby taking a lot of time?

    - by hershey92
    below is the code to download a txt file from internet approx 9000 lines and populate the database, I have tried a lot but it takes a lot of time more than 7 minutes. I am using win 7 64 bit and ruby 1.9.3. Is there a way to do it faster ?? require 'open-uri' require 'dbi' dbh = DBI.connect("DBI:Mysql:mfmodel:localhost","root","") #file = open('http://www.amfiindia.com/spages/NAV0.txt') file = File.open('test.txt','r') lines = file.lines 2.times { lines.next } curSubType = '' curType = '' curCompName = '' lines.each do |line| line.strip! if line[-1] == ')' curType,curSubType = line.split('(') curSubType.chop! elsif line[-4..-1] == 'Fund' curCompName = line.split(" Mutual Fund")[0] elsif line == '' next else sCode,isin_div,isin_re,sName,nav,rePrice,salePrice,date = line.split(';') sCode = Integer(sCode) sth = dbh.prepare "call mfmodel.populate(?,?,?,?,?,?,?)" sth.execute curCompName,curSubType,curType,sCode,isin_div,isin_re,sName end end dbh.do "commit" dbh.disconnect file.close 106799;-;-;HDFC ARBITRAGE FUND RETAIL PLAN DIVIDEND OPTION;10.352;10.3;10.352;29-Jun-2012 This is the format of data to be inserted in the table. Now there are 8000 such lines and how can I do an insert by combining all that and call the procedure just once. Also, does mysql support arrays and iteration to do such a thing inside the routine. Please give your suggestions.Thanks.

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  • Does IE completely ignore cache control headers for AJAX requests?

    - by Joshua Hayworth
    Hello there, I've got, what I would consider, a simple test web site. A single page with a single button. Here is a copy of the source I'm working with if you would like to download it and play with it. When that button is clicked, it creates a JavaScript timer that executes once a second. When the timer function is executed, An AJAX call is made to retrieve a text value. That text value is then placed into the DOM. What's my problem? IE Caching. Crack open Task Manager and watch what happens to the iexplorer.exe process (IE 8.0.7600.16385 for me) while the timer in that page is executing. See the memory and handle count getting larger? Why is that happening when, by all accounts, I have caching turned off. I've got the jQuery cache option set to false in $.ajaxSetup. I've got the CacheControl header set to no-cache and no-store. The Expires header is set to DateTime.Now.AddDays(-1). The headers are set in both the page code-behind as well as the HTTP Handler's response. Anybody got any ideas as to how I could prevent IE from caching the results of the AJAX call? Here is what the iexplorer.exe process looks like in ProcessMonitor. I believe that the activity shown in this picture is exactly what I'm attempting to prevent.

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