Search Results

Search found 266636 results on 10666 pages for 'back stack'.

Page 317/10666 | < Previous Page | 313 314 315 316 317 318 319 320 321 322 323 324  | Next Page >

  • Problems running XNA game on 64-bit Windows 7

    - by Tesserex
    I'm having problems getting my game engine to run on my brother's machine, which is running 64-bit Windows 7. I'm developing on 32-bit XP SP2. My app uses XNA, FMOD.NET, and another dll I wrote entirely in C#. Everything is targeted to x86, not AnyCPU. I've read that this is required for XNA to work because there is no 64-bit xna framework. I recompiled FMOD.NET as x86 as well and made sure to be using the 32-bit version of the native dll. So I don't see any problems there. However when he tries to run my app, it gives an error which is mysterious, but not unheard of. A FileNotFoundException with an empty file name, and the top of the stack trace is in my main form constructor. The message is The specified module could not be found. (Exception from HRESULT: 0x8007007E) I found some threads online about this error, all with very vague, mixed, and fuzzy responses that don't really help me. Most remind people to target x86. Some say check that they have all the dlls necessary. I gave my brother Microsoft.Xna.Framework.dll, but does he need to install the entire XNA redistributable package? When I take everything I sent him and stick it in a random directory, it still runs fine for me. I developed the game in VS2008, not in game studio, using XNA 3.0 and a Windows Forms control that uses XNA drawing which I found in an msdn tutorial. I would also like to avoid requiring a full installer if possible. Any insight? Please?

    Read the article

  • How to append a row to a TableViewSection in Titanium?

    - by Mike Trpcic
    I'm developing an iPhone application in Titanium, and need to append a row to a particular TableViewSection. I can't do this on page load, as it's done dynamically by the user throughout the lifecycle of the application. The documentation says that the TableViewSection has an add method which takes two arguments, but I can't make it work. Here's my existing code: for(var i = 0; i <= product_count; i++){ productsTableViewSection.add( Ti.UI.createTableViewRow({ title:'Testing...' }) ); } That is just passing one argument in, and that causes Titanium to die with an uncaught exception: 2010-04-26 16:57:18.056 MyApplication[72765:207] *** Terminating app due to uncaught exception 'NSInternalInconsistencyException', reason: 'Invalid update: invalid number of rows in section 2. The number of rows contained in an existing section after the update (2) must be equal to the number of rows contained in that section before the update (1), plus or minus the number of rows inserted or deleted from that section (0 inserted, 0 deleted).' 2010-04-26 16:57:18.056 MyApplication[72765:207] Stack: ( The exception looks like it did add the row, but it's not allowed to for some reason. Since the documentation says that TableViewSection takes in "view" and "row", I tried the following: for(var i = 0; i <= product_count; i++){ productsTableViewSection.add( Ti.UI.createView({}), Ti.UI.createTableViewRow({ title:'Testing...' }) ); } The above code doesn't throw the exception, but it gives a [WARN]: [WARN] Invalid type passed to function. expected: TiUIViewProxy, was: TiUITableViewRowProxy in -[TiUITableViewSectionProxy add:] (TiUITableViewSectionProxy.m:62) TableViewSections don't seem to support any methods like appendRow, or insertRow, so I don't know where else to go with this. I've looked through the KitchenSink app, but there are no examples that I could find of adding a row to a TableViewSection. Any help is appreciated.

    Read the article

  • How to Detect in Windows Registry if user has .Net Framework installed?

    - by Sarah Weinberger
    How do I detect in the Windows Registry if a user has .Net Framework installed? I am not looking for a .Net based solution, as the query is from InnoSetup. I know from reading another post here on Stack Overflow that .Net Framework is an inplace upgrade to 4.0. I already know how to check if a user has version 4.0 installed on the system, namely by checking the following: function FindFramework(): Boolean; var bVer4x0: Boolean; bVer4x0Client: Boolean; bVer4x0Full: Boolean; bSuccess: Boolean; iInstalled: Cardinal; begin Result := False; bVer4x0Client := False; bVer4x0Full := False; bVer4x0 := RegKeyExists(HKLM, 'SOFTWARE\Microsoft\.NETFramework\policy\v4.0'); bSuccess := RegQueryDWordValue(HKLM, 'Software\Microsoft\NET Framework Setup\NDP\v4 \Client', 'Install', iInstalled); if (1 = iInstalled) AND (True = bSuccess) then bVer4x0Client := True; bSuccess := RegQueryDWordValue(HKLM, 'Software\Microsoft\NET Framework Setup\NDP\v4 \Full', 'Install', iInstalled); if (1 = iInstalled) AND (True = bSuccess) then bVer4x0Full := True; if (True = bVer4x0Full) then begin Result := True; end; end; I checked the registry and there is no v4.5 folder, which makes sense if .Net Framework 4.5 is an inplace upgrade. Still, the Control Panel Programs and Features includes the listing. I know that probably "issuing dotNetFx45_Full_setup.exe /q" will have no bad effect if installing on a system that already has version 4.5, but I still would like to not install the upgrade if the upgrade already exists, faster and less problems.

    Read the article

  • using getScript to import plugin on page using multiple versions of jQuery

    - by mikez302
    I am developing an app on a page that uses jQuery 1.2.6, but I would like to use jQuery 1.4.2 for my app. I really don't like to use multiple versions of jQuery like this but the copy on the page (1.2.6) is something I have no control over. I decided to isolate my code like this: <!DOCTYPE HTML PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD HTML 4.01 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/html4/loose.dtd"> <html><head> <script type="text/javascript" src="jquery-1.2.6.min.js> <script type="text/javascript" src="pageStuff.js"> </head> <body> Welcome to our page. <div id="app"> <script type="text/javascript" src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.4.2/jquery.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="myStuff.js"> </div> </body></html> The file myStuff.js has my own code that is supposed to use jQuery 1.4.2, and it looks like this: (function($) { //wrap everything in function to add ability to use $ var with noConflict var jQuery = $; //my code })(jQuery.noConflict(true)); This is an extremely simplified version, but I hope you get the idea of what I did. For a while, everything worked fine. However, I decided to want to use a jQuery plugin in a separate file. I tested it and it acted funny. After some experimentation, I found out that the plugin was using the old version of jQuery, when I wanted it to use the new version. Does anyone know how to import and run a js file from the context within the function wrapping the code in myStuff.js? In case this matters to anyone, here is how I know the plugin is using the old version, and what I did to try to solve the problem: I made a file called test.js, consisting of this line: alert($.fn.jquery); I tried referencing the file in a script tag the way external Javascript is usually included, below myStuff.js, and it came up as 1.2.6, like I expected. I then got rid of that script tag and put this line in myStuff.js: $.getScript("test.js"); and it still came back as 1.2.6. That wasn't a big surprise -- according to jQuery's documentation, scripts included that way are executed in the global context. I then tried doing this instead: var testFn = $.proxy($.getScript, this); testFn("test.js"); and it still came back as 1.2.6. After some tinkering, I found out that the "this" keyword referred to the window, which I assume means the global context. I am looking for something to put in place of "this" to refer to the context of the enclosing function, or some other way to make the code in the file run from the enclosing function. I noticed that if I copy and paste the code, it works fine, but it is a big plugin that is used in many places, and I would prefer not to clutter up my file with their code. I am out of ideas. Does anyone else know how to do this?

    Read the article

  • Why page_load is called twice in my web application?

    - by harisri786
    Hi, I have already gone through some of the posts in many websites regarding page_load being called twice but my problem is little bit different from those. My problem is with the landing page of my web application. Initially in my website page_load for the landing page was getting called twice every time when it is loaded. Since my application is an upgraded one (from VS 2003 to VS 2005/2008), I commented the "this.load" event in InitializeComponent. Now it works fine, when user first logs in, into my web application. But then, whenever user navigates to this page from any other page in my application, page_load gets called twice. Does anybody have any idea about why this could be happening. I tried to track the call stack for this, but VS 2008 was showing that this was getting called from external code. Also, I am using frames in my web application. I wonder if this problem has anything to do with frames. Any help is deeply appreciated. Regards, Hari

    Read the article

  • How do I write this MySQL query?

    - by CT
    I am working on an Asset DB using a lamp stack. In this example consider the following 5 tables: asset, server, laptop, desktop, software All tables have a primary key of id, which is a unique asset id. Every object has all asset attributes and then depending on type of asset has additional attributes in the corresponding table. If the type is a server, desktop or laptop it also has items in the software table. Here are the table create statements: // connect to mysql server and database "asset_db" mysql_connect("localhost", "asset_db", "asset_db") or die(mysql_error()); mysql_select_db("asset_db") or die(mysql_error()); // create asset table mysql_query("CREATE TABLE asset( id VARCHAR(50) PRIMARY KEY, company VARCHAR(50), location VARCHAR(50), purchase_date VARCHAR(50), purchase_order VARCHAR(50), value VARCHAR(50), type VARCHAR(50), notes VARCHAR(200))") or die(mysql_error()); echo "Asset Table Created.</br />"; // create software table mysql_query("CREATE TABLE software( id VARCHAR(50) PRIMARY KEY, software VARCHAR(50), license VARCHAR(50))") or die(mysql_error()); echo "Software Table Created.</br />"; // create laptop table mysql_query("CREATE TABLE laptop( id VARCHAR(50) PRIMARY KEY, manufacturer VARCHAR(50), model VARCHAR(50), serial_number VARCHAR(50), esc VARCHAR(50), user VARCHAR(50), prev_user VARCHAR(50), warranty VARCHAR(50))") or die(mysql_error()); echo "Laptop Table Created.</br />"; // create desktop table mysql_query("CREATE TABLE desktop( id VARCHAR(50) PRIMARY KEY, manufacturer VARCHAR(50), model VARCHAR(50), serial_number VARCHAR(50), esc VARCHAR(50), user VARCHAR(50), prev_user VARCHAR(50), warranty VARCHAR(50))") or die(mysql_error()); echo "Desktop Table Created.</br />"; // create server table mysql_query("CREATE TABLE server( id VARCHAR(50) PRIMARY KEY, manufacturer VARCHAR(50), model VARCHAR(50), warranty VARCHAR(50))") or die(mysql_error()); echo "Server Table Created.</br />"; ?> How do I query the database so that if I search by id, I receive all related fields to that asset id? Thank you.

    Read the article

  • Having trouble with confusing behaviour of error between debug and release modes in Xcode

    - by Cocorico
    Hi guys, I am confused over something (what is new!). I have an iPhone program I am writing and using some sqlite in a certain method, and there is some error which is giving me a message that says "Program received signal: “EXC_BAD_ACCESS” Okay, so I am trying to hunt down why this is doing this, and I notice something: When I run the program in debug mode, it gives me this error every single time I access this method (I test on the device). However when I run the program in release mode, I can access this method 2 times, and then it will give me this error the third time. So I mean, can someone just give me an explanation of what might cause this, I think that maybe deep-down I am not that smart on the difference in XCode of debug and release modes. I think that release mode does optimizing, and I guess the actual assembly machine code comes out different, yes? I AM A BIG NEWBIE USER UNFORTUNATELY! I am not clear on a lot of things like this, or whether it needs for I to remove nslog commands in the release build and such. Maybe I should just post the actual code in separate Stack OVerflow post, and see if people can see the error, then maybe this all become clear to me.

    Read the article

  • Thoughts on GoGrid vs EC2

    - by Jason
    I am currently hosting my SaaS application at GoGrid (Microsoft stack). Here's what I have: Database Server - physical box, 12 GB RAM, 2 X Quad Core CPU (2.13 GHz Xeon E5506) 2 Web / App servers - cloud servers, 2 GB RAM, 2 VCPUs 300 GB monthly bandwidth I am paying around $900 / month for this. My web / app servers are busting at the seams and need to be upgraded to 4 GB of RAM. I also need a firewall, and GoGrid just added this service for an additional $200. After the upgrade, I will be paying around $1,400. I started looking at Amazon EC2, specifically this config: Database server - "High Memory Double Extra Large Instance" - 34 GB RAM, 13 EC2 compute units 2 Web / App servers - "Large Instance" - 7.5 GB RAM, 4 EC2 compute units If I go with 1 year reserved instances, my upfront cost would be $4,500 and my monthly would be $700. This comes to $1,075 / month when amortized. Amazon also includes a firewall for free. Here are my questions: Do any of you have experience running a database (especially SQL Server) on an EC2 instance? How did it perform compared to a dedicated machine? One of my major concerns is with disk I/O. Amazon's description of a compute unit is fairly vague. Any ideas on how the CPU performance on the database servers would compare? I am hoping that the Amazon solution will provide significantly better performance than my current or even improved GoGrid setup. Having a virtual database server would also be nice in terms of availability. Right now I would be in serious trouble if I had any hardware issues. Thanks for any insight...

    Read the article

  • Load balancing using Mina example with Java DSL

    - by Flame_Phoenix
    So, recently I started learning Camel. As part of the process I decided to go through all the examples (listed HERE and available when you DOWNLOAD the package with all the examples and docs) and to see what I could learn. One of the examples, Load Balancing using Mina caught my attention because it uses a Mina in different JVM's and it simulates a load balancer with round robin. I have a few problems with this example. First it uses the Spring DSL, instead of the Java DSL which my project uses and which I find a lot easier to understand now (mainly also because I am used to it). So the first question: is there a version of this example using only the Java DSL instead of the Spring DSL for the routes and the beans? My second questions is code related. The description states, and I quote: Within this demo every ten seconds, a Report object is created from the Camel load balancer server. This object is sent by the Camel load balancer to a MINA server where the object is then serialized. One of the two MINA servers (localhost:9991 and localhost:9992) receives the object and enriches the message by setting the field reply of the Report object. The reply is sent back by the MINA server to the client, which then logs the reply on the console. So, from what I read, I understand that the MINA server 1 (per example) receives a report from the loadbalancer, changes it, and then it sends that report back to some invisible client. Upon checking the code, I see no client java class or XML and when I run, the server simply posts the results on the command line. Where is the client ?? What is this client? In the MINA 1server code presented here: <beans xmlns="http://www.springframework.org/schema/beans" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns:camel="http://camel.apache.org/schema/spring" xsi:schemaLocation=" http://www.springframework.org/schema/beans http://www.springframework.org/schema/beans/spring-beans.xsd http://camel.apache.org/schema/spring http://camel.apache.org/schema/spring/camel-spring.xsd"> <bean id="service" class="org.apache.camel.example.service.Reporting"/> <camelContext xmlns="http://camel.apache.org/schema/spring"> <route id="mina1"> <from uri="mina:tcp://localhost:9991"/> <setHeader headerName="minaServer"> <constant>localhost:9991</constant> </setHeader> <bean ref="service" method="updateReport"/> </route> </camelContext> </beans> I don't understand how the updateReport method magically prints the object on my console. What if I wanted to send message to a third MINA server? How would I do it? (I would have to add a new route, and send it to the URI of the 3rd server correct?) I know most of these questions may sound dumb, but I would appreciate if anyone could help me. A Java DSL version of this would really help me.

    Read the article

  • Non-blocking TCP connection issues.

    - by Poni
    Hi! I think I'm in a problem. I have two TCP apps connected to each other which use winsock I/O completion ports to send/receive data (non-blocking sockets). Everything works just fine until there's a data transfer burst. The sender starts sending incorrect/malformed data. I allocate the buffers I'm sending on the stack, and if I understand correctly, that's a wrong to do, because these buffers should remain as I sent them until I get the "write complete" notification from IOCP. Take this for example: void some_function() { char cBuff[1024]; // filling cBuff with some data WSASend(...); // sending cBuff, non-blocking mode // filling cBuff with other data WSASend(...); // again, sending cBuff // ..... and so forth! } If I understand correctly, each of these WSASend() calls should have its own unique buffer, and that buffer can be reused only when the send completes. Correct? Now, what strategies can I implement in order to maintain a big sack of such buffers, how should I handle them etc'? And, if I am to use buffers that means I should copy the data to be sent from the source buffer to the temporary one, thus, I'd set SO_SNDBUF on each socket to zero, so the system will not re-copy what I already copied. Are you with me? Please let me know if I wasn't clear.

    Read the article

  • App no longer working - any ideas

    - by hamishmcn
    I am out of ideas as to why my app has suddenly stopped working - perhaps the collective mind of the SO community can help... Background: I have a large application that has been working up until recently. Now when ever I try and run it I get the error "The application failed to initialize properly (0xc0000005)" This happens before the app gets to _tmain(). It happens in both release and debug builds. I have tried cleaning and rebuilding the projects and rebooted my PC. The call stack just shows entries for kernel32.dll and ntdll.dll The output window shows: First-chance exception at 0x00532c13 in a.exe: 0xC0000005: Access violation reading location 0xabababdb. First-chance exception at 0x7c964ed1 in a.exe: 0xC0000005: Access violation. Unhandled exception at 0x7c964ed1 in a.exe: 0xC0000005: Access violation. Any ideas? Edit: Okay - found the problem - it was dll related my app uses shared dlls a.dll and b.dll (and others) a.dll hardly every changes (and uses b.dll) b.dll was changed by another developer this morning and a.dll was not rebuilt. Depends.exe did not show any missing dlls, however a.dll no longer works because of the change to b.dll

    Read the article

  • C# Configuration Manager . ConnectionStrings

    - by Yoda
    I have a console app containing an application configuration file containing one connection string as shown below: <configuration> <connectionStrings> <add name="Target" connectionString="server=MYSERVER; Database=MYDB; Integrated Security=SSPI;" /> </connectionStrings> </configuration> When I pass this to my Connection using: ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings[1].ToString() I have two values in there, hence using the second in the collection, my question is where is this second coming from? I have checked the Bin version and original and its not mine! Its obviously a system generated one but I have not seen this before? Can anyone enlighten me? The mystery connection string is: data source=.\SQLEXPRESS;Integrated Security=SSPI;AttachDBFilename=|DataDirectory|aspnetdb.mdf;User Instance=true This isn't a problem as such I would just like to know why this is occuring? Thanks in advance! For future reference to those who may or may not stumble on this, after discovering the machine.config its become apparent it is bad practice to refer to a config by its index as each stack will potentially be different, which is why "Keys" are used. Cheers all!

    Read the article

  • Problem with setjmp/longjmp

    - by user294732
    The code below is just not working. Can anybody point out why #define STACK_SIZE 1524 static void mt_allocate_stack(struct thread_struct *mythrd) { unsigned int sp = 0; void *stck; stck = (void *)malloc(STACK_SIZE); sp = (unsigned int)&((stck)); sp = sp + STACK_SIZE; while((sp % 8) != 0) sp--; #ifdef linux (mythrd->saved_state[0]).__jmpbuf[JB_BP] = (int)sp; (mythrd->saved_state[0]).__jmpbuf[JB_SP] = (int)sp-500; #endif } void mt_sched() { fprintf(stdout,"\n Inside the mt_sched"); fflush(stdout); if ( current_thread->state == NEW ) { if ( setjmp(current_thread->saved_state) == 0 ) { mt_allocate_stack(current_thread); fprintf(stdout,"\n Jumping to thread = %u",current_thread->thread_id); fflush(stdout); longjmp(current_thread->saved_state, 2); } else { new_fns(); } } } All I am trying to do is to run the new_fns() on a new stack. But is is showing segmentation fault at new_fns(). Can anybody point me out what's wrong.

    Read the article

  • Integrating Magento with a simple static website.

    - by ExtraLean
    Magento is an awesomely powerful ecommerce platform. That said, it is also very complex, and I'd like to know if there is a relatively simple way to utilize Magento as our mISV site's backend to fulfill orders without actually "using" Magento's framework to build the site, run the site, etc. In other words, I don't want to use the built-in CMS, etc. since we have a static website already built. I'd just like our Buy Now buttons to utilize the checkout stuff, and would like to be able to use the back-end part to keep track of orders etc. I was able to accomplish this "fairly" easily with osCommerce, but Magento is proving to be a little more difficult to wrap my head around since I've only started looking at it for a few days now. I found another person asking this same exact question on the Magento wiki (along with several others in the forum), and none of them ever receive a reply for some reason. I noticed that there are may Magento experts on Stack Overflow, so I thought I'd give it a go here. This is an example of one question asked by someone on their wiki, and it captures the essence of what I'm trying to accomplish: Hi, as far as I understand, all shopping cart/eCommerce solutions I see are full featured PHP driven web sites. This means that all the pages the user interacts with, are server generated, and thus, the experience, is tied to the magento framework/workflow. I’d like to integrate bits and pieces of eCommerce/shopping cart in my existing website. Effectively, I’d like to have: 1) on a product information page, a “buy now/add to cart” button that adds to a cart 2) on every page, a view cart/checkout option 3) on a checkout page, with additional content already in place, having the magento “checkout” block integrated in the page (and not the entire page generated from Magento). Have any of you done this with Magento? This is for a simple one-product website so any advice you could share would be highly appreciated.

    Read the article

  • Invalid controller using custom routes

    - by AlexW
    I've been following the instruction on how to create custom routes from the book Zend Framework - A Beginners Guide I've changed my application.ini file to include this routing information: resources.router.routes.static-content.route = /content/:page resources.router.routes.static-content.defaults.module = default resources.router.routes.static-content.defaults.controller = static-content resources.router.routes.static-content.defaults.view = static-content resources.router.routes.static-content.defaults.action = display Given the above configuration, I have this controller: <?php class Default_StaticContentController extends Zend_Controller_Action { public function init() { /* Initialize action controller here */ } public function displayAction() { // action body $page = $this->getRequest()->getParam('page'); if (file_exists($this->view->getScriptPath(null) . '/' . $this->getRequest()->getControllerName() . '/' . $page . $this->viewSuffix )) { $this->render($page); } else { throw new Zend_Controller_Action_Exception('HLC - Page not found', 404); } } } I have a view named about.phtml in the APPLICATION_PATH/modules/default/views/static-content folder. What ahppens is I get an error saying: An error occurred Page not found Exception information: Message: Invalid controller class ("StaticContentController") Stack trace: #0 /Applications/MAMP/htdocs/zend/library/Zend/Controller/Dispatcher/Standard.php(262): Zend_Controller_Dispatcher_Standard->loadClass('StaticContentCo...') #1 /Applications/MAMP/htdocs/zend/library/Zend/Controller/Front.php(954): Zend_Controller_Dispatcher_Standard->dispatch(Object(Zend_Controller_Request_Http), Object(Zend_Controller_Response_Http)) #2 /Applications/MAMP/htdocs/zend/library/Zend/Application/Bootstrap/Bootstrap.php(97): Zend_Controller_Front->dispatch() #3 /Applications/MAMP/htdocs/zend/library/Zend/Application.php(366): Zend_Application_Bootstrap_Bootstrap->run() #4 /Applications/MAMP/htdocs/HLC/public/index.php(26): Zend_Application->run() #5 {main} Request Parameters: array ( 'page' => 'about', 'module' => 'default', 'controller' => 'static-content', 'view' => 'static-content', 'action' => 'display', ) Note that it is not rendering my customised Zend_Controller_Action_Exception but throwing the global error. I'm using the URL: http://hlc.local:8888/content/about The default index action works ok, just this routing that's not working.

    Read the article

  • Calling SDL/OpenGL from Assembly code on Linux

    - by Lie Ryan
    I'm write a simple graphic-based program in Assembly for learning purpose; for this, I intended to use either OpenGL or SDL. I'm trying to call OpenGL/SDL's function from assembly. The problem is, unlike many assembly and OpenGL/SDL tutorials I found in the internet, the OpenGL/SDL in my machine apparently doesn't use C calling convention. I wrote a simple program in C, compile it to assembly (using -S switch), and apparently the assembly code that is generated by GCC calls the OpenGL/SDL functions by passing parameters in the registers instead of being pushed to the stack. Now, the question is, how do I determine how to pass arguments to these OpenGL/SDL functions? That is, how do I figure out which argument corresponds to which registers? Obviously since GCC can compile C code to call OpenGL/SDL, so therefore there must be a way to figure out the correspondence between function arguments and registers. In C calling conventions, the rule is easy, push parameters backwards and return value in eax/rax, I can simply read their C documentation and I can easily figure out how to pass the parameters. But how about these? Is there a way to call OpenGL/SDL using C calling convention? btw, I'm using yasm, with gcc/ld as the linker on Gentoo Linux amd64.

    Read the article

  • Oracle DBMS_PROFILER only shows Anonymous in the results tables

    - by Greg Reynolds
    I am new to DBMS_PROFILER. All the examples I have seen use a simple top-level procedure to demonstrate the use of the profiler, and from there get all the line numbers etc. I deploy all code in packages, and I am having great difficulty getting my profile session to populate the plsql_profiler_units with useful data. Most of my runs look like this: RUNID RUN_COMMENT UNIT_OWNER UNIT_NAME SECS PERCEN ----- ----------- ----------- -------------- ------- ------ 5 Test <anonymous> <anonymous> .00 2.1 Profiler 5 Test <anonymous> <anonymous> .00 2.1 Profiler 5 Test <anonymous> <anonymous> .00 2.1 Profiler I have just embedded the calls to the dbms_profiler.start_profiler, flush_data and stop_profiler as per all the examples. The main difference is that my code is in a package, and calls in to other package. Do you have to profile every single stored procedure in your call stack? If so that makes this tool a little useless! I have checked http://www.dba-oracle.com/t_plsql_dbms_profiler.htm for hints, among other similar sites.

    Read the article

  • What image processing Library should I use

    - by Swippen
    I have been reading What is the best image manipulation library? And tried a few libraries and are now looking for inputs on what is the best for our need. I will start by describing our current setting and problems. We have a system that needs to resize and crop a large amount of images from big original images. We handle 50 000+ images every day on 2 powerfull servers. Today we use ImageGlue from WebSupergoo but we don't like it at all, it is slow and hangs the service now and then (Its in another unanswered stack overflow question). We have a threaded windows service that uses Microsoft ThreadPool to resize as much as possible on the 8 core machines. I have tried AForge and it went very well it was loads faster and never crashed or anything. But I had problems with quality on a few images. This due to what algorithms I used ofc so can be tweaked. But want to widen our eyes to see if thats the right way to go. so: It needs to be c# .net and run in a windows service. (Since we wont change the rest of the service only image handling) It needs to handle threaded environment well. We have a great need of it being fast since today its too slow. But we also want good quality and small filesize since the images are later displayed on webpage with loads of visitors and needs good quality. So we have a lot of demands on ability to get god quality at a fast pace, and also secondary keep filesizes lowered even if that can be adjusted with compression a bit. Any comments or suggestions on what library to use?

    Read the article

  • html button elemenents and onserverclick attribute in asp.net

    - by Adrian Adkison
    I have been experiencing some very strange behavior using html buttons with the onserverclick attribute. What I am trying to do is use jQuery to designate the default button on the page. By default button I mean the button that is "clicked" when a user hits enter. In testing, I would hit enter while in an input field and sometimes the intended "default" button was clicked and the server side method defined in the corresponding onserverclick attribute was hit. Other times a post back was made without hitting the server method. In order to isolate the issue I created a minimal test case and found some very interesting results. client side: <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head runat="server"> <title>Untitled Page</title> <script type="text/javascript" src="/scripts/jquery-1.4.min.js"></script> </head> <body> <form id="form1" runat="server"> <asp:Label ID="_response" runat="server"></asp:Label> <input id="input1" type="text" /> <input id="input2" type="text" /> <button id="first" type="button" class="defaultBtn" runat="server" onserverclick="ServerMethod1">test1</button> <button id="second" type="button" runat="server" onserverclick="ServerMethod2">test2</button> </form> <script type="text/javascript"> jQuery('form input').keyup( function(e) { if ((e.which && e.which == 13) || (e.keyCode && e.keyCode == 13)) { $('button.defaultBtn').click(); return true; } } ); </script> </body> </html> server side: public partial class admin_spikes_ButtonSubmitTest : System.Web.UI.Page { protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { } protected void ServerMethod1(object sender, EventArgs e) { _response.Text = "server method1 was hit"; } protected void ServerMethod2(object sender, EventArgs e) { _response.Text = "server method2 was hit"; } } What I found was that everything worked as expected with this code except when I removed one of the input elements. In Firefox 3.6 and IE 8 when only one input exists on the page, hitting enter does not trigger the onserverclick, it makes a post back without even being jQuery "clicked" or actually "clicked". You can test this by starting with two inputs and clicking "test2". This will output "server method2 was hit". Then just hit enter and the output will be "server method1 was hit. Now take away an input and run the same test. Click "test2" see the results, then hit enter and you will see that nothing will change because the "test1" method was never hit. Does anyone know what is going on? Thanks p.s. Chrome worked as expected

    Read the article

  • What happens when value types are created?

    - by Bob
    I'm developing a game using XNA and C# and was attempting to avoid calling new struct() type code each frame as I thought it would freak the GC out. "But wait," I said to myself, "struct is a value type. The GC shouldn't get called then, right?" Well, that's why I'm asking here. I only have a very vague idea of what happens to value types. If I create a new struct within a function call, is the struct being created on the stack? Will it simply get pushed and popped and performance not take a hit? Further, would there be some memory limit or performance implications if, say, I need to create many instances in a single call? Take, for instance, this code: spriteBatch.Draw(tex, new Rectangle(x, y, width, height), Color.White); Rectangle in this case is a struct. What happens when that new Rectangle is created? What are the implications of having to repeat that line many times (say, thousands of times)? Is this Rectangle created, a copy sent to the Draw method, and then discarded (meaning no memory getting eaten up the more Draw is called in that manner in the same function)? P.S. I know this may be pre-mature optimization, but I'm mostly curious and wish to have a better understanding of what is happening.

    Read the article

  • Pthread-ed filetransfer application crash

    - by N.R.S.Sowrabh
    I am developing a file transfer application and am using pthreads on the receiver side for receiving multiple files. The function which is passed to pthreads calls the following function and at the end of this function I get a SIGABRT error and stack-smashing error appears on the terminal. Please help me find the bugs. If you need anymore code I'd be able to post the same. Thanks in advance. void recv_mesg(int new_sockid, char *fname) { cout<<"New Thread created with "<<new_sockid<<" and "<<fname<<endl; char buf[MAXLINE]; int fd; fd = open(fname, O_WRONLY ); int len =0; while (len<1024) { int curr = recv(new_sockid, buf, 1024-len, 0); //fprintf(stdout,"Message from Client:\n"); len += curr; //write (fd, buf, curr); fputs(buf, stderr); } int file_size = 0; sscanf(buf,"%d",&file_size); if(file_size<=0) perror("File Size < 0"); sprintf(buf,"Yes"); send(new_sockid,buf,strlen(buf),0); len = 0; while (len<file_size) { int curr = recv(new_sockid, buf, min(file_size-len,MAXLINE), 0); len += curr; write (fd, buf, curr); //fputs(buf, stdout); //fflush(stdout); } len = 0; close(fd); close(new_sockid); }

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET MVC - Form Post always redirect when I just want to bind json result to a div

    - by Saxman
    Hi all, I'm having a little problem with json result. I'm submitting a contact form, and after the submission, I just want to return some json data (indicating either a success or failed and displays a message) back to the view, without causing a redirect, but it kept redirecting me to the action, here are the codes: HTML <div id="contactForm2" class="grid_6"> <div id="contactFormContainer"> @using (Html.BeginForm(MVC.Home.ActionNames.ContactForm, MVC.Home.Name, FormMethod.Post, new { id = "contactForm" })) { <p> <input type="text" tabindex="1" size="22" value="" id="contactName" class="text_input required" name="contactName" /> <label for="contactName"> <strong class="leftSpace">Your Name (required)</strong></label></p> <p> <input type="text" tabindex="2" size="22" value="" id="contactEmail" class="text_input required" name="contactEmail" /> <label for="contactEmail"> <strong class="leftSpace">Email (required)</strong></label></p> <p> <input type="text" tabindex="2" size="22" value="" id="contactPhone" class="text_input" name="contactPhone" /> <label for="contactPhone"> <strong class="leftSpace">Phone</strong></label></p> <p> <label> <strong class="leftSpace n">Message (required)</strong></label> <textarea tabindex="4" rows="4" cols="56" id="contactMessage" class="text_area required" name="contactMessage"></textarea></p> <p> <input type="submit" value="Send" tabindex="5" id="contactSubmit" class="button submit" name="contactSubmit" /></p> } </div> <div id="contactFormStatus"> </div> </div> Controller [HttpPost] public virtual JsonResult ContactForm(FormCollection formCollection) { var name = formCollection["contactName"]; var email = formCollection["contactEmail"]; var phone = formCollection["contactPhone"]; var message = formCollection["contactMessage"]; if (string.IsNullOrEmpty(name) || string.IsNullOrEmpty(email) || string.IsNullOrEmpty(message)) { return Json(new { success = false, message = "Please complete all the required fields so that I can get back to you. Thanks." }); } // Insert contact form data here... return Json(new { success = true, message = "Your inquery has been sent. Thank you." }); } javascript $(document).ready(function () { $('#contactSubmit').live('click', function () { var form = $('#contactForm'); var formData = form.serialize(); $.post('/Home/ContactForm', formData, function (result) { var status = $('#contactFormStatus'); if (result.success) { $('#contactForm')[0].reset; } status.append(result.message); }, 'json' ); return false; }); }); I've also tried this javascript, but also got a redirect $(document).ready(function () { $('#contactSubmit').live('click', function () { var form = $('#contactForm'); var formData = form.serialize(); $.ajax({ type: 'POST', url: '/Home/ContactForm', data: formData, success: function (result) { SubmitContactResult(result); }, cache: false }); }); function SubmitContactResult(result) { var status = $('#contactFormStatus'); if (result.success) { $('#contactForm')[0].reset; } status.append(result.message); } }); Any idea what's going on with my code? Thank you very much.

    Read the article

  • tail call generated by clang 1.1 and 1.0 (llvm 2.7 and 2.6)

    - by ony
    After compilation next snippet of code with clang -O2 (or with online demo): #include <stdio.h> #include <stdlib.h> int flop(int x); int flip(int x) { if (x == 0) return 1; return (x+1)*flop(x-1); } int flop(int x) { if (x == 0) return 1; return (x+0)*flip(x-1); } int main(int argc, char **argv) { printf("%d\n", flip(atoi(argv[1]))); } I'm getting next snippet of llvm assembly in flip: bb1.i: ; preds = %bb1 %4 = add nsw i32 %x, -2 ; <i32> [#uses=1] %5 = tail call i32 @flip(i32 %4) nounwind ; <i32> [#uses=1] %6 = mul nsw i32 %5, %2 ; <i32> [#uses=1] br label %flop.exit I thought that tail call means dropping current stack (i.e. return will be to the upper frame, so next instruction should be ret %5), but according to this code it will do mul for it. And in native assembly there is simple call without tail optimisation (even with appropriate flag for llc) Can sombody explain why clang generates such code? As well I can't understand why llvm have tail call if it can simply check that next ret will use result of prev call and later do appropriate optimisation or generate native equivalent of tail-call instruction?

    Read the article

  • Scanner error that I can't figure out: NoSuchElementException

    - by iaacp
    It's crashing on the third line inside the do-while loop, and doesn't wait for my input: input = kb.nextInt(); Stack trace: Exception in thread "main" java.util.NoSuchElementException at java.util.Scanner.throwFor(Unknown Source) at java.util.Scanner.next(Unknown Source) at java.util.Scanner.nextInt(Unknown Source) at java.util.Scanner.nextInt(Unknown Source) at main.MainDriver.main(MainDriver.java:50) Relevant code: do { displayFullMenu(); System.out.print("Selection: "); input = kb.nextInt(); switch (input) { //Create new survey case 1: currentSurvey = new Survey(); break; //Display current survey case 2: currentSurvey.display(); break; //Save current survey case 3: saveSurvey(currentSurvey); break; //Load a survey case 4: currentSurvey = loadSurvey(); break; //Modify a survey case 5: currentSurvey.modify(); break; /*******************Test Functions*******************/ //Create new test case 6: currentSurvey = new Test(); break; //Display current test case 7: currentSurvey.display(); break; //Save current test case 8: saveSurvey(currentSurvey); break; //Load a test case 9: currentSurvey = loadTest(); break; //Modify a test case 10: currentSurvey.modify(); default: System.out.println("Invalid choice. Please make a valid choice: "); input = kb.nextInt(); System.out.println(); } } while (input != 99); kb.close(); It crashes after I choose option 9. It saves the file correctly, then goes back to the top of the loop, and crashes at the previously mentioned line. I want it to ask for more input. What gives?

    Read the article

  • Field Members vs Method Variables?

    - by Braveyard
    Recently I've been thinking about performance difference between class field members and method variables. What exactly I mean is in the example below : Lets say we have a DataContext object for Linq2SQL class DataLayer { ProductDataContext context = new ProductDataContext(); public IQueryable<Product> GetData() { return context.Where(t=>t.ProductId == 2); } } In the example above, context will be stored in heap and the GetData method variables will be removed from Stack after Method is executed. So lets examine the following example to make a distinction : class DataLayer { public IQueryable<Product> GetData() { ProductDataContext context = new ProductDataContext(); return context.Where(t=>t.ProductId == 2); } } (*1) So okay first thing we know is if we define ProductDataContext instance as a field, we can reach it everywhere in the class which means we don't have to create same object instance all the time. But lets say we are talking about Asp.NET and once the users press submit button the post data is sent to the server and the events are executed and the posted data stored in a database via the method above so it is probable that the same user can send different data after one another.If I know correctly after the page is executed, the finalizers come into play and clear things from memory (from heap) and that means we lose our instance variables from memory as well and after another post, DataContext should be created once again for the new page cycle. So it seems the only benefit of declaring it publicly to the whole class is the just number one text above. Or is there something other? Thanks in advance... (If I told something incorrect please fix me.. )

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 313 314 315 316 317 318 319 320 321 322 323 324  | Next Page >