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  • MKMapKit exception when using canShowCallout on annotation view

    - by Kendall Helmstetter Gelner
    I'm trying to use a pretty straightforward custom map annotation view and callout - the annotation view when I create it, just adds a UIImageView as a subview to itself. That works fine. However, when I call canShowCallout on the annotation view, An exception is thrown in MapKit immediately after returning the view. The end of the stack looks like: #0 0x94e964e6 in objc_exception_throw #1 0x01e26404 in -[MKOverlayView _addViewForAnnotation:] #2 0x01e22037 in -[MKOverlayView _addViewsForAnnotations:animated:] #3 0x01e1ddf9 in -[MKOverlayView showAddedAnnotationsAnimated:] #4 0x01df9c0e in -[MKMapView _showAddedAnnotationsAndRouteAnimated:] #5 0x01e0371a in -[MKMapView levelView:didLoadTile:] My viewForAnnotation is pretty simple: - (MKAnnotationView *)mapView:(MKMapView *)mapView viewForAnnotation:(id <MKAnnotation>)annotation { if ( ! [annotation isKindOfClass:[MyAnnotation class]] ) return nil; MyAnnotationView *useView = (MyAnnotationView *)[myMapView dequeueReusableAnnotationViewWithIdentifier:@"resuseview"]; if ( useView == nil ) { useView = [[[MyAnnotationView alloc] initWithAnnotation:annotation reuseIdentifier:@"resuseview"] autorelease]; useView.canShowCallout = YES; // if commented out view appears just fine } else { useView.annotation = annotation; } return useView; } As noted in the code, the annotation view works fine as is - until I add canShowCallout, then it crashes the first time the map gets the view.

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  • How can I tell whether a webpart that has been deployed to a site is a native webpart that ships wit

    - by program247365
    I have a SharePoint 2007 MOSS instance, and I'm on a fact-finding mission. There have been multiple developers, developing multiple webparts and deploying them (using VS2005/2008 SharePoint Extensions). I thought maybe I could look at the fields in the "Web Part Gallery" list in my site, and look by "Modified by", but it looks like a developer's name is on some of the out-of-the-box webparts somehow, and on ones I know are custom developed, they say "System Account" - so looking at that field in this list is a no go. I thought then maybe I could look at the "Group" to which each webpart was assigned but it looks like they were arbitrarily assigned to many different groups inconsistently - so using that piece of information is a no go. Here is my code I have for just looping through and getting the names of all the webparts. Is there any property I can access on the list items of webparts that would tell me whether it's a custom developed webpart? Any way to distinguish the custom webparts from the out-of-the-box ones? Is there another way to do this? #region Misc Site Collection Methods public static List<string> GetAllWebParts(string connectedSPInstanceUrl) { List<string> lstWebParts = new List<string>(); try { using (SPSite site = new SPSite(connectedSPInstanceUrl)) { using (SPWeb web = site.OpenWeb()) { SPList list = web.Lists["Web Part Gallery"]; foreach (SPListItem item in list.Items) { lstWebParts.Add(item.Name); } } } } catch (Exception ex) { lstWebParts.Add("Error"); lstWebParts.Add("Message: " + ex.Message); lstWebParts.Add("Inner Exception: " + ex.InnerException.ToString()); lstWebParts.Add("Stack Trace: " + ex.StackTrace); } return lstWebParts; } #endregion

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  • html button elemenents and onserverclick attribute in asp.net

    - by Adrian Adkison
    I have been experiencing some very strange behavior using html buttons with the onserverclick attribute. What I am trying to do is use jQuery to designate the default button on the page. By default button I mean the button that is "clicked" when a user hits enter. In testing, I would hit enter while in an input field and sometimes the intended "default" button was clicked and the server side method defined in the corresponding onserverclick attribute was hit. Other times a post back was made without hitting the server method. In order to isolate the issue I created a minimal test case and found some very interesting results. client side: <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head runat="server"> <title>Untitled Page</title> <script type="text/javascript" src="/scripts/jquery-1.4.min.js"></script> </head> <body> <form id="form1" runat="server"> <asp:Label ID="_response" runat="server"></asp:Label> <input id="input1" type="text" /> <input id="input2" type="text" /> <button id="first" type="button" class="defaultBtn" runat="server" onserverclick="ServerMethod1">test1</button> <button id="second" type="button" runat="server" onserverclick="ServerMethod2">test2</button> </form> <script type="text/javascript"> jQuery('form input').keyup( function(e) { if ((e.which && e.which == 13) || (e.keyCode && e.keyCode == 13)) { $('button.defaultBtn').click(); return true; } } ); </script> </body> </html> server side: public partial class admin_spikes_ButtonSubmitTest : System.Web.UI.Page { protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { } protected void ServerMethod1(object sender, EventArgs e) { _response.Text = "server method1 was hit"; } protected void ServerMethod2(object sender, EventArgs e) { _response.Text = "server method2 was hit"; } } What I found was that everything worked as expected with this code except when I removed one of the input elements. In Firefox 3.6 and IE 8 when only one input exists on the page, hitting enter does not trigger the onserverclick, it makes a post back without even being jQuery "clicked" or actually "clicked". You can test this by starting with two inputs and clicking "test2". This will output "server method2 was hit". Then just hit enter and the output will be "server method1 was hit. Now take away an input and run the same test. Click "test2" see the results, then hit enter and you will see that nothing will change because the "test1" method was never hit. Does anyone know what is going on? Thanks p.s. Chrome worked as expected

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  • coredata using old file version on device

    - by Martin KS
    This is a follow on from my previous problems here. Resetting the simulator solved all my troubles before, and I've gone on to complete my App. I now have the exact same problem when installing the app onto my iPhone device. It picks up an old version of my database, which doesn't have the second entity in it, and crashes when I try to access the second entity: 2010-04-22 23:52:18.860 albumCloud[135:207] *** Terminating app due to uncaught exception 'NSInternalInconsistencyException', reason: '+entityForName: could not locate an NSManagedObjectModel for entity name 'Image'' 2010-04-22 23:52:18.874 albumCloud[135:207] Stack: ( 843263261, 825818644, 820669213, 20277, 844154820, 16985, 14633, 844473760, 844851728, 862896011, 843011267, 843009055, 860901832, 843738160, 843731504, 11547, 11500 ) terminate called after throwing an instance of 'NSException' I have two questions: 1) How on earth do I delete my app thoroughly enough from my phone that it removes the old data? (I've so far tried regular app deletion, deleting and then holding home and power for a reboot, cursing at and threatening the app while running it... everything) 2) How do I prevent this happening when my application is in the App store, and I for some reason decide that I want to add another entity to the store, or another attribute to the existing entities? is there an "if x doesn't exist then create it" method?

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  • Windows Server TCP Client application in c# Stops working after a while

    - by user1692494
    I am developping an application in C# Net framework 2.0. It is basicly a service application with a tcp client class. Class for Tcp Client Part public TelnetConnection(string Hostname, int Port) { host = Hostname; prt = Port; try { tcpSocket = new TcpClient(Hostname, Port); } catch (Exception e) { //Console.WriteLine(e.Message); } } The application is connecting to the server and revieves update's and more information. It works for about 20 minutes then stops recieving information from the server. -- Server side Client is still connected and the client side its still connected but stops receiving information from the server. I've been searching Stack Overflow and Google but no luck. try { if (!tcpSocket.Connected) return null; StringBuilder sb = new StringBuilder(); do { Parse(sb); System.Threading.Thread.Sleep(TimeOutMs); } while (tcpSocket.Available > 0); return sb.ToString(); } Application works perfect when it runs as console application but when running as service. It just stops.

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  • how can we apply client side validation on fileupload control in ASP.NET to check filename contain s

    - by subodh
    I am working on ASP.NET3.5 platform. I have used a file upload control and a asp button to upload a file. Whenever i try to upload a file which contain special characterlike (file#&%.txt) it show crash and give the messeage Server Error in 'myapplication' Application. A potentially dangerous Request.Files value was detected from the client (filename="...\New Text &#.txt"). Description: Request Validation has detected a potentially dangerous client input value, and processing of the request has been aborted. This value may indicate an attempt to compromise the security of your application, such as a cross-site scripting attack. You can disable request validation by setting validateRequest=false in the Page directive or in the configuration section. However, it is strongly recommended that your application explicitly check all inputs in this case. Exception Details: System.Web.HttpRequestValidationException: A potentially dangerous Request.Files value was detected from the client (filename="...\New Text &#.txt"). Source Error: An unhandled exception was generated during the execution of the current web request. Information regarding the origin and location of the exception can be identified using the exception stack trace below. how can i prevent this crash using javascript at client side?

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  • Having trouble with confusing behaviour of error between debug and release modes in Xcode

    - by Cocorico
    Hi guys, I am confused over something (what is new!). I have an iPhone program I am writing and using some sqlite in a certain method, and there is some error which is giving me a message that says "Program received signal: “EXC_BAD_ACCESS” Okay, so I am trying to hunt down why this is doing this, and I notice something: When I run the program in debug mode, it gives me this error every single time I access this method (I test on the device). However when I run the program in release mode, I can access this method 2 times, and then it will give me this error the third time. So I mean, can someone just give me an explanation of what might cause this, I think that maybe deep-down I am not that smart on the difference in XCode of debug and release modes. I think that release mode does optimizing, and I guess the actual assembly machine code comes out different, yes? I AM A BIG NEWBIE USER UNFORTUNATELY! I am not clear on a lot of things like this, or whether it needs for I to remove nslog commands in the release build and such. Maybe I should just post the actual code in separate Stack OVerflow post, and see if people can see the error, then maybe this all become clear to me.

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  • how to make war file take up less memory

    - by Myy
    I need help on how to decrease the memory usage of my web app. so I can fit more into my webserver. so I'm building a java web app with JSF 2.0 developing in eclipse helios and running on an Apache tomcat Server. And I have a dedicated virtual server with a tomcat aswell where I deploy these war files. the webApp is about 35MB in size ( it has a lot of jars and such) but when I deploy it to my tomcat webserver, I can see it takes about 300MB of RAM, is this normal? my dedicated server only has 2GB of ram from which normally have 1 to use. so I as soon as I deploy 3 apps I get an OOM error, I've gotten permgen OOM and a out of swamp Memory error; to fix this I upped my MaxPermGen to about a gig and resytarted the server to get back some swamp space. so I tried deploying smaller older apps ( about 15MB) and they take up waay less memory. If I have 1 GB of ram I want to be able to fit more apps into my webserver without getting any OOM Errors. now I found this stack overflow Question, Can that be applied to my case? and if so, which are the common folders in the tomcat server? anyone done this before or have a different more effective, not so complicated approach? Any ideas, and or commets are more than appreciated. Thanks! Myy

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  • using getScript to import plugin on page using multiple versions of jQuery

    - by mikez302
    I am developing an app on a page that uses jQuery 1.2.6, but I would like to use jQuery 1.4.2 for my app. I really don't like to use multiple versions of jQuery like this but the copy on the page (1.2.6) is something I have no control over. I decided to isolate my code like this: <!DOCTYPE HTML PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD HTML 4.01 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/html4/loose.dtd"> <html><head> <script type="text/javascript" src="jquery-1.2.6.min.js> <script type="text/javascript" src="pageStuff.js"> </head> <body> Welcome to our page. <div id="app"> <script type="text/javascript" src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.4.2/jquery.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="myStuff.js"> </div> </body></html> The file myStuff.js has my own code that is supposed to use jQuery 1.4.2, and it looks like this: (function($) { //wrap everything in function to add ability to use $ var with noConflict var jQuery = $; //my code })(jQuery.noConflict(true)); This is an extremely simplified version, but I hope you get the idea of what I did. For a while, everything worked fine. However, I decided to want to use a jQuery plugin in a separate file. I tested it and it acted funny. After some experimentation, I found out that the plugin was using the old version of jQuery, when I wanted it to use the new version. Does anyone know how to import and run a js file from the context within the function wrapping the code in myStuff.js? In case this matters to anyone, here is how I know the plugin is using the old version, and what I did to try to solve the problem: I made a file called test.js, consisting of this line: alert($.fn.jquery); I tried referencing the file in a script tag the way external Javascript is usually included, below myStuff.js, and it came up as 1.2.6, like I expected. I then got rid of that script tag and put this line in myStuff.js: $.getScript("test.js"); and it still came back as 1.2.6. That wasn't a big surprise -- according to jQuery's documentation, scripts included that way are executed in the global context. I then tried doing this instead: var testFn = $.proxy($.getScript, this); testFn("test.js"); and it still came back as 1.2.6. After some tinkering, I found out that the "this" keyword referred to the window, which I assume means the global context. I am looking for something to put in place of "this" to refer to the context of the enclosing function, or some other way to make the code in the file run from the enclosing function. I noticed that if I copy and paste the code, it works fine, but it is a big plugin that is used in many places, and I would prefer not to clutter up my file with their code. I am out of ideas. Does anyone else know how to do this?

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  • Connect to a remote Oracle 11g server using OracleClient of .NET 2.0

    - by Raghu M
    I have to connect to a Oracle server on the network using a .NET / C# (Winform) application. I am trying to use System.Data.OracleClient but in vain. Here are the details I can possibly think of (that might help someone reading this question): Platform: Visual Studio 2005 / .NET 2.0 with C# on Windows Vista Home Premium Library: System.Data.OracleClient Server: Oracle 11g (located on the same LAN) Please note that I don't have Oracle installed locally and I have hunted every discussion forum possible for help - but most of them assume local Oracle installation! Here is my connection string: "User Id=TSUSER;Password=ts12TS;Data Source=(DESCRIPTION=(ADDRESS=(PROTOCOL=TCP)(HOST=MyServerIP)(PORT=1521))(CONNECT_DATA=(SERVICE_NAME=ORCL)));" And I get this error: OCIEnvCreate failed with return code -1 but error message text was not available. Stack trace: at System.Data.OracleClient.OciHandle..ctor(OciHandle parentHandle, HTYPE handleType, MODE ocimode, HANDLEFLAG handleflags) at System.Data.OracleClient.OracleInternalConnection.OpenOnLocalTransaction(String userName, String password, String serverName, Boolean integratedSecurity, Boolean unicode, Boolean omitOracleConnectionName) at System.Data.OracleClient.OracleInternalConnection..ctor(OracleConnectionString connectionOptions) at System.Data.OracleClient.OracleConnectionFactory.CreateConnection(DbConnectionOptions options, Object poolGroupProviderInfo, DbConnectionPool pool, DbConnection owningObject) at System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionFactory.CreatePooledConnection(DbConnection owningConnection, DbConnectionPool pool, DbConnectionOptions options) at System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionPool.CreateObject(DbConnection owningObject) at System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionPool.UserCreateRequest(DbConnection owningObject) at System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionPool.GetConnection(DbConnection owningObject) at System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionFactory.GetConnection(DbConnection owningConnection) at System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionClosed.OpenConnection(DbConnection outerConnection, DbConnectionFactory connectionFactory) at System.Data.OracleClient.OracleConnection.Open() at DGKit.Util.DataUtil.Generate() in D:\SVNRoot\sandbox\DGDev\Util\DataUtil.cs:line 68

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  • Intermittent asp.net mvc exception: “A public action method ABC could not be found on controller XYZ

    - by Chris Schoon
    Hi, I'm getting an intermittent exception saying that asp.net mvc can’t find the action method. Here’s the exception: A public action method 'Fill' could not be found on controller 'Schoon.Form.Web.Controllers.ChrisController'. I think I have the routing set up correctly because this application works most of the time. Here is the controller’s action method. [ActionName("Fill")] [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Get | HttpVerbs.Post), UserIdFilter, DTOFilter] public ActionResult Fill(int userId, int subscriberId, DisplayMode? mode) { //… } The route: routes.MapRoute( "SchoonForm", "Form/Fill/{subscriberId}", new { controller = "ChrisController", action = "Fill" }, new { subscriberId = @"\d+" } ); And here is the stack: System.Web.HttpException: A public action method 'Fill' could not be found on controller 'Schoon.Form.Web.Controllers.ChrisController'. at System.Web.Mvc.Controller.HandleUnknownAction(String actionName) in C:\dev\ThirdParty\MvcDev\src\SystemWebMvc\Mvc\Controller.cs:line 197 at System.Web.Mvc.Controller.ExecuteCore() in C:\dev\ThirdParty\MvcDev\src\SystemWebMvc\Mvc\Controller.cs:line 164 at System.Web.Mvc.ControllerBase.Execute(RequestContext requestContext) in C:\dev\ThirdParty\MvcDev\src\SystemWebMvc\Mvc\ControllerBase.cs:line 76 at System.Web.Mvc.ControllerBase.System.Web.Mvc.IController.Execute(RequestContext requestContext) in C:\dev\ThirdParty\MvcDev\src\SystemWebMvc\Mvc\ControllerBase.cs:line 87 at System.Web.Mvc.MvcHandler.ProcessRequest(HttpContextBase httpContext) in C:\dev\ThirdParty\MvcDev\src\SystemWebMvc\Mvc\MvcHandler.cs:line 80 at System.Web.Mvc.MvcHandler.ProcessRequest(HttpContext httpContext) in C:\dev\ThirdParty\MvcDev\src\SystemWebMvc\Mvc\MvcHandler.cs:line 68 at System.Web.Mvc.MvcHandler.System.Web.IHttpHandler.ProcessRequest(HttpContext httpContext) in C:\dev\ThirdParty\MvcDev\src\SystemWebMvc\Mvc\MvcHandler.cs:line 104 at System.Web.HttpApplication.CallHandlerExecutionStep.System.Web.HttpApplication.IExecutionStep.Execute() at System.Web.HttpApplication.ExecuteStep(IExecutionStep step, Boolean& completedSynchronously) Here is an example of my filters they all work the same way: public class UserIdFilter : ActionFilterAttribute { public override void OnActionExecuting(ActionExecutingContext filterContext) { const string Key = "userId"; if (filterContext.ActionParameters.ContainsKey(Key)) { filterContext.ActionParameters[Key] = // get the user id from session or cookie } base.OnActionExecuting(filterContext); } } Thanks, Chris

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  • Can I use a keyPath in a predicate?

    - by dontWatchMyProfile
    For some reason, this didn't work (although the keypath does exist): NSPredicate *predicate = [NSPredicate predicateWithFormat:@"department.departmentName == %@", departmentName]; [fetchRequest setPredicate:predicate]; NSError *fetchError = nil; NSUInteger count = [moc countForFetchRequest:fetchRequest error:&fetchError]; // execution simply stops at this line, with no error or console log Execution just stops at the last line above when asking for the count. I don't get an console log. Also I don't get any kind of exception. The execution just stops. There are no objects in the persistent store yet. So maybe it crashes because of it tries to follow a keypath in a nonexisting object? Does that make sense? The line where GDB stops is this: 0x002a31cb <+0459> test %eax,%eax Previously to that, I see a lot of NSSQLAdapter... calls in the stack trace. There's definitely something wrong. Well, but when I set the Entity to the destination of the key path and then just do something like NSPredicate *predicate = [NSPredicate predicateWithFormat:@"departmentName == %@", departmentName]; then there is no problem and count simply is 0.

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  • Calling SDL/OpenGL from Assembly code on Linux

    - by Lie Ryan
    I'm write a simple graphic-based program in Assembly for learning purpose; for this, I intended to use either OpenGL or SDL. I'm trying to call OpenGL/SDL's function from assembly. The problem is, unlike many assembly and OpenGL/SDL tutorials I found in the internet, the OpenGL/SDL in my machine apparently doesn't use C calling convention. I wrote a simple program in C, compile it to assembly (using -S switch), and apparently the assembly code that is generated by GCC calls the OpenGL/SDL functions by passing parameters in the registers instead of being pushed to the stack. Now, the question is, how do I determine how to pass arguments to these OpenGL/SDL functions? That is, how do I figure out which argument corresponds to which registers? Obviously since GCC can compile C code to call OpenGL/SDL, so therefore there must be a way to figure out the correspondence between function arguments and registers. In C calling conventions, the rule is easy, push parameters backwards and return value in eax/rax, I can simply read their C documentation and I can easily figure out how to pass the parameters. But how about these? Is there a way to call OpenGL/SDL using C calling convention? btw, I'm using yasm, with gcc/ld as the linker on Gentoo Linux amd64.

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  • Should I choose <button> element or css buttons?

    - by Kenny Bones
    Ok, here's the thing. I've done a webpage which contains forms and so I added buttons as elements and this works great. I created their own css classes and use graphics as background images for each of them. All working great (these are submit buttons btw) Anyway, I've also got a jQuery script from before that takes all a href hyperlinks and add content from a set div from an external file and adds to a div in my current page, all in one animation. But this would probably not work with form buttons? In any case I need to be able to have these buttons work as traditional hyperlinks anyway. So what do I do? I thought about using css-buttons alltogether, but I'm not able to have them stack vertically. Using float left or right just put the buttons outside of their parent containers (probably a different fix for that). But in any case, using css buttons, that wouldn't work as a submit button for the forms anyway would it? Should I perhaps use both form buttons and css buttons? What do you do?

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  • .Net 2.0 ServiceController.GetServices()

    - by Miles
    I've got a website that has windows authentication enable on it. From a page in the website, the users have the ability to start a service that does some stuff with the database. It works fine for me to start the service because I'm a local admin on the server. But I just had a user test it and they can't get the service started. My question is: Does anyone know of a way to get a list of services on a specified computer by name using a different windows account than the one they are currently logged in with? I really don't want to add all the users that need to start the service into a windows group and set them all to a local admin on my IIS server..... Here's some of the code I've got: public static ServiceControllerStatus FindService() { ServiceControllerStatus status = ServiceControllerStatus.Stopped; try { string machineName = ConfigurationManager.AppSettings["ServiceMachineName"]; ServiceController[] services = ServiceController.GetServices(machineName); string serviceName = ConfigurationManager.AppSettings["ServiceName"].ToLower(); foreach (ServiceController service in services) { if (service.ServiceName.ToLower() == serviceName) { status = service.Status; break; } } } catch(Exception ex) { status = ServiceControllerStatus.Stopped; SaveError(ex, "Utilities - FindService()"); } return status; } My exception comes from the second line in the try block. Here's the error: System.InvalidOperationException: Cannot open Service Control Manager on computer 'server.domain.com'. This operation might require other privileges. --- System.ComponentModel.Win32Exception: Access is denied --- End of inner exception stack trace --- at System.ServiceProcess.ServiceController.GetDataBaseHandleWithAccess(String machineName, Int32 serviceControlManaqerAccess) at System.ServiceProcess.ServiceController.GetServicesOfType(String machineName, Int32 serviceType) at TelemarketingWebSite.Utilities.StartService() Thanks for the help/info

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  • Trying to generate all sequences of specified numbers up to a max sum

    - by Stecy
    Hi, Given the following list of descending unique numbers (3,2,1) I wish to generate all the sequences consisting of those numbers up to a maximum sum. Let's say that the sum should be below 10. Then the sequences I'm after are: 3 3 3 3 3 2 1 3 3 2 3 3 1 1 1 3 3 1 1 3 3 1 3 3 3 2 2 2 3 2 2 1 1 3 2 2 1 3 2 2 3 2 1 1 1 1 3 2 1 1 1 3 2 1 1 3 2 1 3 2 3 1 1 1 1 1 1 3 1 1 1 1 1 3 1 1 1 1 3 1 1 1 3 1 1 3 1 3 2 2 2 2 1 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 1 1 1 2 2 2 1 1 2 2 2 1 2 2 2 2 2 1 1 1 1 1 2 2 1 1 1 1 2 2 1 1 1 2 2 1 1 2 2 1 2 2 2 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 2 1 1 1 1 1 1 2 1 1 1 1 1 2 1 1 1 1 2 1 1 1 2 1 1 2 1 2 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 I'm sure that there's a "standard" way to generate this. I thought of using linq but can't figure it out. Also, I am trying a stack based approach but I am still not successful. Any idea?

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  • Oracle DBMS_PROFILER only shows Anonymous in the results tables

    - by Greg Reynolds
    I am new to DBMS_PROFILER. All the examples I have seen use a simple top-level procedure to demonstrate the use of the profiler, and from there get all the line numbers etc. I deploy all code in packages, and I am having great difficulty getting my profile session to populate the plsql_profiler_units with useful data. Most of my runs look like this: RUNID RUN_COMMENT UNIT_OWNER UNIT_NAME SECS PERCEN ----- ----------- ----------- -------------- ------- ------ 5 Test <anonymous> <anonymous> .00 2.1 Profiler 5 Test <anonymous> <anonymous> .00 2.1 Profiler 5 Test <anonymous> <anonymous> .00 2.1 Profiler I have just embedded the calls to the dbms_profiler.start_profiler, flush_data and stop_profiler as per all the examples. The main difference is that my code is in a package, and calls in to other package. Do you have to profile every single stored procedure in your call stack? If so that makes this tool a little useless! I have checked http://www.dba-oracle.com/t_plsql_dbms_profiler.htm for hints, among other similar sites.

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  • Sitecore development. Sitecore.Web.UI.WebControl.GetCacheKey() throws NullReferenceException

    - by user344010
    I just click submit button and got an exception. Unable to debug, because this happens before the submit event handler work. I tried to clear sitecore caches, browser caches and cookies... nothing helps. here the stack trace. [NullReferenceException: Object reference not set to an instance of an object.] Sitecore.Web.UI.WebControl.GetCacheKey() +242 Sitecore.Web.UI.WebControl.Render(HtmlTextWriter output) +61 System.Web.UI.Control.RenderControlInternal(HtmlTextWriter writer, ControlAdapter adapter) +27 System.Web.UI.Control.RenderControl(HtmlTextWriter writer, ControlAdapter adapter) +99 System.Web.UI.Control.RenderControl(HtmlTextWriter writer) +25 System.Web.UI.Control.RenderChildrenInternal(HtmlTextWriter writer, ICollection children) +134 System.Web.UI.Control.RenderChildren(HtmlTextWriter writer) +19 System.Web.UI.HtmlControls.HtmlHead.RenderChildren(HtmlTextWriter writer) +17 System.Web.UI.HtmlControls.HtmlContainerControl.Render(HtmlTextWriter writer) +32 System.Web.UI.Control.RenderControlInternal(HtmlTextWriter writer, ControlAdapter adapter) +27 System.Web.UI.Control.RenderControl(HtmlTextWriter writer, ControlAdapter adapter) +99 System.Web.UI.Control.RenderControl(HtmlTextWriter writer) +25 System.Web.UI.Control.RenderChildrenInternal(HtmlTextWriter writer, ICollection children) +134 System.Web.UI.Control.RenderChildren(HtmlTextWriter writer) +19 System.Web.UI.Page.Render(HtmlTextWriter writer) +29 System.Web.UI.Control.RenderControlInternal(HtmlTextWriter writer, ControlAdapter adapter) +27 System.Web.UI.Control.RenderControl(HtmlTextWriter writer, ControlAdapter adapter) +99 System.Web.UI.Control.RenderControl(HtmlTextWriter writer) +25 System.Web.UI.Page.ProcessRequestMain(Boolean includeStagesBeforeAsyncPoint, Boolean includeStagesAfterAsyncPoint) +1266

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  • Calling a subclass method from a superclass

    - by Shaun
    Preface: This is in the context of a Rails application. The question, however, is specific to Ruby. Let's say I have a Media object. class Media < ActiveRecord::Base end I've extended it in a few subclasses: class Image < Media def show # logic end end class Video < Media def show # logic end end From within the Media class, I want to call the implementation of show from the proper subclass. So, from Media, if self is a Video, then it would call Video's show method. If self is instead an Image, it would call Image's show method. Coming from a Java background, the first thing that popped into my head was 'create an abstract method in the superclass'. However, I've read in several places (including Stack Overflow) that abstract methods aren't the best way to deal with this in Ruby. With that in mind, I started researching typecasting and discovered that this is also a relic of Java thinking that I need to banish from my mind when dealing with Ruby. Defeated, I started coding something that looked like this: def superclass_method # logic this_media = self.type.constantize.find(self.id) this_media.show end I've been coding in Ruby/Rails for a while now, but since this was my first time trying out this behavior and existing resources didn't answer my question directly, I wanted to get feedback from more-seasoned developers on how to accomplish my task. So, how can I call a subclass's implementation of a method from the superclass in Rails? Is there a better way than what I ended up (almost) implementing?

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  • Web-app currency input/manipulation/calculation with javascript .. there has got to be a better (fra

    - by dreftymac
    BACKGROUND: I am of the "user-input-lockdown" school of thought. Whenever possible, I try to mistrust and sanitize user input, both client side and server side; and I try to take multiple opportunities to restrict possible inputs to a known subset of possibilities, usually this means providing a lot of checkboxes and select lists. (This is from the usability side of things, I know security-wise that malicious users can easily bypass fixed user input GUI controls). PROBLEM: Anyway, the problem always arises with non-fixed input of currency. Whenever I have to accept a freely-specified dollar amount as user input, I always have to confront these problems/annoyances and it is always painful: 1) Make sure to give the user two input boxes for each currency_datapoint, one for the whole_dollar_part and another for the fractional_pennies_part 2) Whenever the user changes a currency_datapoint, provide keystroke-by-keystroke GUI feedback to let them know whether the currency_datapoint is well-formed, with context-appropriate validation rules (e.g., no negatives?, nonzero only?, numeric only!, no non-numeric punctuation! no symbols!) 3) For display purposes, every user-provided currency_datapoint should be translated to human-readable currency formatting (dollar sign, period, commas provided by the app, where appropriate) 4) For calculation purposes, every user-provided currency_datapoint has to be converted to integer (all pennies, to avoid floating point errors) and summed into a grand total with zero or more subtotals. 5) Every user-provided currency_datapoint should be displayed or displayable in a nice "tabular" format, which auto-updates as the user enters each currency_datapoint, including a baloon that warns when one or more currency_datapoints is not well-formed. I seem to be re-inventing this wheel every time I have to work with currency in Javascript on the client side (server side is a bit more flexible since most programming languages have higher-level currency formatting logic). QUESTION: Has anyone out there solved the problem of dealing with the above issues, client side, in a way that is server-side-technology-stack agnostic, (preferrably plain javascript or jquery)? This is getting old, there has to be a better way.

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  • UISlider won't display

    - by user290295
    I have been having a lot of difficulty adding custom track images to a UISlider. Whenever I do this, whether to a nib created UISlider or a hand programmed UISlider the slider refuses to display. Also, I even commented the track image code out below and the UISlider still refuses to display. There are other nib created sliders in the controlView that display and function fine. if (![self loadView:keyboardControlView intoSuperview:controlView withNib:@"KeyboardControl"]) { NSLog(@"Could not load controlView from nib into synthControlView"); } // nibSlider is an outlet to a UISlider in the above loaded nib file CGRect sliderFrame = nibSlider.frame; float sliderMinimum = nibSlider.minimumValue; float sliderMaximum = nibSlider.maximumValue; float sliderValue = nibSlider.value; // remove from superview, implicitly releasing UISlider [nibSlider removeFromSuperview]; // reuse pointer to allocate new UISlider using rect obtained from nib nibSlider = [[UISlider alloc] initWithFrame:sliderFrame]; nibSlider.backgroundColor = [UIColor clearColor]; nibSlider.minimumValue = sliderMinimum; nibSlider.maximumValue = sliderMaximum; nibSlider.continuous = YES; nibSlider.value = sliderValue; //[nibSlider setMinimumTrackImage:[[UIImage imageNamed:@"violetslider.png"] //stretchableImageWithLeftCapWidth:5.0 topCapHeight:0.0] forState:UIControlStateNormal]; // //[nibSlider setMaximumTrackImage:[[UIImage imageNamed:@"violetslider.png"] // stretchableImageWithLeftCapWidth:5.0 topCapHeight:0.0] forState:UIControlStateNormal]; [nibSlider addTarget:delegate action:@selector(sliderUpdate:) forControlEvents:UIControlEventValueChanged]; [controlView addSubview:nibSlider]; // do not release here as slider will need to remain cached. push onto a release stack. [nibSlider setNeedsDisplay];

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  • Visual Studio crashes consistently on web-related projects

    - by Traveling Tech Guy
    Hi, I have a brand new VS2010 installed on a Win2008R2 machine. I started getting this error when debugging a WCF service project: "Attempted to read or write protected memory. This is often an indication that other memory is corrupt." When I started developing a web site a week later, this became consistent - I can't debug it. The stack dump reads: at Microsoft.VisualStudio.WebHost.Host.ProcessRequest(Connection conn) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.WebHost.Server.OnSocketAccept(Object acceptedSocket) at System.Threading.QueueUserWorkItemCallback.WaitCallback_Context(Object state) at System.Threading.ExecutionContext.Run(ExecutionContext executionContext, ContextCallback callback, Object state, Boolean ignoreSyncCtx) at System.Threading.QueueUserWorkItemCallback.System.Threading.IThreadPoolWorkItem.ExecuteWorkItem() at System.Threading.ThreadPoolWorkQueue.Dispatch() at System.Threading._ThreadPoolWaitCallback.PerformWaitCallback() I tried searching online, and some recommend turning off the "Suppress JIT Optimizations" in the Debugging options - this dos not seem to make a difference. Clearly the problem is with the built in web server. But am I doing something wrong? Is there something I can do? Or is this a known bug? Thanks for your time, Guy Update 12/31: Today I tried using CassiniDev as a replacement to the original VS2010 WebServer - exact same result. My suspicion is that there's some internal conflict between VS2010, Windows Server 2008R2 and maybe the fact that it's a 64 bit OS. I switched to using IIS as my debug server - and that seems to work, with some annoying side effects. My conclusion: do not use a 64 bit server system as your dev machine. Develop on 32bit - deploy to 64bit. Side conclusion: there are some scenarios Microsoft's QA doesn't test.

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  • Pthread-ed filetransfer application crash

    - by N.R.S.Sowrabh
    I am developing a file transfer application and am using pthreads on the receiver side for receiving multiple files. The function which is passed to pthreads calls the following function and at the end of this function I get a SIGABRT error and stack-smashing error appears on the terminal. Please help me find the bugs. If you need anymore code I'd be able to post the same. Thanks in advance. void recv_mesg(int new_sockid, char *fname) { cout<<"New Thread created with "<<new_sockid<<" and "<<fname<<endl; char buf[MAXLINE]; int fd; fd = open(fname, O_WRONLY ); int len =0; while (len<1024) { int curr = recv(new_sockid, buf, 1024-len, 0); //fprintf(stdout,"Message from Client:\n"); len += curr; //write (fd, buf, curr); fputs(buf, stderr); } int file_size = 0; sscanf(buf,"%d",&file_size); if(file_size<=0) perror("File Size < 0"); sprintf(buf,"Yes"); send(new_sockid,buf,strlen(buf),0); len = 0; while (len<file_size) { int curr = recv(new_sockid, buf, min(file_size-len,MAXLINE), 0); len += curr; write (fd, buf, curr); //fputs(buf, stdout); //fflush(stdout); } len = 0; close(fd); close(new_sockid); }

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  • What do we log and why do we log it?

    - by Lucas
    This has been bugging me for quite some time. Reading various questions on SO, blogs and listening to colleagues, I keep hearing how important "logging" is. How various logging frameworks stack up against each other, and how there are so many to pick from it's (apparently) ridiculous. Now, I know what logging is. What I don't know is what is supposed to be logged and why. Sure, I can guess. Exceptions? Sounds like something one might want to log... but which exceptions? And is it only exceptions? And what do I do with the logged information? If it's an in-house app, then that could probably be put to good use, but if it's a commercial desktop application, how is the log of... whatever... helping anyone? I doubt regular users would be peeking inside. Is it then something you ask the users to provide on request? I'm deeply frustrated by my own ignorance in this. It's also surprising how little information there is about this. The info on the websites of the various logging frameworks is all written for an audience that already knows what it wants to log, and knows why it needs to do so. Same things goes for the various discussions on SO about logging, like for instance this highly voted up question on Logging best practices. For a question with so many votes, it's almost comical how there's next to nothing in there that would answer my what and why questions. So being finally fed up, I'm asking here: what do people log, and why do they log it?

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  • Change ListView background - strage behaviour

    - by Beasly
    Hi again, I have a problem with changing the background of a view in a ListView. What I need: Change the background image of a row onClick() What actually happens: The background gets changed (selected) after pressing e.g. the first entry. But after scrolling down the 8th entry is selected too. Scroll back to the top the first isn't selected anymore. The second entry is selected now. Continue scrolling and it continues jumping... What i'm dong in the Code: I have channels, and onClick() I toggle an attribute of channel boolean selected and then I change the background. I'm doing this only onClick() thats why I don't get why it's actuelly happening on other entries too. One thing I notices is: It seems to be only the "drawing"-part because the item which get selected "by it self" has still the selected value on false I think it seems to have something to do with the reuse of the views in the custom ListAdapters getView(...) Code of onClick() in ListActivity: @Override protected ViewHolder createHolder(View v) { // createHolder will be called only as long, as the ListView is not // filled TextView title = (TextView) v .findViewById(R.id.tv_title_channel_list_adapter); TextView content = (TextView) v .findViewById(R.id.tv_content_channel_list_adapter); ImageView icon = (ImageView) v .findViewById(R.id.icon_channel_list_adapter); if (title == null || content == null || icon == null) { Log.e("ERROR on findViewById", "Couldn't find Title, Content or Icon"); } ViewHolder mvh = new MyViewHolder(title, content, icon); // We make the views become clickable // so, it is not necessary to use the android:clickable attribute in // XML v.setOnClickListener(new ChannelListAdapter.OnClickListener(mvh) { public void onClick(View v, ViewHolder viewHolder) { // we toggle the enabled state and also switch the the // background MyViewHolder mvh = (MyViewHolder) viewHolder; Channel ch = (Channel) mvh.data; ch.setSelected(!ch.getSelected()); // toggle if (ch.getSelected()) { v.setBackgroundResource(R.drawable.row_blue_selected); } else { v.setBackgroundResource(R.drawable.row_blue); } // TESTING Log.d("onClick() Channel", "onClick() Channel: " + ch.getTitle() + " selected: " + ch.getSelected()); } }); return mvh; } Code of getView(...): @Override public View getView(int position, View view, ViewGroup parent) { ViewHolder holder; // When view is not null, we can reuse it directly, there is no need // to reinflate it. // We only inflate a new View when the view supplied by ListView is // null. if (view == null) { view = mInflater.inflate(mViewId, null); // call own implementation holder = createHolder(view); // TEST // we set the holder as tag view.setTag(holder); } else { // get holder back...much faster than inflate holder = (ViewHolder) view.getTag(); } // we must update the object's reference holder.data = getItem(position); // call the own implementation bindHolder(holder); return view; } I really would appreciate any idea how to solve this! :) If more information is needed please tell me. Thanks in advance!

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