Search Results

Search found 49291 results on 1972 pages for 'method call'.

Page 317/1972 | < Previous Page | 313 314 315 316 317 318 319 320 321 322 323 324  | Next Page >

  • What is this <Module> Type in an assembly

    - by LightX
    Each time I open an assembly in reflector, I see this special <Module> type that shows up. Recently, I came across an assembly that has a static method defined in this type and I want to invoke it through reflection. Is this possible? Btw, this method has privatescope hidebysig method attributes

    Read the article

  • How to define RequestMapping prioritization

    - by James Skidmore
    I have a situation where I need the following RequestMapping: @RequestMapping(value={"/{section}"}) ...method implementation here... @RequestMapping(value={"/support"}) ...method implementation here... There is an obvious conflict. My hope was that Spring would resolve this automatically and map /support to the second method, and everything else to the first, but it instead maps /support to the first method. How can I tell Spring to allow an explicit RequestMapping to override a RequestMapping with a PathVariable in the same place? (Edit - this is simplified, I know that having those two RequestMapping alone wouldn't make much sense)

    Read the article

  • passing string to a AJAX/JSON function

    - by Mikey1980
    I’m having trouble getting a AJAX/JSON function to work correctly. I had this function grabbing value from a drop down box but now I want to use an anchor tag to set it's value. I thought it would be easy to just use the onClick event to pass string to the function I was using for the drop down box but it doesn’t do anything. I’m stumped! Here how I set it up: 1st I add an onClick event… <a href="<?php echo Settings::get('app.webroot'); ?>?view=schedule&action=questions" onmouseout="MM_swapImgRestore();" onmouseover="MM_swapImage('bre','','template/images/schedule/bre_f2.gif',1) onclick="assignCallType('testing')";> 2nd I check main.js.php function assignCallType(type) { alert(type); //just for debugging new Request.JSON({ url: "ajax.php", onSuccess: function(rtndata,txt){ if (rtndata['STATUS'] != 'OK') alert('Error assigning call type to call'); }, onFailure: function (xhr) { alert('Error assigning call type to call'); } }).get({ 'action': 'assignCallType', 'call_type': type }); } 3rd Ajax.php: the variable is back in PHP and values don’t get added to the db, but I also didn’t get the alert from main.js.php if ($_GET['action'] == "assignCallType") { if ($USER->isInsideSales()) { $call_type = $_GET['call_type']; $_SESSION['callinfo']->setCallType($call_type); $_SESSION['callinfo']->save($callid); echo json_encode(array('STATUS'=>'OK')); } else { echo json_encode(array('STATUS'=>'DENIED')); } } Any idea where I am going wrong. The only difference between this and the working drop down is how the function was called, I used onchange="assignCallType(this.value)".

    Read the article

  • Prevent mapping all public members of a class in Fluent NHibernate

    - by alimbada
    I have a class generated from a WSDL that has a bunch of public properties and a public event. I'm extending this class with my own and adding some properties to it. All of my own properties are declared virtual, but the base class properties are not virtual. I'm using Fluent NHibernate's ClassMap to map only the properties from my extended class. How do I prevent (Fluent)NHibernate from trying to persist all the base class's public members? At the moment, I get the following exception when creating the ISessionFactory: NHibernate.InvalidProxyTypeException: The following types may not be used as proxies: Type: method get_<BaseClassProperty should be 'public/protected virtual' or 'protected internal virtual' Type: method set_<BaseClassProperty should be 'public/protected virtual' or 'protected internal virtual' ... Type: method add_<BaseClassEvent should be 'public/protected virtual' or 'protected internal virtual' Type: method remove_<BaseClassEvent should be 'public/protected virtual' or 'protected internal virtual'

    Read the article

  • How can an object not be compared to null?

    - by ProfK
    I have an 'optional' parameter on a method that is a KeyValuePair. I wanted an overload that passes null to the core method for this parameter, but in the core method, when I want to check if the KeyValuePair is null, I get the following error: Operator '!=' cannot be applied to operands of type System.Collections.Generic.KeyValuePair<string,object>' and '<null>. How can I not be allowed to check if an object is null?

    Read the article

  • JSF - Updating Model Values in Controller Bean

    - by Sean
    I have a Controller bean (SearchController) that has two managed bean as managed properties (SearchCriteria, SearchResults; both of which are session scoped). When the user hits the find button, the action method that is executed is in SearchController. The SearchCreteria managed bean has a method called search(). This method returns a new SearchResults object. In the controller bean, I am setting the searchResults managed property to be this new SearchResults object. The searchResults object contains what I expect during that request, but the object does not persist in the managed bean. I understand that I am changing what object that searchResults is referencing, but what I don't understand is why JSF isn't updating the model to use the new object. Any ideas what I'm missing or don't understand? I am using JSF 1.1 on WebSphere 6.1. If I put the search method in the SearchResults managed bean, it works.

    Read the article

  • What does the MVC Controller.UpdateModel<T>(T) actually try to do?

    - by unanswered
    When I submit my MVC Page I get an IvalidOperationException from System.Web.Mvc Controller object in the UpdateModel method. the MSDN documentation states that this method does the following: Updates the specified model instance using values from the controller's current value provider. Is the value provider referencing the current Request object? Or where exactly does it get the values that it is using to update the model? And what specifically does the UpdateModel method check and what does it 'mean' when it says that The model of type 'abcXYZ' was not successfully updated Thanks

    Read the article

  • missing table in SQLite with specific version of HTC DESIRE HD

    - by William
    My application has a SQLite database in the asset folder. When the user launches my application, the database is created and the tables too. This works fine with a lot of devices (Nexus One, Htc Magic, SGS, X10… and even Htc Desire HD v2.2). My application works with all versions of Android (tested on my device (1.6, 2.2, 2.2.1 Htc Magic) and on the emulator (v1,5 until v2.3). I have just a problem with HTC DESIRE HD v2.2.1 1.72.405.3. The logcat: android.database.sqlite.SQLiteException: no such table: LISTE: , while compiling: select _id from LISTE at android.app.ActivityThread.performLaunchActivity(ActivityThread.java:2833) at android.app.ActivityThread.handleLaunchActivity(ActivityThread.java:2854) at android.app.ActivityThread.access$2300(ActivityThread.java:136) at android.app.ActivityThread$H.handleMessage(ActivityThread.java:2179) at android.os.Handler.dispatchMessage(Handler.java:99) at android.os.Looper.loop(Looper.java:143) at android.app.ActivityThread.main(ActivityThread.java:5068) at java.lang.reflect.Method.invokeNative(Native Method) at java.lang.reflect.Method.invoke(Method.java:521) at com.android.internal.os.ZygoteInit$MethodAndArgsCaller.run(ZygoteInit.java:858) at com.android.internal.os.ZygoteInit.main(ZygoteInit.java:616) at dalvik.system.NativeStart.main(Native Method) Caused by: android.database.sqlite.SQLiteException: no such table: LISTE: , while compiling: select _id from LISTE at android.database.sqlite.SQLiteCompiledSql.native_compile(Native Method) at android.database.sqlite.SQLiteCompiledSql.compile(SQLiteCompiledSql.java:91) at android.database.sqlite.SQLiteCompiledSql.(SQLiteCompiledSql.java:64) at android.database.sqlite.SQLiteProgram.(SQLiteProgram.java:80) at android.database.sqlite.SQLiteQuery.(SQLiteQuery.java:46) at android.database.sqlite.SQLiteDirectCursorDriver.query(SQLiteDirectCursorDriver.java:53) at android.database.sqlite.SQLiteDatabase.rawQueryWithFactory(SQLiteDatabase.java:1417) at android.database.sqlite.SQLiteDatabase.rawQuery(SQLiteDatabase.java:1387) ... 11 more My application create the database but it doesn’t copy the tables of the file of the asset folder in data\data\packagename\databases\mydatabase. My code: public void createDataBase() throws IOException{ boolean dbExist = checkDataBase(); if(dbExist){ //do nothing - database already exist }else{ //By calling this method and empty database will be created into the default system path //of your application so we are gonna be able to overwrite that database with our database. this.getReadableDatabase(); try { copyDataBase(); } catch (IOException e) { throw new Error("Error copying database"); } } } private void copyDataBase() throws IOException{ //Open your local db as the input stream InputStream myInput = myContext.getAssets().open(DB_NAME); // Path to the just created empty db String outFileName = DB_PATH + DB_NAME; //Open the empty db as the output stream OutputStream myOutput = new FileOutputStream(outFileName); //transfer bytes from the inputfile to the outputfile byte[] buffer = new byte[1024]; int length; while ((length = myInput.read(buffer))!= -1){ if (length > 0){ myOutput.write(buffer, 0, length); } } //Close the streams myOutput.flush(); myOutput.close(); myInput.close(); } I think that the copydatabase function has a problem but I don't see. This code works fine with all devices except the HTC DESIRE HD v2.2.1 1.72.405.3. What problems might exist here for the HTC Desire with the given version above? How can this be remedied?

    Read the article

  • Questions on using enums as parameters and if/else conditions

    - by dotnetdev
    Hi, Is it possible to do the following with an enum in C#?: Pass in to a method a selected value of the enum (eg if an enum has members such as Red, Green, Orange, I can pass in Colors.Red). In the method body of the above method which accepts an enum, I can say if (Enum == Colors.Red). What would be the syntax for this? I've always seemed to have stalled on this.

    Read the article

  • lazyinializationexception with transactional annotation in messageconvert

    - by Karl
    Hi, I have a Rest-Service exposed through spring-mvc. I have a particular method which is correctly mapped and called through a http-call. My spring application contains the hibernatetransactionmanager and transactions are configured through @Transactional-annotations. I annotated the method with @Transactional. @Transactional(readOnly = true) @Override @RequestMapping(value = "/start", method = RequestMethod.GET) @ResponseBody public List start(....) Whenever I call the http-method I get org.hibernate.LazyInitializationException from my org.springframework.http.converter.json.MappingJacksonHttpMessageConverter which is bound in my application context. Is the @Transactional annotation valid for the MessageConverter as well?

    Read the article

  • Constructing mocks in unit tests

    - by Flynn1179
    Is there any way to have a mock constructed instead of a real instance when testing code that calls a constructor? For example: public class ClassToTest { public void MethodToTest() { MyObject foo = new MyObject(); Console.WriteLine(foo.ToString()); } } In this example, I need to create a unit test that confirms that calling MethodToTest on an instance of ClassToTest will indeed output whatever the result of the ToString() method of a newly created instance of MyObject. I can't see a way of realistically testing the 'ClassToTest' class in isolation; testing this method would actually test the 'myObject.ToString()' method as well as the MethodToTest method.

    Read the article

  • jQuery $.ajax calls success handler when reuqest fails because of browser reloading

    - by Martin
    I have the following code: $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: url, data: sendable, dataType: "json", success: function(data) { if(customprocessfunc) customprocessfunc(data); }, error: function(XMLHttpRequest, textStatus, errorThrown){ // error handler here } }); I have a timer which makes AJAX requests often. If I do not receive anything in 'data', I show an error message to the user - it means, something wnet bad on the server. The problem is when user reloads the page while the AJAX call is in progress. I can see in the firebug that the AJAX call fails (URL is colored red and no HTTP status is displayed) so I expect that jQuery will stop the reuqest or at least go to the error handler. But it goes to the success handler and passes null in the 'data' variable. As a result, when user reloads the page, sometimes he can see my big red message about unknown error (because data is null). Is there any way to make jQuery abort the request on complete reloading all at least not to call my success function? I have no way to know in the success handler why the data is null - did it came empty from the server or the call was aborted because of reload.

    Read the article

  • Does "delegate" mean a type or an object?

    - by Michal Czardybon
    Reading from MSDN: "A delegate is a type that references a method. Once a delegate is assigned a method, it behaves exactly like that method." Does then "delegate" mean a type or an object?! ...It cannot be both. It seems to me that the single word is used in two different meanings: a type containing a reference to a method of some specified signature, an object of that type, which can be actually called like a method. I would prefer a more precise vocabulary and use "delegate type" for the first case. I have been recently reading a lot about events and delegates and that ambiguity was making me confused many times. Some other uses of "delegate" word in MSDN in the first meaning: "Custom event delegates are needed only when an event generates event data" "A delegate declaration defines a class that is derived from the class System.Delegate" Some other uses of "delegate" word in MSDN in the second meaning: "specify a delegate that will be called upon the occurrence of some event" "Delegates are objects that refer to methods. They are sometimes described as type-safe function pointers" What do you think? Why did people from Microsoft introduced this ambiguity? Am I the only person to have conceptual problems with different notions being referenced with the same word.

    Read the article

  • JQuery: Live <a> tag partially working second time around.

    - by BPotocki
    I have the following jquery code: $("a[id*='Add_']").live('click', function() { //Get parentID to add to. var parentID = $(this).attr('id').substring(4); //Get div. var div = $("#CreateList"); //Ajax call to refresh "CreateList" div with new XML. div.load("/AddUnit?ParentID=" + parentID); }); Basically, contained within the div is a nested unordered list with several "Add_#" links. Clicking the links uses an ajax call to recreate the list with a new node. It clears all the add links, but they are added again by the ajax call. This is why I used the .live method so newly added "Add_#" links still have the binding. This works in most cases. If I click "Add_1", the div refreshes with the new info. If I then click "Add_2", it works again as expected. The problem I'm having happens when I click "Add_1", then the page refreshes (and creates a new "Add_1" link), then I click the re-rendered "Add_1" again. It's the same link, but it was refreshed during the ajax call. When I do that, the javascript function still gets called, but the .load method doesn't work. Any ideas why this might be happening? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • How to pass data to a C++0x lambda function that will run in a different thread?

    - by Dimitri C.
    In our company we've written a library function to call a function asynchronously in a separate thread. It works using a combination of inheritance and template magic. The client code looks as follows: DemoThread thread; std::string stringToPassByValue = "The string to pass by value"; AsyncCall(thread, &DemoThread::SomeFunction, stringToPassByValue); Since the introduction of lambda functions I'd like to use it in combination with lambda functions. I'd like to write the following client code: DemoThread thread; std::string stringToPassByValue = "The string to pass by value"; AsyncCall(thread, [=]() { const std::string someCopy = stringToPassByValue; }); Now, with the Visual C++ 2010 this code doesn't work. What happens is that the stringToPassByValue is not copied. Instead the "capture by value" feature passes the data by reference. The result is that if the function is executed after stringToPassByValue has gone out of scope, the application crashes as its destructor is called already. So I wonder: is it possible to pass data to a lambda function as a copy? Note: One possible solution would be to modify our framework to pass the data in the lambda parameter declaration list, as follows: DemoThread thread; std::string stringToPassByValue = "The string to pass by value"; AsyncCall(thread, [=](const std::string stringPassedByValue) { const std::string someCopy = stringPassedByValue; } , stringToPassByValue); However, this solution is so verbose that our original function pointer solution is both shorter and easier to read. Update: The full implementation of AsyncCall is too big to post here. In short, what happens is that the AsyncCall template function instantiates a template class holding the lambda function. This class is derived from a base class that contains a virtual Execute() function, and upon an AsyncCall() call, the function call class is put on a call queue. A different thread then executes the queued calls by calling the virtual Execute() function, which is polymorphically dispatched to the template class which then executes the lambda function.

    Read the article

  • GUID or int entity key with SQL Compact/EF4?

    - by David Veeneman
    This is a follow-up to an earlier question I posted on EF4 entity keys with SQL Compact. SQL Compact doesn't allow server-generated identity keys, so I am left with creating my own keys as objects are added to the ObjectContext. My first choice would be an integer key, and the previous answer linked to a blog post that shows an extension method that uses the Max operator with a selector expression to find the next available key: public static TResult NextId<TSource, TResult>(this ObjectSet<TSource> table, Expression<Func<TSource, TResult>> selector) where TSource : class { TResult lastId = table.Any() ? table.Max(selector) : default(TResult); if (lastId is int) { lastId = (TResult)(object)(((int)(object)lastId) + 1); } return lastId; } Here's my take on the extension method: It will work fine if the ObjectContext that I am working with has an unfiltered entity set. In that case, the ObjectContext will contain all rows from the data table, and I will get an accurate result. But if the entity set is the result of a query filter, the method will return the last entity key in the filtered entity set, which will not necessarily be the last key in the data table. So I think the extension method won't really work. At this point, the obvious solution seems to be to simply use a GUID as the entity key. That way, I only need to call Guid.NewGuid() method to set the ID property before I add a new entity to my ObjectContext. Here is my question: Is there a simple way of getting the last primary key in the data store from EF4 (without having to create a second ObjectContext for that purpose)? Any other reason not to take the easy way out and simply use a GUID? Thanks for your help.

    Read the article

  • How do I get certain code to execute before every single controller action in ASP.NET MVC 2?

    - by Chris
    I want to check some things about the state of the session, the user agent, etc, and possibly take action and return a special view BEFORE a controller method gets a chance to execute. For example: Most common: User requests Home/Index System checks to make sure x != 0. x does not equal zero, so the Home/Index controller executes like normal. But, sometimes: User requests Home/Index System checks to make sure x != 0. x DOES equal zero. The user must be notified and the requested controller action cannot be allowed to execute. I think this involves the use of ActionFilters. But I have read about them and I don't understand if I can preempt the controller method and return a view before it executes. I am sure I could execute code before the controller method runs, but how do I keep it from running in some instances and return a custom view, or direct to a different controller method?

    Read the article

  • Control Javascript > CSS through Flash

    - by Jason b.
    Hi All, Ideal situation/setup: A page containing 1 Flash movie and a separate div containing a few hyperlinks. These hyperlinks each have a unique class name like so: Copy code <ul> <li><a href="" class="randomname1"></a></li> <li><a href="" class="randomname2"></a></li> <li><a href="" class="randomname3"></a></li> <li><a href="" class="randomname4"></a></li> </ul> The Flash movie itself will contain 4 buttons. Clicking on one of these buttons should make the Flash communicate with Jquery/JS and tell it to highlight the specific classname. Ideas so far For the javascript, it would look like $(function() { function setClass(className) {$("."+className).css("background","red");} }); And in specific keyframes within Flash 1. button 1 ExternalInterface.call("setClass","randomname1"); 1. button 2 ExternalInterface.call("setClass","randomname2"); 1. button 3 ExternalInterface.call("setClass","randomname3"); 1. button 4 ExternalInterface.call("setClass","randomname4"); The problem is that it is not really working well and i am not sure if i am making Flash communicate with JS properly. Any ideas or hints to steer me in the right direction again? Thank you in advance J.

    Read the article

  • Haskell type classes and type families (cont'd)

    - by Giuseppe Maggiore
    I need some help in figuring a compiler error which is really driving me nuts... I have the following type class: infixl 7 --> class Selectable a s b where type Res a s b :: * (-->) :: (CNum n) => (Reference s a) -> (n,(a->b),(a->b->a)) -> Res a s b which I instance twice. First time goes like a charm: instance Selectable a s b where type Res a s b = Reference s b (-->) (Reference get set) (_,read,write) = (Reference (\s -> let (v,s') = get s in (read v,s')) (\s -> \x -> let (v,s') = get s v' = write v x (_,s'') = set s' v' in (x,s''))) since the type checker infers (-->) :: Reference s a -> (n,a->b,a->b->a) -> Reference s b and this signature matches with the class signature for (--) since Res a s b = Reference s b Now I add a second instance and everything breaks: instance (Recursive a, Rec a ~ reca) => Selectable a s (Method reca b c) where type Res a s (Method reca b c) = b -> Reference s c (-->) (Reference get set) (_,read,write) = \(x :: b) -> from_constant( Constant(\(s :: s)-> let (v,s') = get s :: (a,s) m = read v ry = m x :: Reference (reca) c (y,v') = getter ry (cons v) :: (c,reca) v'' = elim v' (_,s'') = set s' v'' in (y,s''))) :: Reference s c the compiler complains that Couldn't match expected type `Res a s (Method reca b c)' against inferred type `b -> Reference s c' The lambda expression `\ (x :: b) -> ...' has one argument, which does not match its type In the expression: \ (x :: b) -> from_constant (Constant (\ (s :: s) -> let ... in ...)) :: Reference s c In the definition of `-->': --> (Reference get set) (_, read, write) = \ (x :: b) -> from_constant (Constant (\ (s :: s) -> ...)) :: Reference s c reading carefully the compiler is telling me that it has inferred the type of (--) thusly: (-->) :: Reference s a -> (n,a->(Method reca b c),a->(Method reca b c)->a) -> (b -> Reference s c) which is correct since Res a s (Method reca b c) = b -> Reference s c but why can't it match the two definitions? Sorry for not offering a more succint and standalone example, but in this case I cannot figure how to do it...

    Read the article

  • How can I reverse ruby's include function.

    - by Glen
    I'll explain what i'm looking for in code as thats probably the most succinct: module Mixin def method puts "Foo" end end class Whatever include Mixin end w = Whatever.new w.method => "Foo" # some magic here w2 = Whatever.new w.method => NoMethodError I had tried just undefining the Mixin module using remove_const, but this doesn't seem to make any difference to Whatever. I had assumed that #include just added a reference to the module into the class's method resolution chain - but this behaviour doesn't agree with that. Can anyone tell me what include actually does behind the scenes, and how to reverse this?

    Read the article

  • How do I pass Url Parameters on a POST?

    - by Robert Harvey
    I have a controller method with the following signature: [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] public ActionResult UpdateValues(int id, MyViewModel[] array) { } The id is normally picked up as part of the Url on other GET controller methods (I have a working route that does this) I am successfully passing the array1 from the form in my view to the controller method, but how do I also put the id onto my Url so that when the user clicks the Submit button, the controller method will pick up the ID?

    Read the article

  • Enumerable.Range in and Expression and Entity Framework

    - by eka808
    I'm currently developping an expression method (used in linq to entity queries) who has to give me a daycount for a given period (start date and end date) decrementing this daycount if specials days are in the period. My idea was the following : Generate an enumerable with all the dates (and with Enumerable.Range) Make a .Where on this enumerable to remove the specials dates Like a MyEnumerable.Where(a = a != "20120101") After that, return a MyEnumerable.Count() I come with this code : return (p) => Enumerable .Range(1, 4) .Where(a => a != 20120101) .AsQueryable() .Count() I tried to cast as a list, as a queryable, both (like the example) and no way ! it doesn't work ! I always get this error : LINQ to Entities does not recognize the method 'System.Collections.Generic.IEnumerable`1[System.Int32] Range(Int32, Int32)' method, and this method cannot be translated into a store expression. Have you got an idea about that ? Using an enumerable is of course not mandatory, any working solutions is good ^^ Thank's by advance !

    Read the article

  • Why is hibernate returning a proxy object?

    - by predhme
    I have a service method that returns an object from the database. This method is called from numerous parts of the system. However, one particular method is getting a return type of ObjectClass_$$_javassist_somenumber as the type. Which is throwing things off. I call the service method exactly the same as everywhere else, so why would hibernate return the proxy as opposed to the natural object? I know there are ways to expose the "proxied" object, but I don't feel like I should have to do that. The query is simply hibernateTemplate.find("from User u where u.username = ?", username)

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 313 314 315 316 317 318 319 320 321 322 323 324  | Next Page >