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  • @PrePersist with entity inheritance

    - by gerry
    I'm having some problems with inheritance and the @PrePersist annotation. My source code looks like the following: _the 'base' class with the annotated updateDates() method: @javax.persistence.Entity @Inheritance(strategy = InheritanceType.TABLE_PER_CLASS) public class Base implements Serializable{ ... @Id @GeneratedValue protected Long id; ... @Column(nullable=false) @Temporal(TemporalType.TIMESTAMP) private Date creationDate; @Column(nullable=false) @Temporal(TemporalType.TIMESTAMP) private Date lastModificationDate; ... public Date getCreationDate() { return creationDate; } public void setCreationDate(Date creationDate) { this.creationDate = creationDate; } public Date getLastModificationDate() { return lastModificationDate; } public void setLastModificationDate(Date lastModificationDate) { this.lastModificationDate = lastModificationDate; } ... @PrePersist protected void updateDates() { if (creationDate == null) { creationDate = new Date(); } lastModificationDate = new Date(); } } _ now the 'Child' class that should inherit all methods "and annotations" from the base class: @javax.persistence.Entity @NamedQueries({ @NamedQuery(name=Sensor.QUERY_FIND_ALL, query="SELECT s FROM Sensor s") }) public class Sensor extends Entity { ... // additional attributes @Column(nullable=false) protected String value; ... // additional getters, setters ... } If I store/persist instances of the Base class to the database, everything works fine. The dates are getting updated. But now, if I want to persist a child instance, the database throws the following exception: MySQLIntegrityConstraintViolationException: Column 'CREATIONDATE' cannot be null So, in my opinion, this is caused because in Child the method "@PrePersist protected void updateDates()" is not called/invoked before persisting the instances to the database. What is wrong with my code?

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  • Get a button in itemscontrol and add eventhandler to its click event

    - by rockdale
    I have a custom control shows a customer info with an itemscontrol shows this customer's invoices. within the itemscontrol, I have button, in my code behind I want to wire the button's click event to my host window, but do now know how. //public event RoutedEventHandler ViewDetailClick; public static readonly RoutedEvent ButtonViewClickEvent = EventManager.RegisterRoutedEvent( "ButtonViewClick", RoutingStrategy.Bubble, typeof(RoutedEventHandler), typeof(custitem)); public event RoutedEventHandler ButtonViewClick { add { AddHandler(ButtonViewClickEvent, value); } remove {RemoveHandler(ButtonViewClickEvent, value);} } public override void OnApplyTemplate() { base.OnApplyTemplate(); this.lstInv = GetTemplateChild("lstInv") as ItemsControl; lstInv.ItemContainerGenerator.StatusChanged += new EventHandler(ItemContainerGenerator_StatusChanged); } private void ItemContainerGenerator_StatusChanged(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (lstInv.ItemContainerGenerator.Status == System.Windows.Controls.Primitives.GeneratorStatus.ContainersGenerated) { lstInv.ItemContainerGenerator.StatusChanged -= ItemContainerGenerator_StatusChanged; for (int i = 0; i < this.lstInv.Items.Count; i++) { ContentPresenter c = lstInv.ItemContainerGenerator.ContainerFromItem(lstInv.Items[i]) as ContentPresenter; DataTemplate dt = c.ContentTemplate; Grid grd = dt.LoadContent() as Grid; Button btnView = grd.FindName("btnView") as Button; if (btnView != null) { btnView.Click += new RoutedEventHandler(ButtonView_Click); //btnView.Click+= delegate(object senderObj, RoutedEventArgs eArg) //{ // if (this.ViewDetailClick != null) // { // this.ViewDetailClick(this, eArg); // } //}; } } private void ButtonView_Click(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { MessageBox.Show("clicked"); //e.RoutedEvent = ButtonViewClickEvent; //e.Source = sender; //RaiseEvent(e); } I succeed getting the btnView, then attach the click event, but the click event never get fired. Thanks in advance -rockdale

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  • Should java try blocks be scoped as tightly as possible?

    - by isme
    I've been told that there is some overhead in using the Java try-catch mechanism. So, while it is necessary to put methods that throw checked exception within a try block to handle the possible exception, it is good practice performance-wise to limit the size of the try block to contain only those operations that could throw exceptions. I'm not so sure that this is a sensible conclusion. Consider the two implementations below of a function that processes a specified text file. Even if it is true that the first one incurs some unnecessary overhead, I find it much easier to follow. It is less clear where exactly the exceptions come from just from looking at statements, but the comments clearly show which statements are responsible. The second one is much longer and complicated than the first. In particular, the nice line-reading idiom of the first has to be mangled to fit the readLine call into a try block. What is the best practice for handling exceptions in a funcion where multiple exceptions could be thrown in its definition? This one contains all the processing code within the try block: void processFile(File f) { try { // construction of FileReader can throw FileNotFoundException BufferedReader in = new BufferedReader(new FileReader(f)); // call of readLine can throw IOException String line; while ((line = in.readLine()) != null) { process(line); } } catch (FileNotFoundException ex) { handle(ex); } catch (IOException ex) { handle(ex); } } This one contains only the methods that throw exceptions within try blocks: void processFile(File f) { FileReader reader; try { reader = new FileReader(f); } catch (FileNotFoundException ex) { handle(ex); return; } BufferedReader in = new BufferedReader(reader); String line; while (true) { try { line = in.readLine(); } catch (IOException ex) { handle(ex); break; } if (line == null) { break; } process(line); } }

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  • Jquery UI Datepicker disabling wrong days

    - by Nazariy
    I have run in to issue that days that have to be disabled are shifted to the next day. The idea is that day that does not exist in our booking object or have a value less than 1 should be disabled on calendar. here is simplified version of my script and demonstration on jsfiddle: var bookings = { "2012-09-01": 24, "2012-09-03": 31, "2012-09-05": 27, "2012-09-06": 9, "2012-09-07": 18, "2012-09-08": 0, "2012-09-10": 20, "2012-09-12": 19, "2012-09-13": 0, "2012-09-14": 9, "2012-09-15": 24, "2012-09-17": 19, "2012-09-19": 28, "2012-09-20": 15, "2012-09-21": 12, "2012-09-22": 25, "2012-09-24": 19, "2012-09-26": 0, "2012-09-27": 0, "2012-09-28": 0, "2012-09-29": 0 }; function MyEvent(date) { bookings = bookings || {}; this.date = date.toISOString().substr(0, 10); this.display = (typeof bookings[this.date] == 'number' && bookings[this.date] > 0); return this; } MyEvent.prototype.toArray = function () { return [this.display, null, null]; }; $(function () { $('#eventCalendar').datepicker({ dateFormat: "yy-mm-dd", firstDay: 1, defaultDate: "2012-09-24", beforeShowDay: function (date) { return new MyEvent(date).toArray(); } } ); }); Can some one suggest me what am I doing wrong or is it a bug?

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  • Question about compilers and how they work

    - by Marin Doric
    This is the C code that frees memory of a singly linked list. It is compiled with Visual C++ 2008 and code works as it should be. /* Program done, so free allocated memory */ current = head; struct film * temp; temp = current; while (current != NULL) { temp = current->next; free(current); current = temp; } But I also encountered ( even in a books ) same code written like this: /* Program done, so free allocated memory */ current = head; while (current != NULL) { free(current); current = current->next; } If I compile that code with my VC++ 2008, program crashes because I am first freeing current and then assigning current-next to current. But obviously if I compile this code with some other complier ( for example, compiler that book author used ) program will work. So question is, why does this code compiled with specific compiler work? Is it because that compiler put instructions in binary file that remember address of current-next although I freed current and my VC++ doesn't. I just want to understand how compilers work.

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  • Why my async call does not work?

    - by Petr
    Hi, I am trying to understand what is IAsyncresult good and therefore I wrote this code. The problem is it behaves as I called "MetodaAsync" normal way. While debugging, the program stops here until the method completed. Any help appreciated, thank you. using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Text; using System.Threading; namespace ConsoleApplication1 { class Program { delegate int Delegat(); static void Main(string[] args) { Program p=new Program(); Delegat d = new Delegat(p.MetodaAsync); IAsyncResult a = d.BeginInvoke(null, null); //I have removed callback int returned=d.EndInvoke(a); Console.WriteLine("AAA"); } private int MetodaAsync() { int AC=0; for (int I = 0; I < 600000; I++) { for (int A = 0; A < 6000000; A++) { } Console.Write("B"); } return AC; } } }

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  • How to get SimpleRpcClient.Call() to be a blocking call to achieve synchronous communication with RabbitMQ?

    - by Nick Josevski
    In the .NET version (2.4.1) of RabbitMQ the RabbitMQ.Client.MessagePatterns.SimpleRpcClient has a Call() method with these signatures: public virtual object[] Call(params object[] args); public virtual byte[] Call(byte[] body); public virtual byte[] Call(IBasicProperties requestProperties, byte[] body, out IBasicProperties replyProperties); The problem: With various attempts, the method still continues to not block where I expect it to, so it's unable ever handle the response. The Question: Am I missing something obvious in the setup of the SimpleRpcClient, or earlier with the IModel, IConnection, or even PublicationAddress? More Info: I've also tried various paramater configurations of the QueueDeclare() method too with no luck. string QueueDeclare(string queue, bool durable, bool exclusive, bool autoDelete, IDictionary arguments); Some more reference code of my setup of these: IConnection conn = new ConnectionFactory{Address = "127.0.0.1"}.CreateConnection()); using (IModel ch = conn.CreateModel()) { var client = new SimpleRpcClient(ch, queueName); var queueName = ch.QueueDeclare("t.qid", true, true, true, null); ch.QueueBind(queueName, "exch", "", null); //HERE: does not block? var replyMessageBytes = client.Call(prop, msgToSend, out replyProp); } Looking elsewhere: Or is it likely there's an issue in my "server side" code? With and without the use of BasicAck() it appears the client has already continued execution.

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  • Consulting a Prolog Source Code from within a VS2008 Solution File

    - by Joshua Green
    I have a Prolog file (Hanoi.pl) containing the code for solving the Hanoi Towers puzzle: hanoi( N ):- move( N, left, middle, right ). move( 0, _, _, _ ):- !. move( N, A, B, C ):- M is N-1, move( M, A, C, B ), inform( A, B ), move( M, C, B, A ). inform( X, Y ):- write( 'move a disk from ' ), write( X ), write( ' to ' ), writeln( Y ). I also have a C++ file written in VS2008 IDE: #include <iostream> #include <string> #include <stdio.h> #include <stdlib.h> using namespace std; #include "SWI-cpp.h" #include "SWI-Prolog.h" predicate_t phanoi; term_t t0; int main(int argc, char** argv) { long n = 5; int rval; if ( !PL_initialise(1, argv) ) PL_halt(1); PL_put_integer( t0, n ); phanoi = PL_predicate( "hanoi", 1, NULL ); rval = PL_call_predicate( NULL, PL_Q_NORMAL, phanoi, t0 ); system( "PAUSE" ); } How can I consult my Prolog source code (Hanoi.pl) from within my C++ code? Not from the Command Prompt - from the code, something like include or consult or compile? It is located in the same folder as my cpp file. Thanks,

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  • Set HttpContext.Current.User from Thread.CurrentPrincipal

    - by Argons
    I have a security manager in my application that works for both windows and web, the process is simple, just takes the user and pwd and authenticates them against a database then sets the Thread.CurrentPrincipal with a custom principal. For windows applications this works fine, but I have problems with web applications. After the process of authentication, when I'm trying to set the Current.User to the custom principal from Thread.CurrentPrincipal this last one contains a GenericPrincipal. Am I doing something wrong? This is my code: Login.aspx protected void btnAuthenticate_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { Authenticate("user","pwd"); FormsAuthenticationTicket authenticationTicket = new FormsAuthenticationTicket(1, "user", DateTime.Now, DateTime.Now.AddMinutes(30), false, ""); string ticket = FormsAuthentication.Encrypt(authenticationTicket); HttpCookie authenticationCookie = new HttpCookie(FormsAuthentication.FormsCookieName, ticket); Response.Cookies.Add(authenticationCookie); Response.Redirect(FormsAuthentication.GetRedirectUrl("user", false)); } Global.asax (This is where the problem appears) protected void Application_AuthenticateRequest(object sender, EventArgs e) { HttpCookie authCookie = Context.Request.Cookies[FormsAuthentication.FormsCookieName]; if (authCookie == null) return; if (HttpContext.Current.User != null && HttpContext.Current.User.Identity.IsAuthenticated && HttpContext.Current.User.Identity is FormsIdentity) { HttpContext.Current.User = System.Threading.Thread.CurrentPrincipal; //Here the value is GenericPrincipal } Thanks in advance for any help. }

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  • Pros and Cons of using SqlCommand Prepare in C#?

    - by MadBoy
    When i was reading books to learn C# (might be some old Visual Studio 2005 books) I've encountered advice to always use SqlCommand.Prepare everytime I execute SQL call (whether its' a SELECT/UPDATE or INSERT on SQL SERVER 2005/2008) and I pass parameters to it. But is it really so? Should it be done every time? Or just sometimes? Does it matter whether it's one parameter being passed or five or twenty? What boost should it give if any? Would it be noticeable at all (I've been using SqlCommand.Prepare here and skipped it there and never had any problems or noticeable differences). For the sake of the question this is my usual code that I use, but this is more of a general question. public static decimal pobierzBenchmarkKolejny(string varPortfelID, DateTime data, decimal varBenchmarkPoprzedni, decimal varStopaOdniesienia) { const string preparedCommand = @"SELECT [dbo].[ufn_BenchmarkKolejny](@varPortfelID, @data, @varBenchmarkPoprzedni, @varStopaOdniesienia) AS 'Benchmark'"; using (var varConnection = Locale.sqlConnectOneTime(Locale.sqlDataConnectionDetailsDZP)) //if (varConnection != null) { using (var sqlQuery = new SqlCommand(preparedCommand, varConnection)) { sqlQuery.Prepare(); sqlQuery.Parameters.AddWithValue("@varPortfelID", varPortfelID); sqlQuery.Parameters.AddWithValue("@varStopaOdniesienia", varStopaOdniesienia); sqlQuery.Parameters.AddWithValue("@data", data); sqlQuery.Parameters.AddWithValue("@varBenchmarkPoprzedni", varBenchmarkPoprzedni); using (var sqlQueryResult = sqlQuery.ExecuteReader()) if (sqlQueryResult != null) { while (sqlQueryResult.Read()) { //sqlQueryResult["Benchmark"]; } } } }

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  • Why is the compiler caching my "random" and NULLED variables?

    - by alex gray
    I am confounded by the fact that even using different programs (on the same machine) to run /compile, and after nilling the vaues (before and after) the function.. that NO MATTER WHAT.. I'll keep getting the SAME "random" numbers… each and every time I run it. I swear this is NOT how it's supposed to work.. I'm going to illustrate as simply as is possible… #import <Foundation/Foundation.h> int main(int argc, char *argv[]) { int rPrimitive = 0; rPrimitive = 1 + rand() % 50; NSNumber *rObject = nil; rObject = [NSNumber numberWithInt:rand() % 10]; NSLog(@"%i %@", rPrimitive, rObject); rPrimitive = 0; rObject = nil; NSLog(@"%i %@", rPrimitive, rObject); return 0; } Run it in TextMate: i686-apple-darwin11-llvm-gcc-4.2 8 9 0 (null) Run it in CodeRunner: i686-apple-darwin11-llvm-gcc-4.2 8 9 0 (null) Run it a million times, if you'd like. You can gues what it will always be. Why does this happen? Why oh why is this "how it is"?

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  • Test MVC using moq

    - by Raminder
    I am new to moq and I was trying to test a controller (MVC) behaviour that when the view raises a certain event, controller calls a certain function on model, here are the classes - public class Model { public void CalculateAverage() { ... } ... } public class View { public event EventHandler CalculateAverage; private void RaiseCalculateAverage() { if (CalculateAverage != null) { CalculateAverage(this, EventArgs.Empty); } } ... } public class Controller { private Model model; private View view; public Controller(Model model, View view) { this.model = model this.view = view; view.CalculaeAverage += view_CalculateAverage; } priavate void view_CalculateAverage(object sender, EventArgs args) { model.CalculateAverage(); } } and the test - [Test] public void ModelCalculateAverageCalled() { Mock<Model> modelMock = new Mock<Model>(); Mock<View> viewMock = new Mock<View>(); Controller controller = new Controller(modelMock.Object, viewMock.Object); viewMock.Raise(x => x.CalculateAverage += null, new EventArgs.Empty); modelMock.Verify(x => x.CalculateAverage()); //never comes here, test fails in above line and exits Assert.True(true); } The issue is that the test is failing in the second last line with "Invocation was not performed on the mock: x = x.CalculateAverage()". Another thing I noticed is that the test terminates on this second last line and the last line is never executed. Am I doing everything correct?

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  • delete vs execSQL commands android

    - by erik
    so i have a databas, SQLiteDatabase db I am writing a couple private methods in my manager class that will be called by a public method: public void updateData (MakeabilityModel newData){ SQLiteDatabase db = this.getWritableDatabase(); db.beginTransaction(); try { reWriteSVTable(db, list); db.setTransactionSuccessful(); } catch (Exception e){ //TODO through rollback message? e.printStackTrace(); } finally { db.endTransaction(); } } //Private Methods private void clearTable(SQLiteDatabase db, String table){ db.delete(table, null, null); } private void reWriteSVTable(SQLiteDatabase db, List<MakeabilityLens> lenses){ clearTable(db, singleVision); ContentValues cv; for(int i=0; i<lenses.size(); i++){ cv = new ContentValues(); cv.put(colScreenID, hsID); cv.put(colIconID, id); cv.put(colRank, hsTotal); db.insert(isLookUp, colID, cv); } } My question is this.. i want to be able to throw sql exceptions back to the public method so that if there is an exception, it will kill the transaction and rollback ALL data.. it appears that using delete() and insert() methods are cleaner than execSQL() but don't throw sqlExceptions. execSQL() on the other hand does? do i need to uses execSQL and how do i insure that hsould it throws an exception in any of the private methods that it will catch it and roll it back in the private method

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  • Validating Age field javascript beginner

    - by Marcelo
    Hi people, I'm trying to validate an age field in a form but I'm having some problem. First I tried to make sure that the field will not be send empty. I don't know javascript so I searched some scripts and adapted them to this: function isInteger (s) { var i; if (isEmpty(s)) if (isInteger.arguments.length == 1) return 0; else return (isInteger.arguments[1] == true); for (i = 0; i < s.length; i++) { var c = s.charAt(i); if (!isDigit(c)) return false; } return true; } function isEmpty(s) { return ((s == null) || (s.length == 0)) } function validate_required(field,alerttxt) { with (field) { if (value==null||value=="") { alert(alerttxt);return false; } else { return true; } } } function validate_form(thisform) { with (thisform) { if ((validate_required(age,"Age must be filled out!")==false) || isInteger(age,"Age must be and int number")==false)) {email.focus();return false;} } } //html part <form action="doador.php" onsubmit="return validate_form(this)" method="post"> It's working fine for empty fields, but if I type any letters or characters in age field, it'll be sent and saved a 0 in my database. Can any one help me ? Sorry for any mistake in English, and thanks in andvance for your help.

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  • Does Android AsyncTaskQueue or similar exist?

    - by Ben L.
    I read somewhere (and have observed) that starting threads is slow. I always assumed that AsyncTask created and reused a single thread because it required being started inside the UI thread. The following (anonymized) code is called from a ListAdapter's getView method to load images asynchronously. It works well until the user moves the list quickly, and then it becomes "janky". final File imageFile = new File(getCacheDir().getPath() + "/img/" + p.image); image.setVisibility(View.GONE); view.findViewById(R.id.imageLoading).setVisibility(View.VISIBLE); (new AsyncTask<Void, Void, Bitmap>() { @Override protected Bitmap doInBackground(Void... params) { try { Bitmap image; if (!imageFile.exists() || imageFile.length() == 0) { image = BitmapFactory.decodeStream(new URL( "http://example.com/images/" + p.image).openStream()); image.compress(Bitmap.CompressFormat.JPEG, 85, new FileOutputStream(imageFile)); image.recycle(); } image = BitmapFactory.decodeFile(imageFile.getPath(), bitmapOptions); return image; } catch (MalformedURLException ex) { // TODO Auto-generated catch block ex.printStackTrace(); return null; } catch (IOException ex) { // TODO Auto-generated catch block ex.printStackTrace(); return null; } } @Override protected void onPostExecute(Bitmap image) { if (view.getTag() != p) // The view was recycled. return; view.findViewById(R.id.imageLoading).setVisibility( View.GONE); view.findViewById(R.id.image) .setVisibility(View.VISIBLE); ((ImageView) view.findViewById(R.id.image)) .setImageBitmap(image); } }).execute(); I'm thinking that a queue-based method would work better, but I'm wondering if there is one or if I should attempt to create my own implementation.

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  • Asp MVC - "The Id field is required" validation message on Create; Id not set to [Required]

    - by burnt_hand
    This is happening when I try to create the entity using a Create style action in Asp.Net MVC 2. The POCO has the following properties: public int Id {get;set;} [Required] public string Message {get; set} On the creation of the entity, the Id is set automatically, so there is no need for it on the Create action. The ModelState says that "The Id field is required", but I haven't set that to be so. Is there something automatic going on here? EDIT - Reason Revealed The reason for the issue is answered by Brad Wilson via Paul Speranza in one of the comments below where he says (cheers Paul): You're providing a value for ID, you just didn't know you were. It's in the route data of the default route ("{controller}/{action}/{id}"), and its default value is the empty string, which isn't valid for an int. Use the [Bind] attribute on your action parameter to exclude ID. My default route was: new { controller = "Customer", action = "Edit", id = " " } // Parameter defaults EDIT - Update Model technique I actually changed the way I did this again by using TryUpdateModel and the exclude parameter array asscoiated with that. [HttpPost] public ActionResult Add(Venue collection) { Venue venue = new Venue(); if (TryUpdateModel(venue, null, null, new[] { "Id" })) { _service.Add(venue); return RedirectToAction("Index", "Manage"); } return View(collection); }

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  • Partially constructed object / Multi threading

    - by reto
    Heya! I'm using joda due to it's good reputation regarding multi threading. It goes great distances to make multi threaded date handling efficient, for example by making all Date/Time/DateTime objects immutable. But here's a situation where I'm not sure if Joda is really doing the right thing. It probably is correct, but I'd be very interested to see the explanation for it. When a toString() of a DateTime is being called Joda does the following: /* org.joda.time.base.AbstractInstant */ public String toString() { return ISODateTimeFormat.dateTime().print(this); } All formatters are thread safe, as they are as well ready-only. But what's about the formatter-factory: private static DateTimeFormatter dt; /* org.joda.time.format.ISODateTimeFormat */ public static DateTimeFormatter dateTime() { if (dt == null) { dt = new DateTimeFormatterBuilder() .append(date()) .append(tTime()) .toFormatter(); } return dt; } This is a common pattern in single threaded applications. I see the following dangers: Race condition during null check -- worst case: two objects get created. No Problem, as this is solely a helper object (unlike a normal singleton pattern situation), one gets saved in dt, the other is lost and will be garbage collected sooner or later. the static variable might point to a partially constructed object before the objec has been finished initialization (before calling me crazy, read about a similar situation in this Wikipedia article. So how does Joda ensure that not partially created formatter gets published in this static variable? Thanks for your explanations! Reto

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  • select failing with C program but not shell

    - by Gary
    So I have a parent and child process, and the parent can read output from the child and send to the input of the child. So far, everything has been working fine with shell scripts, testing commands which input and output data. I just tested with a simple C program and couldn't get it to work. Here's the C program: #include <stdio.h> int main( void ) { char stuff[80]; printf("Enter some stuff:\n"); scanf("%s", stuff); return 0; } The problem with with the C program is that my select fails to read from the child fd and hence the program cannot finish. Here's the bit that does the select.. //wait till child is ready fd_set set; struct timeval timeout; FD_ZERO( &set ); // initialize fd set FD_SET( PARENT_READ, &set ); // add child in to set timeout.tv_sec = 3; timeout.tv_usec = 0; int r = select(FD_SETSIZE, &set, NULL, NULL, &timeout); if( r < 1 ) { // we didn't get any input exit(1); } Does anyone have any idea why this would happen with the C program and not a shell one? Thanks!

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  • How to send check boxes ID in gridview in one string for mass update.

    - by SmartDev
    hi , I have a grid which has check boxes and when selecting the top chek box select all will select all the check box in gridview and would update .for this im using for loop where it exceutes every time and this is taking lot of time cuase there are more thn 100 records in grid . try { string StrOutputMessageDisplayDocReqCsu = string.Empty; string strid = string.Empty; string strflag = string.Empty; string strSelected = string.Empty; for (int j = 0; j < GdvDocReqMU.Rows.Count; j++) { CheckBox Chkupdate = (CheckBox)GdvDocReqMU.Rows[j].Cells[1].FindControl("chkDR"); if (Chkupdate != null) { if (Chkupdate.Checked) { strid = ((Label)GdvDocReqMU.Rows[j].FindControl("lblIDDocReqCsu")).Text; strflag = ((Label)GdvDocReqMU.Rows[j].FindControl("lblStatusDocReqCsu")).Text; cmd = new SqlCommand("sp_Update_v1", con); cmd.CommandType = CommandType.StoredProcedure; cmd.Parameters.AddWithValue("@id", strSelected); cmd.Parameters.AddWithValue("@flag", DdlStatusDocReqMU.SelectedValue); cmd.Parameters.AddWithValue("@notes", txtnotesDocReqMU.Text); cmd.Parameters.AddWithValue("@user", strUseridDRAhk); cmd.Parameters.Add(new SqlParameter("@message", SqlDbType.VarChar, 100, ParameterDirection.Output, false, 0, 50, "message", DataRowVersion.Default, null)); cmd.UpdatedRowSource = UpdateRowSource.OutputParameters; con.Open(); cmd.ExecuteNonQuery(); con.Close(); } } } //} //StrOutputMessageDisplayDocReqCsu += (string)cmd.Parameters["@message"].Value + "<br/>"; //lbldbmessDocReqAhk.Text += StrOutputMessageDisplayDocReqCsu + "<br>"; GetgridDocReq(); } catch (Exception ex) { lbldbmessDocReqAhk.Text = ex.Message.ToString(); }

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  • Can someone explain me this code ?

    - by VaioIsBorn
    #include <stdio.h> #include <unistd.h> #include <string.h> int good(int addr) { printf("Address of hmm: %p\n", addr); } int hmm() { printf("Win.\n"); execl("/bin/sh", "sh", NULL); } extern char **environ; int main(int argc, char **argv) { int i, limit; for(i = 0; environ[i] != NULL; i++) memset(environ[i], 0x00, strlen(environ[i])); int (*fptr)(int) = good; char buf[32]; if(strlen(argv[1]) <= 40) limit = strlen(argv[1]); for(i = 0; i <= limit; i++) { buf[i] = argv[1][i]; if(i < 36) buf[i] = 0x41; } int (*hmmptr)(int) = hmm; (*fptr)((int)hmmptr); return 0; } I don't really understand the code above, i have it from an online game - i should supply something in the arguments so it would give me shell, but i don't get it how it works so i don't know what to do. So i need someone that would explain it what it does, how it's working and the stuff. Thanks.

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  • Ajax Auto Complete in ASP.Net MVC project - How to display a an object's name but actually save it's

    - by Ben
    I have implemented the Ajax Autocomplete feature in my application using a web service file that querys my database and it works great. One problem I am having is allowing the user to see the item's name, as that's what they are typing in the textbox, but when they select it, it saves the item's ID number instead of the actual name. I want it to behave much like a dropdown list, where I can specify what is seen and entered vs. what is actually saved in the database (in this case, the product ID instead of it's name.) I have this text box in my view, along with the script: <script type="text/javascript"> Sys.Application.add_init(function() { $create( AjaxControlToolkit.AutoCompleteBehavior, { serviceMethod: 'ProductSearch', servicePath: '/ProductService.asmx', minimumPrefixLength: 1, completionSetCount: 10 }, null, null, $get('ProductID')) }); </script> <p> <label for="ProductID">Product:</label> <%= Html.TextBox("ProductID", Model.Products)%> <%= Html.ValidationMessage("ProductID", "*")%> </p> Here's what is in my asmx file: public class ProductService : System.Web.Services.WebService { [WebMethod] public string[] ProductSearch(string prefixText, int count) { MyDataContext db = new MyDataContext(); string[] products = (from product in db.Products where product.ProductName.StartsWith(prefixText) select product.ProductName).Take(count).ToArray(); return products; } } Can anyone help me figure this out? I'm using this so they can just start typing instead of having a dropdown list that's a mile long...

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  • Why does a sub-class class of a class have to be static in order to initialize the sub-class in the

    - by Alex
    So, the question is more or less as I wrote. I understand that it's probably not clear at all so I'll give an example. I have class Tree and in it there is the class Node, and the empty constructor of Tree is written: public class RBTree { private RBNode head; public RBTree(RBNode head,RBTree leftT,RBTree rightT){ this.head=head; this.head.leftT.head.father = head; this.head.rightT.head.father = head; } public RBTree(RBNode head){ this(head,new RBTree(),new RBTree()); } public RBTree(){ this(new RBNode(),null,null); } public class RBNode{ private int value; private boolean isBlack; private RBNode father; private RBTree leftT; private RBTree rightT; } } Eclipse gives me the error: "No enclosing instance of type RBTree is available due to some intermediate constructor invocation" for the "new RBTree()" in the empty constructor. However, if I change the RBNode to be a static class, there is no problem. So why is it working when the class is static. BTW, I found an easy solution for the cunstructor: public RBTree(){ this.head = new RBNode(); } So, I have no idea what is the problem in the first piece of code.

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  • Why does this test fail?

    - by Tomas Lycken
    I'm trying to test/spec the following action method public virtual ActionResult ChangePassword(ChangePasswordModel model) { if (ModelState.IsValid) { if (MembershipService.ChangePassword(User.Identity.Name, model.OldPassword, model.NewPassword)) { return RedirectToAction(MVC.Account.Actions.ChangePasswordSuccess); } else { ModelState.AddModelError("", "The current password is incorrect or the new password is invalid."); } } // If we got this far, something failed, redisplay form return RedirectToAction(MVC.Account.Actions.ChangePassword); } with the following MSpec specification: public class When_a_change_password_request_is_successful : with_a_change_password_input_model { Establish context = () => { membershipService.Setup(s => s.ChangePassword(Param.IsAny<string>(), Param.IsAny<string>(), Param.IsAny<string>())).Returns(true); controller.SetFakeControllerContext("POST"); }; Because of = () => controller.ChangePassword(inputModel); ThenIt should_be_a_redirect_result = () => result.ShouldBeARedirectToRoute(); ThenIt should_redirect_to_success_page = () => result.ShouldBeARedirectToRoute().And().ShouldRedirectToAction<AccountController>(c => c.ChangePasswordSuccess()); } where with_a_change_password_input_model is a base class that instantiates the input model, sets up a mock for the IMembershipService etc. The test fails on the first ThenIt (which is just an alias I'm using to avoid conflict with Moq...) with the following error description: Machine.Specifications.SpecificationException: Should be of type System.RuntimeType but is [null] But I am returning something - in fact, a RedirectToRouteResult - in each way the method can terminate! Why does MSpec believe the result to be null?

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  • Html Select tabindex not working correctly in Chrome Browser

    - by Shauni
    Hello there, this is a problem I'm currently facing : I've made a <select id="nationalityArea.id" tabindex="6" name="nationalityArea.id"> <option value="null"></option> <option value="619">Îles Cook</option> <option value="646">Îles Féroé</option> <option value="625">Îles Salomon</option> <option value="598">Îles Vierges Américaines</option> <option value="572">Îles Vierges Britanniques</option> </select> Looks fine right ? The problem is that the tabindex method works perfectly on firefox and internet explorer but not on chrome... I think the problem came from the < g:select name="nationalityAreaId" from="${myValue}" tabindex="6" optionKey="id" value="${user?.profile?.nationalityAreaId}" noSelection="['null': '']"/ But not being a Browser specialist is hurting me on this problem. Has anyone already faced this ? And more importantly, found a solution ? Thanks

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  • codegen:nullValue vs msprop:nullValue

    - by Ken
    Ok, I have datasets that I created way back in 1.1 framework to which we used codegen:nullValue within the XSD to handle null values. However if I open one of these datasets with vs 2005 (i.e. 2.0 framework) and add a column, it removes the codegen setting from the entire xsd but adds in msprop:nullValue However, unlike previous years, I noticed this time the proper property code was NOT over riden from returning the null value specified in codegen as it was doing in the past. Meaning the msprop appears to be creating the proper code behind the scenes (See example). Anyone know of any other differnces? Should I be concerned with deploying a new xsd, WITHOUT the codegen code but instead with the msprop xml? Example: Original creates _ Public Property ParentID() As Integer Get If Me.IsParentIDNull Then Return -1 Else Return CType(Me(Me.tableCompany.ParentIDColumn),Integer) End If End Get Set Me(Me.tableCompany.ParentIDColumn) = value End Set End Property New creates _ Public Property ParentID() As Integer Get If Me.IsParentIDNull Then Return -1 Else Return CType(Me(Me.tableCompany.ParentIDColumn),Integer) End If End Get Set Me(Me.tableCompany.ParentIDColumn) = value End Set End Property BUT is there anything else that might be occuring that I am NOT seeing thus MAKING me re-enter all the codegen settings? THANKS!

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