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  • Help a Beginner with a PHP based Login System

    - by Brian Lang
    I'm a bit embarrassed to say, but I've run into issue with creating a PHP based login system. I'm using a site template to handle the looks of the the login process, so I will spare you the code. Here is my thought process on how to handle the login: Create a simple login.php file. On there will be a form whose action is set to itself. It will check to see if the submit has been clicked, and if so validate to make sure the user entered a valid password / username. If they do, set a session variable save some login info (username, NOT password), and redirect them to a restricted area. If the login info isn't valid, save an error message in a session variable, display error message giving further instruction, and wait for the user to resubmit. Here is a chunk of what I have - hopefully one of you experts can see where I've gone wrong, and give me some insight: if(isset($_POST['submit'])) { if(!empty($_POST['username']) AND !empty(!$_POST['password'])) { header("Location: http://www.google.com"); } else { $err = 'All the fields must be filled in!'; } } if($err) { $_SESSION['msg']['login-err'] = $err; } ? Now the above is just an example - the intent of the above code is to process user input, with the script validating simply that the user has given input for username and password. If they have, I would like them, in this case, to be redirected to google.com (for the sake of this example). If not, save an error message. Given my current code, the error message will display perfectly, however if the user submits and has something entered for the username and password, the page simply doesn't redirect. I'm sure this is a silly question, but I am a beginner, and well, to be honest, a bit buzzed right now. Thanks so much!

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  • Partially constructed object / Multi threading

    - by reto
    Heya! I'm using joda due to it's good reputation regarding multi threading. It goes great distances to make multi threaded date handling efficient, for example by making all Date/Time/DateTime objects immutable. But here's a situation where I'm not sure if Joda is really doing the right thing. It probably is correct, but I'd be very interested to see the explanation for it. When a toString() of a DateTime is being called Joda does the following: /* org.joda.time.base.AbstractInstant */ public String toString() { return ISODateTimeFormat.dateTime().print(this); } All formatters are thread safe, as they are as well ready-only. But what's about the formatter-factory: private static DateTimeFormatter dt; /* org.joda.time.format.ISODateTimeFormat */ public static DateTimeFormatter dateTime() { if (dt == null) { dt = new DateTimeFormatterBuilder() .append(date()) .append(tTime()) .toFormatter(); } return dt; } This is a common pattern in single threaded applications. I see the following dangers: Race condition during null check -- worst case: two objects get created. No Problem, as this is solely a helper object (unlike a normal singleton pattern situation), one gets saved in dt, the other is lost and will be garbage collected sooner or later. the static variable might point to a partially constructed object before the objec has been finished initialization (before calling me crazy, read about a similar situation in this Wikipedia article. So how does Joda ensure that not partially created formatter gets published in this static variable? Thanks for your explanations! Reto

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  • using volatile keyword

    - by sap
    As i understand, if we declare a variable as volatile, then it will not be stored in the local cache. Whenever thread are updating the values, it is updated to the main memory. So, other threads can access the updated value. But in the following program both volatile and non-volatile variables are displaying same value. The volatile variable is not updated for the second thread. Can anybody plz explain this why testValue is not changed. class ExampleThread extends Thread { private int testValue1; private volatile int testValue; public ExampleThread(String str){ super(str); } public void run() { if (getName().equals("Thread 1 ")) { testValue = 10; testValue1= 10; System.out.println( "Thread 1 testValue1 : " + testValue1); System.out.println( "Thread 1 testValue : " + testValue); } if (getName().equals("Thread 2 ")) { System.out.println( "Thread 2 testValue1 : " + testValue1); System.out.println( "Thread 2 testValue : " + testValue); } } } public class VolatileExample { public static void main(String args[]) { new ExampleThread("Thread 1 ").start(); new ExampleThread("Thread 2 ").start(); } } output: Thread 1 testValue1 : 10 Thread 1 testValue : 10 Thread 2 testValue1 : 0 Thread 2 testValue : 0

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  • How does real world login process happen in web application in Java?

    - by Nitesh Panchal
    Hello, I am very much confused regarding login process that happen in Java web application. I read many tutorials regarding jdbcRealm and JAAS. But, one thing that i don't understand is that why should i use them ? Can't i simply check directly against my database of users? and once they successfully login to the site, i store some variable in session as a flag. And probably check that session variable on all restricted pages (I mean keep a filter for restricted resources url pattern).If the flag doesn't exist simply redirect the user to login page. Is this approach correct?Does this approch sound correct? If yes, then why did all this JAAS and jdbcRealm came into existence? Secondly, I am trying to completely implement SAS(Software as service) in my web application, meaning everything is done through web services.If i use webservices, is it possible to use jdbcRealm? If not, then is it possible to use JAAS? If yes, then please show me some example which uses mySql as a database and then authenticates and authorizes. I even heard about Spring Security. But, i am confused about that too in the sense that how do i use webservice with Spring Security. Please help me. I am really very confused. I read sun's tutorials but they only keep talking about theories. For programmers to understand a simple concept, they show a 100 page theory first before they finally come to one example.

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  • With Google Website Optimizer's multivariate testing, can I vary multiple css classes on a single di

    - by brahn
    I would like to use Google Website Optimizer (GWO)'s multivariate tests to test some different versions of a web page. I can change from version to version just by varying some class tags on a div, i.e. the different versions are of this form: <div id="testing" class="foo1 bar1">content</div> <div id="testing" class="foo1 bar2">content</div> <div id="testing" class="foo2 bar1">content</div> <div id="testing" class="foo2 bar2">content</div> In the ideal, I would be able to use GWO section code in place of each class, and google would just swap in the appropriate tags (foo1 or foo2, bar1 or bar2). However, naively doing this results in horribly malformed code because I would be trying to put <script> tags inside the div's class attribute: <div id="testing" class=" <script>utmx_section("foo-class")</script>foo1</noscript> <script>utmx_section("bar-class")</script>bar1</noscript> "> content </div> And indeed, the browser chokes all over it. My current best approach is just to use a different div for each variable in the test, as follows: <script>utmx_section("foo-class-div")</script> <div class="foo1"> </noscript> <script>utmx_section("bar-class-div")</script> <div class="bar1"> </noscript> content </div> </div> So testing multiple variables requires layer of div-nesting per variable, and it all seems rather awkward. Is there a better approach that I could use in which I just vary the classes on a single div?

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  • php funciton problem

    - by Holian
    Hello, i have this little script, which should ping the IPs in the host_to_ping array. This php is called with JS in the index.html. But somethin' wrong, 'coz the $rval is always 1 (which mean the host is unreachable). But i know that the first two host is alive. So i print the $res variable, and i see the message: Need to give the IP. I dont understand why dont replace the $host variable to the actual IP address in the function. <?php function ping($host) { exec(sprintf('ping -n 4', escapeshellarg($host)), $res, $rval); print_r($res); return $rval === 0; } $hosts_to_ping = array('10.54.23.254', '10.22.23.254', '10.23.66.134'); ?> <ul> <?php foreach ($hosts_to_ping as $host): ?> <li> <?php echo $host; ?> <?php $up = ping($host); ?> (<img src="<?php echo $up ? 'on' : 'off'; ?>" alt="<?php echo $up ? 'up' : 'down'; ?>">) </li> <?php endforeach; ?> </ul>

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  • Trouble with an depreciated constructor visual basic visual studio 2010

    - by VBPRIML
    My goal is to print labels with barcodes and a date stamp from an entry to a zebra TLP 2844 when the user clicks the ok button/hits enter. i found what i think might be the code for this from zebras site and have been integrating it into my program but part of it is depreciated and i cant quite figure out how to update it. below is what i have so far. The printer is attached via USB and the program will also store the entered numbers in a database but i have that part done. any help would be greatly Appreciated.   Public Class ScanForm      Inherits System.Windows.Forms.Form    Public Const GENERIC_WRITE = &H40000000    Public Const OPEN_EXISTING = 3    Public Const FILE_SHARE_WRITE = &H2      Dim LPTPORT As String    Dim hPort As Integer      Public Declare Function CreateFile Lib "kernel32" Alias "CreateFileA" (ByVal lpFileName As String,                                                                           ByVal dwDesiredAccess As Integer,                                                                           ByVal dwShareMode As Integer, <MarshalAs(UnmanagedType.Struct)> ByRef lpSecurityAttributes As SECURITY_ATTRIBUTES,                                                                           ByVal dwCreationDisposition As Integer, ByVal dwFlagsAndAttributes As Integer,                                                                           ByVal hTemplateFile As Integer) As Integer          Public Declare Function CloseHandle Lib "kernel32" Alias "CloseHandle" (ByVal hObject As Integer) As Integer      Dim retval As Integer           <StructLayout(LayoutKind.Sequential)> Public Structure SECURITY_ATTRIBUTES          Private nLength As Integer        Private lpSecurityDescriptor As Integer        Private bInheritHandle As Integer      End Structure            Private Sub OKButton_Click(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles OKButton.Click          Dim TrNum        Dim TrDate        Dim SA As SECURITY_ATTRIBUTES        Dim outFile As FileStream, hPortP As IntPtr          LPTPORT = "USB001"        TrNum = Me.ScannedBarcodeText.Text()        TrDate = Now()          hPort = CreateFile(LPTPORT, GENERIC_WRITE, FILE_SHARE_WRITE, SA, OPEN_EXISTING, 0, 0)          hPortP = New IntPtr(hPort) 'convert Integer to IntPtr          outFile = New FileStream(hPortP, FileAccess.Write) 'Create FileStream using Handle        Dim fileWriter As New StreamWriter(outFile)          fileWriter.WriteLine(" ")        fileWriter.WriteLine("N")        fileWriter.Write("A50,50,0,4,1,1,N,")        fileWriter.Write(Chr(34))        fileWriter.Write(TrNum) 'prints the tracking number variable        fileWriter.Write(Chr(34))        fileWriter.Write(Chr(13))        fileWriter.Write(Chr(10))        fileWriter.Write("A50,100,0,4,1,1,N,")        fileWriter.Write(Chr(34))        fileWriter.Write(TrDate) 'prints the date variable        fileWriter.Write(Chr(34))        fileWriter.Write(Chr(13))        fileWriter.Write(Chr(10))        fileWriter.WriteLine("P1")        fileWriter.Flush()        fileWriter.Close()        outFile.Close()        retval = CloseHandle(hPort)          'Add entry to database        Using connection As New SqlClient.SqlConnection("Data Source=MNGD-LABS-APP02;Initial Catalog=ScannedDB;Integrated Security=True;Pooling=False;Encrypt=False"), _        cmd As New SqlClient.SqlCommand("INSERT INTO [ScannedDBTable] (TrackingNumber, Date) VALUES (@TrackingNumber, @Date)", connection)            cmd.Parameters.Add("@TrackingNumber", SqlDbType.VarChar, 50).Value = TrNum            cmd.Parameters.Add("@Date", SqlDbType.DateTime, 8).Value = TrDate            connection.Open()            cmd.ExecuteNonQuery()            connection.Close()        End Using          'Prepare data for next entry        ScannedBarcodeText.Clear()        Me.ScannedBarcodeText.Focus()      End Sub

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  • Windows batch - loop over folder string and parse out last folder name

    - by Tim Peel
    Hi, I need to grab the folder name of a currently executing batch file. I have been trying to loop over the current directory using the following syntax (which is wrong at present): set mydir = %~p0 for /F "delims=\" %i IN (%mydir%) DO @echo %i Couple of issues in that I cannot seem to pass the 'mydir' variable value in as the search string. It only seems to work if I pass in commands; I have the syntax wrong and cannot work out why. My thinking was to loop over the folder string with a '\' delimiter but this is causing problems too. If I set a variable on each loop then the last value set will be the current folder name. For example, given the following path: C:\Folder1\Folder2\Folder3\Archive.bat I would expect to parse out the value 'Folder3'. I need to parse that value out as its name will be part of another folder I am going to create further down in the batch file. Many thanks if anyone can help. I may be barking up the wrong tree completely so any other approaches would be greatly received also. Tim

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  • Visual Studio identical token highlighting

    - by dsteinweg
    I coded a Mancala game in Java for a college class this past spring, and I used the Eclipse IDE to write it. One of the great (and fairly simple) visual aids in Eclipse is if you select a particular token, say a declared variable, then the IDE will automatically highlight all other references to that token on your screen. Notepad++, my preferred Notepad replacement, also does this. Another neat and similar feature in Eclipse was the vertical "error bar" to the right of your code (not sure what to call it). It display little red boxes for all of the syntax errors in your document, yellow boxes for warnings like "variable declared but not used", and if you select a word, boxes appear in the bar for each occurance of the word in the document. A screenshot of these features in action: After a half hour of searching, I've determined that Visual Studio cannot do this on its own, so my question is: does anyone know of any add-ins for 2005 or 2008 that can provide either one of the aforementioned features? Being able to highlight the current line your cursor is on would be nice too. I believe the add-in ReSharper can do this, but I'd prefer to use a free add-in rather than purchase one.

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  • NullPointerException with static variables

    - by tomekK
    I just hit very strange (to me) behaviour of java. I have following classes: public abstract class Unit { public static final Unit KM = KMUnit.INSTANCE; public static final Unit METERS = MeterUnit.INSTANCE; protected Unit() { } public abstract double getValueInUnit(double value, Unit unit); protected abstract double getValueInMeters(double value); } And: public class KMUnit extends Unit { public static final Unit INSTANCE = new KMUnit(); private KMUnit() { } //here are abstract methods overriden } public class MeterUnit extends Unit { public static final Unit INSTANCE = new MeterUnit(); private MeterUnit() { } ///abstract methods overriden } And my test case: public class TestMetricUnits extends TestCase { @Test public void testConversion() { System.out.println("Unit.METERS: " + Unit.METERS); System.out.println("Unit.KM: " + Unit.KM); double meters = Unit.KM.getValueInUnit(102.11, Unit.METERS); assertEquals(0.10211, meters, 0.00001); } } 1) MKUnit and MeterUnit are both singletons initialized statically, so during class loading. Constructors are private, so they can't be initialized anywhere else. 2) Unit class contains static final references to MKUnit.INSTANCE and MeterUnit.INSTANCE I would expect that: KMUnit class is loaded and instance is created. MeterUnit class is loaded and instance is created. Unit class is loaded and both KM and METERS variable are initialized, they are final so they cant be changed. But when I run my test case in console with maven my result is: T E S T S Running de.audi.echargingstations.tests.TestMetricUnits Unit.METERS: m Unit.KM: null Tests run: 3, Failures: 0, Errors: 1, Skipped: 0, Time elapsed: 0.089 sec <<< FAILURE! - in de.audi.echargingstations.tests.TestMetricUnits testConversion(de.audi.echargingstations.tests.TestMetricUnits) Time elapsed: 0.011 sec <<< ERROR! java.lang.NullPointerException: null at de.audi.echargingstations.tests.TestMetricUnits.testConversion(TestMetricUnits.java:29) Results : Tests in error: TestMetricUnits.testConversion:29 NullPointer And the funny part is that, when I run this test from eclipse via JUnit runner everything is fine, I have no NullPointerException and in console I have: Unit.METERS: m Unit.KM: km So the question is: what can be the reason that KM variable in Unit is null (and in the same time METERS is not null)

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  • Using Parameter Values In SQL Statement

    - by Dangerous
    I am trying to write a database script (SQL SERVER 2008) which will copy information from database tables on one server to corresponding tables in another database on a different server. I have read that the correct way to do this is to use a sql statement in a format similar to the following: INSERT INTO <linked_server>.<database>.<owner>.<table_name> SELECT * FROM <linked_server>.<database>.<owner>.<table_name> As there will be several tables being copied, I would like to declare variables at the top of the script to allow the user to specify the names of each server and database that are to be used. These could then be used throughout the script. However, I am not sure how to use the variable values in the actual SQL statements. What I want to achieve is something like the following: DECLARE @SERVER_FROM AS NVARCHAR(50) = 'ServerFrom' DECLARE @DATABASE_FROM AS NVARCHAR(50) = 'DatabaseTo' DECLARE @SERVER_TO AS NVARCHAR(50) = 'ServerTo' DECLARE @DATABASE_TO AS NVARCHAR(50) = 'DatabaseTo' INSERT INTO @SERVER_TO.@DATABASE_TO.dbo.TableName SELECT * FROM @SERVER_FROM.@DATABASE_FROM.dbo.TableName ... How should I use the @ variables in this code in order for it to work correctly? Additionally, do you think my method above is correct for what I am trying to achieve and should I be using NVARCHAR(50) as my variable type or something else? Thanks

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  • JQuery methods and DOM properties

    - by Bob Smith
    I am confused as to when I can use the DOM properties and when I could use the Jquery methods on a Jquery object. Say, I use a selector var $elemSel = $('#myDiv').find('[id *= \'select\']') At this point, $elemSel is a jquery object which I understand to be a wrapper around the array of DOM elements. I could get a reference to the DOM elements by iterating through the $elemSel object/array (Correct?) My questions: 1. Is there a way to convert this $elemSel into a non JQuery regular array of DOM elements? 2. Can I combine DOM properties and JQuery methods at the same time (something like this) $elemSel.children('td').nodeName (nodeName is DOM related, children is JQuery related) EDIT: What's wrong with this? $elemSel.get(0).is(':checked') EDIT 2: Thanks for the responses. I understand now that I can use the get(0) to get a DOM element. Additional questions: How would I convert a DOM element to a JQuery object? If I assign "this" to a variable, is that new var DOM or JQuery? If it's JQuery, how can I convert this to a DOM element? (Since I can't use get(0)) var $elemTd = $(this); When I do a assignment like the one above, I have seen some code samples not include the $ sign for the variable name. Why? And as for my original question, can I combine the DOM properties and JQuery functions at the same time on a JQuery object? $elemSel.children('td').nodeName

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  • C# ref Confusion

    - by Rahat
    I have a confusion that when i pass a variable by refrence in the constructor of another class and after passing that object by refrence i recreate the refrence object with the new keyword. Now the class in which i have passed the refrenced object dosen't reflect the updated data. An exabple of the above problem is shown below: Object to be passed by Refrence: public class DummyObject { public string Name = "My Name"; public DummyObject() { } } Class which is passing the Refrence: public partial class Form1 : Form { // Object to be passed as refrence DummyObject dummyObject = new DummyObject(); public Form1() { InitializeComponent(); } private void button1_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { // assigning value dummyObject.Name = "I am Dummy"; // Passing object Form2 frm = new Form2(ref dummyObject); frm.Show(); } private void button2_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { // Displaying Name MessageBox.Show(this.dummyObject.Name); } private void button3_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { // Assigning new object this.dummyObject = new DummyObject(); // Changing Name Variable this.dummyObject.Name = "I am Rechanged"; // Displaying Name MessageBox.Show(this.dummyObject.Name); } } Class to which Object is passed by Reference: public partial class Form2 : Form { private DummyObject dummyObject = null; public Form2(ref DummyObject DummyObject) { InitializeComponent(); this.dummyObject = DummyObject; this.dummyObject.Name = "I am Changed"; } private void button2_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { MessageBox.Show(this.dummyObject.Name); } } whn i reaasign the object in Form 1 and cdisplay its value in form 2 it still displays "I am Changed" instead of "I am Rechanged". How to keep the data synchronized?

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  • String Length Evaluating Incorrectly

    - by Justin R.
    My coworker and I are debugging an issue in a WCF service he's working on where a string's length isn't being evaluated correctly. He is running this method to unit test a method in his WCF service: // Unit test method public void RemoveAppGroupTest() { string addGroup = "TestGroup"; string status = string.Empty; string message = string.Empty; appActiveDirectoryServicesClient.RemoveAppGroup("AOD", addGroup, ref status, ref message); } // Inside the WCF service [OperationBehavior(Impersonation = ImpersonationOption.Required)] public void RemoveAppGroup(string AppName, string GroupName, ref string Status, ref string Message) { string accessOnDemandDomain = "MyDomain"; RemoveAppGroupFromDomain(AppName, accessOnDemandDomain, GroupName, ref Status, ref Message); } public AppActiveDirectoryDomain(string AppName, string DomainName) { if (string.IsNullOrEmpty(AppName)) { throw new ArgumentNullException("AppName", "You must specify an application name"); } } We tried to step into the .NET source code to see what value string.IsNullOrEmpty was receiving, but the IDE printed this message when we attempted to evaluate the variable: 'Cannot obtain value of local or argument 'value' as it is not available at this instruction pointer, possibly because it has been optimized away.' (None of the projects involved have optimizations enabled). So, we decided to try explicitly setting the value of the variable inside the method itself, immediately before the length check -- but that didn't help. // Lets try this again. public AppActiveDirectoryDomain(string AppName, string DomainName) { // Explicitly set the value for testing purposes. AppName = "AOD"; if (AppName == null) { throw new ArgumentNullException("AppName", "You must specify an application name"); } if (AppName.Length == 0) { // This exception gets thrown, even though it obviously isn't a zero length string. throw new ArgumentNullException("AppName", "You must specify an application name"); } } We're really pulling our hair out on this one. Has anyone else experienced behavior like this? Any tips on debugging it?

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  • Get Classic ASP variale from posted JSON

    - by Will
    I'm trying to post JSON via AJAX to a Classic ASP page, which retrieves the value, checks a database and returns JSON to the original page. I can post JSON via AJAX I can return JSON from ASP I can't retrieve the posted JSON into an ASP variable POST you use Request.Form, GET you use Request.Querystring......... what do I use for JSON? I have JSON libraries but they only show creating a string in the ASP script and then parsing that. I need to parse JSON from when being passed an external variable. Javascipt var thing = $(this).val(); $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: '/ajax/check_username.asp', data: "{'userName':'" + thing + "'}", contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", dataType: "json", cache: false, async: false, success: function() { alert('success'); }); ASP file (check_username.asp) Response.ContentType = "application/json" sEmail = request.form() -- THE PROBLEM Set oRS = Server.CreateObject("ADODB.Recordset") SQL = "SELECT SYSUserID FROM WCE_UK.dbo.t_SYS_User WHERE Username='"&sEmail&"'" oRS.Open SQL, oConn if not oRS.EOF then sStatus = (new JSON).toJSON("username", true, false) else sStatus = (new JSON).toJSON("username", false, false) end if response.write sStatus

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  • PHP Object References in Frameworks

    - by bigstylee
    Before I dive into the disscusion part a quick question; Is there a method to determine if a variable is a reference to another variable/object? For example $foo = 'Hello World'; $bar = &$foo; echo (is_reference($bar) ? 'Is reference' : 'Is orginal'; I have been using PHP5 for a few years now (personal use only) and I would say I am moderately reversed on the topic of Object Orientated implementation. However the concept of Model View Controller Framework is fairly new to me. I have looked a number of tutorials and looked at some of the open source frameworks (mainly CodeIgnitor) to get a better understanding how everything fits together. I am starting to appreciate the real benefits of using this type of structure. I am used to implementing object referencing in the following technique. class Foo{ public $var = 'Hello World!'; } class Bar{ public function __construct(){ global $Foo; echo $Foo->var; } } $Foo = new Foo; $Bar = new Bar; I was surprised to see that CodeIgnitor and Yii pass referencs of objects and can be accessed via the following method: $this->load->view('argument') The immediate advantage I can see is a lot less code and more user friendly. But I do wonder if it is more efficient as these frameworks are presumably optimised? Or simply to make the code more user friendly? This was an interesting article Do not use PHP references.

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  • The new operator in C# isn't overriding base class member

    - by Dominic Zukiewicz
    I am confused as to why the new operator isn't working as I expected it to. Note: All classes below are defined in the same namespace, and in the same file. This class allows you to prefix any content written to the console with some provided text. public class ConsoleWriter { private string prefix; public ConsoleWriter(string prefix) { this.prefix = prefix; } public void Write(string text) { Console.WriteLine(String.Concat(prefix,text)); } } Here is a base class: public class BaseClass { protected static ConsoleWriter consoleWriter = new ConsoleWriter(""); public static void Write(string text) { consoleWriter.Write(text); } } Here is an implemented class: public class NewClass : BaseClass { protected new static ConsoleWriter consoleWriter = new ConsoleWriter("> "); } Now here's the code to execute this: class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { BaseClass.Write("Hello World!"); NewClass.Write("Hello World!"); Console.Read(); } } So I would expect the output to be Hello World! > Hello World! But the output is Hello World Hello World I do not understand why this is happening. Here is my thought process as to what is happening: The CLR calls the BaseClass.Write() method The CLR initialises the BaseClass.consoleWriter member. The method is called and executed with the BaseClass.consoleWriter variable Then The CLR calls the NewClass.Write() The CLR initialises the NewClass.consoleWriter object. The CLR sees that the implementation lies in BaseClass, but the method is inherited through The CLR executes the method locally (in NewClass) using the NewClass.consoleWriter variable I thought this is how the inheritance structure works? Please can someone help me understand why this is not working?

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  • Qt4Dotnet on Mac OS X

    - by Tony
    Hello everyone. I'm using Qt4Dotnet project in order to port application originally written in C# on Linux and Mac. Port to Linux hasn't taken much efforts and works fine. But Mac (10.4 Tiger) is a bit more stubborn. The problem is: when I try to start my application it throws an exception. Exception states that com.trolltech.qt.QtJambi_LibraryInitializer is unable to find all necessary ibraries. QtJambi library initializer uses java.library.path VM environment variable. This variable includes current working directory. I put all necessary libraries in a working directory. When I try to run the application from MonoDevelop IDE, initializer is able to load one library, but the other libraries are 'missing': An exception was thrown by the type initializer for com.trolltech.qt.QtJambi_LibraryInitializer --- java.lang.RuntimeException: Loading library failed, progress so far: No 'qtjambi-deployment.xml' found in classpath, loading libraries via 'java.library.path' Loading library: 'libQtCore.4.dylib'... - using 'java.library.path' - ok, path was: /Users/chin/test/bin/Debug/libQtCore.4.dylib Loading library: 'libqtjambi.jnilib'... - using 'java.library.path' Both libQtCore.4.dylib and libqtjambi.jnilib are in the same directory. When I try to run it from the command prompt, the initializer is unable to load even libQtCore.4.dylib. I'm using Qt4Dotnet v4.5.0 (currently the latest) with QtJambi v4.5.2 libraries. This might be the source of the problem, but I'm neither able to compile Qt4Dotnet v4.5.2 by myself nor to find QtJambi v4.5.0 libraries. Project's page states that some sort of patch should be applied to QtJambi's source code in order to be compatible with Mono framework, but this patch hasn't been released yet. Without this patch application crashes in a strange manner (other than library seek fault). I must note that original QtJambi loads all necessary libraries perfectly, so it might be issues of IKVM compiler used to translate QtJambi into .Net library. Any suggestions how can I overcome this problem?

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  • Advanced Localization with Omission of Arguments in Xcode

    - by coneybeare
    I have this formatted string that I am having a translator work on. ENGLISH "Check out the %1$@ %2$@ in %3$@: %4$@" = "Check out the %1$@ %2$@ in %3$@: %4$@" GERMAN TRANSLATION "Check out the %1$@ %2$@ in %3$@: %4$@" = "Hör Dir mal %2$@ in %3$@ an: %4$@"; These are passed to a [NSString stringWithFormat:] call: ////////////////////////////////////// // Share Over Twitter NSString *frmt = NSLocalizedString(@"Check out the %1$@ %2$@ in %3$@: %4$@", @"The default tweet for sharing sounds. Use %1$@ for where the sound type (Sound, mix, playlist) will be, %2$@ for where the audio name will be, %3$@ for the app name, and %3$@ for where the sound link will be."); NSString *urlString = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"sounds/%@", SoundSoundID(audio)]; NSString *url = ([audio audioType] == UAAudioTypeSound ? UrlFor(urlString) : APP_SHORTLINK); NSString *msg = [NSString stringWithFormat: frmt, [[Audio titleForAudioType:[audio audioType]] lowercaseString], [NSString stringWithFormat:@"\"%@\"", AudioName(audio)], APP_NAME, url]; NSString *applink = [NSString stringWithFormat:@" %@", APP_SHORTLINK]; if (msg.length <= (140 - applink.length)) { msg = [msg stringByAppendingString:applink]; } returnString = msg; With the desired and actual outcome of: ENGLISH desired: "Check out the sound "This Sound Name" in My App Name: link_to_sound link_to_app" actual: "Check out the sound "This Sound Name" in My App Name: link_to_sound link_to_app" GERMAN desired: "Hör Dir mal "This Sound Name" in My App Name an: link_to_sound link_to_app" actual: "Hör Dir mal sound in "This Sound Name" an: My App Name link_to_app" THE PROBLEM The problem is that I was under the assumption that by using numbered variable in the NSLocalizedString, I could do things like this, where the %1$@ variable is completely omitted. If you notice, the German translation of the format string does not use the first argument (%1$@) at all but it ("sound") still appears in the output string. What am I doing wrong?

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  • PHP: passing a function with parameters as parameter

    - by Oden
    Hey, I'm not sure that silly question, but I ask: So, if there is an anonymous function I can give it as another anonymous functions parameter, if it has been already stored a variable. But, whats in that case, if I have stored only one function in a variable, and add the second directly as a parameter into it? Can I add parameters to the non-stored function? Fist example (thats what i understand :) ): $func = function($str){ return $str; }; $func2 = function($str){ return $str; }; $var = $func($func2('asd')); var_dump($var); // prints out string(3) "asd" That makes sense for me, but what is with the following one? $func = function($str){ return $str; }; $var = $func(function($str = "asd"){ return $str; }); var_dump($var); /** This prints out: object(Closure)#1 (1) { ["parameter"]=> array(1) { ["$str"]=> string(10) "" } } But why? */ And at the end, can someone recommend me a book or an article, from what i can learn this lambda coding feature of php? Thank you in advance for your answers :)

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  • Returning object from function

    - by brainydexter
    I am really confused now on how and which method to use to return object from a function. I want some feedback on the solutions for the given requirements. Scenario A: The returned object is to be stored in a variable which need not be modified during its lifetime. Thus, const Foo SomeClass::GetFoo() { return Foo(); } invoked as: someMethod() { const Foo& l_Foo = someClassPInstance->GetFoo(); //... } Scneraio B: The returned object is to be stored in a variable which will be modified during its lifetime. Thus, void SomeClass::GetFoo(Foo& a_Foo_ref) { a_Foo_ref = Foo(); } invoked as: someMethod() { Foo l_Foo; someClassPInstance-GetFoo(l_Foo); //... } I have one question here: Lets say that Foo cannot have a default constructor. Then how would you deal with that in this situation, since we cant write this anymore: Foo l_Foo Scenario C: Foo SomeClass::GetFoo() { return Foo(); } invoked as: someMethod() { Foo l_Foo = someClassPInstance->GetFoo(); //... } I think this is not the recommended approach since it would incur constructing extra temporaries. What do you think ? Also, do you recommend a better way to handle this instead ?

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  • more problems with the LAG function is SAS

    - by SAS_learner
    The following bit of SAS code is supposed to read from a dataset which contains a numeric variable called 'Radvalue'. Radvalue is the temperature of a radiator, and if a radiator is switched off but then its temperature increases by 2 or more it's a sign that it has come on, and if it is on but its temperature decreases by 2 or more it's a sign that it's gone off. Radstate is a new variable in the dataset which indicates for every observation whether the radiator is on or off, and it's this I'm trying to fill in automatically for the whole dataset. So I'm trying to use the LAG function, trying to initialise the first row, which doesn't have a dif_radvalue, and then trying to apply the algorithm I just described to row 2 onwards. Any idea why the columns Radstate and l_radstate come out completely blank? Thanks everso much!! Let me know if I haven't explained the problem clearly. Data work.heating_algorithm_b; Input ID Radvalue; Datalines; 1 15.38 2 15.38 3 20.79 4 33.47 5 37.03 ; DATA temp.heating_algorithm_c; SET temp.heating_algorithm_b; DIF_Radvalue = Radvalue - lag(Radvalue); l_Radstate = lag(Radstate); if missing(dif_radvalue) then do; dif_radvalue = 0; radstate = "off"; end; else if l_Radstate = "off" & DIF_Radvalue > 2 then Radstate = "on"; else if l_Radstate = "on" & DIF_Radvalue < -2 then Radstate = "off"; else Radstate = l_Radstate; run;

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  • What is the purpose of the s==NULL case for mbrtowc?

    - by R..
    mbrtowc is specified to handle a NULL pointer for the s (multibyte character pointer) argument as follows: If s is a null pointer, the mbrtowc() function shall be equivalent to the call: mbrtowc(NULL, "", 1, ps) In this case, the values of the arguments pwc and n are ignored. As far as I can tell, this usage is largely useless. If ps is not storing any partially-converted character, the call will simply return 0 with no side effects. If ps is storing a partially-converted character, then since '\0' is not valid as the next byte in a multibyte sequence ('\0' can only be a string terminator), the call will return (size_t)-1 with errno==EILSEQ. and leave ps in an undefined state. The intended usage seems to have been to reset the state variable, particularly when NULL is passed for ps and the internal state has been used, analogous to mbtowc's behavior with stateful encodings, but this is not specified anywhere as far as I can tell, and it conflicts with the semantics for mbrtowc's storage of partially-converted characters (if mbrtowc were to reset state when encountering a 0 byte after a potentially-valid initial subsequence, it would be unable to detect this dangerous invalid sequence). If mbrtowc were specified to reset the state variable only when s is NULL, but not when it points to a 0 byte, a desirable state-reset behavior would be possible, but such behavior would violate the standard as written. Is this a defect in the standard? As far as I can tell, there is absolutely no way to reset the internal state (used when ps is NULL) once an illegal sequence has been encountered, and thus no correct program can use mbrtowc with ps==NULL.

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  • Why Does Private Access Remain Non-Private in .NET Within a Class?

    - by AMissico
    While cleaning some code today written by someone else, I changed the access modifier from Public to Private on a class variable/member/field. I expected a long list of compiler errors that I use to "refactor/rework/review" the code that used this variable. Imagine my surprise when I didn't get any errors. After reviewing, it turns out that another instance of the Class can access the private members of another instance declared within the Class. Totally unexcepted. Is this normal? I been coding in .NET since the beginning and never ran into this issue, nor read about it. I may have stumbled onto it before, but only "vaguely noticed" and move on. Can anyone explain this behavoir to me? Am I doing something wrong? I found this behavior in both C# and VB.NET. The code seems to take advantage of the ability to access private variables. Sincerely, Totally Confused Class Foo Private _int As Integer Private _foo As Foo Private _jack As Jack Private _fred As Fred Public Sub SetPrivate() _foo = New Foo _foo._int = 3 'TOTALLY UNEXPECTED _jack = New Jack '_jack._int = 3 'expected compile error because Foo doesn't know Jack _fred = New Fred '_fred._int = 3 'expected compile error because Fred hides from Foo End Sub Private Class Fred Private _int As Integer End Class End Class Class Jack Private _int As Integer End Class

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  • Placing PHP array values into a javascript array?

    - by Michael Harringon
    Is these a way i can loop through a PHP array and have the data outputted into a JavaScript array? For example, the JS script below will not work var mon_Loop = <?php echo $rowCount_Mon ?>; var mon_Events = new Array(); for(i = 0; i < mon_Loop; i++) { mon_Events[i] = <?php $divMon[i] ?> } I Know its because the "i" is not a php variable so therefore invalid inside the php section, but its just an way to show what i would like to achieve. The $rowCount variable count the number of rows and is then used to for the loop. Lets say, for example that I want to place the contents of the PHP array "$divMon[0]" into the javascript array mon_Events[0]. I know that i can do it manually, like below mon_Events[0] = <?php echo $divMon[0] ?> But i have lots of these and therefore need the loop, Is there some JS or PHP that could do this? Cheers.

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